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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old woman with a previous diagnosis of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia is found...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman with a previous diagnosis of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia is found to have Lown-Ganong-Levine (LGL) syndrome.
      Which of the following statements about LGL syndrome is correct?

      Your Answer: The QRS duration is typically normal

      Explanation:

      Lown-Ganong-Levine (LGL) syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical conducting system of the heart. It is classified as a pre-excitation syndrome, similar to the more well-known Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome. However, unlike WPW syndrome, LGL syndrome does not involve an accessory pathway for conduction. Instead, it is believed that there may be accessory fibers present that bypass all or part of the atrioventricular node.

      When looking at an electrocardiogram (ECG) of a patient with LGL syndrome in sinus rhythm, there are several characteristic features to observe. The PR interval, which represents the time it takes for the electrical signal to travel from the atria to the ventricles, is typically shortened and measures less than 120 milliseconds. The QRS duration, which represents the time it takes for the ventricles to contract, is normal. The P wave, which represents the electrical activity of the atria, may be normal or inverted. However, what distinguishes LGL syndrome from other pre-excitation syndromes is the absence of a delta wave, which is a slurring of the initial rise in the QRS complex.

      It is important to note that LGL syndrome predisposes individuals to paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (SVT), a rapid heart rhythm that originates above the ventricles. However, it does not increase the risk of developing atrial fibrillation or flutter, which are other types of abnormal heart rhythms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      37.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a swollen and red right...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a swollen and red right knee. She recently returned from a trip to Bangkok. During the examination, her temperature is 38.6°C and she has a rash with small blisters on her trunk. The knee feels warm to touch and is immobile. Attempts to flex or extend the knee are unsuccessful. A joint aspiration is done, and Gram-negative diplococci are observed.
      Which of the following antibiotics would be the most suitable to prescribe for this patient?

      Your Answer: Cefotaxime

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is septic arthritis, which occurs when an infectious agent invades a joint and causes pus formation. The patient’s recent travel to Bangkok, presence of a vesicular rash on the trunk, and the identification of Gram-negative diplococci support this diagnosis.

      Septic arthritis is characterized by several clinical features. These include pain in the affected joint, redness, warmth, and swelling of the joint, and difficulty in moving the joint. Patients may also experience fever and systemic upset.

      The most common cause of septic arthritis is Staphylococcus aureus. Other bacteria that can lead to this condition include Streptococcus spp., Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria gonorrhoea (typically seen in sexually active young adults with macules or vesicles on the trunk), and Escherichia coli (common in intravenous drug users, the elderly, and seriously ill individuals).

      According to the current recommendations by NICE (National Institute for Health and Care Excellence) and the BNF (British National Formulary), the treatment for septic arthritis involves the following approaches. Flucloxacillin is the first-line antibiotic. In cases of penicillin allergy, clindamycin is recommended. If there is suspicion of MRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus), vancomycin should be used. For suspected gonococcal arthritis or Gram-negative infection, cefotaxime is the preferred choice. The suggested duration of treatment is 4-6 weeks, although it may be longer if the infection is complicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      36.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old woman with a history of Alzheimer's disease is brought to the...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman with a history of Alzheimer's disease is brought to the Emergency Department with a nosebleed. She currently lives alone and receives a care package once a week. The nosebleed stops with minimal treatment, and all other tests and observations are normal. Just as you are finishing up her paperwork, her daughter brings up a few concerns that she wants to address before her mother is discharged home.
      What would be the most appropriate step to take?

      Your Answer: Talk to the patient about their daughter's concerns and get their perspective

      Explanation:

      This situation is potentially complicated and involves another family member. The patient currently lives alone and based on the given history, it seems to be a mild episode of epistaxis. Without any additional information, it would be reasonable to assume that the patient can continue living in his current conditions.

      It is crucial to listen to the family’s concerns. However, it is important to keep the patient as the main focus. Out of the options provided, the most sensible approach would be to have a conversation with the patient regarding his son’s concerns and understand his perspective on those concerns.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old man is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with flashing lights. He has been involved in a building fire and has sustained severe burns. You evaluate his airway and have concerns about potential airway blockage. You decide to perform intubation on the patient and begin preparing the required equipment.
      Which of the following is NOT a reason for performing early intubation in a burn patient?

      Your Answer: Accessory respiratory muscle use

      Correct Answer: Superficial partial-thickness circumferential neck burns

      Explanation:

      Early assessment of the airway is a critical aspect of managing a burned patient. Airway obstruction can occur rapidly due to direct injury or swelling from the burn. If there is a history of trauma, the airway should be evaluated while maintaining cervical spine control.

      There are several risk factors for airway obstruction in burned patients, including inhalation injury, soot in the mouth or nostrils, singed nasal hairs, burns to the head, face, and neck, burns inside the mouth, large burn area and increasing burn depth, associated trauma, and a carboxyhemoglobin level above 10%.

      In cases where significant swelling is anticipated, it may be necessary to urgently secure the airway with an uncut endotracheal tube before the swelling becomes severe. Delaying recognition of impending airway obstruction can make intubation difficult, and a surgical airway may be required.

      The American Burn Life Support (ABLS) guidelines recommend early intubation in certain situations. These include signs of airway obstruction, extensive burns, deep facial burns, burns inside the mouth, significant swelling or risk of swelling, difficulty swallowing, respiratory compromise, decreased level of consciousness, and anticipated transfer of a patient with a large burn and airway issues without qualified personnel to intubate during transport.

      Circumferential burns of the neck can cause tissue swelling around the airway, making early intubation necessary in these cases as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      43.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 15 year old presents to the emergency department with bleeding from the...

    Correct

    • A 15 year old presents to the emergency department with bleeding from the back of the throat that started 30 minutes ago. The patient had a tonsillectomy 7 days ago. The patient's vital signs are as follows:

      Blood pressure: 118/76 mmHg
      Pulse: 80 bpm
      Respiration rate: 16 bpm
      Temperature: 36.7ºC

      Upon examination, there is fresh blood visible on the tongue and posterior wall of the oropharynx, with some oozing from the right tonsillar bed. The airway appears clear. What is the most appropriate course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Administer 1g IV tranexamic acid

      Explanation:

      Patients who experience bleeding after a tonsillectomy should be treated with two primary medications. The first is IV tranexamic acid, which is given to all patients. The second is a topical vasoconstrictor, such as co-phenylcaine spray or adrenaline-soaked gauze/cotton buds. However, the use of topical vasoconstrictors is typically reserved for patients with severe bleeding until they can be reviewed by a senior medical professional or transferred to the operating theatre. Patients with mild or occasional bleeding may be instructed to gargle with hydrogen peroxide regularly during their hospital stay.

      Further Reading:

      Tonsillectomy is a common procedure performed by ENT surgeons in the UK, with over 50,000 surgeries performed each year. While it is considered routine, there are risks of serious complications, including post-tonsillectomy bleeding. Approximately 5% of patients experience bleeding after the procedure, with most cases being self-limiting. However, severe bleeding can lead to hypovolemia and airway obstruction from clots, which can be life-threatening.

      Post-tonsillectomy bleeding can be classified as primary (reactive) or secondary (delayed). Primary bleeding occurs within 24 hours of the procedure, while secondary bleeding occurs more than 24 hours post-procedure. Secondary bleeding is often caused by factors such as sloughing of eschar, trauma from solid food ingestion, tonsil bed infection, postoperative NSAID usage, or unknown causes.

      Patients may present with symptoms such as vomiting blood, coughing up blood, tasting blood in the throat, finding blood on pillows or bed sheets, or excessive swallowing (especially in children). It is important for clinicians to assess the severity of blood loss, although it can be challenging to accurately estimate in children.

      The ABCDE approach should be used to assess patients, with a focus on airway compromise, hemodynamic instability, and evidence of bleeding. Clinicians may use a head torch to identify any bleeding points, which may be actively bleeding or appear as fresh red clots. It is important to note that the tonsillar fossa may appear white or yellow, which is a normal postoperative finding.

      Investigations such as a full blood count, coagulation profile, group and save, and venous blood gas may be performed to assess the patient’s condition. Senior support from ENT or anesthesiology should be called if there is active bleeding.

      Management of post-tonsillectomy bleeding includes positioning the patient upright and keeping them calm, establishing intravenous access, administering fluids and blood products as needed, and administering tranexamic acid to stop bleeding. Bleeding points may require gentle suction removal of fresh clots, and topical medications such as Co-phenylcaine spray or topical adrenaline may be applied to the oropharynx. All patients with post-tonsillectomy bleeding should be assessed by ENT and observed for a prolonged period, typically 12-24 hours.

      If bleeding remains uncontrolled, the patient should be kept nil by mouth in preparation for surgery, and early intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 7-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father after...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father after falling at a park. Her ankle appears to be deformed, and it is suspected that she has a fracture in her distal fibula. Her pain is evaluated using a numerical rating scale, and the triage nurse informs you that she is experiencing moderate pain.
      According to the RCEM guidance, which of the following analgesics is recommended for managing moderate pain in a child of this age?

      Your Answer: Rectal diclofenac 1 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      A recent audit conducted by the Royal College of Emergency Medicine (RCEM) in 2018 revealed a concerning decline in the standards of pain management for children with fractured limbs in Emergency Departments (EDs). The audit found that the majority of patients experienced longer waiting times for pain relief compared to previous years. Shockingly, more than 1 in 10 children who presented with significant pain due to a limb fracture did not receive any pain relief at all.

      To address this issue, the Agency for Health Care Policy and Research (AHCPR) in the USA recommends following the ABCs of pain management for all patients, including children. This approach involves regularly asking about pain, systematically assessing it, believing the patient and their family in their reports of pain and what relieves it, choosing appropriate pain control options, delivering interventions in a timely and coordinated manner, and empowering patients and their families to have control over their pain management.

      The RCEM has established standards that require a child’s pain to be assessed within 15 minutes of their arrival at the ED. This is considered a fundamental standard. Various rating scales are available for assessing pain in children, with the choice depending on the child’s age and ability to use the scale. These scales include the Wong-Baker Faces Pain Rating Scale, Numeric rating scale, and Behavioural scale.

      To ensure timely administration of analgesia to children in acute pain, the RCEM has set specific standards. These standards state that 100% of patients in severe pain should receive appropriate analgesia within 60 minutes of their arrival or triage, whichever comes first. Additionally, 75% should receive analgesia within 30 minutes, and 50% within 20 minutes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pain & Sedation
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 42 year old female is brought to the emergency department with a...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old female is brought to the emergency department with a 15cm long laceration to her arm which occurred when she tripped and fell onto a sharp object. You are suturing the laceration under local anesthesia when the patient mentions experiencing numbness in her lips and feeling lightheaded. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Local anaesthetic toxicity

      Explanation:

      Early signs of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) can include numbness around the mouth and tongue, a metallic taste in the mouth, feeling lightheaded or dizzy, and experiencing visual and auditory disturbances. LAST is a rare but serious complication that can occur when administering anesthesia. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the signs and symptoms of LAST, as early recognition can lead to better outcomes. Additionally, hyperventilation can temporarily lower calcium levels, which can cause numbness around the mouth.

      Further Reading:

      Local anaesthetics, such as lidocaine, bupivacaine, and prilocaine, are commonly used in the emergency department for topical or local infiltration to establish a field block. Lidocaine is often the first choice for field block prior to central line insertion. These anaesthetics work by blocking sodium channels, preventing the propagation of action potentials.

      However, local anaesthetics can enter the systemic circulation and cause toxic side effects if administered in high doses. Clinicians must be aware of the signs and symptoms of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) and know how to respond. Early signs of LAST include numbness around the mouth or tongue, metallic taste, dizziness, visual and auditory disturbances, disorientation, and drowsiness. If not addressed, LAST can progress to more severe symptoms such as seizures, coma, respiratory depression, and cardiovascular dysfunction.

      The management of LAST is largely supportive. Immediate steps include stopping the administration of local anaesthetic, calling for help, providing 100% oxygen and securing the airway, establishing IV access, and controlling seizures with benzodiazepines or other medications. Cardiovascular status should be continuously assessed, and conventional therapies may be used to treat hypotension or arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion (intralipid) may also be considered as a treatment option.

      If the patient goes into cardiac arrest, CPR should be initiated following ALS arrest algorithms, but lidocaine should not be used as an anti-arrhythmic therapy. Prolonged resuscitation may be necessary, and intravenous lipid emulsion should be administered. After the acute episode, the patient should be transferred to a clinical area with appropriate equipment and staff for further monitoring and care.

      It is important to report cases of local anaesthetic toxicity to the appropriate authorities, such as the National Patient Safety Agency in the UK or the Irish Medicines Board in the Republic of Ireland. Additionally, regular clinical review should be conducted to exclude pancreatitis, as intravenous lipid emulsion can interfere with amylase or lipase assays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You review the blood results of a 65-year-old woman. Her full blood count...

    Correct

    • You review the blood results of a 65-year-old woman. Her full blood count is shown below:

      Hb 11.9 g/dl (13-17 g/dl)
      MCV 82 fl (80-100 fl)
      WCC 18.4 x 109/l (4-11 x 109/l)
      Neut 4.0 x 109/l (2.5-7.5 x 109/l)
      Lymph 13.3 x 109/l (1.3-3.5 x 109/l)
      Platelets 156 x 109/l (150-400 x 109/l)

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) is the most common type of leukaemia in adults. It occurs when mature lymphocytes multiply uncontrollably. About 95% of cases are of B-cell lineage.

      CLL is typically a slow-growing form of leukaemia and is often discovered incidentally during routine blood tests. As the disease progresses, patients may experience swollen lymph nodes, enlarged liver and spleen, anemia, and increased susceptibility to infections.

      This condition primarily affects adult men, with over 75% of CLL patients being men over the age of 50.

      A blood test for CLL usually reveals an increased number of lymphocytes (typically more than 5 x 109/l, but it can be higher). Advanced stages of the disease may also show normochromic, normocytic anemia. A peripheral blood smear can confirm the presence of lymphocytosis, and smudge cells are often observed.

      The Binet system is used to stage CLL, categorizing it as follows:
      – Stage A: Hemoglobin (Hb) levels above 10 g/dl, platelet count above 100 x 109/l, involvement of fewer than 3 lymph node areas.
      – Stage B: Hb levels above 10 g/dl, platelet count above 100 x 109/l, involvement of more than 3 lymph node areas.
      – Stage C: Hb levels below 10 g/dl, platelet count below 100 x 109/l, or both.

      Early stages of CLL (Binet stage A and B without active disease) do not require immediate treatment and can be monitored through regular follow-up and blood tests. Patients with more advanced disease have various treatment options available, including monoclonal antibodies (such as rituximab), purine analogues (like fludarabine), and alkylating agents (such as chlorambucil).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      61.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old man with a history of bipolar affective disorder presents with symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man with a history of bipolar affective disorder presents with symptoms suggestive of lithium toxicity.
      Which of the following symptoms is MOST likely to be present?

      Your Answer: Lithium induced diabetes mellitus

      Correct Answer: Clonus

      Explanation:

      Lithium toxicity presents with various symptoms, including nausea and vomiting, diarrhea, tremor, ataxia, confusion, increased muscle tone, clonus, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, convulsions, coma, and renal failure. One notable symptom associated with digoxin toxicity is xanthopsia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 70 year old male presents to the emergency department feeling generally fatigued....

    Correct

    • A 70 year old male presents to the emergency department feeling generally fatigued. On taking a history the patient reports a decline in his skin and hair condition over the past few months. Thyroid function tests are ordered which show the following:

      Test Result Normal range
      TSH 6.2 miU/L 0.27 - 4.2 miU/L
      Free T4 13 pmol/L 12.0 - 22.0 pmol/L

      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Subclinical hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Subclinical hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are higher than normal, but the levels of free thyroxine (T4) are still within the normal range. On the other hand, subclinical hyperthyroidism is a condition where the TSH levels are lower than normal, but the levels of free triiodothyronine (T3) and free thyroxine (T4) are still within the normal range.

      Further Reading:

      The thyroid gland is an endocrine organ located in the anterior neck. It consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. The gland produces hormones called thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate energy use, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. The production of T4 and T3 is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the pituitary gland, which is in turn stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.

      Thyroid disorders can occur when there is an imbalance in the production or regulation of thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, while hyperthyroidism is characterized by an excess. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. It is more common in women and is often associated with goiter. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, atrophic thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency. On the other hand, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves’ disease, which is also an autoimmune disorder. Other causes include toxic multinodular goiter and subacute thyroiditis.

      The symptoms and signs of thyroid disorders can vary depending on whether the thyroid gland is underactive or overactive. In hypothyroidism, common symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, and dry skin. In hyperthyroidism, common symptoms include weight loss, restlessness, heat intolerance, and increased sweating. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can also affect other systems in the body, such as the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems.

      Complications of thyroid disorders can include dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, coronary heart disease, heart failure, subfertility and infertility, impaired special senses, and myxedema coma in severe cases of hypothyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, complications can include Graves’ orbitopathy, compression of the esophagus or trachea by goiter, thyrotoxic periodic paralysis, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, mood disorders, and increased obstetric complications.

      Myxedema coma is a rare and life-threatening complication of severe hypothyroidism. It can be triggered by factors such as infection or physiological insult and presents with lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      31.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 35 year old male is brought into the emergency department after collapsing...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old male is brought into the emergency department after collapsing at home. The patient is observed to be hypotensive and drowsy upon arrival and is promptly transferred to the resuscitation bay. The patient's spouse informs you that the patient has been feeling sick with nausea and vomiting for the past 48 hours. It is important to note that the patient has a medical history of Addison's disease. What would be the most suitable initial treatment option?

      Your Answer: 100mg IM hydrocortisone

      Explanation:

      The first-line treatment for Addisonian (adrenal) crisis is hydrocortisone. This patient displays symptoms that indicate an Addisonian crisis, and the main components of their management involve administering hydrocortisone and providing intravenous fluids for resuscitation.

      Further Reading:

      Addison’s disease, also known as primary adrenal insufficiency or hypoadrenalism, is a rare disorder caused by the destruction of the adrenal cortex. This leads to reduced production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and adrenal androgens. The deficiency of cortisol results in increased production of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) due to reduced negative feedback to the pituitary gland. This condition can cause metabolic disturbances such as hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, hypercalcemia, and hypoglycemia.

      The symptoms of Addison’s disease can vary but commonly include fatigue, weight loss, muscle weakness, and low blood pressure. It is more common in women and typically affects individuals between the ages of 30-50. The most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in developed countries is autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands. Other causes include tuberculosis, adrenal metastases, meningococcal septicaemia, HIV, and genetic disorders.

      The diagnosis of Addison’s disease is often suspected based on low cortisol levels and electrolyte abnormalities. The adrenocorticotropic hormone stimulation test is commonly used for confirmation. Other investigations may include adrenal autoantibodies, imaging scans, and genetic screening.

      Addisonian crisis is a potentially life-threatening condition that occurs when there is an acute deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone. It can be the first presentation of undiagnosed Addison’s disease. Precipitating factors of an Addisonian crisis include infection, dehydration, surgery, trauma, physiological stress, pregnancy, hypoglycemia, and acute withdrawal of long-term steroids. Symptoms of an Addisonian crisis include malaise, fatigue, nausea or vomiting, abdominal pain, fever, muscle pains, dehydration, confusion, and loss of consciousness.

