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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a painful rash on her shins. Upon examination, there are multiple tender nodules that appear purple in color. She has no significant medical history. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Insect bites
Correct Answer: Erythema nodosum
Explanation:Skin Conditions: Erythema Nodosum, Insect Bites, Discoid Eczema, Erysipelas, and Post-Traumatic Ecchymoses
Erythema nodosum is a painful skin condition characterized by tender, red nodules caused by inflammation of subcutaneous fat. It is more common in women aged 25-40 and can be associated with underlying conditions or occur in isolation.
Insect bites from non-venomous insects like mosquitoes, fleas, lice, and bed bugs can result in itchy papules or blisters grouped in the exposed body site. Bites often appear in clusters.
Discoid eczema is a type of eczema with unknown causes. It is characterized by round-to-oval, itchy, red, scaly plaques that may contain vesicles with serous exudate.
Erysipelas is a tender, red, indurated plaque with a well-defined border caused by group A beta-hemolytic streptococci.
Post-traumatic ecchymosis or bruises are large blood extravasations under the skin that may be caused by coagulation or vascular disorders. However, there is no history of trauma to support this diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic with sudden shortness of breath. An ambulance is called and a brief medical history is obtained. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill and had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy recently. The following are her vital signs:
- Blood pressure: 100/60 mmHg
- Respiratory rate: 28 breaths per minute
- Temperature: 36.8ºC
- Oxygen saturation: 92% on room air
While waiting for the ambulance, the patient is given oxygen through a face mask and an ECG is performed. Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the expected ECG finding?Your Answer: Sinus tachycardia
Explanation:Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious medical condition that can lead to a range of symptoms and complications. One of the most common signs of PE is an elevated heart rate, which can be caused by the increased demand on the right ventricle of the heart. This can lead to a range of other symptoms, including shortness of breath, chest pain, and coughing.
Another common sign of PE is the presence of S1Q3T3 on an electrocardiogram (ECG). This is characterized by a deep S-wave in lead I, a Q-wave in lead III, and an inverted T-wave in lead III. While this finding is associated with PE, it is not specific to the condition and may not be present in all cases.
T-wave inversions in leads V1-V4 can also be a sign of right ventricular strain, which can occur as a result of the increased demand on the heart caused by PE. However, this is not the most common finding in cases of PE.
Pulmonary embolism can be difficult to diagnose as it can present with a variety of cardiorespiratory symptoms and signs depending on its location and size. The PIOPED study in 2007 found that tachypnea, crackles, tachycardia, and fever were common clinical signs in patients diagnosed with pulmonary embolism. The Well’s criteria for diagnosing a PE use tachycardia rather than tachypnea. All patients with symptoms or signs suggestive of a PE should have a history taken, examination performed, and a chest x-ray to exclude other pathology.
To rule out a PE, the pulmonary embolism rule-out criteria (PERC) can be used. All criteria must be absent to have a negative PERC result, which reduces the probability of PE to less than 2%. If the suspicion of PE is greater than this, a 2-level PE Wells score should be performed. A score of more than 4 points indicates a likely PE, and an immediate computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) should be arranged. If the CTPA is negative, patients do not need further investigations or treatment for PE.
CTPA is now the recommended initial lung-imaging modality for non-massive PE. V/Q scanning may be used initially if appropriate facilities exist, the chest x-ray is normal, and there is no significant symptomatic concurrent cardiopulmonary disease. D-dimer levels should be considered for patients over 50 years old. A chest x-ray is recommended for all patients to exclude other pathology, but it is typically normal in PE. The sensitivity of V/Q scanning is around 75%, while the specificity is 97%. Peripheral emboli affecting subsegmental arteries may be missed on CTPA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 3
Correct
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What is the Gold Standards Framework (GSF) and what does it enable for people nearing the end of their lives?
Your Answer: It involves an anticipatory approach to care
Explanation:The Gold Standards Framework: A Framework for Anticipatory End-of-Life Care
The Gold Standards Framework (GSF) was originally designed for use in primary care, but has since been adapted for use in care homes and nursing homes. Its anticipatory approach to care has been shown to have positive effects on pain and symptom control, and improved planning has helped to prevent some hospital admissions. The GSF is not a prescriptive model, but rather a framework that can be tailored to meet local needs and resources. It can also be adapted for patients with non-cancer diagnoses who require end-of-life care. Ultimately, the GSF aims to help patients live and die well in their preferred place of care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man with type 2 diabetes has recently had an HbA1c reading of 60 mmol/mol. He is currently taking the maximum dose of gliclazide as he experiences frequent loose stools with any form of metformin. What additional treatment options would you suggest?
Your Answer: Incretin mimetic
Correct Answer: Gliptin
Explanation:Metformin often causes mild gastrointestinal side effects, particularly when first taken. The severity and duration of these side effects depend on the dosage, but they typically improve over time. To minimize these effects, it’s best to start with a low dose, take the medication with food, and gradually increase the dosage.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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From the date indicated on a prescription for a Controlled Drug in Schedules 2, 3, or 4 under the Misuse of Drugs regulations 2001 (and subsequent amendments), how many days is it considered valid?
