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  • Question 1 - A 36-year-old man with diabetes is referred with abnormal liver biochemistry. Which of...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man with diabetes is referred with abnormal liver biochemistry. Which of the following is in keeping with a diagnosis of haemochromatosis?

      Your Answer: Ferritin 324 μgram/l (15-300)

      Correct Answer: Transferrin saturation 78% (20-50)

      Explanation:

      A high transferrin saturation is seen in hemochromatosis, as well as a high iron level (>30), a high ferritin level, and a LOW TIBC (<20). Think of it like the opposite findings of iron deficiency anaemia which is a low iron, low ferritin, high TIBC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 34-year-old woman is admitted to the oncologist clinic for further investigations. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old woman is admitted to the oncologist clinic for further investigations. She has experienced fever, sometimes glandular and night sweats. Clinical examination reveals lymphadenopathy and a biopsy is performed. The biopsy reveals the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, confirming what was suspected to be a Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which cell surface marker is associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: CD21

      Correct Answer: CD15

      Explanation:

      The CD15 antigen, also known as Lewis (hapten)X, serves as an immuno-phenotypic marker for Reed-Sternberg cells and its expression has diagnostic, but also prognostic significance in Hodgkin Lymphoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      31.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old male is admitted following a collapse while competiung in an iron...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male is admitted following a collapse while competiung in an iron man triathlon. His blood results are as follows: Na+: 122 mmol/L, K+: 3.4 mmol/L, Urea: 3.2 mmol/L, Creatinine: 69 umol/l. During assessment he becomes increasingly obtunded and goes on to have multiple tonic clonic seizures. What is the most appropriate treatment from the list below to improve his neurological status?

      Your Answer: Hypertonic saline

      Explanation:

      Over consumption of fluids, prolonged race duration and inadequate training all can predispose to acute hyponatraemia.
      Mild symptoms include a decreased ability to think, headaches, nausea, and an increased risk of falls. Severe symptoms include confusion, seizures, and coma. Normal serum sodium levels are 135 – 145 mEq/liter (135 – 145 mmol/L). Hyponatremia is generally defined as a serum sodium level of less than 135 mEq/L and is considered severe when the level is below 120 mEq/L.
      The correct treatment to give is hypertonic saline. Decompressive craniotomy would help alleviate raised intracranial pressure due to cerebral oedema however is not an appropriate first line treatment. Demeclocycline is used for SIADH and mannitol is more likely to be used in the context of traumatic brain injury.
      Hyponatremia is corrected slowly, to lessen the risk of the development of central pontine myelinolysis (CPM), a severe neurological disease involving a breakdown of the myelin sheaths covering parts of nerve cells. During treatment of hyponatremia, the serum sodium (salt level in the blood) should not rise by more than 8 mmol/L over 24 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 67 year old man reports weight loss. Labs show a raised alkaline...

    Incorrect

    • A 67 year old man reports weight loss. Labs show a raised alkaline phosphatase at 290 U/L (normal range 35-120). Plain radiographs reveal sclerotic lesions of the bone. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings?

      Your Answer: Osteomalacia

      Correct Answer: Prostate cancer

      Explanation:

      Osteoblastic (or sclerotic) bony metastases, characterized by deposition of new bone, present in prostate cancer, carcinoid, small cell lung cancer, Hodgkin lymphoma or medulloblastoma. The other cancers listed in the options are osteolytic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      36.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 59-year-old surgeon presents with a progressive paraesthesia and numbness in both feet,...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old surgeon presents with a progressive paraesthesia and numbness in both feet, which have deteriorated over the last six months. He has a 10 year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and had cervical spondylosis, for which he underwent surgery eight years ago. He also confessed to drinking approximately 40 units of alcohol weekly. On examination he had mild bilateral weakness of foot dorsiflexion and both ankle reflexes were absent. There was absent sensation to light touch to mid-shin level with loss of joint position sensation in the toes and absent vibration sensation below the hips. He had a marked sensory ataxia and pseudoathetosis of the upper limbs. He had no evidence of a retinopathy and urinalysis was normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B 12 deficiency