      There is no fixed consensus on diagnostic criteria for an Addisonian crisis, as symptoms are non-specific. Investigations may include blood tests, blood gas analysis, and septic screens if infection is suspected. Management involves administering hydrocortisone and fluids. Hydrocortisone is given parenterally, and the dosage varies depending on the age of the patient. Fluid resuscitation with saline is necessary to correct any electrolyte disturbances and maintain blood pressure. The underlying cause of the crisis should also be identified and treated. Close monitoring of sodium levels is important to prevent complications such as osmotic demyelination syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 40-year-old construction worker comes in with a few weeks of lower back...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old construction worker comes in with a few weeks of lower back pain. He is currently experiencing discomfort and wants to know which pain medication would be most effective. You give him a self-help guide and discuss his treatment choices.
      According to the latest NICE guidelines, what is the recommended initial pharmacological treatment for lower back pain? Choose ONE option.

      Your Answer: Paracetamol

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      The current guidelines from NICE provide recommendations for managing low back pain. It is suggested to consider using oral non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen, while taking into account the potential risks of gastrointestinal, liver, and cardio-renal toxicity, as well as the person’s individual risk factors and age. When prescribing oral NSAIDs, it is important to conduct appropriate clinical assessments, monitor risk factors regularly, and consider the use of gastroprotective treatment. It is advised to prescribe the lowest effective dose of oral NSAIDs for the shortest duration possible. In cases where NSAIDs are contraindicated, not tolerated, or ineffective, weak opioids (with or without paracetamol) may be considered for managing acute low back pain. However, NICE does not recommend the use of paracetamol alone, opioids for chronic low back pain, serotonin reuptake inhibitors, serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants for non-neuropathic pain, anticonvulsants, or benzodiazepines for muscle spasm associated with acute low back pain. For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidance on low back pain and sciatica in individuals over 16 years old, as well as the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on low back pain without radiculopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 45-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of sudden pain in his...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of sudden pain in his left scrotum and fever for the past 5 days. Upon examination, the epididymis is swollen and tender, and the skin over the scrotum is red and warm. The pain is relieved when the scrotum is elevated. The patient has no known allergies to medications.
      What is the most suitable treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Ofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Epididymo-orchitis refers to the inflammation of the epididymis and/or testicle. It typically presents with sudden pain, swelling, and inflammation in the affected area. This condition can also occur chronically, which means that the pain and inflammation last for more than six months.

      The causes of epididymo-orchitis vary depending on the age of the patient. In men under 35 years old, the infection is usually sexually transmitted and caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae. In men over 35 years old, the infection is usually non-sexually transmitted and occurs as a result of enteric organisms that cause urinary tract infections, with Escherichia coli being the most common. However, there can be some overlap between these groups, so it is important to obtain a thorough sexual history in all age groups.

      Mumps should also be considered as a potential cause of epididymo-orchitis in the 15 to 30 age group, as mumps orchitis occurs in around 40% of post-pubertal boys with mumps.

      While most cases of epididymo-orchitis are infective, non-infectious causes can also occur. These include genito-urinary surgery, vasectomy, urinary catheterization, Behcet’s disease, sarcoidosis, and drug-induced cases such as those caused by amiodarone.

      Patients with epididymo-orchitis typically present with unilateral scrotal pain and swelling that develops relatively quickly. The affected testis will be tender to touch, and there is usually a palpable swelling of the epididymis that starts at the lower pole of the testis and spreads towards the upper pole. The testis itself may also be involved, and there may be redness and/or swelling of the scrotum on the affected side. Patients may experience fever and urethral discharge as well.

      The most important differential diagnosis to consider is testicular torsion, which requires immediate medical attention within 6 hours of onset to save the testicle. Testicular torsion is more likely in men under the age of 20, especially if the pain is very severe and sudden. It typically presents around four hours after onset. In this case, the patient’s age, longer history of symptoms, and the presence of fever are more indicative of epididymo-orchitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      44.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A middle-aged patient with a previous cancer diagnosis complains of recently developed back...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged patient with a previous cancer diagnosis complains of recently developed back pain. After conducting a thorough examination, your findings raise significant alarm. You begin to consider the likelihood of a metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC) diagnosis.
      Among the following types of cancer, which one is most frequently associated with MSCC?

      Your Answer: Prostate cancer

      Explanation:

      Metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC) occurs when a tumor mass compresses the thecal sac and its components, leading to a spinal emergency. If the pressure on the spinal cord is not relieved promptly, it can result in irreversible loss of neurological function. The most crucial factor for predicting functional outcome is the patient’s neurological function before treatment. Therefore, delayed treatment can lead to permanent disability and a decrease in quality of life.

      The most common cancers that cause MSCC are prostate, lung, breast, and myeloma. In approximately 10 to 20% of cancer patients, MSCC is the first noticeable symptom. It is important to consider MSCC in any patient with a history of cancer if they experience any of the following symptoms: severe or progressive lumbar back pain, nocturnal pain that disrupts sleep, localized spinal tenderness, radicular pain, or neurological symptoms.

      Thoracic pain can also be an indicator of MSCC, but it can also be caused by an aortic aneurysm. In patients aged 60 or older with persistent back pain, myeloma should be considered. Similarly, in patients aged 60 or older with accompanying weight loss, pancreatic cancer should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncological Emergencies
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old pregnant woman comes in with dysuria, high body temperature, chills, and...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old pregnant woman comes in with dysuria, high body temperature, chills, and pain in her left side. During the examination, she experiences tenderness in the left renal angle and her temperature is measured at 38.6°C. The triage nurse has already inserted a cannula and sent her blood samples to the laboratory.
      What is the MOST SUITABLE antibiotic to prescribe for this situation?

      Your Answer: Cefuroxime

      Explanation:

      This patient is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with a diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis. Additionally, she is showing signs of sepsis and is pregnant, which makes it necessary to admit her for inpatient treatment.

      According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), patients with pyelonephritis should be admitted if it is severe or if they exhibit any signs or symptoms that suggest a more serious illness or condition, such as sepsis. Signs of sepsis include significant tachycardia, hypotension, or breathlessness, as well as marked signs of illness like impaired level of consciousness, profuse sweating, rigors, pallor, or significantly reduced mobility. A temperature greater than 38°C or less than 36°C is also indicative of sepsis.

      NICE also recommends considering referral or seeking specialist advice for individuals with acute pyelonephritis if they are significantly dehydrated or unable to take oral fluids and medicines, if they are pregnant, if they have a higher risk of developing complications due to known or suspected structural or functional abnormalities of the genitourinary tract or underlying diseases like diabetes mellitus or immunosuppression, or if they have recurrent episodes of urinary tract infections (UTIs).

      For non-pregnant women and men, the recommended choice of antibacterial therapy is as follows: oral first-line options include cefalexin, ciprofloxacin, or co-amoxiclav (taking into account local microbial resistance data), and intravenous first-line options (if severely unwell or unable to take oral treatment) include amikacin, ceftriaxone, cefuroxime, ciprofloxacin, or gentamicin. Co-amoxiclav may be used if given in combination or if sensitivity is known. Antibacterials may be combined if there are concerns about susceptibility or sepsis. For intravenous second-line options, it is recommended to consult a local microbiologist.

      For pregnant women, the recommended choice of antibacterial therapy is as follows: oral first-line option is cefalexin, and intravenous first-line option (if severely unwell or unable to take oral treatment) is cefuroxime. Intravenous second-line options or combining antibacterials should be considered if there are concerns about susceptibility or sepsis, and consultation with a local microbiologist is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      36.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 6 year old male is brought to the emergency department due to...

    Correct

    • A 6 year old male is brought to the emergency department due to a rash on the flexural surfaces of both elbows. Dad informs you that there is usually some dry skin here but the redness has increased and the child has been scratching the area a lot over the past few days. You diagnose a moderate severity eczema flare.

      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Advise regular use of emollients and twice daily clobetasone butyrate

      Explanation:

      Dermovate (Clobetasol propionate) is a strong steroid used for treating skin conditions. It is important to continue using emollients alongside steroid treatment. If the flare-ups are not effectively controlled by steroids, Tacrolimus can be considered as a secondary treatment option.

      Further Reading:

      Eczema is a chronic inflammatory skin disease characterized by dry, itchy skin with eczematous lesions. It often follows a chronic relapsing course and can lead to chronic skin changes such as lichenification and pigment changes. The term eczema is often used interchangeably with dermatitis, but strictly speaking, dermatitis refers to inflammation of the skin while eczema refers to specific conditions where skin inflammation is a feature.

      Atopic eczema, also known as atopic dermatitis, is the most common type of eczema. It is usually first diagnosed in young children, with 90% of cases diagnosed before the age of 5. However, it can affect individuals of any age. Symptoms often improve as patients progress into their teens and adulthood. Around 10-20% of children are affected by atopic eczema, but only 3% of adults experience symptoms.

      The exact cause of atopic eczema is not fully understood, but it is believed to be multifactorial, with both genetic and environmental factors playing a role. Genetic defects in genes that aid in the functioning of the skin barrier have been identified, which may predispose individuals to breaks in the skin barrier and increased exposure to antigens. Environmental factors such as pollution, allergen exposure, climate, and others also contribute to the development of the disease.

      Diagnosing atopic eczema involves assessing the presence of key clinical features, such as pruritus (itching), eczema/dermatitis in a pattern appropriate for age, early age of onset, and personal or family history of atopy. Various diagnostic criteria have been established to aid in the diagnosis, including those set out by the American Academy of Dermatology and the UK working party.

      The severity of atopic eczema can vary, and treatment options depend on the severity. Mild cases may be managed with emollients (moisturizers) and mild potency topical corticosteroids. Moderate cases may require moderate potency topical corticosteroids, topical calcineurin inhibitors, and bandages. Severe cases may necessitate the use of potent topical corticosteroids, topical calcineurin inhibitors, bandages, phototherapy, and systemic therapy.

      In addition to medical treatment, identifying and avoiding triggers is an important aspect of managing atopic eczema. Common triggers include irritants, contact allergens, certain foods, skin infections, inhalant triggers, stress and infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 72 year old male is brought to the emergency department by ambulance...

    Correct

    • A 72 year old male is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after experiencing severe chest pain while walking his dog. The patient complains of feeling nauseated and states that the pain spreads to his neck. An ECG is conducted, revealing ST elevation in leads I and AVL. Which coronary artery is most likely blocked?

      Your Answer: Left circumflex artery

      Explanation:

      Patients who have a STEMI caused by a blockage in the left circumflex artery (LCX) will usually show ST elevation in leads I and AVL. These leads correspond to the high lateral area of the heart, which is supplied by the LCX artery.

      Further Reading:

      Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that involve the sudden reduction or blockage of blood flow to the heart. This can lead to a heart attack or unstable angina. ACS includes ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina (UA).

      The development of ACS is usually seen in patients who already have underlying coronary heart disease. This disease is characterized by the buildup of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries, which can gradually narrow the arteries and reduce blood flow to the heart. This can cause chest pain, known as angina, during physical exertion. In some cases, the fatty plaques can rupture, leading to a complete blockage of the artery and a heart attack.

      There are both non modifiable and modifiable risk factors for ACS. non modifiable risk factors include increasing age, male gender, and family history. Modifiable risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and obesity.

      The symptoms of ACS typically include chest pain, which is often described as a heavy or constricting sensation in the central or left side of the chest. The pain may also radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms can include shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea/vomiting. However, it’s important to note that some patients, especially diabetics or the elderly, may not experience chest pain.

      The diagnosis of ACS is typically made based on the patient’s history, electrocardiogram (ECG), and blood tests for cardiac enzymes, specifically troponin. The ECG can show changes consistent with a heart attack, such as ST segment elevation or depression, T wave inversion, or the presence of a new left bundle branch block. Elevated troponin levels confirm the diagnosis of a heart attack.

      The management of ACS depends on the specific condition and the patient’s risk factors. For STEMI, immediate coronary reperfusion therapy, either through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolysis, is recommended. In addition to aspirin, a second antiplatelet agent is usually given. For NSTEMI or unstable angina, the treatment approach may involve reperfusion therapy or medical management, depending on the patient’s risk of future cardiovascular events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 45-year-old woman with no permanent residence sustains a head injury after a...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman with no permanent residence sustains a head injury after a fall. As part of her evaluation, you order a complete set of blood tests and a CT scan of the head. The blood tests reveal abnormal liver function and macrocytic anemia. The CT scan of the head appears normal, but an MRI performed later shows small petechial hemorrhages in the mamillary bodies.

      During her hospital stay, she receives a treatment that worsens her condition, leading to acute confusion. Upon examination, you observe an unsteady gait, peripheral neuropathy, and bilateral abducens nerve palsies.

      Which medication has caused the onset of this condition?

      Your Answer: Wernicke’s encephalopathy

      Explanation:

      This patient has developed Wernicke’s encephalopathy, a condition that is associated with alcohol abuse and other causes of thiamine deficiency. It is important to note that the infusion of glucose-containing intravenous fluids without thiamine in a patient with chronic thiamine deficiency can trigger Wernicke’s encephalopathy. In this particular case, it seems that this is what has occurred.

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is typically characterized by a triad of symptoms, which include acute confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Additionally, other possible features of this condition may include papilloedema, hearing loss, apathy, dysphagia, memory impairment, and hypothermia. It is also common for peripheral neuropathy, primarily affecting the legs, to occur in the majority of cases.

      This condition is characterized by the presence of acute capillary haemorrhages, astrocytosis, and neuronal death in the upper brainstem and diencephalon. These abnormalities can be visualized through MRI scanning, although CT scanning is not very useful for diagnosis.

      If left untreated, most patients with Wernicke’s encephalopathy will go on to develop a Korsakoff psychosis. This condition is characterized by retrograde amnesia, an inability to form new memories, disordered time perception, and confabulation.

      Patients who are suspected to have Wernicke’s encephalopathy should be promptly treated with parenteral thiamine (such as Pabrinex) for a minimum of 5 days. Following the parenteral therapy, oral thiamine should be administered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - You provide Entonox to a patient who has experienced a significant injury for...

    Incorrect

    • You provide Entonox to a patient who has experienced a significant injury for temporary pain relief.
      Which ONE statement about Entonox is NOT true?

      Your Answer: It takes approximately 30 seconds to act

      Correct Answer: It is a 50/50 mix of oxygen and nitric oxide

      Explanation:

      Entonox is a combination of oxygen and nitrous oxide, with equal parts of each. Its primary effects are pain relief and a decrease in activity within the central nervous system. The exact mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to involve the modulation of enkephalins and endorphins in the central nervous system.

      When inhaled, Entonox takes about 30 seconds to take effect and its effects last for approximately 60 seconds after inhalation is stopped. It is stored in cylinders that are either white or blue, with blue and white sections on the shoulders. Entonox has various uses, including being used alongside general anesthesia, as a pain reliever during labor, and for painful medical procedures.

      There are some known side effects of Entonox, which include nausea and vomiting in about 15% of patients, dizziness, euphoria, and inhibition of vitamin B12 synthesis. It is important to note that there are certain situations where the use of Entonox is not recommended. These contraindications include reduced consciousness, diving injuries, pneumothorax, middle ear disease, sinus disease, bowel obstruction, documented allergy to nitrous oxide, hypoxia, and violent or disabled psychiatric patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pain & Sedation
      41.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The Emergency Medicine consultant in charge of the department today asks for your...

    Incorrect

    • The Emergency Medicine consultant in charge of the department today asks for your attention to present a case of superior orbital fissure syndrome (SOFS) in a 30-year-old man with a Le Fort II fracture of the midface after a motorcycle accident.

      Which of the following anatomical structures traverses the superior orbital fissure?

      Your Answer: Maxillary nerve

      Correct Answer: Lacrimal nerve

      Explanation:

      The superior orbital fissure is a gap in the back wall of the orbit, created by the space between the greater and lesser wings of the sphenoid bone. Several structures pass through it to enter the orbit, starting from the top and going downwards. These include the lacrimal nerve (a branch of CN V1), the frontal nerve (another branch of CN V1), the superior ophthalmic vein, the trochlear nerve (CN IV), the superior division of the oculomotor nerve (CN III), the nasociliary nerve (a branch of CN V1), the inferior division of the oculomotor nerve (CN III), the abducens nerve (CN VI), and the inferior ophthalmic vein.

      Adjacent to the superior orbital fissure, on the back wall of the orbit and towards the middle, is the optic canal. The optic nerve (CN II) exits the orbit through this canal, along with the ophthalmic artery.

      Superior orbital fissure syndrome (SOFS) is a condition characterized by a combination of symptoms and signs that occur when cranial nerves III, IV, V1, and VI are compressed or injured as they pass through the superior orbital fissure. This condition also leads to swelling and protrusion of the eye due to impaired drainage and congestion. The main causes of SOFS are trauma, tumors, and inflammation. It is important to note that CN II is not affected by this syndrome, as it follows a separate path through the optic canal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
      27.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - You assess a patient who is currently undergoing systemic anticancer treatment. She presents...

    Correct

    • You assess a patient who is currently undergoing systemic anticancer treatment. She presents with a high fever, and you have concerns about the potential occurrence of neutropenic sepsis.

      Which of the following statements is accurate regarding neutropenic sepsis?

      Your Answer: Specialist management in an acute hospital setting involves implementing the standard UK Sepsis Trust 'Sepsis Six' bundle

      Explanation:

      Neutropenic sepsis is a serious complication that can occur in individuals with low neutrophil counts, known as neutropenia. There are several potential causes of neutropenia, including certain medications like chemotherapy and immunosuppressive drugs, stem cell transplantation, infections, bone marrow disorders, and nutritional deficiencies. In adults, mortality rates as high as 20% have been reported.

      To diagnose neutropenic sepsis, doctors look for a neutrophil count of 0.5 x 109 per litre or lower in patients undergoing cancer treatment. Additionally, patients must have either a temperature higher than 38°C or other signs and symptoms consistent with significant sepsis. Cancer treatments can suppress the bone marrow ability to respond to infections, making neutropenic sepsis more likely. This is most commonly seen with systemic chemotherapy but can also occur after radiotherapy.

      According to the current guidelines from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), adult patients with acute leukemia, stem cell transplants, or solid tumors who are expected to experience significant neutropenia due to chemotherapy should be offered prophylaxis with a fluoroquinolone antibiotic, such as ciprofloxacin. This should be taken during the expected period of neutropenia.

      When managing neutropenic sepsis, it is important to promptly implement the UK Sepsis Trust Sepsis Six bundle within the first hour of recognizing sepsis. This involves specialist assessment and management in an acute hospital setting.

      The NICE guidelines recommend using piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin) as the initial empiric antibiotic therapy for patients suspected of having neutropenic sepsis. It is advised not to use an aminoglycoside, either alone or in combination therapy, unless there are specific patient-related or local microbiological indications.

      Reference:
      NICE guidance: ‘Neutropenic sepsis: prevention and management of neutropenic sepsis in cancer patients’

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncological Emergencies
      31.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old woman gives birth to a baby with microcephaly at 36-weeks gestation....

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman gives birth to a baby with microcephaly at 36-weeks gestation. She remembers experiencing a flu-like illness and skin rash early in the pregnancy after being bitten by a mosquito while visiting relatives in Brazil.

      What is the SINGLE most probable organism responsible for causing this birth defect?

      Your Answer: Zika virus

      Explanation:

      The Zika virus is a newly emerging virus that is transmitted by mosquitoes. It was first discovered in humans in Uganda in 1952. Recently, there has been a significant outbreak of the virus in South America.

      When a person contracts the Zika virus, about 1 in 5 individuals will experience clinical illness, while the rest will show no symptoms at all. The most common symptoms of the virus include fever, rash, joint pain, and conjunctivitis. These symptoms typically last for no more than a week.

      While not completely conclusive, the evidence from the recent outbreak strongly suggests a connection between Zika virus infection and microcephaly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - You are caring for a seriously ill middle-aged patient. As part of the...

