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Question 1
Correct
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A 79-year-old man comes to the clinic with bilateral angular stomatitis. He wears dentures that have become a bit loose and his diet is not varied.
In the process of advising and treating his angular stomatitis, which of the following is correct?Your Answer: May be due to chronic constipation
Explanation:Stomatitis: Causes and Associated Factors
Stomatitis is a condition that can be caused by ill-fitting dentures and slack facial muscles, which can lead to Candida overgrowth. It is not associated with reactive arthritis, but it may be seen in Behçet’s disease. While it is not directly linked to constipation, it can be associated with inflammatory bowel disease.
Iron deficiency is a possible factor in the development of stomatitis, as are deficiencies in riboflavin, niacin, pyridoxine, folic acid, and cyanocobalamin. Vitamin C deficiency can also cause stomatitis, as well as scurvy.
It is important to address the underlying causes of stomatitis in order to effectively treat the condition. Proper dental care and nutrition can help prevent stomatitis from developing or recurrent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 68-year-old man with chronic heart failure due to ischaemic heart disease complains of knee pain. An x-ray has revealed osteoarthritis. What medication should be avoided if feasible?
Your Answer: Oral ibuprofen
Explanation:Patients with heart failure should exercise caution when using NSAIDs as they may lead to fluid retention, making oral NSAIDs like ibuprofen unsuitable.
Medications to Avoid in Patients with Heart Failure
Patients with heart failure need to be cautious when taking certain medications as they may exacerbate their condition. Thiazolidinediones, such as pioglitazone, are contraindicated as they cause fluid retention. Verapamil should also be avoided due to its negative inotropic effect. NSAIDs and glucocorticoids should be used with caution as they can also cause fluid retention. However, low-dose aspirin is an exception as many patients with heart failure also have coexistent cardiovascular disease and the benefits of taking aspirin outweigh the risks. Class I antiarrhythmics, such as flecainide, should also be avoided as they have a negative inotropic and proarrhythmic effect. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these medications and their potential effects on patients with heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 3
Correct
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A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic for a follow-up of tests for hearing loss, which were arranged by another physician in the same practice. He works as a construction worker and attributes his hearing difficulties to years of exposure to loud machinery. He has no significant medical history.
Upon further questioning, he reports that his hearing loss and tinnitus only affect his left ear, while his right ear seems normal. The problem has been gradually worsening over the past six months. The hearing test confirms no hearing loss affecting the right ear.
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Contrast MRI brain
Explanation:Consider Acoustic Neuroma in Patients with Unilateral Hearing Loss and Tinnitus
Whilst acoustic neuroma is a rare condition, it should be considered in patients who present with unilateral hearing loss and tinnitus, especially if the other ear appears unaffected. A contrast MRI brain is the most appropriate next step to confirm or rule out the diagnosis.
In contrast to Ménière’s disease, which is a possible differential diagnosis but usually not associated with unilateral signs, symptoms of vertigo are not prominent in acoustic neuroma. Therefore, trials of vestibular suppressants such as betahistine are ineffective, and prochlorperazine is not recommended.
It is important to note that hearing loss in acoustic neuroma is progressive, and choosing a hearing aid option may delay intervention. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A new type of blood test is being studied that may accurately detect the presence of a certain disease in elderly patients. One hundred and fifty patients who have the disease confirmed via the gold standard, a specific medical test, are recruited, along with one hundred and fifty patients who do not have the disease. They are all subjected to the new blood test and the results are as follows:
Disease present on medical test Disease absent on medical test
Blood test positive 90 30
Blood test negative 60 120
What is the positive predictive value?Your Answer: 0.8
Correct Answer: 0.75
Explanation:The positive predictive value (PPV) is calculated by dividing the number of true positives by the total number of positive results. In this case, the total number of positive blood tests is 120, with 90 true positives. Therefore, the PPV is 0.75.
The sensitivity of the test is the proportion of patients with the condition who have a positive test result. In this scenario, out of the 150 people with the disease identified on CTPA, 90 have a positive blood result, resulting in a sensitivity of 0.6.
The negative predictive value (NPV) is the proportion of true negative results out of all negative results. In this case, there are 180 negative blood results, with 120 being truly negative as per the disease being absent on CTPA. Therefore, the NPV is 0.67.
The figure of 0.7 is not relevant to this scenario.Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 5
Correct
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A 56-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to his GP for a follow-up appointment after experiencing a recent exacerbation that required oral corticosteroids for remission. He reports feeling well with no abdominal symptoms, but has had four exacerbations in the past year that required treatment with oral corticosteroids. His current medications include paracetamol and mesalazine. On examination, his vital signs are within normal limits and his abdominal exam is unremarkable. His recent blood test results show no significant abnormalities. According to NICE guidelines, what is the recommended next step in managing his ulcerative colitis?
Your Answer: Oral thiopurines (azathioprine or mercaptopurine)
Explanation:Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Correct
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What is the only accurate statement regarding the management of osteoarthritis according to the 2014 NICE guidance?