      Explanation:

      Diabetic peripheral neuropathy usually goes in parallel with retinopathy and nephropathy. It is also slowly progressive and affects mainly the spinothalamic pathway.
      Alcohol induced peripheral neuropathy is also slowly progressive and affects mainly the spinothalamic pathway.
      Vitamin B 12 deficiency usually causes a more rapidly progressive neuropathy with dorsal column involvement (joint position and vibration involvement with sensory ataxia and pseudoathetosis of upper limbs).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old woman with established metastatic breast cancer is admitted to the A&E...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman with established metastatic breast cancer is admitted to the A&E with hypercalcemia. She has a clear medical history, doesn't smoke and works in an office based job. At the A&E she's given intravenous fluids and bisphosphonates. She's finally discharged after normalization of her calcium levels. However, before leaving the hospital she's sent to the endocrinology department for consultation regarding outpatient care and serum calcium monitoring. What is the most appropriate and useful advice for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase fluid intake

      Explanation:

      NICE guidelines on hypercalcemia recommend that maintaining good hydration equals drinking 3-4 L of fluid/day, provided there are no contraindications. A low calcium diet is not necessary because intestinal absorption of calcium is reduced. The patient should avoid any other drugs or vitamins that could worsen the hypercalcemia. Mobilization is encouraged and any symptoms of hypercalcemia should be reported.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 7 - A 76-year-old lady with known carcinoma of the caecum, was admitted to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old lady with known carcinoma of the caecum, was admitted to the hospital for right hemicolectomy. She had a history of osteoarthritis for which she was taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents (NSAIDs), intermittently. Two years ago, she had a fibroma removed from her right breast as well. The patient was a non-smoker and drank approximately 8 units of alcohol per week. Investigations carried out pre-operatively showed: Hb: 10.8 g/dL, MCV: 75 fL , WCC: 8.4 x10^9/L, Plts: 402 x10^9/L. The surgery remained uncomplicated, and she was given two units of packed red blood cells postoperatively. Three days later, she has now become jaundiced and complains of fatigue. Her blood count now shows: Hb: 7.2 g/dL, MCV: 110 fL, WCC: 9.5 x10^9/L, Plts: 395 x10^9/L. Which of the following is the best investigation to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Direct Coombs test

      Explanation:

      The direct Coombs test will specifically confirm immune-mediated haemolysis occurring post-transfusion in the aforementioned case.

      There are two types of Coombs test used in immunohematology and immunology:

      1. Direct Coombs test—It confirms autoimmune haemolytic anaemia by detecting antibodies or complement proteins attached to the surface of red blood cells.

      2. Indirect Coombs test—It is used in prenatal testing of pregnant women and in testing prior to a blood transfusion. It detects antibodies floating freely in the blood, against foreign red blood cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0
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  • Question 8 - A collapsed patient comes into A&E. He has a steroid user card and...

    Incorrect

    • A collapsed patient comes into A&E. He has a steroid user card and empty boxes of prednisolone. He has obvious rheumatoid features on examination and some unilateral consolidation on his chest X-ray. He is given intravenous fluids and broad-spectrum antibiotics. Which one of the following would be the most useful addition to the current management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV hydrocortisone 100 mg

      Explanation:

      The empty boxes indicate that the patient has run out of his medication.
      Chronic administration of high doses of glucocorticoids (GCs) (e.g., prednisone or prednisolone) and also other hormones such as oestrogens, progestins, androgens and growth hormone induce varying degrees of tolerance, resulting in a progressively decreased response to the effect of the drug, followed by dependence and rarely addiction.
      The glucocorticoid withdrawal syndrome (GWS) has been considered a withdrawal reaction due to established physical dependence on supraphysiological GC levels.
      The severity of GWS depends on the genetics and developmental history of the patient, on his environment, and on the phase and degree of dependence the patient has reached. Its management should include a temporary increase in the dose of GCs followed by gradual, slow tapering to a maintenance dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 9 - Which statement is true regarding anorexia nervosa? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is true regarding anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is the most common cause of admissions to child and adolescent psychiatric wards

      Explanation:

      Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by an abnormally low body weight, an intense fear of gaining weight and a distorted perception of weight. People with anorexia place a high value on controlling their weight and shape, using extreme efforts that tend to significantly interfere with their lives.