    Correct

    • You are caring for a seriously ill middle-aged patient. As part of the diagnostic process, you have requested an MRI scan to investigate the cause of their symptoms. The results of the scan reveal extensive cancer of unknown origin. The prognosis for this patient is extremely grim. You have a conversation with the patient's family to inform them of the findings and plan to disclose this information to the patient, who is still conscious. The family insists that you should not inform the patient, as they believe he wouldn't want to know.

      What is the most appropriate course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Inform the family that whilst you sympathise with their point of view, you cannot reasonably withhold this information from the patient. You would like to speak with her to explore how much information she'd like to know.

      Explanation:

      This question revolves around the challenge of delivering difficult news. The family involved in this situation have good intentions as they aim to shield their loved one from the distress of understanding the true nature of their underlying condition.

      However, if the patient possesses the mental capacity to comprehend, it is important to disclose the details of their condition if they express a desire to know. Engage in an open and sensitive conversation with the patient, allowing them to determine the extent of information they wish to receive about their condition.

      For further information, refer to the GMC Guidance on the topic of utilizing and divulging patient information for direct care.
      https://www.gmc-uk.org/ethical-guidance/ethical-guidance-for-doctors/confidentiality/using-and-disclosing-patient-information-for-direct-care

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative & End Of Life Care
      45.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old woman presents with bleeding gums and easy bruising. She also reports...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with bleeding gums and easy bruising. She also reports feeling extremely tired lately and has been experiencing recurrent chest infections for the past few months. She had mononucleosis approximately six months ago and believes her symptoms started after that. Her complete blood count today shows the following results:
      Hemoglobin: 5.4 g/dl (11.5-14 g/dl)
      Mean Corpuscular Volume: 89 fl (80-100 fl)
      White Cell Count: 1.1 x 109/l (4-11 x 109/l)
      Platelets: 17 x 109/l (150-450 x 109/l)
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aplastic anaemia

      Explanation:

      Aplastic anaemia is a rare and potentially life-threatening condition where the bone marrow fails to produce enough blood cells. This results in a decrease in the number of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets in the body, a condition known as pancytopenia. The main cause of aplastic anaemia is damage to the bone marrow and the stem cells that reside there. This damage can be caused by various factors such as autoimmune disorders, certain medications like sulphonamide antibiotics and phenytoin, viral infections like EBV and parvovirus, chemotherapy, radiotherapy, or inherited conditions like Fanconi anaemia. Patients with aplastic anaemia typically experience symptoms such as anaemia, recurrent infections due to a low white blood cell count, and an increased tendency to bleed due to low platelet levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      38.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 12-year-old boy comes in with complaints of double vision. He is holding...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old boy comes in with complaints of double vision. He is holding his head tilted to the left-hand side. During the examination of his eye movements, it is observed that both eyes can look normally to the right, but on looking to the left, his left eye cannot turn outwards past the midline. The right eye is unaffected when looking to the left.
      Which muscle is the MOST likely to be involved in this case?

      Your Answer: Lateral rectus

      Explanation:

      This patient is experiencing a condition called right-sided abducens nerve palsy, which means that their sixth cranial nerve is paralyzed. As a result, the lateral rectus muscle, which is responsible for moving the eye outward, is also paralyzed. This means that the patient’s right eye is unable to turn outward. This can lead to a condition called convergent strabismus, where the eyes are not aligned properly, and diplopia, which is double vision. To compensate for the double vision, patients often tilt their head towards the side of the paralyzed muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 35 year old male comes to the emergency department complaining of a...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old male comes to the emergency department complaining of a growing area of redness that has been spreading from a mosquito bite for the past two days. Upon examination, you observe slightly tender redness on the right lower limb, which feels warm and mildly painful to touch. The patient does not have a fever, and vital signs are within normal range.

      You determine that the patient has mild cellulitis. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Discharge with oral flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      Flucloxacillin is recommended as the initial treatment for mild cellulitis, according to NICE guidelines. The recommended dosage for flucloxacillin is 500-1000 mg taken four times a day for a period of 5-7 days. However, if a patient is allergic to penicillin or if flucloxacillin is not suitable for them, alternative medications such as clarithromycin, doxycycline, or erythromycin can be used as second-line options. It is important to note that for cellulitis near the eyes, co-amoxiclav is advised as the first-line treatment, while for cellulitis in patients with lymphedema who do not require hospital admission, amoxicillin is recommended as the first-line treatment.

      Further Reading:

      Cellulitis is an inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues caused by an infection, usually by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It commonly occurs on the shins and is characterized by symptoms such as erythema, pain, swelling, and heat. In some cases, there may also be systemic symptoms like fever and malaise.

      The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification to determine the appropriate management of cellulitis. Class I cellulitis refers to cases without signs of systemic toxicity or uncontrolled comorbidities. Class II cellulitis involves either systemic illness or the presence of a co-morbidity that may complicate or delay the resolution of the infection. Class III cellulitis is characterized by significant systemic upset or limb-threatening infection due to vascular compromise. Class IV cellulitis involves sepsis syndrome or a severe life-threatening infection like necrotizing fasciitis.

      According to the guidelines, patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. This also applies to patients with severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail individuals, immunocompromised patients, those with significant lymphedema, and those with facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild). Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the necessary facilities and expertise are available in the community to administer intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.

      The recommended first-line treatment for mild to moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin. For patients allergic to penicillin, clarithromycin or clindamycin is recommended. In cases where patients have failed to respond to flucloxacillin, local protocols may suggest the use of oral clindamycin. Severe cellulitis should be treated with intravenous benzylpenicillin and flucloxacillin.

      Overall, the management of cellulitis depends on the severity of the infection and the presence of any systemic symptoms or complications. Prompt treatment with appropriate antibiotics is crucial to prevent further complications and promote healing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      34.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 45-year-old woman presents with increasing shortness of breath at rest and severe...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with increasing shortness of breath at rest and severe left shoulder pain. The pain travels down the inner side of her left arm and into her ring and little finger. She has a long history of smoking, having smoked 30 packs of cigarettes per year. During the examination, her voice sounds hoarse and there is muscle wasting in her left hand and forearm. Additionally, she has a left-sided ptosis and miosis.

      What is the MOST suitable initial test to perform?

      Your Answer: Chest X-ray

      Explanation:

      This individual, who has been smoking for a long time, is likely to have squamous cell carcinoma of the lung located at the right apex. This particular type of cancer is causing Pancoast’s syndrome. Pancoast’s syndrome typically presents with rib erosion, leading to severe shoulder pain, as well as Horner’s syndrome due to the infiltration of the lower part of the brachial plexus. Additionally, there may be hoarseness of the voice and a ‘bovine cough’ due to a concurrent recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy.

      The classic description of Horner’s syndrome includes the following clinical features on the same side as the tumor: miosis (constricted pupil), ptosis (drooping eyelid), anhidrosis (lack of sweating), and enophthalmos (sunken appearance of the eye). A chest X-ray would be able to detect the presence of the apical tumor and confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 45-year-old man receives a blood transfusion for anemia secondary to gastrointestinal bleeding....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man receives a blood transfusion for anemia secondary to gastrointestinal bleeding. During the transfusion, he complains of experiencing alternating sensations of heat and cold during the second unit, and his temperature is measured at 38.1ºC. His temperature before the transfusion was measured at 37ºC. He feels fine otherwise and does not have any other symptoms.
      Which of the following transfusion reactions is most likely to have taken place?

      Your Answer: Febrile transfusion reaction

      Explanation:

      Blood transfusion is a crucial medical treatment that can save lives, but it also comes with various risks and potential problems. These include immunological complications, administration errors, infections, and immune dilution. While there have been improvements in safety procedures and a reduction in transfusion use, errors and adverse reactions still occur. One common adverse reaction is febrile transfusion reactions, which present as an unexpected rise in temperature during or after transfusion. This can be caused by cytokine accumulation or recipient antibodies reacting to donor antigens. Treatment for febrile transfusion reactions is supportive, and other potential causes should be ruled out.

      Another serious complication is acute haemolytic reaction, which is often caused by ABO incompatibility due to administration errors. This reaction requires the transfusion to be stopped and IV fluids to be administered. Delayed haemolytic reactions can occur several days after a transfusion and may require monitoring and treatment for anaemia and renal function. Allergic reactions, TRALI (Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury), TACO (Transfusion Associated Circulatory Overload), and GVHD (Graft-vs-Host Disease) are other potential complications that require specific management approaches.

      In summary, blood transfusion carries risks and potential complications, but efforts have been made to improve safety procedures. It is important to be aware of these complications and to promptly address any adverse reactions that may occur during or after a transfusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 65-year-old patient presents with nausea and vomiting and decreased urine output. He...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient presents with nausea and vomiting and decreased urine output. He has only passed a small amount of urine in the last day, and he has noticeable swelling in his ankles. His blood tests show a sudden increase in his creatinine levels in the last 48 hours, leading to a diagnosis of acute kidney injury (AKI).
      What is a potential pre-renal cause of AKI in this patient?

      Your Answer: Cardiac failure

      Explanation:

      Acute kidney injury (AKI), previously known as acute renal failure, is a sudden decline in kidney function. This results in the accumulation of waste products and disturbances in fluid and electrolyte balance. AKI can occur in individuals with previously normal kidney function or those with pre-existing kidney disease, known as acute-on-chronic kidney disease. It is a relatively common condition, with approximately 15% of adults admitted to hospitals in the UK developing AKI.

      The causes of AKI can be categorized into pre-renal, intrinsic renal, and post-renal factors. The majority of AKI cases in the community are due to pre-renal causes, accounting for 90% of cases. These are often associated with conditions such as hypotension from sepsis or fluid depletion. Medications, particularly ACE inhibitors and NSAIDs, are also frequently implicated in AKI.

      The table below summarizes the most common causes of AKI:

      Pre-renal:
      – Volume depletion (e.g., hemorrhage, severe vomiting or diarrhea, burns)
      – Oedematous states (e.g., cardiac failure, liver cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome)
      – Hypotension (e.g., cardiogenic shock, sepsis, anaphylaxis)
      – Cardiovascular conditions (e.g., severe cardiac failure, arrhythmias)
      – Renal hypoperfusion: NSAIDs, COX-2 inhibitors, ACE inhibitors or ARBs, Abdominal aortic aneurysm
      – Renal artery stenosis
      – Hepatorenal syndrome

      Intrinsic renal:
      – Glomerular disease (e.g., glomerulonephritis, thrombosis, hemolytic-uremic syndrome)
      – Tubular injury: acute tubular necrosis (ATN) following prolonged ischemia
      – Acute interstitial nephritis due to drugs (e.g., NSAIDs), infection, or autoimmune diseases
      – Vascular disease (e.g., vasculitis, polyarteritis nodosa, thrombotic microangiopathy, cholesterol emboli, renal vein thrombosis, malignant hypertension)
      – Eclampsia

      Post-renal:
      – Renal stones
      – Blood clot
      – Papillary necrosis
      – Urethral stricture
      – Prostatic hypertrophy or malignancy
      – Bladder tumor
      – Radiation fibrosis
      – Pelvic malignancy
      – Retroperitoneal fibrosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      12.7
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  • Question 30 - A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department anxious, confused, and agitated. He...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department anxious, confused, and agitated. He has also vomited several times. He has recently been prescribed a course of amoxicillin for a presumed sinus infection by his primary care physician. You are unable to obtain a coherent medical history from him, but he has his regular medications with him, which include: ibuprofen, atorvastatin, and metformin. He has a friend with him who states he stopped taking his medications a few days ago. His vital signs are: temperature 38.9°C, heart rate 138, respiratory rate 23, blood pressure 173/96, and oxygen saturation 97% on room air.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Thyroid storm

      Explanation:

      Thyroid storm is a rare condition that affects only 1-2% of patients with hyperthyroidism. However, it is crucial to diagnose it promptly because it has a high mortality rate of approximately 10%. Thyroid storm is often triggered by a physiological stressor, such as stopping antithyroid therapy prematurely, recent surgery or radio-iodine treatment, infections (especially chest infections), trauma, diabetic ketoacidosis or hyperosmolar diabetic crisis, thyroid hormone overdose, pre-eclampsia. It typically occurs in patients with Graves’ disease or toxic multinodular goitre and presents with sudden and severe hyperthyroidism. Symptoms include high fever (over 41°C), dehydration, rapid heart rate (greater than 140 beats per minute) with or without irregular heart rhythms, low blood pressure, congestive heart failure, nausea, jaundice, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, confusion, agitation, delirium, psychosis, seizures, or coma.

      To diagnose thyroid storm, various blood tests should be conducted, including a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, blood glucose, coagulation screen, CRP, and thyroid profile (T4/T3 and TSH). A bone profile/calcium test should also be done as 10% of patients develop hypocalcemia. Blood cultures should be taken as well. Other important investigations include a urine dipstick/MC&S, chest X-ray, and ECG.

      The management of thyroid storm involves several steps. Intravenous fluids, such as 1-2 liters of 0.9% saline, should be administered. Airway support and management should be provided as necessary. A nasogastric tube should be inserted if the patient is vomiting. Urgent referral for inpatient management is essential. Paracetamol (1 g PO/IV) can be given to reduce fever. Benzodiazepines, such as diazepam (5-20 mg PO/IV), can be used for sedation. Steroids, like hydrocortisone (100 mg IV), may be necessary if there is co-existing adrenal suppression. Antibiotics should be prescribed if there is an intercurrent infection. Beta-blockers, such as propranolol (80 mg PO), can help control heart rate. High-dose carbimazole (45-60 mg/day) is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 31 - A 42-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain and a small amount...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain and a small amount of rectal bleeding. During the examination, she has a slight fever (38.1°C) and experiences tenderness in the left iliac fossa. She has a long history of constipation.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute diverticulitis

      Explanation:

      Acute diverticulitis occurs when a diverticulum becomes inflamed or perforated. This inflammation can either stay localized, forming a pericolic abscess, or spread and cause peritonitis. The typical symptoms of acute diverticulitis include abdominal pain (most commonly felt in the lower left quadrant), fever/sepsis, tenderness in the left iliac fossa, the presence of a mass in the left iliac fossa, and rectal bleeding. About 90% of cases involve the sigmoid colon, which is why left iliac fossa pain and tenderness are commonly seen.

      To diagnose acute diverticulitis, various investigations should be conducted. These include blood tests such as a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, C-reactive protein, and blood cultures. Imaging studies like abdominal X-ray, erect chest X-ray, and possibly an abdominal CT scan may also be necessary.

      Complications that can arise from acute diverticulitis include perforation leading to abscess formation or peritonitis, intestinal obstruction, massive rectal bleeding, fistulae, and strictures.

      In the emergency department, the treatment for diverticulitis should involve providing suitable pain relief, administering intravenous fluids, prescribing broad-spectrum antibiotics (such as intravenous co-amoxiclav), and advising the patient to refrain from eating or drinking. It is also important to refer the patient to the on-call surgical team for further management.

      For more information on diverticular disease, you can refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
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  • Question 32 - A 42 year old male patient is brought into resus with a three...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old male patient is brought into resus with a three day history of nausea and vomiting. He has decreased GCS, is hypotensive and tachycardic. His roommate informs you that he was diagnosed with Addison's disease approximately six months ago and frequently neglects to take his prescribed medication. What is the most accurate description of the underlying cause of Addison's disease?

      Your Answer: Destruction of the adrenal cortex

      Explanation:

      Addison’s disease occurs when the adrenal cortex is destroyed. The anterior pituitary gland produces and releases adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), not the posterior pituitary gland. The adrenal cortex is responsible for producing cortisol, not the adrenal medulla.

      Further Reading:

      Addison’s disease, also known as primary adrenal insufficiency or hypoadrenalism, is a rare disorder caused by the destruction of the adrenal cortex. This leads to reduced production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and adrenal androgens. The deficiency of cortisol results in increased production of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) due to reduced negative feedback to the pituitary gland. This condition can cause metabolic disturbances such as hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, hypercalcemia, and hypoglycemia.

      The symptoms of Addison’s disease can vary but commonly include fatigue, weight loss, muscle weakness, and low blood pressure. It is more common in women and typically affects individuals between the ages of 30-50. The most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in developed countries is autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands. Other causes include tuberculosis, adrenal metastases, meningococcal septicaemia, HIV, and genetic disorders.

      The diagnosis of Addison’s disease is often suspected based on low cortisol levels and electrolyte abnormalities. The adrenocorticotropic hormone stimulation test is commonly used for confirmation. Other investigations may include adrenal autoantibodies, imaging scans, and genetic screening.

      Addisonian crisis is a potentially life-threatening condition that occurs when there is an acute deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone. It can be the first presentation of undiagnosed Addison’s disease. Precipitating factors of an Addisonian crisis include infection, dehydration, surgery, trauma, physiological stress, pregnancy, hypoglycemia, and acute withdrawal of long-term steroids. Symptoms of an Addisonian crisis include malaise, fatigue, nausea or vomiting, abdominal pain, fever, muscle pains, dehydration, confusion, and loss of consciousness.

      There is no fixed consensus on diagnostic criteria for an Addisonian crisis, as symptoms are non-specific. Investigations may include blood tests, blood gas analysis, and septic screens if infection is suspected. Management involves administering hydrocortisone and fluids. Hydrocortisone is given parenterally, and the dosage varies depending on the age of the patient. Fluid resuscitation with saline is necessary to correct any electrolyte disturbances and maintain blood pressure. The underlying cause of the crisis should also be identified and treated. Close monitoring of sodium levels is important to prevent complications such as osmotic demyelination syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      18.7
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  • Question 33 - A young woman is referred to the GUM clinic for investigation of symptoms...

    Correct

    • A young woman is referred to the GUM clinic for investigation of symptoms that can be associated with sexually transmitted infection. Following her assessment, she is diagnosed with gonorrhoea.

      Which of the following is the most common presenting clinical feature of gonorrhoea in women?

      Your Answer: Urethritis

      Explanation:

      Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a type of bacteria that is shaped like two spheres and stains pink when tested. It is responsible for causing the sexually transmitted infection known as gonorrhoea. This infection is most commonly seen in individuals between the ages of 15 and 35, and it is primarily transmitted through sexual contact. One important thing to note is that the gonococcal pili, which are hair-like structures on the bacteria, can change their appearance. This means that even if someone has recovered from a previous infection, they can still be reinfected due to the bacteria’s ability to change.

      In men, the clinical signs of gonorrhoea include inflammation of the urethra, which is seen in approximately 80% of cases. Around 50% of men experience pain or discomfort during urination, and a mucopurulent discharge may also be present. Rectal infection is possible, although it is usually asymptomatic. In some cases, it can cause anal discharge. Pharyngitis, or inflammation of the throat, is also possible but typically does not cause any noticeable symptoms.

      Women with gonorrhoea may experience a vaginal discharge, which is seen in about 50% of cases. Lower abdominal pain is reported in approximately 25% of women, and dysuria, or painful urination, is seen in 10-15% of cases. Pelvic or lower abdominal tenderness is less common, occurring in less than 5% of women. Additionally, women may have an endocervical discharge and/or bleeding. Similar to men, rectal infection is usually asymptomatic but can cause anal discharge. Pharyngitis is also possible in women, but it is typically asymptomatic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      10.6
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  • Question 34 - You are caring for a hypoxic patient in the resuscitation bay. One of...

    Correct

    • You are caring for a hypoxic patient in the resuscitation bay. One of the potential diagnoses is methaemoglobinaemia. If the diagnosis of methaemoglobinaemia is confirmed, which of the following treatments would be the most appropriate to administer?

