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Question 1
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A 48-year-old female has an IUS. This was fitted 3 years previously. She has not had a period for 2 years. She asks her GP if the IUS can be removed as for the past 4 months she is getting monthly headaches and acne, which she attributes to the IUS. She is in a long term sexual relationship.
How should the GP counsel her regarding this?Your Answer: She should have FSH levels checked at least 4 weeks apart to confirm a diagnosis of menopause. If both levels ≥30IU/L then contraception can be stopped after 24 months
Explanation:IUS and Menopause: Understanding the Connection
Her symptoms are unlikely to be caused by the IUS and may be related to ovulation, which is common in up to 75% of patients with an IUS. This doesn’t affect the effectiveness of the contraceptive. It’s important to note that amenorrhea is not a reliable indicator of menopause in patients on oestrogen and/or progesterone-containing contraception. Therefore, ongoing contraception is necessary.
For patients aged 45 years or older with an IUS fitted, the device can be maintained until aged 55 years if they are amenorrheic. At this point, menopause can be assumed to have occurred. If a patient wishes to confirm menopause, FSH levels can be checked. If both levels are >30IU/L 6 weeks apart, contraception can be stopped after 12 months.
Understanding the connection between IUS and menopause is crucial for patients and healthcare providers. By following the guidelines and recommendations, patients can make informed decisions about their contraceptive options and overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 2
Correct
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A 32-year-old man has had a ‘blackout’, which occurred the previous morning. He recalls waking from sleep, standing up, feeling light-headed and nauseated, lying back on the bed and losing consciousness. He recovered on the floor. He did not bite his tongue, but his head was badly bruised. His wife was woken by him falling to the ground and mentions that he was pale and sweaty before giving a loud moan followed by ‘spasms’ of his arms and legs lasting about 20 seconds. He was rousable after a minute.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Vasovagal syncope
Explanation:Possible Causes of Collapse: A Differential Diagnosis
When a patient presents with a history of collapse, it is important to consider various possible causes. One potential cause is vasovagal syncope, which is characterized by a prodrome of nausea and light-headedness, often associated with postural change, and a rapid recovery. Jerking movements may occur but do not necessarily indicate epilepsy. Another possibility is cardiac arrhythmia, which may be associated with chest pain or palpitations and can occur during exercise or while lying down. Epileptic seizures are less likely to be triggered by postural change and may involve tongue biting or incontinence. Hypoglycaemia typically presents with trembling, sweating, palpitations, and paraesthesiae before progressing to confusion and coma. Finally, psychogenic non-epileptic seizures may have a gradual onset, fluctuating course, and violent thrashing movements with side-to-side head movement. It is important to consider these and other potential causes when evaluating a patient with a history of collapse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 3
Correct
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Which of the following skin conditions is less frequently observed in individuals with systemic lupus erythematosus?
Your Answer: Keratoderma blenorrhagica
Explanation:Reiter’s syndrome is characterized by the presence of waxy yellow papules on the palms and soles, a condition known as keratoderma blenorrhagica.
Skin Disorders Associated with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a chronic autoimmune disease that can affect various organs and tissues in the body, including the skin. Skin manifestations of SLE include a photosensitive butterfly rash, discoid lupus, alopecia, and livedo reticularis, which is a net-like rash. The butterfly rash is a red, flat or raised rash that appears on the cheeks and bridge of the nose, often sparing the nasolabial folds. Discoid lupus is a chronic, scarring skin condition that can cause red, raised patches or plaques on the face, scalp, and other areas of the body. Alopecia is hair loss that can occur on the scalp, eyebrows, and other areas of the body. Livedo reticularis is a mottled, purplish discoloration of the skin that can occur on the arms, legs, and trunk.
The skin manifestations of SLE can vary in severity and may come and go over time. They can also be a sign of more serious internal organ involvement. Treatment for skin manifestations of SLE may include topical or oral medications, such as corticosteroids, antimalarials, and immunosuppressants, as well as sun protection measures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 55-year-old man experiences chronic and severe pain due to a brachial plexus injury from a motorcycle accident. Despite taking paracetamol and ibuprofen, he has not found any relief. According to the latest NICE guidelines, what medication should be considered as the most suitable option?
Your Answer: Amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin or pregabalin
Explanation:Understanding Neuropathic Pain
Neuropathic pain is a type of pain that occurs due to damage or disruption of the nervous system. It is a complex condition that is often difficult to treat and doesn’t respond well to standard painkillers. Examples of neuropathic pain include diabetic neuropathy, post-herpetic neuralgia, trigeminal neuralgia, and prolapsed intervertebral disc.