      The minimum level of severity is based, for adults, on current body mass index (BMI) (see below) or for
      children and adolescents, on BMI percentile. The ranges below are derived from World Health
      Organization categories for thinness in adults; for children and adolescents, corresponding BMI percentiles
      should be used. The level of severity may be increased to reflect clinical symptoms, the degree of
      functional disability, and the need for supervision.
      Mild: BMI > 17 kg/m2
      Moderate: BMI 16-16.99 kg/m2
      Severe: BMI 15-15.99 kg/m2
      Extreme: BMI < 15 kg/m2 Anorexia nervosa is more common in women than in men, with a female-to-male ratio of 10-20:1 in developed countries. The prognosis of anorexia nervosa is guarded. Morbidity rates range from 10-20%, with only 50% of patients making a complete recovery. Of the remaining 50%, 20% remain emaciated and 25% remain thin. The main change in the diagnosis of Anorexia Nervosa was to remove the criterion of amenorrhea (loss of menstrual cycle). Removing this criterion means that boys and men with Anorexia will finally be able to receive an appropriate diagnosis.
      Similarly, girls and women who continue to have their period despite other symptoms associated with Anorexia, such as weight loss and food restriction, will now be eligible for a diagnosis of Anorexia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 10 - A 54-year-old man experienced a gradual decrease in vision of one eye after...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man experienced a gradual decrease in vision of one eye after being diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Macula oedema is noted on his fundoscopy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diabetic retinopathy

      Explanation:

      Macular disease can affect central vision at any stage of diabetic retinopathy and may be seen in type 2 diabetic patients. Diabetic retinopathy affects up to 80 percent of those who have had diabetes for 20 years or more. Macular oedema occurs when damaged blood vessels leak fluid and lipids onto the macula, the part of the retina that lets us see detail. The fluid makes the macula swell, which blurs vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 60-year-old man with a history of recent thyrotoxicosis underwent major surgery a...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with a history of recent thyrotoxicosis underwent major surgery a week ago. He now presents with altered mental status, tachycardia, high-grade fever, vomiting and cardiac failure. A diagnosis of thyroid storm (crisis) is made. What is the most important next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transfer the patient to ITU

      Explanation:

      Thyroid storm, also referred to as thyrotoxic crisis, is an acute, life-threatening, hypermetabolic state induced by excessive release of thyroid hormones (THs) in individuals with thyrotoxicosis.
      Patients with thyroid storm should be treated in an ICU setting for close monitoring of vital signs and for access to invasive monitoring and inotropic support, if necessary.
      – Supportive measures
      If needed, immediately provide supplemental oxygen, ventilatory support, and intravenous fluids. Dextrose solutions are the preferred intravenous fluids to cope with continuously high metabolic demand.
      – Correct electrolyte abnormalities.
      – Treat cardiac arrhythmia, if necessary.
      – Aggressively control hyperthermia by applying ice packs and cooling blankets and by administering acetaminophen (15 mg/kg orally or rectally every 4 hours).
      – Antiadrenergic drugs.
      – Thionamides: Correct the hyperthyroid state. Administer antithyroid medications to block further synthesis of thyroid hormones (THs).
      High-dose propylthiouracil (PTU) or methimazole may be used for treatment of thyroid storm.
      – Administer glucocorticoids to decrease peripheral conversion of T4 to T3. This may also be useful in preventing relative adrenal insufficiency due to hyperthyroidism and improving vasomotor symptoms.
      – Bile acid sequestrants prevent reabsorption of free THs in the gut (released from conjugated TH metabolites secreted into bile through the enterohepatic circulation).
      – Treat the underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 12 - A 32 year-old man presents with his first generalized tonic-clonic seizure (GTCS). He...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year-old man presents with his first generalized tonic-clonic seizure (GTCS). He has been complaining of headaches for the past 2 weeks, although he has been able to continue working at his job. Upon examination, he has mild left hemiparesis and bilateral extensor plantar responses. General examination is otherwise unremarkable. An urgent CT scan of the brain shows a 5cm multicentric mass lesion in the right frontal lobe with surrounding vasogenic oedema and some hemisphere shift. Which of the following is the most likely underlying pathology?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glioblastoma