Your Answer: Patients with mechanical knee locking symptoms should be referred for arthroscopic lavage and debridement
Explanation:NICE Guidance for Managing Osteoarthritis Pain
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends exercise for all patients with osteoarthritis. When analgesia is necessary, paracetamol and topical NSAIDs should be the first line of treatment, followed by oral NSAIDs or COX-2 inhibitors if needed. However, a proton pump inhibitor should be used alongside these medications to reduce the risk of gastrointestinal side effects.
NICE doesn’t recommend the use of acupuncture or glucosamine for managing osteoarthritis pain. Arthroscopic debridement, a surgical procedure to remove damaged tissue from the joint, is only indicated if the patient has a clear history of mechanical locking, rather than morning joint stiffness, giving way, or X-ray evidence of loose bodies.
Overall, NICE’s guidance emphasizes the importance of exercise and non-pharmacological interventions in managing osteoarthritis pain, while also providing recommendations for safe and effective use of analgesic medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 7
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman presents with bilateral inflamed tonsils, an inability to swallow both solids and liquids, and inflamed cervical lymph nodes.
Select the most appropriate management option.Your Answer: Referral to hospital for admission
Explanation:When to Admit a Patient with a Sore Throat: Indications and Recommendations
Admission to the hospital for a sore throat is necessary in certain cases. One such case is when the patient cannot swallow, making oral treatments ineffective. A Paul-Bunnell test may be considered, but it is not the first-line management. An ultrasound scan is only necessary for unexplained cervical lymphadenopathy.
According to NICE, hospital admission is recommended for sore throat cases that are immediately life-threatening, such as acute epiglottitis or Kawasaki disease. Other indications include dehydration or reluctance to take fluids, suppurative complications like quinsy, immunosuppression, and signs of being markedly systemically unwell.
It is important to be aware of these indications and recommendations to ensure proper management and treatment of sore throat cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 8
Correct
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You are asked to organise a tutorial on child protection for nursing students attached to the pediatric ward. When discussing patterns of behaviour which may point towards child abuse, which one of the following is least likely to be relevant?
Your Answer: Frequent attendances to see the GP
Explanation:If parents take their child to the A&E department instead of a GP on a regular basis, it could be an indication of child abuse. This is because they may assume that seeing a different doctor each time will decrease the likelihood of any suspicions being raised.
Recognizing Child Abuse: Signs and Symptoms
Child abuse is a serious issue that can have long-lasting effects on a child’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important to recognize the signs and symptoms of child abuse in order to protect vulnerable children. One way that abuse may come to light is through a child’s own disclosure. However, there are other factors that may indicate abuse, such as inconsistencies in a child’s story or repeated visits to emergency departments. Children who appear frightened or withdrawn may also be experiencing abuse, exhibiting a state of frozen watchfulness.
Physical signs of abuse can also be indicative of maltreatment. Bruising, fractures (especially in the metaphyseal area or posterior ribs), and burns or scalds are all possible signs of abuse. Additionally, a child who is failing to thrive or who has contracted a sexually transmitted infection may be experiencing abuse. It is important to be aware of these signs and to report any concerns to the appropriate authorities. By recognizing and addressing child abuse, we can help protect vulnerable children and promote their safety and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What is the most suitable first-line medication for a 75-year-old woman with depression in primary care, assuming there are no contraindications?
Your Answer: Sertraline
Correct Answer: Amitriptylline
Explanation:Pharmacological Options for Treating Depression in the Elderly
There are several pharmacological options available for treating depression in the elderly, including selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), tricyclics, monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), and serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs). However, all medications carry the risk of side effects, which may be more problematic in older patients who are more likely to be on additional medications and more susceptible to iatrogenic disease.
A 2006 Cochrane review found that SSRIs and tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) were of equivalent efficacy, but TCAs were associated with a greater withdrawal rate due to side effects. The general view based on available evidence is that SSRIs are better tolerated and generally safer, although there are instances when a TCA may be more appropriate. For example, its sedative properties can be useful when a sleep disorder is part of the clinical problem.
Of the options, sertraline is the only SSRI and is generally considered the most appropriate first-line treatment option in the absence of contraindications. Amitriptyline is a TCA and would generally not be used ahead of an SSRI. MAOIs should be prescribed by a specialist, and venlafaxine is considered a second-line option due to its greater risk of death from overdose. Haloperidol, an antipsychotic, should not be considered as an initial option in the treatment of depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman who is 16 weeks pregnant attends her antenatal clinic appointment. During the consultation, she is advised to visit her GP for vaccination but cannot recall which vaccines were recommended. She has received all her childhood and school immunizations but has not had any vaccinations since becoming pregnant.
What vaccines should be offered to this patient?Your Answer: Pertussis and hepatitis B vaccine
Correct Answer: Pertussis and influenza vaccine
Explanation:Pregnant women between 16-32 weeks should receive both influenza and pertussis vaccines. The pertussis vaccine is typically part of the diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus vaccination and is important for preventing severe illness and death in newborns. A hepatitis B booster is not necessary with either vaccine.
A vaccination programme for pregnant women was introduced in 2012 to combat an outbreak of whooping cough that resulted in the death of 14 newborn children. The vaccine is over 90% effective in preventing newborns from developing whooping cough. The programme was extended in 2014 due to uncertainty about future outbreaks. Pregnant women between 16-32 weeks are offered the vaccine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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