In 2013, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidance on the management of neuropathic pain. The first-line treatment options include amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If the first-line drug treatment doesn’t work, patients may be switched to one of the other three drugs. Unlike standard painkillers, drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used as monotherapy, meaning that if they do not work, they should be switched rather than added to.
Tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain, while topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain, such as post-herpetic neuralgia. Pain management clinics may also be useful for patients with resistant problems. However, it is important to note that the guidance may vary for specific conditions. For example, carbamazepine is used first-line for trigeminal neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 5
Correct
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A 60-year-old man with liver cirrhosis of unknown origin is being evaluated in the clinic. What factor is most likely to indicate a poor prognosis?
Your Answer: Ascites
Explanation:Scoring Systems for Liver Cirrhosis
Liver cirrhosis is a serious condition that can lead to liver failure and death. To assess the severity of the disease, doctors use scoring systems such as the Child-Pugh classification and the Model for End-Stage Liver Disease (MELD). The Child-Pugh classification takes into account five factors: bilirubin levels, albumin levels, prothrombin time, encephalopathy, and ascites. Each factor is assigned a score of 1 to 3, depending on its severity, and the scores are added up to give a total score. The total score is then used to grade the severity of the disease as A, B, or C.
The MELD system uses a formula that takes into account a patient’s bilirubin, creatinine, and international normalized ratio (INR) to predict their survival. The formula calculates a score that ranges from 6 to 40, with higher scores indicating a higher risk of mortality. The MELD score is particularly useful for patients who are on a liver transplant waiting list, as it helps to prioritize patients based on their risk of mortality. Overall, both the Child-Pugh classification and the MELD system are important tools for assessing the severity of liver cirrhosis and determining the best course of treatment for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 5 year-old child has a minor nosebleed. She received a vaccination the previous day. Which immunisation is most likely responsible for her epistaxis?
Your Answer: Varicella
Correct Answer: influenza
Explanation:Children are now being offered annual influenza vaccination, with the current rollout in winter 2015 targeting those aged 2, 3, and 4, as well as children in years 1 and 2 of school. It is expected that all children will receive the vaccine annually in the future. Unlike the inactivated injectable vaccine given to adults, the vaccine for children is a live attenuated vaccine administered through nasal spray. Common side effects include nasal congestion and rhinorrhea, and in some cases, epistaxis. However, it should be noted that the vaccine contains porcine gelatin, which may not be suitable for certain religious groups.
influenza vaccination is recommended in the UK between September and early November, as the influenza season typically starts in the middle of November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B accounting for the majority of clinical disease. Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013, with the children’s vaccine given intranasally and annually after the first dose at 2-3 years. It is important to note that the type of vaccine given to children and the one given to the elderly and at-risk groups is different, which explains the different contraindications.
For adults and at-risk groups, current vaccines are trivalent and consist of two subtypes of influenza A and one subtype of influenza B. The Department of Health recommends annual influenza vaccination for all people older than 65 years and those older than 6 months with chronic respiratory, heart, kidney, liver, neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, or a body mass index >= 40 kg/m². Other at-risk individuals include health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person whose welfare may be at risk if the carer becomes ill.
The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine that cannot cause influenza, but a minority of patients may develop fever and malaise that lasts 1-2 days. It should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light, and contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. In adults, the vaccination is around 75% effective, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 7
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism currently treated with thyroxine replacement presents with gradually progressive weakness over the past few months. She now finds it difficult to get out of a chair and to climb the stairs at home. Medication includes thyroxine and ramipril.
On examination, her BP is 138/88 mmHg, heart rate is 75 bpm and regular. She has fatigable ptosis and proximal myopathy affecting both the upper and lower limbs. There is no muscle wasting or fasciculation.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Myasthenia gravis
Explanation:Understanding Myasthenia Gravis
Myasthenia gravis (MG) is a possible diagnosis for a patient with slowly progressive proximal myopathy and a history of autoimmunity. The main symptoms are proximal muscle weakness and ptosis, without muscle wasting or fasciculation. Sensation is unimpaired, and tendon reflexes are normal. Anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies are found in 85% of patients with generalised myasthenia. Treatment involves acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and oral corticosteroids.
Other conditions, such as Lambert-Eaton syndrome, myotonic dystrophy, motor neurone disease, and Guillain-Barré syndrome, have different presentations and are unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms. It is important to consider all possible diagnoses and conduct appropriate tests to ensure an accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaining of a painless, foul-smelling discharge from her left ear that has been going on for four months. She had seen another doctor a month ago who prescribed gentamicin/hydrocortisone ear drops, but they did not help alleviate her symptoms.