Your Answer: 28 days
Correct Answer: 14 days
Explanation:Prescription Guidelines for Medications and Controlled Drugs
Prescriptions for medications and controlled drugs must adhere to specific guidelines to ensure patient safety and prevent misuse. A prescription for medication is valid for 28 days from the date stated on the prescription, and the quantity prescribed should not exceed a 30-day supply unless exceptional circumstances are clearly stated in the patient’s notes. Controlled drugs are subject to even stricter regulations, including requirements for indelible prescriptions signed and dated by the prescriber, specifying the prescriber’s address, and stating the name and address of the patient, the form and strength of the preparation, the total quantity or number of dosage units to be supplied, and the dose. A pharmacist cannot dispense a controlled drug unless all required information is provided on the prescription. It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure the safe and appropriate use of medications and controlled drugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman has been receiving treatment for the past three weeks for otitis externa with flumetasone/clioquinol 0.02%/1%, followed by gentamicin 0.3% w/v and hydrocortisone acetate 1% ear drops. She acquired the condition while on vacation in Spain. She is now experiencing increasing itchiness in her ears. During examination, her ears have abundant discharge with black spots on a white background. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Refer to Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) for urgent review
Correct Answer: Clotrimazole solution
Explanation:Treatment Options for Fungal Otitis Externa
Fungal otitis externa is a common ear infection that can be difficult to diagnose and treat. Patients who have had prolonged courses of steroid and antibiotic drops are particularly susceptible to this type of infection. Symptoms include pruritus and discharge, which may not respond to antibiotics. The most common fungal agents are Aspergillus and Candida, which can be treated with topical clotrimazole. Topical ciprofloxacin is not effective against fungal infections, and co-amoxiclav tablets should not be used. Sofradex® ear drops, which contain steroids, may exacerbate symptoms. If initial treatment with antifungal medication is unsuccessful, referral to an Ear, Nose and Throat specialist may be necessary for further evaluation and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 7
Correct
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Hospital episode statistics were audited and it was discovered that the length of hospital stays for acute medical admissions is highly positively skewed. The median was found to be 4 days and the interquartile range was 2-10 days. What percentage of patients stayed between 2 and 10 days?
Your Answer: 50%
Explanation:Understanding Common Statistical Percentages
The field of statistics uses various percentages to describe and analyze data. Here are some common percentages and what they represent:
50% – The interquartile range describes the middle 50% of values when ordered from lowest to highest.
25% – The lower quartile has one-quarter (25%) of values below it, and the upper quartile has one-quarter of values above it.
68% – This is the percentage of values that fall within one standard deviation of the mean in normally skewed data.
95% – This is the percentage of values that fall within two standard deviations of the mean in normally skewed data.
99.7% – This is the percentage of values that fall within three standard deviations of the mean in normally skewed data.
Understanding these percentages can help in interpreting and drawing conclusions from statistical data.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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What could be the cause of stridor in a 6-month-old infant?
Your Answer: Whooping cough
Correct Answer: Laryngomalacia
Explanation:Causes of Stridor: An Overview
Stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound that occurs during breathing and is often a sign of an underlying respiratory problem. One common cause of stridor is laryngomalacia, a congenital condition that results in flaccidity of supraglottic structures. This condition may not present until the child is a few months old.
It is important to note that stridor doesn’t occur in bronchiolitis, asthma, or reflux. In the UK, viral croup is the most common cause of stridor in general practice, while epiglottitis is a much rarer cause that can produce severe stridor with distress and cyanosis very quickly. Structural abnormalities such as micrognathia and trachea-oesophageal fistula can also cause stridor.
It is worth noting that stridor doesn’t occur with pertussis but used to be seen with diphtheria. Other causes of stridor include smoke inhalation, angio-oedema, and foreign body. Understanding the various causes of stridor is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 9
Correct
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A 42-year-old man is an inpatient in the Nephrology Ward. He has chronic renal failure. He is on dialysis and is anaemic, with a haemoglobin concentration of 85 mg/l (normal range: 130–180 mg/l). He is being considered for erythropoietin therapy.
What is the most important consideration for this patient?Your Answer: Up to 30% of patients on erythropoietin may experience a rise in blood pressure
Explanation:Myth-busting: The Effects of Erythropoietin on Blood Pressure, Sexual Function, Cognitive Function, Exercise Tolerance, and Quality of Life in Dialysis Patients
Contrary to popular belief, erythropoietin doesn’t always lead to a rise in blood pressure. While up to 30% of patients may experience this side effect, it is not a universal occurrence. Additionally, erythropoietin has been shown to improve sexual function, cognitive function, and exercise tolerance in dialysis patients with renal anaemia. Furthermore, contrary to another misconception, erythropoietin has been demonstrated to improve quality-of-life scores in these patients. It is important to monitor blood pressure, haemoglobin, and reticulocyte count during treatment, but erythropoietin can have positive effects on various aspects of patients’ lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old Bangladeshi man with a history of mitral stenosis and atrial fibrillation has been diagnosed with tuberculosis and started on anti-tuberculosis therapy. However, three weeks into the treatment, his INR has increased to 5.6. Which medication is the most likely cause of this increase?
Your Answer: Streptomycin
Correct Answer: Isoniazid
Explanation:When answering questions about liver enzymes, it is crucial to determine whether the question pertains to induction or inhibition. Candidates should avoid hastily providing drugs that cause induction as the answer. Inhibited liver enzymes can result in an elevated INR. Additionally, isoniazid is known to inhibit the P450 system.
P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors
The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing many drugs in the body. Induction of this system occurs when a drug or substance causes an increase in the activity of the P450 enzymes. This process usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug. On the other hand, P450 inhibitors decrease the activity of the enzymes and their effects are often seen rapidly.
Some common inducers of the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking. Smoking affects CYP1A2, which is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.
In contrast, some common inhibitors of the P450 system include antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, acute alcohol intake, and quinupristin.
It is important to be aware of the potential for drug interactions when taking medications that affect the P450 enzyme system. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications and supplements they are taking to avoid any adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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