      Your Answer: Methylene blue

      Explanation:

      If IV methylene blue is obtained, it is typically used to treat a specific cause. However, if there is no response to methylene blue, alternative treatments such as hyperbaric oxygen or exchange transfusion may be considered. In cases where the cause is NADH-methaemoglobinaemia reductase deficiency, ascorbic acid can be used as a potential treatment.

      Further Reading:

      Methaemoglobinaemia is a condition where haemoglobin is oxidised from Fe2+ to Fe3+. This process is normally regulated by NADH methaemoglobin reductase, which transfers electrons from NADH to methaemoglobin, converting it back to haemoglobin. In healthy individuals, methaemoglobin levels are typically less than 1% of total haemoglobin. However, an increase in methaemoglobin can lead to tissue hypoxia as Fe3+ cannot bind oxygen effectively.

      Methaemoglobinaemia can be congenital or acquired. Congenital causes include haemoglobin chain variants (HbM, HbH) and NADH methaemoglobin reductase deficiency. Acquired causes can be due to exposure to certain drugs or chemicals, such as sulphonamides, local anaesthetics (especially prilocaine), nitrates, chloroquine, dapsone, primaquine, and phenytoin. Aniline dyes are also known to cause methaemoglobinaemia.

      Clinical features of methaemoglobinaemia include slate grey cyanosis (blue to grey skin coloration), chocolate blood or chocolate cyanosis (brown color of blood), dyspnoea, low SpO2 on pulse oximetry (which often does not improve with supplemental oxygen), and normal PaO2 on arterial blood gas (ABG) but low SaO2. Patients may tolerate hypoxia better than expected. Severe cases can present with acidosis, arrhythmias, seizures, and coma.

      Diagnosis of methaemoglobinaemia is made by directly measuring the level of methaemoglobin using a co-oximeter, which is present in most modern blood gas analysers. Other investigations, such as a full blood count (FBC), electrocardiogram (ECG), chest X-ray (CXR), and beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (bHCG) levels (in pregnancy), may be done to assess the extent of the condition and rule out other contributing factors.

      Active treatment is required if the methaemoglobin level is above 30% or if it is below 30% but the patient is symptomatic or shows evidence of tissue hypoxia. Treatment involves maintaining the airway and delivering high-flow oxygen, removing the causative agents, treating toxidromes and consider giving IV dextrose 5%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 35 - A 3 week old female is brought into the emergency department due to...

    Correct

    • A 3 week old female is brought into the emergency department due to repeated episodes of forceful vomiting. After conducting an initial evaluation, you suspect that the patient may have pyloric stenosis. Which of the following metabolic imbalances is most frequently linked to pyloric stenosis?

      Your Answer: Hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      Pyloric stenosis, a condition characterized by narrowing of the pylorus (the opening between the stomach and small intestine), often leads to an electrolyte imbalance. This imbalance typically presents as hypochloremia (low chloride levels), hypokalemia (low potassium levels), and metabolic alkalosis (an increase in blood pH). To confirm the diagnosis, it is recommended to perform U&Es (tests to measure electrolyte levels) and a venous blood gas analysis. The electrolyte abnormalities observed in pyloric stenosis are primarily caused by the loss of hydrogen and chloride ions through vomiting. While urine is usually alkaline in this condition, severe dehydration can lead to paradoxical aciduria, where hydrogen ions are preferentially secreted instead of potassium ions to prevent further decrease in potassium levels.

      Further Reading:

      Pyloric stenosis is a condition that primarily affects infants, characterized by the thickening of the muscles in the pylorus, leading to obstruction of the gastric outlet. It typically presents between the 3rd and 12th weeks of life, with recurrent projectile vomiting being the main symptom. The condition is more common in males, with a positive family history and being first-born being additional risk factors. Bottle-fed children and those delivered by c-section are also more likely to develop pyloric stenosis.

      Clinical features of pyloric stenosis include projectile vomiting, usually occurring about 30 minutes after a feed, as well as constipation and dehydration. A palpable mass in the upper abdomen, often described as like an olive, may also be present. The persistent vomiting can lead to electrolyte disturbances, such as hypochloremia, alkalosis, and mild hypokalemia.

      Ultrasound is the preferred diagnostic tool for confirming pyloric stenosis. It can reveal specific criteria, including a pyloric muscle thickness greater than 3 mm, a pylorus longitudinal length greater than 15-17 mm, a pyloric volume greater than 1.5 cm3, and a pyloric transverse diameter greater than 13 mm.

      The definitive treatment for pyloric stenosis is pyloromyotomy, a surgical procedure that involves making an incision in the thickened pyloric muscle to relieve the obstruction. Before surgery, it is important to correct any hypovolemia and electrolyte disturbances with intravenous fluids. Overall, pyloric stenosis is a relatively common condition in infants, but with prompt diagnosis and appropriate management, it can be effectively treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
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  • Question 36 - A 38 year old is participating in a charity mountain trek up Mount...

    Correct

    • A 38 year old is participating in a charity mountain trek up Mount Kilimanjaro but falls ill at an elevation of 3800m. What clinical feature helps differentiate high altitude cerebral edema from acute mountain sickness?

      Your Answer: Ataxia

      Explanation:

      High Altitude Cerebral Edema (HACE) is a condition that develops from acute mountain sickness (AMS). Ataxia, which refers to a lack of coordination, is the primary early indication of HACE. The mentioned symptoms are typical characteristics of AMS.

      Further Reading:

      High Altitude Illnesses

      Altitude & Hypoxia:
      – As altitude increases, atmospheric pressure decreases and inspired oxygen pressure falls.
      – Hypoxia occurs at altitude due to decreased inspired oxygen.
      – At 5500m, inspired oxygen is approximately half that at sea level, and at 8900m, it is less than a third.

      Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS):
      – AMS is a clinical syndrome caused by hypoxia at altitude.
      – Symptoms include headache, anorexia, sleep disturbance, nausea, dizziness, fatigue, malaise, and shortness of breath.
      – Symptoms usually occur after 6-12 hours above 2500m.
      – Risk factors for AMS include previous AMS, fast ascent, sleeping at altitude, and age <50 years old.
      – The Lake Louise AMS score is used to assess the severity of AMS.
      – Treatment involves stopping ascent, maintaining hydration, and using medication for symptom relief.
      – Medications for moderate to severe symptoms include dexamethasone and acetazolamide.
      – Gradual ascent, hydration, and avoiding alcohol can help prevent AMS.

      High Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE):
      – HAPE is a progression of AMS but can occur without AMS symptoms.
      – It is the leading cause of death related to altitude illness.
      – Risk factors for HAPE include rate of ascent, intensity of exercise, absolute altitude, and individual susceptibility.
      – Symptoms include dyspnea, cough, chest tightness, poor exercise tolerance, cyanosis, low oxygen saturations, tachycardia, tachypnea, crepitations, and orthopnea.
      – Management involves immediate descent, supplemental oxygen, keeping warm, and medication such as nifedipine.

      High Altitude Cerebral Edema (HACE):
      – HACE is thought to result from vasogenic edema and increased vascular pressure.
      – It occurs 2-4 days after ascent and is associated with moderate to severe AMS symptoms.
      – Symptoms include headache, hallucinations, disorientation, confusion, ataxia, drowsiness, seizures, and manifestations of raised intracranial pressure.
      – Immediate descent is crucial for management, and portable hyperbaric therapy may be used if descent is not possible.
      – Medication for treatment includes dexamethasone and supplemental oxygen. Acetazolamide is typically used for prophylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
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  • Question 37 - You are managing a 72-year-old patient with type 2 respiratory failure. It has...

    Incorrect

    • You are managing a 72-year-old patient with type 2 respiratory failure. It has been decided to initiate BiPAP therapy. What initial EPAP and IPAP pressure settings would you recommend?

      Your Answer: EPAP 3-5 cmH2O / IPAP 10-15 cmH2O

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      When determining the initial EPAP and IPAP pressure settings for this patient, it is important to consider their specific needs and condition. In general, the EPAP pressure should be set between 3-5 cmH2O, which helps to maintain positive pressure in the airways during exhalation, preventing them from collapsing. This can improve oxygenation and reduce the work of breathing.

      The IPAP pressure, on the other hand, should be set between 10-15 cmH2O. This higher pressure during inhalation helps to overcome any resistance in the airways and ensures adequate ventilation. It also assists in improving the patient’s tidal volume and reducing carbon dioxide levels.

      Therefore, the recommended initial EPAP and IPAP pressure settings for this patient would be EPAP 3-5 cmH2O / IPAP 10-15 cmH2O. These settings provide a balance between maintaining airway patency during exhalation and ensuring sufficient ventilation during inhalation. However, it is important to regularly assess the patient’s response to therapy and adjust the settings as needed to optimize their respiratory function.

      Further Reading:

      Mechanical ventilation is the use of artificial means to assist or replace spontaneous breathing. It can be invasive, involving instrumentation inside the trachea, or non-invasive, where there is no instrumentation of the trachea. Non-invasive mechanical ventilation (NIV) in the emergency department typically refers to the use of CPAP or BiPAP.

      CPAP, or continuous positive airways pressure, involves delivering air or oxygen through a tight-fitting face mask to maintain a continuous positive pressure throughout the patient’s respiratory cycle. This helps maintain small airway patency, improves oxygenation, decreases airway resistance, and reduces the work of breathing. CPAP is mainly used for acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema.

      BiPAP, or biphasic positive airways pressure, also provides positive airway pressure but with variations during the respiratory cycle. The pressure is higher during inspiration than expiration, generating a tidal volume that assists ventilation. BiPAP is mainly indicated for type 2 respiratory failure in patients with COPD who are already on maximal medical therapy.

      The pressure settings for CPAP typically start at 5 cmH2O and can be increased to a maximum of 15 cmH2O. For BiPAP, the starting pressure for expiratory pressure (EPAP) or positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is 3-5 cmH2O, while the starting pressure for inspiratory pressure (IPAP) is 10-15 cmH2O. These pressures can be titrated up if there is persisting hypoxia or acidosis.

      In terms of lung protective ventilation, low tidal volumes of 5-8 ml/kg are used to prevent atelectasis and reduce the risk of lung injury. Inspiratory pressures (plateau pressure) should be kept below 30 cm of water, and permissible hypercapnia may be allowed. However, there are contraindications to lung protective ventilation, such as unacceptable levels of hypercapnia, acidosis, and hypoxemia.

      Overall, mechanical ventilation, whether invasive or non-invasive, is used in various respiratory and non-respiratory conditions to support or replace spontaneous breathing and improve oxygenation and ventilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 38 - A 45-year-old man comes in with a fever, chills, headache, cough, and difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man comes in with a fever, chills, headache, cough, and difficulty breathing. He also complains of a sore throat and occasional nosebleeds. He works at a nearby zoo in the bird exhibit. During the examination, a reddish macular rash is observed on his face, along with significant crackling sounds in both lower lobes of his lungs and an enlarged spleen.

      What is the specific name of the rash on his face that is associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: Erythema chronicum migrans

      Correct Answer: Horder’s spots

      Explanation:

      Psittacosis is a type of infection that can be transmitted from animals to humans, caused by a bacterium called Chlamydia psittaci. It is most commonly seen in people who own domestic birds, as well as those who work in pet shops or zoos. The typical symptoms of psittacosis include pneumonia that is acquired within the community, along with flu-like symptoms. Many patients also experience severe headaches and sensitivity to light. Enlargement of the spleen is a common finding in about two-thirds of individuals with this infection.

      Infected individuals often develop a rash on their face, known as Horder’s spots, which appear as reddish macules. In some cases, erythema nodosum and erythema multiforme may also occur. The recommended treatment for psittacosis is a course of tetracycline or doxycycline for a period of 2-3 weeks.

      On the other hand, rose spots are typically observed in cases of typhoid fever. These spots have a similar appearance to Horder’s spots but are usually found on the trunk rather than the face. Erythema marginatum is a pale red rash seen in rheumatic fever, while malar flush, also known as ‘mitral facies’, refers to the reddish discoloration of the cheeks commonly seen in individuals with mitral stenosis. Lastly, erythema chronicum migrans is the distinctive rash seen in Lyme disease, characterized by a circular rash with a central ‘bulls-eye’ appearance that spreads outward from the site of a tick bite.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      34.6
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  • Question 39 - You observe that a patient's temperature has risen to 41.5ºC after rapid sequence...

    Correct

    • You observe that a patient's temperature has risen to 41.5ºC after rapid sequence induction. You are worried that the patient might be experiencing malignant hyperthermia. What is typically the earliest and most frequent clinical manifestation of malignant hyperthermia?

      Your Answer: Increasing end tidal CO2

      Explanation:

      The earliest and most common clinical indication of malignant hyperthermia is typically an increase in end tidal CO2 levels.

      Further Reading:

      Malignant hyperthermia is a rare and life-threatening syndrome that can be triggered by certain medications in individuals who are genetically susceptible. The most common triggers are suxamethonium and inhalational anaesthetic agents. The syndrome is caused by the release of stored calcium ions from skeletal muscle cells, leading to uncontrolled muscle contraction and excessive heat production. This results in symptoms such as high fever, sweating, flushed skin, rapid heartbeat, and muscle rigidity. It can also lead to complications such as acute kidney injury, rhabdomyolysis, and metabolic acidosis. Treatment involves discontinuing the trigger medication, administering dantrolene to inhibit calcium release and promote muscle relaxation, and managing any associated complications such as hyperkalemia and acidosis. Referral to a malignant hyperthermia center for further investigation is also recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      8.3
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  • Question 40 - A 32-year-old man that has been involved in a car crash develops symptoms...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man that has been involved in a car crash develops symptoms of acute airway blockage. You conclude that he needs to be intubated using a rapid sequence induction. You intend to use thiopental sodium as your induction medication.
      What type of receptor does thiopental sodium act on to produce its effects?

      Your Answer: Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

      Explanation:

      Thiopental sodium is a barbiturate with a very short duration of action. It is primarily used to induce anesthesia. Barbiturates are believed to primarily affect synapses by reducing the sensitivity of postsynaptic receptors to neurotransmitters and by interfering with the release of neurotransmitters from presynaptic neurons.

      Thiopental sodium specifically binds to a unique site associated with a chloride ionophore at the GABAA receptor, which is responsible for the opening of chloride ion channels. This binding increases the length of time that the chloride ionophore remains open. As a result, the inhibitory effect of GABA on postsynaptic neurons in the thalamus is prolonged.

      In summary, thiopental sodium acts as a short-acting barbiturate that is commonly used to induce anesthesia. It affects synapses by reducing postsynaptic receptor sensitivity and interfering with neurotransmitter release. By binding to a specific site at the GABAA receptor, thiopental sodium prolongs the inhibitory effect of GABA in the thalamus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
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  • Question 41 - A 32-year-old man receives a blood transfusion and experiences a severe transfusion reaction....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man receives a blood transfusion and experiences a severe transfusion reaction. His condition quickly worsens, and he ultimately succumbs to this reaction. His death is reported to Serious Hazards of Transfusion (SHOT).
      What is the primary cause of transfusion-related fatalities in the United Kingdom?

      Your Answer: TACO

      Correct Answer: TRALI

      Explanation:

      Transfusion-related lung injury (TRALI) is responsible for about one-third of all transfusion-related deaths, making it the leading cause. On the other hand, transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) accounts for approximately 20% of these fatalities, making it the second leading cause. TACO occurs when a large volume of blood is rapidly infused, particularly in patients with limited cardiac reserve or chronic anemia. Elderly individuals, infants, and severely anemic patients are especially vulnerable to this reaction.

      The typical signs of TACO include acute respiratory distress, rapid heart rate, high blood pressure, the appearance of acute or worsening pulmonary edema on a chest X-ray, and evidence of excessive fluid accumulation. In many cases, simply reducing the transfusion rate, positioning the patient upright, and administering diuretics will be sufficient to manage the condition. However, in more severe cases, it is necessary to halt the transfusion and consider non-invasive ventilation.

      Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) is defined as new acute lung injury (ALI) that occurs during or within six hours of transfusion, not explained by another ALI risk factor. Transfusion of part of one unit of any blood product can cause TRALI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      14.7
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  • Question 42 - A 2-year-old girl presents with a hoarse cough. You suspect croup as the...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old girl presents with a hoarse cough. You suspect croup as the diagnosis. She has noticeable stridor when upset but none at rest and mild chest retractions are present. Her level of consciousness is normal, and her air entry is normal on chest examination, with no evidence of any crackles. Her SaO2 is 96% on air and does not decrease when upset.
      What is this child's Westley croup score?

      Your Answer: 2 points

      Explanation:

      Croup, also known as laryngo-tracheo-bronchitis, is typically caused by the parainfluenza virus. Other viruses such as rhinovirus, influenza, and respiratory syncytial viruses can also be responsible. Before the onset of stridor, there is usually a mild cold-like illness that lasts for 1-2 days. Symptoms reach their peak at 1-3 days, with the cough often being worse at night. A milder cough may persist for another 7-10 days.

      A barking cough is a characteristic symptom of croup, but it does not indicate the severity of the condition. To reduce airway swelling, dexamethasone and prednisolone are commonly used. Nebulized budesonide can be an alternative if the child is experiencing vomiting. However, it’s important to note that steroids do not shorten the duration of the illness. In severe cases, nebulized adrenaline can be administered.

      Hospitalization for croup is rare and typically reserved for children who are experiencing increasing respiratory distress or showing signs of drowsiness/agitation. The Westley croup score is a useful tool for assessing the child’s condition and making appropriate management decisions. Children with moderate (score 2-7) or severe croup (score >7) may require hospital admission. On the other hand, many children with mild croup (score 0-1) can be safely discharged and treated at home.

      The Westley croup score is determined based on the following criteria: the presence of stridor when agitated, the severity of retractions, air entry, SaO2 levels below 92%, and the child’s conscious level. In this particular case, the child’s Westley croup score is 2 points, indicating the presence of stridor when agitated and mild retractions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
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  • Question 43 - You assess a patient with a decreased potassium level.
    Which of the following is...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a patient with a decreased potassium level.
      Which of the following is NOT a known factor contributing to hypokalemia?

      Your Answer: Bartter’s syndrome

      Correct Answer: Type 4 renal tubular acidosis

      Explanation:

      Hypokalaemia, or low potassium levels, can be caused by various factors. One common cause is inadequate dietary intake, where a person does not consume enough potassium-rich foods. Gastrointestinal loss, such as through diarrhoea, can also lead to hypokalaemia as the body loses potassium through the digestive system. Certain drugs, like diuretics and insulin, can affect potassium levels and contribute to hypokalaemia.

      Alkalosis, a condition characterized by an imbalance in the body’s pH levels, can also cause hypokalaemia. Hypomagnesaemia, or low magnesium levels, is another potential cause. Renal artery stenosis, a narrowing of the arteries that supply blood to the kidneys, can lead to hypokalaemia as well.

      Renal tubular acidosis, specifically types 1 and 2, can cause hypokalaemia. These conditions affect the kidneys’ ability to regulate acid-base balance, resulting in low potassium levels. Conn’s syndrome, Bartter’s syndrome, and Gitelman’s syndrome are all rare inherited defects that can cause hypokalaemia. Bartter’s syndrome affects the ascending limb of the loop of Henle, while Gitelman’s syndrome affects the distal convoluted tubule of the kidney.

      Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis is another condition that can cause low potassium levels. Excessive ingestion of liquorice, a sweet treat made from the root of the liquorice plant, can result in hypokalaemia due to its impact on mineralocorticoid levels.