      Explanation:

      Glioblastoma multiforme, also considered as grade IV astrocytoma, is the most malignant form of the tumour and accounts for about 20% of all cerebral tumours. These often remain clinically silent until they have reached a large enough size. In adults, glioblastoma multiforme usually occurs in the cerebral hemispheres, especially the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain. About half occupy more than one hemisphere at presentation, and some are multicentric. Biopsy shows high cellularity with mitoses, pleomorphism, and vascular hyperplasia. Prognosis is extremely poor, with only 20% surviving beyond 1 year and 10% beyond 2 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 13 - A 26-year-old man with type-1 diabetes presents for review. His HbA1c is 6.8%...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man with type-1 diabetes presents for review. His HbA1c is 6.8% yet he is concerned that his morning blood sugar levels are occasionally as high as 24 mmol/l. He is currently managed on a bd mixed insulin regime. He was sent for continuous glucose monitoring and his glucose profile reveals dangerous dipping in blood glucose levels during the early hours of the morning. Which of the following changes to his insulin regime is most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Move him to a basal bolus regime

      Explanation:

      The patients high morning blood sugar levels are suggestive to Somogyi Phenomenon which suggests that hypoglycaemia during the late evening induced by insulin could cause a counter regulatory hormone response that produces hyperglycaemia in the early morning.
      Substitution of regular insulin with an immediate-acting insulin analogue, such as Humulin lispro, may be of some help.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
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  • Question 14 - A keratitis with dendritic ulceration of the cornea is diagnosed in a 32-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • A keratitis with dendritic ulceration of the cornea is diagnosed in a 32-year-old patient. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herpes simplex virus

      Explanation:

      The dendritic ulceration seen on fluorescein staining of the eye is pathopneumonic for keratitis caused by HSV (herpes simplex virus). Presentation is that of blepharoconjunctivitis. Treatment is required, the treatment is typically topical acyclovir. Topical steroids can make the infection worse. The other answer choices would not have this dendritic pattern seen on fluorescein staining.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
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  • Question 15 - What are the most common types of transformation seen in patients with polycythaemia...

    Incorrect

    • What are the most common types of transformation seen in patients with polycythaemia vera?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myelofibrosis + acute myeloid leukaemia

      Explanation:

      5–15% of the cases of polycythaemia vera progress to myelofibrosis or acute myeloid leukaemia (AML).

      Polycythaemia vera (PV), also known as polycythaemia rubra vera, is a myeloproliferative disorder caused by clonal proliferation of marrow stem cells leading to an increase in red cell volume, often accompanied by overproduction of neutrophils and platelets. It has peak incidence in the sixth decade of life, with typical features including hyperviscosity, pruritus, splenomegaly, haemorrhage (secondary to abnormal platelet function), and plethoric appearance.

      Some management options of PV include lose-dose aspirin, venesection (first-line treatment), hydroxyurea (slightly increased risk of secondary leukaemia), and radioactive phosphorus (P-32) therapy.

      In PV, thrombotic events are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality. 5–15% of the cases progress to myelofibrosis or AML. The risk of having AML is increased with chemotherapy treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 16 - A gentleman arrives at the renal clinic for review. He has longstanding chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A gentleman arrives at the renal clinic for review. He has longstanding chronic renal failure and is unfortunately suffering from metabolic bone disease. His GP has asked for an explanation of the causes and features of metabolic bone disease. Which of the following best describes the biochemical changes involved?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phosphate excretion is decreased, parathyroid hormone levels are increased and 1,25-OH vitamin D levels are decreased

      Explanation:

      The patient’s chronic renal failure causes decreased renal hydroxylation of vitamin D which leads to decreased calcium absorption in the gut. Simultaneously, there is also decreased renal excretion of phosphate, and this combination of factors results in increased PTH levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 17 - A 32 year old primigravida, with a history of pulmonary hypertension, presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old primigravida, with a history of pulmonary hypertension, presents to the clinic at 36 weeks gestation with worsening shortness of breath. Which of the following is the most accurate statements regarding her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Risk of maternal mortality in patients with pulmonary hypertension is 30%

      Explanation:

      Historically, high rates of maternal and fetal death have been reported for pregnant women with pulmonary hypertension (30–56% and 11–28%, respectively). The causes of poor maternal outcomes are varied and include risk of death from right heart failure and stroke from intracardiac shunting. Furthermore, there is a high peri-/post-partum risk due to haemodynamic stress, bleeding complications and the use of general anaesthesia, which can all lead to right heart failure.
      The most common risk to the foetus is death, with premature birth and growth retardation being reported in successfully delivered children.
      CXR is not contraindicated in pregnancy. D-dimers are not used as a diagnostic aid as they are almost always elevated in pregnancy. Nifedipine, although contraindicated in pregnant women may be used judiciously if the need arises.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
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  • Question 18 - A 28 year old woman is reviewed after giving birth one week ago....

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old woman is reviewed after giving birth one week ago. She complains about having difficulty sleeping and feeling anxious and tearful. She is also concerned about her mood because this is her first pregnancy and she is miserable. She is also not breast feeding. She has no history of any mental health disorder. What is the most appropriate approach to manage this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Explanation and reassurance

      Explanation:

      Most new moms experience postpartum baby blues after childbirth, which commonly include mood swings, crying spells, anxiety and difficulty sleeping. Baby blues typically begin within the first two to three days after delivery, and may last for up to two weeks.

      Signs and symptoms of baby blues may include:
      Mood swings
      Anxiety
      Sadness
      Irritability
      Feeling overwhelmed
      Crying
      Reduced concentration
      Appetite problems
      Trouble sleeping

      The exact cause of the “baby blues” is unknown at this time. It is thought to be related to the hormone changes that occur during pregnancy and again after a baby is born. These hormonal changes may produce chemical changes in the brain that result in depression.
      Although the experience of baby blues is unpleasant, the condition usually subsides within two weeks without treatment. All the mom needs is reassurance and help with the baby and household chores.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 19 - Which of the following listed below is not a recognised feature of anorexia...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following listed below is not a recognised feature of anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced growth hormone levels

      Explanation:

      Physiological abnormalities in anorexia include:
      – Hypokalaemia – from diuretic or laxative use
      – Low FSH, LH, oestrogens and testosterone – most consistent endocrine abnormality was low serum luteinizing and follicle stimulating hormone (LH and FSH) levels associated with depressed serum oestradiol levels.
      – Raised cortisol and growth hormone
      – Impaired glucose tolerance – lack of glucose precursors in the diet or low glycogen stores. Low blood glucose may also be due to impaired insulin clearance
      – Hypercholesterolemia
      – Hypercarotenaemia
      – Low T3

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 20 - A 41-year-old yoga instructor presents with a 2-month history of left-hand weakness. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old yoga instructor presents with a 2-month history of left-hand weakness. She has no significant past medical history. On examination, there is mild weakness of the left upper and lower limbs with a right sided facial weakness, which spares the forehead. Which of the following is the most likely location of the lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right pons

      Explanation:

      The pons is above the level of decussation of the corticospinal tracts so a pontine lesion would cause a contralateral limb weakness.
      The facial motor nucleus is located in the pons and supplies the ipsilateral facial muscles.
      A right cerebral lesion would give left upper and lower limb weakness. It would also cause a left sided facial weakness.
      A left cerebral lesion would give right upper and lower limb weakness with right facial weakness.
      Finally, a cervical spinal cord lesion would not cause a facial weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 21 - In chemotherapy, what is the rationale behind using combinations of chemotherapeutic agents rather...