Upon examination, there is some wax buildup in the attic of her left ear, but otherwise, everything appears normal. Her cranial nerve examination is also unremarkable.
What would be the best course of action to take?Your Answer: Prescribe a course of oral amoxicillin
Correct Answer: Refer to ENT outpatient clinic
Explanation:If a patient has persistent unilateral ear discharge that doesn’t respond to antibiotics, it is important to consider the possibility of cholesteatoma, according to NICE guidelines. A cholesteatoma can be concealed behind wax in the attic, so a referral to an ENT clinic for microsuction and direct inspection is necessary. The urgency of the referral depends on the severity of the patient’s symptoms. In this case, a semi-urgent referral is appropriate, but if the patient experiences more advanced symptoms such as vertigo or facial nerve palsy, an urgent discussion with an on-call ENT specialist is necessary.
While olive oil may be helpful for wax buildup, it is not the main issue in this case, as the patient is experiencing discharge. Oral antibiotics are not recommended as there is no evidence of infection. An MRI of the IAMs may be necessary, but it is best to arrange this as part of an assessment by the ENT service. Ear syringing may be useful for wax buildup, but it is not advisable in this situation.
Understanding Cholesteatoma
Cholesteatoma is a benign growth of squamous epithelium that can cause damage to the skull base. It is most commonly found in individuals between the ages of 10 and 20 years old. Those born with a cleft palate are at a higher risk of developing cholesteatoma, with a 100-fold increase in risk.
The main symptoms of cholesteatoma include a persistent discharge with a foul odor and hearing loss. Other symptoms may occur depending on the extent of the growth, such as vertigo, facial nerve palsy, and cerebellopontine angle syndrome.
During otoscopy, a characteristic attic crust may be seen in the uppermost part of the eardrum.
Management of cholesteatoma involves referral to an ear, nose, and throat specialist for surgical removal. Early detection and treatment are important to prevent further damage to the skull base and surrounding structures.
In summary, cholesteatoma is a non-cancerous growth that can cause significant damage if left untreated. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention promptly if they occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man is undergoing treatment for prostate cancer with goserelin. What medication can be prescribed alongside goserelin to prevent a tumour flare during the initial period of treatment?
Your Answer: Medroxyprogesterone acetate
Correct Answer: Tamoxifen
Explanation:Management of Prostate Cancer with Goserelin
Goserelin is a medication used in the management of prostate cancer. As a luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) agonist, it works by lowering testosterone levels. However, in some men, it can cause a temporary worsening of symptoms known as a ‘tumour flare’ during the initial stages of treatment. To prevent this, bicalutamide, an anti-androgen, can be used concurrently with the LHRH agonist for 4-6 weeks.
In addition to managing tumour flare, medroxyprogesterone acetate and cyproterone acetate can be used to treat hot flashes associated with LHRH agonist use. Tamoxifen is another treatment option for gynaecomastia, a side effect of long-term bicalutamide treatment for prostate cancer. Finally, tamsulosin is a medication used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia. By understanding the various treatment options available, healthcare providers can better manage prostate cancer and its associated symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 10
Correct
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Which one of the following is not a key principle of the 2010 Mental Capacity Act?
Your Answer: A person's ability to make decisions must be reviewed on an annual basis
Explanation:The Mental Capacity Act was introduced in 2007 and applies to adults over the age of 16. It outlines who can make decisions on behalf of a patient who becomes incapacitated, such as after a stroke. Mental capacity includes the ability to make decisions about daily life, healthcare, and finances. The Act is based on five key principles, including assuming a person has capacity unless proven otherwise, taking all possible steps to help a person make decisions, and making decisions in the person’s best interests.
To assess whether a person lacks capacity, the Act provides a clear test that is decision-specific and time-specific. A person can only be considered unable to make a particular decision if they have an impairment or disturbance in the functioning of the mind or brain and are unable to understand, retain, use, or communicate information relevant to the decision. The Act also emphasizes that no individual can be labeled incapable based on their age, appearance, or any medical condition.
When assessing what is in someone’s best interests, the Act considers factors such as the likelihood of regaining capacity, the person’s wishes and beliefs, and the views of other relevant people. The Act also allows for the appointment of an attorney through a Lasting Power of Attorney (LPA) to act on behalf of a person who loses capacity. The LPA can cover property and financial affairs as well as health and welfare decisions, including life-sustaining treatment. Advance decisions can also be made by individuals with capacity to specify treatments they would not want if they lost capacity. These decisions must be written, signed, and witnessed if they refuse life-sustaining treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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