      It is important to note that while type 1 and 2 renal tubular acidosis cause hypokalaemia, type 4 renal tubular acidosis actually causes hyperkalaemia, or high potassium levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 44 - A 30-year-old woman presents with a painful knee. She first noticed the pain...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with a painful knee. She first noticed the pain a few days ago and is now experiencing general malaise and a fever. Upon examination, the joint appears swollen, hot, and red. The patient is hesitant to move the knee due to the intense pain. No other joints are affected.
      What is the MOST LIKELY causative organism in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Septic arthritis in adults is most commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureus. However, Streptococcus spp. is the most common group of bacteria responsible for this condition. In the past, Haemophilus influenzae used to be a significant cause of septic arthritis, but with the introduction of vaccination programs, its occurrence has significantly decreased. Other bacteria that can lead to septic arthritis include E. Coli, Salmonella, Neisseria gonorrhoea, and Mycobacterium.

      It is important to note that viruses can also be a cause of septic arthritis. Examples of such viruses include hepatitis A, B, and C, coxsackie, adenovirus, and parvovirus. Additionally, fungi can also be responsible for septic arthritis, with Histoplasmosa and Blastomyces being notable examples.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      13.2
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  • Question 45 - A 42-year-old man presents sweaty and distressed, complaining of abdominal pain and nausea....

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presents sweaty and distressed, complaining of abdominal pain and nausea. On examination, he has marked abdominal tenderness that is maximal in the epigastric area. Following his blood results, you make a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. He is a non-drinker.
      His venous bloods are shown below:
      Hb: 12.2 g/dL
      White cell count: 16.7 x 109/L
      Blood glucose 8.7 mmol/L
      AST 458 IU/L
      LDH 375 IU/L
      Amylase: 1045 IU/L
      What is the most likely underlying cause for his pancreatitis?

      Your Answer: Gallstones

      Explanation:

      Acute pancreatitis is a frequently encountered and serious source of acute abdominal pain. It involves the sudden inflammation of the pancreas, leading to the release of enzymes that cause self-digestion of the organ.

      The clinical manifestations of acute pancreatitis include severe epigastric pain, accompanied by feelings of nausea and vomiting. The pain may radiate to the T6-T10 dermatomes or even to the shoulder tip through the phrenic nerve if the diaphragm is irritated. Other symptoms may include fever or sepsis, tenderness in the epigastric region, jaundice, and the presence of Gray-Turner sign (bruising on the flank) or Cullen sign (bruising around the belly button).

      The most common causes of acute pancreatitis are gallstones and alcohol consumption. Additionally, many cases are considered idiopathic, meaning the cause is unknown. To aid in remembering the various causes, the mnemonic ‘I GET SMASHED’ can be helpful. Each letter represents a potential cause: Idiopathic, Gallstones, Ethanol, Trauma, Steroids, Mumps, Autoimmune, Scorpion stings, Hyperlipidemia/hypercalcemia, ERCP (endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography), and Drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 32 year old male attends the emergency department due to sharp chest...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old male attends the emergency department due to sharp chest pain that has come on gradually over the past 48 hours. The patient reports he has general muscle aches and feels more fatigued than usual. The patient indicates the pain is retrosternal and worsens with deep inspiration and lying supine. On auscultation of the chest, a rub is audible that resembles the sound of squeaky leather. The rhythm is regular and quiet heart sounds are noted. Observations are shown below:

      Blood pressure: 112/68 mmHg
      Pulse rate: 92 bpm
      Respiratory rate: 18 rpm
      Temperature: 37.4ºC
      Oxygen saturations: 98% on air

      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pericarditis

      Explanation:

      Pericardial friction rub is a common finding in pericarditis and is often described as a sound similar to squeaking leather. This patient exhibits symptoms that are consistent with acute pericarditis, including flu-like illness with muscle pain and fatigue, chest pain that worsens when lying down and improves when sitting up or leaning forward, and the presence of a pleural rub. The gradual onset of symptoms rules out conditions like pulmonary embolism or acute myocardial ischemia. It is important to note that while the pericardial rub is often considered part of the classic triad of clinical features, it is only present in about one-third of patients. Additionally, the rub may come and go, so repeated examinations may increase the chances of detecting this sign.

      Further Reading:

      Pericarditis is an inflammation of the pericardium, which is the protective sac around the heart. It can be acute, lasting less than 6 weeks, and may present with chest pain, cough, dyspnea, flu-like symptoms, and a pericardial rub. The most common causes of pericarditis include viral infections, tuberculosis, bacterial infections, uremia, trauma, and autoimmune diseases. However, in many cases, the cause remains unknown. Diagnosis is based on clinical features, such as chest pain, pericardial friction rub, and electrocardiographic changes. Treatment involves symptom relief with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), and patients should avoid strenuous activity until symptoms improve. Complicated cases may require treatment for the underlying cause, and large pericardial effusions may need urgent drainage. In cases of purulent effusions, antibiotic therapy is necessary, and steroid therapy may be considered for pericarditis related to autoimmune disorders or if NSAIDs alone are ineffective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 30-year-old woman comes in with a persistent cough and wheezing.
    Which ONE...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman comes in with a persistent cough and wheezing.
      Which ONE clinical characteristic would indicate a possible diagnosis of severe acute asthma?

      Your Answer: Silent chest

      Correct Answer: Heart rate of 115 bpm

      Explanation:

      Asthma can be categorized into three levels of severity: moderate exacerbation, acute severe asthma, and life-threatening asthma.

      Moderate exacerbation is characterized by an increase in symptoms and a peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) that is between 50-75% of the best or predicted value. There are no signs of acute severe asthma present.

      Acute severe asthma is indicated by a PEFR that is between 33-50% of the best or predicted value. Additionally, the respiratory rate is higher than 25 breaths per minute and the heart rate is higher than 110 beats per minute. People experiencing acute severe asthma may have difficulty completing sentences in one breath.

      Life-threatening asthma is the most severe level and requires immediate medical attention. It is identified by a PEFR that is less than 33% of the best or predicted value. Oxygen saturations are below 92% when breathing regular air. The PaCO2 levels are within the normal range of 4.6-6.0 KPa, but the PaO2 levels are below 8 KPa. Other symptoms include a silent chest, cyanosis, feeble respiratory effort, bradycardia, arrhythmia, hypotension, and signs of exhaustion, confusion, or coma.

      It is important to recognize the severity of asthma symptoms in order to provide appropriate medical care and intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 40-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife following...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife following taking an overdose of one of his prescribed medications. Upon further questioning, you discover that he has taken an overdose of quetiapine. You discuss the case with your consultant, and she explains that the clinical features of this type of poisoning are due to central and peripheral acetylcholine receptor blockade.

      Which of the following clinical effects occurs as a result of peripheral acetylcholine receptor blockade?

      Your Answer: Diarrhoea

      Correct Answer: Mydriasis

      Explanation:

      Anticholinergic drugs work by blocking the effects of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter, in both the central and peripheral nervous systems. These drugs are commonly used in clinical practice and include antihistamines, typical and atypical antipsychotics, anticonvulsants, antidepressants, antispasmodics, antiemetics, antiparkinsonian agents, antimuscarinics, and certain plants. When someone ingests an anticholinergic drug, they may experience a toxidrome, which is characterized by an agitated delirium and various signs of acetylcholine receptor blockade in the central and peripheral systems.

      The central effects of anticholinergic drugs result in an agitated delirium, which is marked by fluctuating mental status, confusion, restlessness, visual hallucinations, picking at objects in the air, mumbling, slurred speech, disruptive behavior, tremor, myoclonus, and in rare cases, coma or seizures. On the other hand, the peripheral effects can vary and may include dilated pupils, sinus tachycardia, dry mouth, hot and flushed skin, increased body temperature, urinary retention, and ileus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      29.5
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 52 year old female presents to the emergency department due to increasing...

    Correct

    • A 52 year old female presents to the emergency department due to increasing confusion and restlessness over the past 48 hours. The patient's family inform you that she had complained of feeling anxious and having loose stools yesterday but had attributed it to the antibiotics prescribed by her dentist for a tooth infection a few days ago. It is important to note that the patient has a history of Graves disease. The patient's vital signs are as follows:

      Blood pressure: 152/78 mmHg
      Pulse: 128 bpm
      Respiration rate: 24 bpm
      Temperature: 39.8ºC

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Thyroid storm

      Explanation:

      Thyroid storm, also known as thyrotoxic crisis, is a rare and potentially life-threatening complication of hyperthyroidism. The most common cause of thyroid storm is infection. Please refer to the yellow box at the bottom of the notes for additional information on thyroid storm.

      Further Reading:

      The thyroid gland is an endocrine organ located in the anterior neck. It consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. The gland produces hormones called thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate energy use, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. The production of T4 and T3 is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the pituitary gland, which is in turn stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.

      Thyroid disorders can occur when there is an imbalance in the production or regulation of thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, while hyperthyroidism is characterized by an excess. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. It is more common in women and is often associated with goiter. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, atrophic thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency. On the other hand, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves’ disease, which is also an autoimmune disorder. Other causes include toxic multinodular goiter and subacute thyroiditis.

      The symptoms and signs of thyroid disorders can vary depending on whether the thyroid gland is underactive or overactive. In hypothyroidism, common symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, and dry skin. In hyperthyroidism, common symptoms include weight loss, restlessness, heat intolerance, and increased sweating. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can also affect other systems in the body, such as the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems.

      Complications of thyroid disorders can include dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, coronary heart disease, heart failure, subfertility and infertility, impaired special senses, and myxedema coma in severe cases of hypothyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, complications can include Graves’ orbitopathy, compression of the esophagus or trachea by goiter, thyrotoxic periodic paralysis, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, mood disorders, and increased obstetric complications.

      Myxedema coma is a rare and life-threatening complication of severe hypothyroidism. It can be triggered by factors such as infection or physiological insult and presents with lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 68 year old man has been kept on the observation ward overnight...

    Correct

    • A 68 year old man has been kept on the observation ward overnight due to a head injury and is scheduled for discharge. While eating a sandwich, he starts coughing violently. His face is turning cyanosed and he is having difficulty breathing. The cough seems ineffective at clearing his throat. He remains conscious, coughing, and exhibits noticeable stridor. What is the most suitable immediate course of action?

      Your Answer: Give 5 back blows or 5 abdominal thrusts

      Explanation:

      When an adult patient is choking and unable to clear the obstruction by coughing, the next step is to deliver either 5 back blows or abdominal thrusts. The appropriate action depends on the severity of the airway obstruction. If the choking is mild and not causing significant difficulty in breathing, it is recommended to encourage the patient to cough and closely monitor for any worsening symptoms. However, if the choking is severe and causing a complete blockage of the airway, it is necessary to administer either back blows or abdominal thrusts to dislodge the obstruction. In the event that the patient loses consciousness, immediate CPR should be initiated.

      Further Reading:

      Cardiopulmonary arrest is a serious event with low survival rates. In non-traumatic cardiac arrest, only about 20% of patients who arrest as an in-patient survive to hospital discharge, while the survival rate for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest is approximately 8%. The Resus Council BLS/AED Algorithm for 2015 recommends chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute with a compression depth of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 30:2.

      After a cardiac arrest, the goal of patient care is to minimize the impact of post cardiac arrest syndrome, which includes brain injury, myocardial dysfunction, the ischaemic/reperfusion response, and the underlying pathology that caused the arrest. The ABCDE approach is used for clinical assessment and general management. Intubation may be necessary if the airway cannot be maintained by simple measures or if it is immediately threatened. Controlled ventilation is aimed at maintaining oxygen saturation levels between 94-98% and normocarbia. Fluid status may be difficult to judge, but a target mean arterial pressure (MAP) between 65 and 100 mmHg is recommended. Inotropes may be administered to maintain blood pressure. Sedation should be adequate to gain control of ventilation, and short-acting sedating agents like propofol are preferred. Blood glucose levels should be maintained below 8 mmol/l. Pyrexia should be avoided, and there is some evidence for controlled mild hypothermia but no consensus on this.

      Post ROSC investigations may include a chest X-ray, ECG monitoring, serial potassium and lactate measurements, and other imaging modalities like ultrasonography, echocardiography, CTPA, and CT head, depending on availability and skills in the local department. Treatment should be directed towards the underlying cause, and PCI or thrombolysis may be considered for acute coronary syndrome or suspected pulmonary embolism, respectively.

      Patients who are comatose after ROSC without significant pre-arrest comorbidities should be transferred to the ICU for supportive care. Neurological outcome at 72 hours is the best prognostic indicator of outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      63.7
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 42 year old male attends the emergency department having been found hypothermic...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old male attends the emergency department having been found hypothermic and intoxicated due to alcohol. Following initial treatment and a period of observation the patient is deemed safe for discharge. You inform the patient that their weekly alcohol consumption meets the criteria of harmful drinking (high risk drinking) and you recommend the patient takes measures to decrease their alcohol intake.

      Harmful drinking in men is defined as alcohol consumption greater than or equal to how many units per week?

      Your Answer: 50

      Correct Answer: 35

      Explanation:

      Harmful drinking is when a person consumes at least 35 units of alcohol per week if they are a woman, or at least 50 units per week if they are a man. This level of drinking can lead to negative consequences for their mental and physical health.

      Hazardous drinking, also known as increasing risk drinking, refers to a pattern of alcohol consumption that raises the likelihood of harm. For women, this means drinking more than 14 units but less than 35 units per week, while for men it means drinking more than 14 units but less than 50 units per week.

      High-risk drinking, or harmful drinking, is a pattern of alcohol consumption that causes mental or physical damage. This occurs when a woman drinks 35 units or more per week, or when a man drinks 50 units or more per week.

      Further Reading:

      Alcoholic liver disease (ALD) is a spectrum of disease that ranges from fatty liver at one end to alcoholic cirrhosis at the other. Fatty liver is generally benign and reversible with alcohol abstinence, while alcoholic cirrhosis is a more advanced and irreversible form of the disease. Alcoholic hepatitis, which involves inflammation of the liver, can lead to the development of fibrotic tissue and cirrhosis.

      Several factors can increase the risk of progression of ALD, including female sex, genetics, advanced age, induction of liver enzymes by drugs, and co-existent viral hepatitis, especially hepatitis C.

      The development of ALD is multifactorial and involves the metabolism of alcohol in the liver. Alcohol is metabolized to acetaldehyde and then acetate, which can result in the production of damaging reactive oxygen species. Genetic polymorphisms and co-existing hepatitis C infection can enhance the pathological effects of alcohol metabolism.

      Patients with ALD may be asymptomatic or present with non-specific symptoms such as abdominal discomfort, vomiting, or anxiety. Those with alcoholic hepatitis may have fever, anorexia, and deranged liver function tests. Advanced liver disease can manifest with signs of portal hypertension and cirrhosis, such as ascites, varices, jaundice, and encephalopathy.

      Screening tools such as the AUDIT questionnaire can be used to assess alcohol consumption and identify hazardous or harmful drinking patterns. Liver function tests, FBC, and imaging studies such as ultrasound or liver biopsy may be performed to evaluate liver damage.

      Management of ALD involves providing advice on reducing alcohol intake, administering thiamine to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and addressing withdrawal symptoms with benzodiazepines. Complications of ALD, such as intoxication, encephalopathy, variceal bleeding, ascites, hypoglycemia, and coagulopathy, require specialized interventions.

      Heavy alcohol use can also lead to thiamine deficiency and the development of Wernicke Korsakoff’s syndrome, characterized by confusion, ataxia, hypothermia, hypotension, nystagmus, and vomiting. Prompt treatment is necessary to prevent progression to Korsakoff’s psychosis.

      In summary, alcoholic liver disease is a spectrum of disease that can range from benign fatty liver to irreversible cirrhosis. Risk factors for progression include female sex, genetics, advanced age, drug-induced liver enzyme induction, and co-existing liver conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 60-year-old woman presents with a history of passing fresh red blood mixed...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman presents with a history of passing fresh red blood mixed in with her last three bowel movements. She has had her bowels open four times in the past 24 hours. On examination, she is haemodynamically stable with a pulse of 80 bpm and a BP of 120/77. Her abdomen is soft and nontender, and there is no obvious source of anorectal bleeding on rectal examination.
      Which risk assessment tool is recommended by the British Society of Gastroenterology (BSG) guidelines to assess the severity of stable lower gastrointestinal bleeds?

      Your Answer: Glasgow-Blatchford score

      Correct Answer: Oakland score

      Explanation:

      The British Society of Gastroenterology (BSG) has developed guidelines for healthcare professionals who are assessing cases of acute lower intestinal bleeding in a hospital setting. These guidelines are particularly useful when determining which patients should be referred for further evaluation.

      When patients present with lower gastrointestinal bleeding (LGIB), they should be categorized as either unstable or stable. Unstable patients are defined as those with a shock index greater than 1, which is calculated by dividing the heart rate by the systolic blood pressure (HR/SBP).

      For stable patients, the next step is to determine whether their bleed is major (requiring hospitalization) or minor (suitable for outpatient management). This can be determined using a risk assessment tool called the Oakland risk score, which takes into account factors such as age, hemoglobin level, and findings from a digital rectal examination.

      Patients with a minor self-limiting bleed (e.g., an Oakland score of less than 8 points) and no other indications for hospital admission can be discharged with urgent follow-up for further investigation as an outpatient.

      Patients with a major bleed should be admitted to the hospital and scheduled for a colonoscopy as soon as possible.

      If a patient is hemodynamically unstable or has a shock index greater than 1 even after initial resuscitation, and there is suspicion of active bleeding, a CT angiography (CTA) should be considered. This can be followed by endoscopic or radiological therapy.

      If no bleeding source is identified by the initial CTA and the patient remains stable after resuscitation, an upper endoscopy should be performed immediately, as LGIB associated with hemodynamic instability may indicate an upper gastrointestinal bleeding source. Gastroscopy may be the first investigation if the patient stabilizes after initial resuscitation.

      If indicated, catheter angiography with the possibility of embolization should be performed as soon as possible after a positive CTA to increase the chances of success. In centers with a 24/7 interventional radiology service, this procedure should be available within 60 minutes for hemodynamically unstable patients.

      Emergency laparotomy should only be considered if all efforts to locate the bleeding using radiological and/or endoscopic methods have been exhausted, except in exceptional circumstances.

      In some cases, red blood cell transfusion may be necessary. It is recommended to use restrictive blood transfusion thresholds, such as a hemoglobin trigger of 7 g/dL and a target of 7-9 g/d

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 60-year-old man comes in with decreased visual acuity and 'floaters' in his...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man comes in with decreased visual acuity and 'floaters' in his right eye. Upon conducting fundoscopy, you observe a sheet of sensory retina bulging towards the center of the eye.
      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      Retinal detachment is a condition where the retina separates from the retinal pigment epithelium, resulting in a fluid-filled space between them. This case presents a classic description of retinal detachment. Several risk factors increase the likelihood of developing this condition, including myopia, being male, having a family history of retinal detachment, previous episodes of retinal detachment, blunt ocular trauma, previous cataract surgery, diabetes mellitus (especially if proliferative retinopathy is present), glaucoma, and cataracts.

      The clinical features commonly associated with retinal detachment include flashes of light, particularly at the edges of vision (known as photopsia), a dense shadow in the peripheral vision that spreads towards the center, a sensation of a curtain drawing across the eye, and central visual loss. Fundoscopy, a procedure to examine the back of the eye, reveals a sheet of sensory retina billowing towards the center of the eye. Additionally, a positive Amsler grid test, where straight lines appear curved or wavy, may indicate retinal detachment.

      Other possible causes of floaters include posterior vitreous detachment, retinal tears, vitreous hemorrhage, and migraine with aura. However, in this case, the retinal appearance described is consistent with retinal detachment.