    Incorrect

    • In chemotherapy, what is the rationale behind using combinations of chemotherapeutic agents rather than single agents?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Combination therapy decreases the chances of drug resistance developing

      Explanation:

      There are two main reasons for using combinations of chemotherapeutic agents rather than single agents. First, different drugs exert their effects through different mechanisms, therefore, carefully combining them will increase the number of tumour cells killed in each cycle as well as decrease their chances of developing drug resistance. Second, there may be an even greater effect with drugs that are synergistic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 22 - A 65 yr. old man with hypertension presented with sudden onset right arm...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 yr. old man with hypertension presented with sudden onset right arm weakness which resolved after 10 hrs. He has had 2 similar episodes during the last 6 weeks. On examination his blood pressure was 140/80 mmHg and pulse rate was 88 bpm. His ECG showed atrial fibrillation and the CT scan of his brain was normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Warfarin

      Explanation:

      CHA₂DS₂-VASc score is used for atrial fibrillation stroke risk calculation.
      Congestive heart failure – 1 point
      Hypertension – 1 point
      Age ≥75 years – 2 points
      Diabetes mellitus – 1 point
      Stroke/Transient Ischemic Attack/Thromboembolic event – 2 points
      Vascular disease (prior MI, PAD, or aortic plaque) – 1 point
      Age 65 to 74 years – 1 point
      Sex category (i.e., female sex) – 1 point
      Score of 2 or more is considered as high risk and anticoagulation is indicated. This patient’s score is 4, so he needs life-long warfarin to prevent a stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 23 - A 2-day-old girl is admitted by her mother because she gets cyanotic upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-day-old girl is admitted by her mother because she gets cyanotic upon feeding and she wouldn't stop crying. The doctors suspect a congenital heart disease. What is the most probable aetiology?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transposition of the great arteries

      Explanation:

      Transposition of the great arteries results in a significant hypoxemic status that is observed clinically by central cyanosis. The bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes is therefore the basic pattern of clinical presentation in transposition. Its onset and severity depend on anatomical and functional variants that influence the degree of mixing between the two circulations. Limited intercirculatory mixing, usually present if the ventricular septum is intact or the atrial septal defect is restrictive, is related to progressive and profound central cyanosis evident within the first hours of life. Tachypnoea, tachycardia, diaphoresis, poor weight gain, a gallop rhythm, and eventually hepatomegaly can be then detected later on during infancy. Heart murmurs associated with left outflow tract obstruction, due to a persistent arterial duct or a septal defect may be heard, but they are not a constant finding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 24 - A 72-year-old man presents with chronic back and right hip pain which has...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents with chronic back and right hip pain which has been increasingly affecting him over the past few months. He finds it very difficult to mobilise in the mornings. Clinical examination is unremarkable, apart from a limitation of right hip flexion due to pain. Investigations show: Haemoglobin 12.1 g/dl (13.5-17.7), White cell count 8.2 x 109/l (4-11), Platelets 200 x 109/l (150-400), C reactive protein 9 nmol/l (<10), ESR 15 mm/hr (<20), Sodium 140 mmol/l (135-146), Potassium 3.9 mmol/l (3.5-5), Creatinine 92 µmol/l (79-118), Alanine aminotransferase 12 U/l (5-40), Alkaline phosphatase 724 U/l (39-117), Calcium 2.55 mmol/l (2.20-2.67). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paget's disease

      Explanation:

      Paget disease is a localized disorder of bone remodelling that typically begins with excessive bone resorption followed by an increase in bone formation. This osteoclastic over activity followed by compensatory osteoblastic activity leads to a structurally disorganized mosaic of bone (woven bone), which is mechanically weaker, larger, less compact, more vascular, and more susceptible to fracture than normal adult lamellar bone.
      Approximately 70-90% of persons with Paget disease are asymptomatic; however, a minority of affected individuals experience various symptoms, including the following:
      – Bone pain (the most common symptom)
      – Secondary osteoarthritis (when Paget disease occurs around a joint)
      – Bony deformity (most commonly bowing of an extremity)
      – Excessive warmth (due to hypervascularity)
      – Neurologic complications (caused by the compression of neural tissues)
      Measurement of serum alkaline phosphatase—in some cases, bone-specific alkaline phosphatase (BSAP)—can be useful in the diagnosis of Paget disease. Elevated levels of urinary markers, including hydroxyproline, deoxypyridinoline, C-telopeptide, and N -telopeptide, may help identify patients with Paget disease.
      Serum calcium and phosphate levels should be within the reference range in patients with Paget disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 25 - A 50 yr. old male patient presented with acute chest pain and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 yr. old male patient presented with acute chest pain and a non ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) was diagnosed. He was threated with aspirin 300mg and 2 puffs of glyceral trin (GTN) spray. According to NICE guidelines, which of the following categories of patients should receive clopidogrel?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All patients

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines (2013) all people who have had an acute MI treatment should be offered with ACE inhibitor, dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus a second antiplatelet agent), a beta-blocker and a statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 26 - A 20-year-old man presents with an acute exacerbation of asthma associated with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man presents with an acute exacerbation of asthma associated with a chest infection. He is unable to complete a sentence and his peak flow rate was 34% of his normal level. He is treated with high-flow oxygen, nebulised bronchodilators, and oral corticosteroids for three days, but his condition has not improved.   Which of the following intravenous treatments would be the best option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Magnesium

      Explanation:

      A single dose of intravenous magnesium sulphate is safe and may improve lung function and reduce intubation rates in patients with acute severe asthma. Intravenous magnesium sulphate may also reduce hospital admissions in adults with acute asthma who have had little or no response to standard treatment.

      Consider giving a single dose of intravenous magnesium sulphate to patients with acute severe asthma (PEF <50% best or predicted) who have not had a good initial response to inhaled bronchodilator therapy. Magnesium sulphate (1.2–2 g IV infusion over 20 minutes) should only be used following consultation with senior medical staff.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 27 - A homeless woman presented with a cough and fever for the last 3...

    Incorrect

    • A homeless woman presented with a cough and fever for the last 3 months. She also complained of night sweats and weight loss. Her CXR showed lung opacities. What is the next appropriate step for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acid fast bacilli

      Explanation:

      History and CXR are suggestive of tuberculosis. Acid fast bacilli should be seen on microscopy to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 70-year-old complains of lower urinary tract symptoms. Which one of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old complains of lower urinary tract symptoms. Which one of the following statements regarding benign prostatic hyperplasia is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Goserelin is licensed for refractory cases

      Explanation:

      Goserelin (Zoladex) is usually prescribed to treat hormone-sensitive cancers of the breast and prostate not for BPH. All other statements are correct.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 29 - A 24 year old man presents to the clinic complaining of lower limb...

    Incorrect

    • A 24 year old man presents to the clinic complaining of lower limb joint pain and lower backache for the past 2 weeks. He remembers getting a mild gastrointestinal infection while in Spain 6 weeks ago that settled spontaneously. There has been eye irritation that has now settled. Past surgical history includes an appendectomy 3 years back. Vital examination shows a temperature of 37.5 C. Lab results reveal a normal WBC and raised ESR. Which of the following is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid factor is likely to be negative

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. extraarticular dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum), oral ulcers. There usually is no rash and the diagnosis is unrelated to the presence of rheumatoid factor. This is a clinical diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 30 - A 32-year-old woman, with a history of infertility, presented with post-operative bleeding from...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman, with a history of infertility, presented with post-operative bleeding from her abdominal wound. Her full blood count (FBC) and blood film showed hyperleukocytosis and the presence of promyelocytes, along with the following: Hb: 9.2g/dL, Plts: 932 x 10^9/L, INR: 1.4 (Coagulation profile). What should be the next step of management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give fresh frozen plasma

      Explanation:

      The patient has acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APML) with associated disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Although
      the platelet count is high, platelet function is ineffective.

      Patients may present, as in this case, with severe bleeding, and the most appropriate emergency treatment would be administration of fresh frozen plasma (FFP).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (1/2) 50%
Rheumatology (0/1) 0%
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