      It is crucial to arrange an urgent same-day ophthalmology referral for this patient. Fortunately, approximately 90% of retinal detachments can be successfully repaired with one operation, and an additional 6% can be salvaged with subsequent procedures. If the retina remains fixed six months after surgery, the likelihood of it becoming detached again is low.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A 68 year old male is brought into the emergency department after a...

    Correct

    • A 68 year old male is brought into the emergency department after a significant episode of haematemesis. The patient is transferred to the resuscitation bay upon arrival, and large bore intravenous access is established while blood samples are sent for analysis and cross matching. You observe that the patient has a medical history of liver cirrhosis and suspect a bleed from oesophageal varices.

      Which of the following medications should be prioritized for administration, as it has been proven to enhance survival in patients with gastro-oesophageal variceal bleeding?

      Your Answer: Terlipressin

      Explanation:

      Terlipressin, a vasopressin analogue, has been found to significantly enhance survival rates in cases of acute upper gastrointestinal variceal haemorrhage when compared to a placebo. Alternatively, somatostatin and its analogue octreotide have also demonstrated similar benefits and can be used as alternatives. It is not recommended to administer proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) before endoscopy in cases of acute upper GI bleeds, but they are advised after endoscopy for non-variceal upper GI bleeds. There is no consensus on whether PPIs improve outcomes in variceal bleeding. Recombinant factor Vlla should only be considered if other blood products have failed to correct coagulopathy. Studies indicate that tranexamic acid does not reduce mortality from upper GI bleeding and may actually increase the risk of thromboembolic events.

      Further Reading:

      Upper gastrointestinal bleeding (UGIB) refers to the loss of blood from the gastrointestinal tract, occurring in the upper part of the digestive system. It can present as haematemesis (vomiting blood), coffee-ground emesis, bright red blood in the nasogastric tube, or melaena (black, tarry stools). UGIB can lead to significant hemodynamic compromise and is a major health burden, accounting for approximately 70,000 hospital admissions each year in the UK with a mortality rate of 10%.

      The causes of UGIB vary, with peptic ulcer disease being the most common cause, followed by gastritis/erosions, esophagitis, and other less common causes such as varices, Mallory Weiss tears, and malignancy. Swift assessment, hemodynamic resuscitation, and appropriate interventions are essential for the management of UGIB.

      Assessment of patients with UGIB should follow an ABCDE approach, and scoring systems such as the Glasgow-Blatchford bleeding score (GBS) and the Rockall score are recommended to risk stratify patients and determine the urgency of endoscopy. Transfusion may be necessary for patients with massive hemorrhage, and platelet transfusion, fresh frozen plasma (FFP), and prothrombin complex concentrate may be offered based on specific criteria.

      Endoscopy plays a crucial role in the management of UGIB. Unstable patients with severe acute UGIB should undergo endoscopy immediately after resuscitation, while all other patients should undergo endoscopy within 24 hours of admission. Endoscopic treatment of non-variceal bleeding may involve mechanical methods of hemostasis, thermal coagulation, or the use of fibrin or thrombin with adrenaline. Proton pump inhibitors should only be used after endoscopy.

      Variceal bleeding requires specific management, including the use of terlipressin and prophylactic antibiotics. Oesophageal varices can be treated with band ligation or transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS), while gastric varices may be treated with endoscopic injection of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate or TIPS if bleeding is not controlled.

      For patients taking NSAIDs, aspirin, or clopidogrel, low-dose aspirin can be continued once hemostasis is achieved, NSAIDs should be stopped in patients presenting with UGIB

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 45-year-old man comes in with nausea, disorientation, and decreased urine production. He...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man comes in with nausea, disorientation, and decreased urine production. He has not produced any urine for the last 10 hours. After conducting additional tests, the patient is diagnosed with acute kidney injury (AKI).
      What stage of AKI does he fall under?

      Your Answer: Stage 3

      Explanation:

      Acute kidney injury (AKI), previously known as acute renal failure, is a sudden decline in kidney function. This leads to the accumulation of urea and other waste products in the body, as well as disturbances in fluid balance and electrolyte levels. AKI can occur in individuals with previously normal kidney function or those with pre-existing kidney disease, known as acute-on-chronic kidney disease. It is a relatively common condition, affecting approximately 15% of adults admitted to hospitals in the UK.

      AKI is categorized into three stages based on specific criteria. In stage 1, there is a rise in creatinine levels of 26 micromol/L or more within 48 hours, or a rise of 50-99% from the baseline within 7 days. Additionally, a urine output of less than 0.5 mL/kg/hour for more than 6 hours is indicative of stage 1 AKI.

      Stage 2 AKI is characterized by a creatinine rise of 100-199% from the baseline within 7 days, or a urine output of less than 0.5 mL/kg/hour for more than 12 hours.

      The most severe stage, stage 3 AKI, is identified by a creatinine rise of 200% or more from the baseline within 7 days. It can also be diagnosed if the creatinine level reaches 354 micromol/L or more with an acute rise of 26 micromol/L or more within 48 hours, or a rise of 50% or more within 7 days. Additionally, a urine output of less than 0.3 mL/kg/hour for 24 hours or anuria (no urine production) for 12 hours is indicative of stage 3 AKI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 6-year-old girl comes to her pediatrician complaining of a headache, neck stiffness,...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl comes to her pediatrician complaining of a headache, neck stiffness, and sensitivity to light. Her vital signs are as follows: heart rate 124, blood pressure 86/43, respiratory rate 30, oxygen saturation 95%, and temperature 39.5oC. She has recently developed a rash of small red spots on her legs that do not fade when pressed.
      What is the MOST suitable next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Give IV benzylpenicillin 1.2 g

      Correct Answer: Give IM benzylpenicillin 600 mg

      Explanation:

      In a child with a non-blanching rash, it is important to consider the possibility of meningococcal septicaemia. This is especially true if the child appears unwell, has purpura (lesions larger than 2 mm in diameter), a capillary refill time of more than 3 seconds, or neck stiffness. In the UK, most cases of meningococcal septicaemia are caused by Neisseria meningitidis group B.

      In this particular case, the child is clearly very sick and showing signs of septic shock. It is crucial to administer a single dose of benzylpenicillin without delay and arrange for immediate transfer to the nearest Emergency Department via ambulance.

      The recommended doses of benzylpenicillin based on age are as follows:
      – Infants under 1 year of age: 300 mg of IM or IV benzylpenicillin
      – Children aged 1 to 9 years: 600 mg of IM or IV benzylpenicillin
      – Children and adults aged 10 years or older: 1.2 g of IM or IV benzylpenicillin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      52.2
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 30-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department after being hit in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department after being hit in the jaw during a soccer game. She is experiencing pain and swelling in her jaw.
      Where is the mandible most frequently fractured in terms of anatomical locations?

      Your Answer: Body of the mandible

      Correct Answer: Angle of the mandible

      Explanation:

      Mandibular fractures are quite common, especially among young men. The most common cause of these fractures is assault, but they can also occur due to sporting injuries, motor vehicle accidents, and falls. The mandible and skull together form a complete bony ring, with the only interruption being the temporomandibular joints (TMJs). While it is expected that mandibular fractures would occur in two places, sometimes they only occur in one location. The most frequently affected areas are the angle of the mandible (27%), mandibular symphysis (21%), mandibular condylar and subcondylar (18%), body of the mandible (15%), ramus of the mandible (5%), coronoid process (1-3%), and alveolar ridge (2%).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
      74.9
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - You are requested to deliver a teaching session on delirium for the incoming...

    Correct

    • You are requested to deliver a teaching session on delirium for the incoming medical interns rotating to the emergency department. What is a commonly acknowledged characteristic of delirium?

      Your Answer: Lucid intervals usually occur during the day

      Explanation:

      Delirium is characterized by fluctuating symptoms of disturbed consciousness that typically develop over hours to days. During the day, lucid intervals may occur, while the worst disturbances are often experienced at night. In contrast, dementia has a gradual onset and does not involve fluctuations in mental state. Stroke, on the other hand, is associated with focal neurological deficits.

      Further Reading:

      Delirium is an acute syndrome that causes disturbances in consciousness, attention, cognition, and perception. It is also known as an acute confusional state. The DSM-IV criteria for diagnosing delirium include recent onset of fluctuating awareness, impairment of memory and attention, and disorganized thinking. Delirium typically develops over hours to days and may be accompanied by behavioral changes, personality changes, and psychotic features. It often occurs in individuals with predisposing factors, such as advanced age or multiple comorbidities, when exposed to new precipitating factors, such as medications or infection. Symptoms of delirium fluctuate throughout the day, with lucid intervals occurring during the day and worse disturbances at night. Falling and loss of appetite are often warning signs of delirium.

      Delirium can be classified into three subtypes based on the person’s symptoms. Hyperactive delirium is characterized by inappropriate behavior, hallucinations, and agitation. Restlessness and wandering are common in this subtype. Hypoactive delirium is characterized by lethargy, reduced concentration, and appetite. The person may appear quiet or withdrawn. Mixed delirium presents with signs and symptoms of both hyperactive and hypoactive subtypes.

      The exact pathophysiology of delirium is not fully understood, but it is believed to involve multiple mechanisms, including cholinergic deficiency, dopaminergic excess, and inflammation. The cause of delirium is usually multifactorial, with predisposing factors and precipitating factors playing a role. Predisposing factors include older age, cognitive impairment, frailty, significant injuries, and iatrogenic events. Precipitating factors include infection, metabolic or electrolyte disturbances, cardiovascular disorders, respiratory disorders, neurological disorders, endocrine disorders, urological disorders, gastrointestinal disorders, severe uncontrolled pain, alcohol intoxication or withdrawal, medication use, and psychosocial factors.

      Delirium is highly prevalent in hospital settings, affecting up to 50% of inpatients aged over 65 and occurring in 30% of people aged over 65 presenting to the emergency department. Complications of delirium include increased risk of death, high in-hospital mortality rates, higher mortality rates following hospital discharge, increased length of stay in hospital, nosocomial infections, increased risk of admission to long-term care or re-admission to hospital, increased incidence of dementia, increased risk of falls and associated injuries, pressure sores.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A 60-year-old woman is brought into the Emergency Department by the Police. She...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman is brought into the Emergency Department by the Police. She is handcuffed and has bitten one of the Police Officers accompanying her. She is very aggressive and violent and has a history of bipolar disorder. She has a history of hypertension and had a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction two years ago.

      According to the NICE guidelines for short-term management of violent and aggressive patients, what should be used as the first-line treatment for rapid tranquillisation of this patient?

      Your Answer: Lorazepam

      Explanation:

      Rapid tranquillisation involves the administration of medication through injection when oral medication is not feasible or appropriate and immediate sedation is necessary. The current guidelines from NICE recommend two options for rapid tranquillisation in adults: intramuscular lorazepam alone or a combination of intramuscular haloperidol and intramuscular promethazine. The choice of medication depends on various factors such as advanced statements, potential intoxication, previous responses to these medications, interactions with other drugs, and existing physical health conditions or pregnancy.

      If there is insufficient information to determine the appropriate medication or if the individual has not taken antipsychotic medication before, intramuscular lorazepam is recommended. However, if there is evidence of cardiovascular disease or a prolonged QT interval, or if an electrocardiogram has not been conducted, the combination of intramuscular haloperidol and intramuscular promethazine should be avoided, and intramuscular lorazepam should be used instead.

      If there is a partial response to intramuscular lorazepam, a second dose should be considered. If there is no response to intramuscular lorazepam, then intramuscular haloperidol combined with intramuscular promethazine should be considered. If there is a partial response to this combination, a further dose should be considered.

      If there is no response to intramuscular haloperidol combined with intramuscular promethazine and intramuscular lorazepam has not been used yet, it should be considered. However, if intramuscular lorazepam has already been administered, it is recommended to arrange an urgent team meeting to review the situation and seek a second opinion if necessary.

      After rapid tranquillisation, the patient should be closely monitored for any side effects, and their vital signs should be regularly checked, including heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, temperature, hydration level, and level of consciousness. These observations should be conducted at least hourly until there are no further concerns about the patient’s physical health.

      For more information, refer to the NICE guidance on violence and aggression: short-term management in mental health, health, and community settings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      29.4
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 35 year old female is brought into the emergency department after being...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old female is brought into the emergency department after being hit by a truck that had veered onto the sidewalk where the patient was standing. The patient has a significant bruise on the back of her head and seems lethargic.

      You are worried about increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following physical signs suggest elevated ICP?

      Your Answer: Vomiting

      Explanation:

      Vomiting after a head injury should raise concerns about increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Signs of elevated ICP include vomiting, changes in pupil size or shape in one eye, decreased cognitive function or consciousness, abnormal findings during fundoscopy (such as blurry optic discs or bleeding in the retina), cranial nerve dysfunction (most commonly affecting CN III and VI), weakness on one side of the body (a late sign), bradycardia (slow heart rate), high blood pressure, and a wide pulse pressure. Irregular breathing that may progress to respiratory distress, focal neurological deficits, and seizures can also be indicative of elevated ICP.

      Further Reading:

      Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.

      The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.

      There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.

      Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A 35-year-old man with a history of bipolar affective disorder presents with symptoms...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man with a history of bipolar affective disorder presents with symptoms suggestive of lithium toxicity.
      Which of the following symptoms is LEAST likely to be observed?

      Your Answer: SIADH

      Explanation:

      SIADH is a medical condition that is not brought on by lithium toxicity. However, lithium toxicity does have its own distinct set of symptoms. These symptoms include nausea and vomiting, diarrhea, tremors, ataxia, confusion, increased muscle tone, clonus, nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, convulsions, coma, and renal failure. It is important to note that SIADH and lithium toxicity are separate conditions with their own unique characteristics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - A 6 month old girl is brought into the emergency department with a...

    Correct

    • A 6 month old girl is brought into the emergency department with a history of being submerged in the pool while swimming with her parents. One of the parents explains that the child was floating on a pool noodle when a wave hit, causing the child to fall off the noodle. The child was not wearing any flotation devices and it took approximately 1 minute to find and rescue her from the water. Your consultant mentions that the child's diving reflex would have been activated. Which of the following statements accurately describes the diving reflex?

      Your Answer: Results in peripheral vasoconstriction

      Explanation:

      The diving reflex occurs when the face comes into contact with cold water, leading to apnoea, bradycardia, and peripheral vasoconstriction. This response helps decrease the workload on the heart, lower oxygen demand in the heart muscle, and ensure adequate blood flow to the brain and vital organs. The trigeminal nerve (CN V) is responsible for transmitting sensory information, while the vagus nerve (CN X) primarily controls the motor response. This reflex is more prominent in young children and is believed to contribute to their improved survival rates in prolonged submersion in cold water.

      Further Reading:

      Drowning is the process of experiencing respiratory impairment from submersion or immersion in liquid. It can be classified as cold-water or warm-water drowning. Risk factors for drowning include young age and male sex. Drowning impairs lung function and gas exchange, leading to hypoxemia and acidosis. It also causes cardiovascular instability, which contributes to metabolic acidosis and cell death.

      When someone is submerged or immersed, they will voluntarily hold their breath to prevent aspiration of water. However, continued breath holding causes progressive hypoxia and hypercapnia, leading to acidosis. Eventually, the respiratory center sends signals to the respiratory muscles, forcing the individual to take an involuntary breath and allowing water to be aspirated into the lungs. Water entering the lungs stimulates a reflex laryngospasm that prevents further penetration of water. Aspirated water can cause significant hypoxia and damage to the alveoli, leading to acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).

      Complications of drowning include cardiac ischemia and infarction, infection with waterborne pathogens, hypothermia, neurological damage, rhabdomyolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).

      In children, the diving reflex helps reduce hypoxic injury during submersion. It causes apnea, bradycardia, and peripheral vasoconstriction, reducing cardiac output and myocardial oxygen demand while maintaining perfusion of the brain and vital organs.

      Associated injuries with drowning include head and cervical spine injuries in patients rescued from shallow water. Investigations for drowning include arterial blood gases, chest X-ray, ECG and cardiac monitoring, core temperature measurement, and blood and sputum cultures if secondary infection is suspected.

      Management of drowning involves extricating the patient from water in a horizontal position with spinal precautions if possible. Cardiovascular considerations should be taken into account when removing patients from water to prevent hypotension and circulatory collapse. Airway management, supplemental oxygen, and ventilation strategies are important in maintaining oxygenation and preventing further lung injury. Correcting hypotension, electrolyte disturbances, and hypothermia is also necessary. Attempting to drain water from the lungs is ineffective.

      Patients without associated physical injury who are asymptomatic and have no evidence of respiratory compromise after six hours can be safely discharged home. Ventilation strategies aim to maintain oxygenation while minimizing ventilator-associated lung injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A 45-year-old woman is brought into resus by blue light ambulance following a...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman is brought into resus by blue light ambulance following a car crash. She was hit by a truck while driving a car and has a suspected pelvic injury. She is currently on a backboard with cervical spine protection and a pelvic binder in place. The massive transfusion protocol is activated.
      Which of the following is the definition of a massive transfusion?

      Your Answer: The transfusion of more than 4 units of blood in 1 hour

      Explanation:

      ATLS guidelines now suggest administering only 1 liter of crystalloid fluid during the initial assessment. If patients do not respond to the crystalloid, it is recommended to quickly transition to blood products. Studies have shown that infusing more than 1.5 liters of crystalloid fluid is associated with higher mortality rates in trauma cases. Therefore, it is advised to prioritize the early use of blood products and avoid large volumes of crystalloid fluid in trauma patients. In cases where it is necessary, massive transfusion should be considered, defined as the transfusion of more than 10 units of blood in 24 hours or more than 4 units of blood in one hour. For patients with evidence of Class III and IV hemorrhage, early resuscitation with blood and blood products in low ratios is recommended.

      Based on the findings of significant trials, such as the CRASH-2 study, the use of tranexamic acid is now recommended within 3 hours. This involves administering a loading dose of 1 gram intravenously over 10 minutes, followed by an infusion of 1 gram over eight hours. In some regions, tranexamic acid is also being utilized in the prehospital setting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A patient in their late 40s has sustained an injury to their right...

    Correct

    • A patient in their late 40s has sustained an injury to their right upper limb and is now experiencing peripheral neuropathy as a result. During the examination, it is observed that their hand is clawed, with the metacarpophalangeal joints hyperextended and the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the little and ring fingers flexed. Additionally, there is a slight weakness in wrist flexion, which is accompanied by abduction. The patient also reports sensory loss over the anterior and posterior surfaces of the medial one and a half fingers, as well as the corresponding area of the palm.

      Which nerve has been affected in this case?

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve at the elbow

      Explanation:

      The ulnar nerve originates from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, specifically from the C8-T1 nerve roots. It may also carry fibers from C7 on occasion. This nerve has both motor and sensory functions.

      In terms of motor function, the ulnar nerve innervates the muscles of the hand, excluding the thenar muscles and the lateral two lumbricals (which are supplied by the median nerve). It also innervates two muscles in the anterior forearm: the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus.

      Regarding sensory function, the ulnar nerve provides innervation to the anterior and posterior surfaces of the medial one and a half fingers, as well as the associated palm and dorsal hand area. There are three sensory branches responsible for the cutaneous innervation of the ulnar nerve. Two of these branches arise in the forearm and travel into the hand: the palmar cutaneous branch, which innervates the skin of the medial half of the palm, and the dorsal cutaneous branch, which innervates the dorsal skin of the medial one and a half fingers and the associated dorsal hand. The third branch arises in the hand and is called the superficial branch, which innervates the palmar surface of the medial one and a half fingers.

      When the ulnar nerve is damaged at the elbow, the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus muscles in the anterior forearm will be spared. However, if the ulnar nerve is injured at the wrist, these muscles will be affected. Additionally, when the ulnar nerve is damaged at the elbow, flexion of the wrist can still occur due to the intact median nerve, but it will be accompanied by abduction as the flexor carpi ulnaris adducts the hand. On the other hand, wrist flexion will be unaffected when the ulnar nerve is damaged at the wrist.

      The sensory function also differs depending on the site of damage. When the ulnar nerve is damaged at the elbow, all three cutaneous branches will be affected, resulting in complete sensory loss in the areas innervated by the ulnar nerve. However, if the damage occurs at the wrist, the two branches that arise in the forearm may be spared.

      Damage to the ulnar nerve at either the elbow or wrist leads to a characteristic claw hand appearance, characterized by hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion of the distal and proximal interphalangeal joint of the little and ring fingers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      40
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - You start cephalexin treatment for a 70-year-old man with a lower respiratory tract...

    Correct

    • You start cephalexin treatment for a 70-year-old man with a lower respiratory tract infection. He has a history of chronic kidney disease, and his glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is currently 9 ml/minute.

      What is the most appropriate course of action when prescribing this medication to this patient?

      Your Answer: The dose frequency should be reduced

      Explanation:

      Cephalexin is a type of cephalosporin medication that is eliminated from the body through the kidneys. Cephalosporin drugs have been linked to direct harm to the kidneys and can build up in individuals with kidney problems.

      The typical dosage for cephalexin is 250 mg taken four times a day. For more severe infections or infections caused by organisms that are less susceptible to the medication, the dosage may be doubled. The manufacturer recommends reducing the frequency of dosing in individuals with kidney impairment. In cases where the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is less than 10 ml/minute, the recommended dosage is 250-500 mg taken once or twice a day, depending on the severity of the infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a persistent dry cough...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a persistent dry cough and fever for the past few days. She has noticed that her cough does not produce any phlegm. Today, she has also experienced multiple episodes of diarrhea and has developed sharp chest pain on both sides. She mentions feeling short of breath, especially when she exerts herself. She works as a Jacuzzi and whirlpool installer and smokes 10 cigarettes per day.

      What is the SINGLE most probable causative organism in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Legionella pneumophila

      Explanation:

      Legionella pneumophila, a Gram-negative bacterium, can be found in natural water supplies and soil. It is responsible for causing Legionnaires’ disease, a serious illness. Outbreaks of this disease have been associated with poorly maintained air conditioning systems, whirlpool spas, and hot tubs.

      The pneumonic form of Legionnaires’ disease presents with specific clinical features. Initially, there may be a mild flu-like prodrome lasting for 1-3 days. A non-productive cough, occurring in approximately 90% of cases, is also common. Pleuritic chest pain, haemoptysis, headache, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, and anorexia are other symptoms that may be experienced.

      Fortunately, Legionella pneumophila infections can be effectively treated with macrolide antibiotics like erythromycin, or quinolones such as ciprofloxacin. Tetracyclines, including doxycycline, can also be used as a treatment option.

      While the majority of Legionnaires’ disease cases are caused by Legionella pneumophila, there are several other species of Legionella that have been identified. One such species is Legionella longbeachae, which is less commonly encountered. It is primarily found in soil and potting compost and has been associated with outbreaks of Pontiac fever, a milder variant of Legionnaires’ disease that does not primarily affect the respiratory system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - A 65-year-old patient with advanced metastatic lung cancer is experiencing discomfort in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient with advanced metastatic lung cancer is experiencing discomfort in his limbs and chest. Despite taking the maximum dosage of paracetamol, codeine phosphate, and ibuprofen regularly, his symptoms are no longer being adequately managed. You determine that it is necessary to discontinue the use of codeine phosphate and initiate stronger opioids.
      What would be the most suitable initial dosage regimen in this situation?

      Your Answer: 30-60 mg oral morphine daily in divided doses

      Correct Answer: 20-30 mg oral morphine daily in divided doses

      Explanation:

      When starting treatment with strong opioids for pain relief in palliative care, it is recommended to offer patients regular oral sustained-release or oral immediate-release morphine, depending on their preference. In addition, provide rescue doses of oral immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. For patients without renal or hepatic comorbidities, a typical total daily starting dose schedule of 20-30 mg of oral morphine is suggested, along with 5 mg of oral immediate-release morphine for rescue doses during the titration phase. It is important to adjust the dose until a good balance is achieved between pain control and side effects. If this balance is not reached after a few dose adjustments, it is advisable to seek specialist advice. Patients should be reviewed frequently, especially during the titration phase. For patients with moderate to severe renal or hepatic impairment, it is recommended to consult a specialist before prescribing strong opioids.

      For maintenance therapy, oral sustained-release morphine is recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with advanced and progressive disease who require strong opioids. Transdermal patch formulations should not be routinely offered as first-line maintenance treatment unless oral opioids are not suitable. If pain remains inadequately controlled despite optimizing first-line maintenance treatment, it is important to review the analgesic strategy and consider seeking specialist advice.

      When it comes to breakthrough pain, oral immediate-release morphine should be offered as the first-line rescue medication for patients on maintenance oral morphine treatment. Fast-acting fentanyl should not be offered as the first-line rescue medication. If pain continues to be inadequately controlled despite optimizing treatment, it may be necessary to seek specialist advice.

      In cases where oral opioids are not suitable and analgesic requirements are stable, transdermal patches with the lowest acquisition cost can be considered. However, it is important to consult a specialist for guidance if needed. Similarly, for patients in whom oral opioids are not suitable and analgesic requirements are unstable, subcutaneous opioids with the lowest acquisition cost can be considered, with specialist advice if necessary.

      For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary: Opioids for pain relief in palliative care. https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/cg140

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative & End Of Life Care
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - A 3-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance following an...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance following an episode of fainting at home. The parents noticed that the girl suddenly collapsed and appeared pale. After lifting her up, she quickly regained consciousness and her color returned. After a thorough examination and investigation by the pediatric team, a diagnosis of a brief resolved unexplained event (BRUE) is made.
      Which of the following is NOT a recognized risk factor for a BRUE?

      Your Answer: History of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease

      Correct Answer: High birth weight

      Explanation:

      The term Apparent Life-Threatening Event (ALTE) has traditionally been used to describe a specific type of event. However, in 2016, the American Academy of Paediatrics (AAP) recommended replacing ALTE with a new term called Brief Resolved Unexplained Event (BRUE).

      An ALTE is defined as an episode that is frightening to the observer and is characterized by a combination of symptoms such as apnoea (central or occasionally obstructive), color change (usually cyanotic or pallid but occasionally erythematous or plethoric), significant change in muscle tone (usually marked limpness), choking, or gagging. In some cases, the observer may even fear that the infant has died.

      On the other hand, BRUE has stricter criteria and is only applicable to episodes that occur in infants under 12 months old. A BRUE is characterized by being brief (lasting less than 1 minute, typically 2-30 seconds), resolved (the infant must have returned to their baseline state), and not explained by any identifiable medical condition. It must also exhibit at least one of the following symptoms: cyanosis or pallor, absent, decreased, or irregular breathing, marked change in muscle tone (hyper- or hypotonia), or altered level of responsiveness.

      To diagnose a BRUE, a thorough history and physical examination of the infant must be conducted, and no explanation for the event should be found. Additionally, there are several risk factors associated with the development of a BRUE, including prematurity, age less than ten weeks, recent anesthesia, airway or maxillofacial abnormalities, history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, previous apnoeic episode, recent upper respiratory tract infection. Low birth weight may also be a risk factor, while high birth weight has no recognized association with BRUEs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - A 45-year-old truck driver presents with a painful, tender lump near his coccyx....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old truck driver presents with a painful, tender lump near his coccyx. Your examination findings are consistent with a diagnosis of a pilonidal sinus.
      Which SINGLE factor is NOT a recognized risk factor for this condition?

      Your Answer: Male gender

      Correct Answer: Age over 40

      Explanation:

      A pilonidal sinus is a small cyst found near the crease between the buttocks. It contains a clump of hairs and is most commonly seen in young males with thick, dark hair. This condition is rare in individuals over the age of 40. Several factors increase the risk of developing a pilonidal sinus, including being male, having excessive hair growth, having a job that involves prolonged sitting, being overweight, and having a family history of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - A 65-year-old woman presents with a history of frequent falls, difficulty with walking,...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with a history of frequent falls, difficulty with walking, and bladder control problems. After a thorough evaluation and tests, a diagnosis of normal-pressure hydrocephalus is made.
      What is the most common underlying factor leading to NPH?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic – no cause found

      Explanation:

      This patient is displaying symptoms that are characteristic of normal-pressure hydrocephalus (NPH). NPH is a type of communicating hydrocephalus where the pressure inside the skull, as measured through a lumbar puncture, is either normal or occasionally elevated. It primarily affects elderly individuals, and the likelihood of developing NPH increases with age.

      Around 50% of NPH cases are considered idiopathic, meaning there is no identifiable cause. The remaining cases are secondary to various conditions such as head injury, meningitis, subarachnoid hemorrhage, central nervous system tumors, and radiotherapy.

      The typical presentation of NPH includes a classic triad of symptoms: gait disturbance (often characterized by a broad-based and shuffling gait), sphincter disturbance leading to incontinence (usually urinary incontinence), and progressive dementia with memory loss, inattention, inertia, and bradyphrenia.

      Diagnosing NPH primarily relies on identifying the classic clinical triad mentioned above. Additional investigations can provide supportive evidence, including CT and MRI scans that reveal enlarged ventricles and periventricular lucency. Lumbar puncture may also be performed, with the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) typically appearing normal or intermittently elevated. Intraventricular monitoring may show beta waves for more than 5% of a 24-hour period.

      NPH is one of the few reversible causes of dementia, making early recognition and treatment crucial. Medical treatment options such as carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (e.g., acetazolamide) and repeated lumbar punctures can provide temporary relief. However, the definitive treatment for NPH involves surgically inserting a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) shunt. This procedure has shown lasting clinical benefits in 70% to 90% of patients compared to their pre-operative state.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - A 32 year old woman is brought into the emergency department with burns...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old woman is brought into the emergency department with burns to her chest and arms. The patient was trying to handle a grease fire but accidentally spilled the burning contents onto herself. Your consultant requests you to evaluate the severity of the burns. What is used to estimate the extent of a burn injury?

      Your Answer: Lund and Browder chart

      Explanation:

      TBSA, or Total Body Surface Area, is a method commonly used to estimate the size of small burns and very large burns by including the area of unburnt skin. However, it is not considered a reliable method for medium-sized burns.

      Further Reading:

      Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.

      When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.

      Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.

      The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.

      Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.

      Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - A 35-year-old woman has experienced a fracture of the left humerus. During examination,...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman has experienced a fracture of the left humerus. During examination, it is found that she has weakness in extending her wrist and metacarpophalangeal joints, leading to wrist drop and an inability to grip with her left hand. However, she still has preserved extension of the elbow. Additionally, there is a loss of sensation over the dorsal aspect of the forearm from below the elbow to the 1st dorsal interosseous.
      Which nerve has been damaged in this particular case?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      Radial nerve injuries often occur in conjunction with fractures of the humerus. The most common cause of a radial nerve palsy is external compression or trauma to the radial nerve as it passes through the spiral groove in the middle of the humerus.

      There are several factors that can lead to damage of the radial nerve in the spiral groove. These include trauma, such as a fracture in the middle of the humerus, compression known as Saturday night palsy, and iatrogenic causes like injections.

      When the radial nerve is injured within the spiral groove, it results in weakness of the wrist and metacarpophalangeal joints. However, elbow extension is not affected because the branches to the triceps and anconeus muscles originate before the spiral groove. The interphalangeal joints remain unaffected as well, as they are supplied by the median and ulnar nerves. Sensory loss will be experienced over the dorsal aspect of the forearm, extending from below the elbow to the 1st dorsal interosseous.

      In contrast, injury to the radial nerve in the axilla will also cause weakness of elbow extension and sensory loss in the distribution of the more proximal cutaneous branches. This helps distinguish it from injury in the spiral groove.

      In the forearm, the posterior interosseous branch of the radial nerve can also be damaged. This can occur due to injury to the radial head or entrapment in the supinator muscle under the arcade of Frohse. However, this type of injury can be easily distinguished from injury in the spiral groove because there is no sensory involvement and no wrist drop, thanks to the preservation of the extensor carpi radialis longus. Nonetheless, there will still be weakness in the wrist and fingers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - A 16 year old male is brought into the emergency department as he...

    Correct

    • A 16 year old male is brought into the emergency department as he has become disoriented and lethargic over the past day. Initial tests suggest a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. A blue 20g cannula has been inserted to administer intravenous fluids. What is the estimated maximum rate of flow through a 20g cannula?

      Your Answer: 60 ml/minute

      Explanation:

      The size of the cannula used for IV fluid infusion determines the maximum flow rate. For a 20g cannula, the maximum flow rate is around 60 ml per minute. As a result, the fastest infusion time through a 20g cannula is approximately 15 minutes for a maximum volume of 1000 ml.

      Further Reading:

      Peripheral venous cannulation is a procedure that should be performed following established guidelines to minimize the risk of infection, injury, extravasation, and early failure of the cannula. It is important to maintain good hand hygiene, use personal protective equipment, ensure sharps safety, and employ an aseptic non-touch technique during the procedure.

      According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), the skin should be disinfected with a solution of 2% chlorhexidine gluconate and 70% alcohol before inserting the catheter. It is crucial to allow the disinfectant to completely dry before inserting the cannula.

      The flow rates of IV cannulas can vary depending on factors such as the gauge, color, type of fluid used, presence of a bio-connector, length of the cannula, and whether the fluid is drained under gravity or pumped under pressure. However, the following are typical flow rates for different gauge sizes: 14 gauge (orange) has a flow rate of 270 ml/minute, 16 gauge (grey) has a flow rate of 180 ml/minute, 18 gauge (green) has a flow rate of 90 ml/minute, 20 gauge (pink) has a flow rate of 60 ml/minute, and 22 gauge (blue) has a flow rate of 36 ml/minute. These flow rates are based on infusing 1000 ml of normal saline under ideal circumstances, but they may vary in practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Resus
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A 45-year-old woman comes in with a painful red eye accompanied by sensitivity...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman comes in with a painful red eye accompanied by sensitivity to light, excessive tearing, and reduced vision. The on-call ophthalmology team is consulted, and they diagnose her with anterior uveitis.
      Which of the following is the SINGLE LEAST probable underlying cause?

      Your Answer: Trauma

      Correct Answer: Lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Anterior uveitis refers to the inflammation of the iris and is characterized by a painful and red eye. It is often accompanied by symptoms such as sensitivity to light, excessive tearing, and a decrease in visual clarity. In less than 10% of cases, the inflammation may extend to the posterior chamber. The condition can also lead to the formation of adhesions between the iris and the lens or cornea, resulting in an irregularly shaped pupil known as synechia. In severe cases, pus may accumulate in the front part of the eye, specifically the anterior chamber, causing a condition called hypopyon.

      There are various factors that can cause anterior uveitis, including idiopathic cases where no specific cause can be identified. Other causes include trauma, chronic joint diseases like spondyloarthropathies and juvenile chronic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, inflammatory bowel disease, psoriasis, sarcoidosis, and infections such as Lyme disease, tuberculosis, leptospirosis, herpes simplex virus (HSV), and varicella-zoster virus (VZV). It is worth noting that approximately 50% of patients with anterior uveitis have a strong association with the HLA-B27 genotype.

      Complications that can arise from uveitis include the development of cataracts, glaucoma, band keratopathy (a condition where calcium deposits form on the cornea), and even blindness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - A patient arrives at the emergency department with confusion and abdominal pain. They...

    Correct

    • A patient arrives at the emergency department with confusion and abdominal pain. They have a previous diagnosis of Addison's disease but have recently run out of their steroid medication. You suspect the patient is experiencing an Addisonian crisis.
      Which ONE clinical feature is NOT typically associated with an Addisonian crisis?

      Your Answer: Hyperglycaemia

      Explanation:

      An Addisonian crisis is characterized by several distinct features. These include experiencing pain in the legs and abdomen, as well as symptoms of vomiting and dehydration. Hypotension, or low blood pressure, is also commonly observed during an Addisonian crisis. Confusion and psychosis may also occur, along with the presence of a fever. In some cases, convulsions may be present as well. Additionally, individuals experiencing an Addisonian crisis may also exhibit hypoglycemia, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypercalcemia, eosinophilia, and metabolic acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - A 42-year-old left-handed history teacher presents with a sudden onset of difficulty in...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old left-handed history teacher presents with a sudden onset of difficulty in recalling historical facts. A CT scan of her head reveals a right parietal lobe infarct.

      Which SINGLE clinical feature is most likely to also be present?

      Your Answer: Agraphia

      Explanation:

      The parietal lobes can be divided into two functional areas. One area is responsible for sensation and perception, while the other integrates sensory input primarily from the visual pathways. These lobes play a crucial role in cognition and spatial awareness.

      Typically, the left parietal lobe is dominant, and if there are lesions in this area, it can lead to a condition known as Gerstmann’s Syndrome. This syndrome encompasses several difficulties, including problems with writing (agraphia or dysgraphia), arithmetic (acalculia or dyscalculia), and identifying fingers (finger agnosia). Additionally, individuals may experience left-right disorientation and some form of aphasia or dysphasia, affecting their ability to express themselves or understand others.

      On the other hand, lesions in the right parietal lobe, which is the non-dominant side, can result in neglecting a part of the body. This can make tasks like dressing and washing challenging.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      40
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - A 68 year old female is brought into the emergency home from her...

    Correct

    • A 68 year old female is brought into the emergency home from her nursing home due to severe diarrhea for the past 3 days. You observe that over the past month the patient has undergone three rounds of antibiotics for recurrent cellulitis. You contemplate the likelihood of a Clostridium difficile infection. What proportion of antibiotic-associated diarrhea is attributed to Clostridium difficile infection?

      Your Answer: 20-30%

      Explanation:

      Clostridium difficile (C.diff) is a gram positive rod commonly found in hospitals. Some strains of C.diff produce exotoxins that can cause intestinal damage, leading to pseudomembranous colitis. This infection can range from mild diarrhea to severe illness. Antibiotic-associated diarrhea is often caused by C.diff, with 20-30% of cases being attributed to this bacteria. Antibiotics such as clindamycin, cephalosporins, fluoroquinolones, and broad-spectrum penicillins are frequently associated with C.diff infection.

      Clinical features of C.diff infection include diarrhea, distinctive smell, abdominal pain, raised white blood cell count, and in severe cases, toxic megacolon. In some severe cases, diarrhea may be absent due to the infection causing paralytic ileus. Diagnosis is made by detecting Clostridium difficile toxin (CDT) in the stool. There are two types of exotoxins produced by C.diff, toxin A and toxin B, which cause mucosal damage and the formation of a pseudomembrane in the colon.

      Risk factors for developing C.diff infection include age over 65, antibiotic treatment, previous C.diff infection, exposure to infected individuals, proton pump inhibitor or H2 receptor antagonist use, prolonged hospitalization or residence in a nursing home, and chronic disease or immunosuppression. Complications of C.diff infection can include toxic megacolon, colon perforation, sepsis, and even death, especially in frail elderly individuals.

      Management of C.diff infection involves stopping the causative antibiotic if possible, optimizing hydration with IV fluids if necessary, and assessing the severity of the infection. Treatment options vary based on severity, ranging from no antibiotics for mild cases to vancomycin or fidaxomicin for moderate cases, and hospital protocol antibiotics (such as oral vancomycin with IV metronidazole) for severe or life-threatening cases. Severe cases may require admission under gastroenterology or GI surgeons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - A 45-year-old man presents with increasing difficulty breathing, a raspy voice, and pain...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents with increasing difficulty breathing, a raspy voice, and pain radiating down the inner side of his left upper arm into his forearm and hand. He has a history of heavy smoking and has been diagnosed with COPD. Upon examination, he exhibits weakness and noticeable muscle wasting in his forearm and hand on the same side. Additionally, he has a Horner's syndrome on the affected side. The Chest X-ray image is provided below:

      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Pancoast tumour

      Explanation:

      This patient presents with a noticeable mass at the top of the right lung, which is clearly visible on the chest X-ray. Based on the symptoms and clinical presentation, it is highly likely that this is a Pancoast tumor, and the overall diagnosis is Pancoast syndrome.

      A Pancoast tumor is a type of tumor that develops at the apex of either the right or left lung. It typically spreads to nearby tissues such as the ribs and vertebrae. The majority of Pancoast tumors are classified as non-small cell cancers.

      Pancoast syndrome occurs when the tumor invades various structures and tissues around the thoracic inlet. This includes the invasion of the cervical sympathetic plexus on the same side as the tumor, leading to the development of Horner’s syndrome. Additionally, there may be reflex sympathetic dystrophy in the arm on the affected side, resulting in increased sensitivity to touch and changes in the skin.

      Patients with Pancoast syndrome may also experience shoulder and arm pain due to the tumor invading the brachial plexus roots C8-T1. This can lead to muscle wasting in the hand and tingling sensations in the inner side of the arm. In some cases, there may be involvement of the unilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve, causing unilateral vocal cord paralysis and resulting in a hoarse voice and/or a bovine cough. Phrenic nerve involvement is less common but can also occur.

      Horner’s syndrome, which is a key feature of Pancoast syndrome, is caused by compression of the sympathetic chain from the hypothalamus to the orbit. The three main symptoms of Horner’s syndrome are drooping of the eyelid (ptosis), constriction of the pupil (pupillary miosis), and lack of sweating on the forehead (anhydrosis).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - A 42 year old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of vertigo that appears to be triggered by head movements. The patient first noticed these symptoms upon waking up in the morning. You suspect benign paroxysmal positional vertigo.

      What is the most probable location of the underlying pathology causing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Posterior semicircular canal

      Explanation:

      Otoliths are commonly found in the inferior semicircular canal of patients, while their presence in the anterior semicircular canal is extremely uncommon.

      Further Reading:

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo, characterized by sudden dizziness and vertigo triggered by changes in head position. It typically affects individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. BPPV is caused by dysfunction in the inner ear, specifically the detachment of otoliths (calcium carbonate particles) from the utricular otolithic membrane. These loose otoliths move through the semicircular canals, triggering a sensation of movement and resulting in conflicting sensory inputs that cause vertigo.

      The majority of BPPV cases involve otoliths in the posterior semicircular canal, followed by the inferior semicircular canal. BPPV in the anterior semicircular canals is rare. Clinical features of BPPV include vertigo triggered by head position changes, such as rolling over in bed or looking upwards, accompanied by nausea. Episodes of vertigo typically last 10-20 seconds and can be diagnosed through positional nystagmus, which is a specific eye movement, observed during diagnostic maneuvers like the Dix-Hallpike maneuver.

      Hearing loss and tinnitus are not associated with BPPV. The prognosis for BPPV is generally good, with spontaneous resolution occurring within a few weeks to months. Symptomatic relief can be achieved through the Epley maneuver, which is successful in around 80% of cases, or patient home exercises like the Brandt-Daroff exercises. Medications like Betahistine may be prescribed but have limited effectiveness in treating BPPV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - You are managing a 62-year-old woman with a dorsally displaced fracture of the...

    Correct

    • You are managing a 62-year-old woman with a dorsally displaced fracture of the distal radius. Your plan is to perform a reduction of the fracture using intravenous regional anesthesia (Bier's block). Following the administration of the local anesthetic, you observe a change in the patient's skin color to a grayish-blue hue. What complication is most likely to have occurred?

      Your Answer: Methaemoglobinaemia

      Explanation:

      In this case, the administration of the local anesthetic used for the Bier’s block may have caused the patient’s blood to convert hemoglobin into methemoglobin, resulting in the observed skin color change.

      Further Reading:

      Bier’s block is a regional intravenous anesthesia technique commonly used for minor surgical procedures of the forearm or for reducing distal radius fractures in the emergency department (ED). It is recommended by NICE as the preferred anesthesia block for adults requiring manipulation of distal forearm fractures in the ED.

      Before performing the procedure, a pre-procedure checklist should be completed, including obtaining consent, recording the patient’s weight, ensuring the resuscitative equipment is available, and monitoring the patient’s vital signs throughout the procedure. The air cylinder should be checked if not using an electronic machine, and the cuff should be checked for leaks.

      During the procedure, a double cuff tourniquet is placed on the upper arm, and the arm is elevated to exsanguinate the limb. The proximal cuff is inflated to a pressure 100 mmHg above the systolic blood pressure, up to a maximum of 300 mmHg. The time of inflation and pressure should be recorded, and the absence of the radial pulse should be confirmed. 0.5% plain prilocaine is then injected slowly, and the time of injection is recorded. The patient should be warned about the potential cold/hot sensation and mottled appearance of the arm. After injection, the cannula is removed and pressure is applied to the venipuncture site to prevent bleeding. After approximately 10 minutes, the patient should have anesthesia and should not feel pain during manipulation. If anesthesia is successful, the manipulation can be performed, and a plaster can be applied by a second staff member. A check x-ray should be obtained with the arm lowered onto a pillow. The tourniquet should be monitored at all times, and the cuff should be inflated for a minimum of 20 minutes and a maximum of 45 minutes. If rotation of the cuff is required, it should be done after the manipulation and plaster application. After the post-reduction x-ray is satisfactory, the cuff can be deflated while observing the patient and monitors. Limb circulation should be checked prior to discharge, and appropriate follow-up and analgesia should be arranged.

      There are several contraindications to performing Bier’s block, including allergy to local anesthetic, hypertension over 200 mm Hg, infection in the limb, lymphedema, methemoglobinemia, morbid obesity, peripheral vascular disease, procedures needed in both arms, Raynaud’s phenomenon, scleroderma, severe hypertension and sickle cell disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - A patient comes in with a history of back pain and neurological symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • A patient comes in with a history of back pain and neurological symptoms in the lower limbs. He has experienced back issues intermittently for a few years and has previously been diagnosed with spondylolysis.
      Which specific part of the vertebra is typically affected by spondylolysis?

      Your Answer: Pedicle

      Correct Answer: Pars interarticularis

      Explanation:

      Spondylolysis refers to a flaw or fracture caused by stress in the pars interarticularis of the vertebral arch. While it can occur in the cervical vertebrae, it is most commonly found in the lower lumbar vertebrae, specifically L5. This injury is frequently seen in children and adolescents who engage in sports activities that place repetitive strain on the lower back, such as gymnastics, football, and weightlifting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - You provide nitrous oxide to a child who has experienced a significant injury...

    Correct

    • You provide nitrous oxide to a child who has experienced a significant injury for temporary pain relief.
      Which of the following is NOT a reason to avoid using nitrous oxide?

      Your Answer: Sepsis

      Explanation:

      The prolonged use of nitrous oxide (Entonox) in patients with sepsis may have a negative impact on DNA synthesis, and it is not recommended to use it in this situation. However, sepsis itself does not prevent the use of nitrous oxide.

      There are several conditions that make the use of nitrous oxide inappropriate. These include a reduced level of consciousness, diving injuries, pneumothorax, middle ear disease, sinus disease, bowel obstruction, a documented allergy to nitrous oxide, hypoxia, and violent or disabled psychiatric patients.

      It is important to note that the use of nitrous oxide should be avoided in patients with sepsis due to its potential effects on DNA synthesis. However, there are other contraindications to its use that should be considered in different clinical scenarios.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pain & Sedation
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - A 3-year-old girl has consumed a whole packet of ibuprofen tablets that she...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl has consumed a whole packet of ibuprofen tablets that she discovered in her father's bag.

      Which of the following symptoms of ibuprofen overdose is more frequently observed in children compared to adults?

      Your Answer: Cutaneous flushing

      Correct Answer: Hypoglycaemia

      Explanation:

      Hyperpyrexia and hypoglycemia are more frequently observed in children than in adults due to salicylate poisoning. Both adults and children may experience common clinical manifestations such as nausea, vomiting, tinnitus, deafness, sweating, dehydration, hyperventilation, and cutaneous flushing. However, it is important to note that xanthopsia is associated with digoxin toxicity, not salicylate poisoning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - A 60-year-old man with a history of hypertension comes to the Emergency Department...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man with a history of hypertension comes to the Emergency Department with an unrelated medical issue. While reviewing his medications, you find out that he is taking ramipril as part of his treatment.
      Which ONE of the following medications should be avoided?

      Your Answer: Amiloride

      Explanation:

      Potassium-sparing diuretics, like spironolactone and amiloride, can raise the chances of developing hyperkalemia when taken alongside ACE inhibitors, such as ramipril, and angiotensin-II receptor antagonists, like losartan.

      For more information, you can refer to the BNF section on ramipril interactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - A 32-year-old male patient arrives at the Emergency Department after ingesting an overdose...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old male patient arrives at the Emergency Department after ingesting an overdose 45 minutes ago. He is currently showing no symptoms and is stable in terms of blood flow. The attending physician recommends administering a dose of activated charcoal.
      Which of the following substances or toxins is activated charcoal effective in decontaminating?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Activated charcoal is a commonly used substance for decontamination in cases of poisoning. Its main function is to adsorb the molecules of the ingested toxin onto its surface.

      Activated charcoal is a chemically inert form of carbon. It is a fine black powder that has no odor or taste. It is produced by subjecting carbonaceous matter to high heat, a process known as pyrolysis, and then treating it with a zinc chloride solution to increase its concentration. This process creates a network of pores within the charcoal, giving it a large absorptive area of approximately 3,000 m2/g. This allows it to effectively inhibit the absorption of toxins by up to 50%.

      The usual dose of activated charcoal is 50 grams for adults and 1 gram per kilogram of body weight for children. It can be administered orally or through a nasogastric tube. It is important to administer it within one hour of ingestion, and it may be repeated after one hour if necessary.

      However, there are certain situations where activated charcoal should not be used. These include cases where the patient is unconscious or in a coma, as there is a risk of aspiration. It should also be avoided if seizures are imminent, as there is a risk of aspiration. Additionally, if there is reduced gastrointestinal motility, activated charcoal should not be used to prevent the risk of obstruction.

      Activated charcoal is effective in treating overdose with certain drugs and toxins, such as aspirin, paracetamol, barbiturates, tricyclic antidepressants, digoxin, amphetamines, morphine, cocaine, and phenothiazines. However, it is ineffective in cases of overdose with iron, lithium, boric acid, cyanide, ethanol, ethylene glycol, methanol, malathion, DDT, carbamate, hydrocarbon, strong acids, or alkalis.

      There are potential adverse effects associated with the use of activated charcoal. These include nausea and vomiting, diarrhea, constipation, bezoar formation (a mass of undigested material that can cause blockages), bowel obstruction, pulmonary aspiration (inhalation of charcoal into the lungs), and impaired absorption of oral medications or antidotes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - A 65-year-old patient arrives after an acute overdose of digoxin. She is experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient arrives after an acute overdose of digoxin. She is experiencing nausea and is expressing concerns about palpitations.
      What is the indication for administering DigiFab to this patient?

      Your Answer: Ventricular tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Digoxin-specific antibody (DigiFab) is an antidote used to counteract digoxin overdose. It is a purified and sterile preparation of digoxin-immune ovine Fab immunoglobulin fragments. These fragments are derived from healthy sheep that have been immunized with a digoxin derivative called digoxin-dicarboxymethoxylamine (DDMA). DDMA is a digoxin analogue that contains the essential cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene: lactone ring moiety coupled to keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH).

      DigiFab has a higher affinity for digoxin compared to the affinity of digoxin for its sodium pump receptor, which is believed to be the receptor responsible for its therapeutic and toxic effects. When administered to a patient who has overdosed on digoxin, DigiFab binds to digoxin molecules, reducing the levels of free digoxin in the body. This shift in equilibrium away from binding to the receptors helps to reduce the cardiotoxic effects of digoxin. The Fab-digoxin complexes are then eliminated from the body through the kidney and reticuloendothelial system.

      The indications for using DigiFab in cases of acute and chronic digoxin toxicity are summarized below:

      Acute digoxin toxicity:
      – Cardiac arrest
      – Life-threatening arrhythmia
      – Potassium level >5 mmol/l
      – Ingestion of >10 mg of digoxin (in adults)
      – Ingestion of >4 mg of digoxin (in children)
      – Digoxin level >12 ng/ml

      Chronic digoxin toxicity:
      – Cardiac arrest
      – Life-threatening arrhythmia
      – Significant gastrointestinal symptoms
      – Symptoms of digoxin toxicity in the presence of renal failure

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - You attend the unexpected delivery of a baby in one of the cubicles...

    Incorrect

    • You attend the unexpected delivery of a baby in one of the cubicles in the Emergency Department. Your consultant assesses the neonate five minutes after delivery and informs you that:
      The extremities are blue, but the body is pink
      The heart rate is 110 per minute
      The baby cries with stimulation
      There is some flexion of the limbs
      The baby has a strong, robust cry
      When should the next Apgar assessment be made?

      Your Answer: At 10 minutes after delivery

      Correct Answer: At 5 minutes after delivery

      Explanation:

      The Apgar score is a straightforward way to evaluate the well-being of a newborn baby right after birth. It consists of five criteria, each assigned a score ranging from zero to two. Typically, the assessment is conducted at one and five minutes after delivery, with the possibility of repeating it later if the score remains low. A score of 7 or higher is considered normal, while a score of 4-6 is considered fairly low, and a score of 3 or below is regarded as critically low. To remember the five criteria, you can use the acronym APGAR:

      Appearance
      Pulse rate
      Grimace
      Activity
      Respiratory effort

      The Apgar score criteria are as follows:

      Score of 0:
      Appearance (skin color): Blue or pale all over
      Pulse rate: Absent
      Reflex irritability (grimace): No response to stimulation
      Activity: None
      Respiratory effort: Absent

      Score of 1:
      Appearance (skin color): Blue at extremities (acrocyanosis)
      Pulse rate: Less than 100 per minute
      Reflex irritability (grimace): Grimace on suction or aggressive stimulation
      Activity: Some flexion
      Respiratory effort: Weak, irregular, gasping

      Score of 2:
      Appearance (skin color): No cyanosis, body and extremities pink
      Pulse rate: More than 100 per minute
      Reflex irritability (grimace): Cry on stimulation
      Activity: Flexed arms and legs that resist extension
      Respiratory effort: Strong, robust cry

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatal Emergencies
      69.6
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A 30-year-old woman suffers a gunshot wound to the chest in a domestic...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman suffers a gunshot wound to the chest in a domestic dispute. A FAST scan is performed, which shows the presence of intra-thoracic free fluid.

      Which of the following organs is most likely to be injured in this case?

      Your Answer: Liver

      Correct Answer: Small bowel

      Explanation:

      Low-velocity gunshot wounds to the abdomen result in tissue damage through laceration and cutting. On the other hand, high-velocity gunshot wounds transfer a greater amount of kinetic energy to the abdominal viscera. These types of wounds can cause more extensive damage in the surrounding area of the missile’s path due to temporary cavitation.

      When patients experience penetrating abdominal trauma as a result of gunshot wounds, certain organs are more commonly injured. The small bowel is affected in approximately 50% of cases, followed by the colon in 40% of cases. The liver is injured in around 30% of cases, while abdominal vascular structures are affected in about 25% of cases.

      Please note that these statistics have been obtained from the most recent edition of the ATLS manual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - A 3-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father after...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father after she accidentally spilled a cup of hot tea on her legs. Her upper body is unaffected, but she is crying in agony. Her pain is evaluated using a numerical rating scale and the triage nurse informs you that she has 'severe pain'.
      According to the RCEM guidance, which of the following analgesics is recommended for managing severe pain in a child of this age?

      Your Answer: Intranasal diamorphine 0.1 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      A recent audit conducted by the Royal College of Emergency Medicine (RCEM) in 2018 revealed a concerning decline in the standards of pain management for children with fractured limbs in Emergency Departments (EDs). The audit found that the majority of patients experienced longer waiting times for pain relief compared to previous years. Shockingly, more than 1 in 10 children who presented with significant pain due to a limb fracture did not receive any pain relief at all.

      To address this issue, the Agency for Health Care Policy and Research (AHCPR) in the USA recommends following the ABCs of pain management for all patients, including children. This approach involves regularly asking about pain, systematically assessing it, believing the patient and their family in their reports of pain and what relieves it, choosing appropriate pain control options, delivering interventions in a timely and coordinated manner, and empowering patients and their families to have control over their pain management.

      The RCEM has established standards that require a child’s pain to be assessed within 15 minutes of their arrival at the ED. This is considered a fundamental standard. Various rating scales are available for assessing pain in children, with the choice depending on the child’s age and ability to use the scale. These scales include the Wong-Baker Faces Pain Rating Scale, Numeric rating scale, and Behavioural scale.

      To ensure timely administration of analgesia to children in acute pain, the RCEM has set specific standards. These standards state that 100% of patients in severe pain should receive appropriate analgesia within 60 minutes of their arrival or triage, whichever comes first. Additionally, 75% should receive analgesia within 30 minutes, and 50% within 20 minutes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pain & Sedation
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - A 42-year-old woman comes in with a recent nosebleed. The bleeding was minor...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman comes in with a recent nosebleed. The bleeding was minor and has now ceased.
      Which ONE of the following arteries is not involved in Kiesselbach’s plexus?

      Your Answer: Posterior ethmoidal artery

      Explanation:

      Kiesselbach’s plexus, also known as Little’s area, is located in the front and lower part of the nasal septum. It is the most common site of bleeding in cases of anterior epistaxis. This plexus is formed by the convergence of four arteries: the anterior ethmoidal artery, the sphenopalatine artery, the greater palatine artery, and the septal branch of the superior labial artery. It is important to note that while the posterior ethmoidal artery supplies the septum of the nose, it does not contribute to Kiesselbach’s plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      10.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiology (3/3) 100%
Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic) (2/4) 50%
Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies (1/2) 50%
Trauma (2/4) 50%
Ear, Nose & Throat (4/4) 100%
Pain & Sedation (3/4) 75%
Basic Anaesthetics (3/3) 100%
Haematology (3/4) 75%
Pharmacology & Poisoning (6/9) 67%
Endocrinology (6/6) 100%
Urology (2/2) 100%
Oncological Emergencies (2/2) 100%
Dermatology (2/2) 100%
Neurology (5/5) 100%
Maxillofacial & Dental (0/2) 0%
Obstetrics & Gynaecology (1/1) 100%
Palliative & End Of Life Care (1/2) 50%
Ophthalmology (2/3) 67%
Respiratory (4/7) 57%
Nephrology (3/4) 75%
Surgical Emergencies (2/4) 50%
Sexual Health (1/1) 100%
Paediatric Emergencies (1/2) 50%
Environmental Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Elderly Care / Frailty (3/3) 100%
Gastroenterology & Hepatology (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (1/2) 50%
Mental Health (1/1) 100%
Resus (1/1) 100%
Neonatal Emergencies (0/1) 0%
Passmed