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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old woman has been diagnosed with acute cholecystitis and is set to...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman has been diagnosed with acute cholecystitis and is set to undergo a cholecystectomy in 4 days. She is currently managing her type 1 diabetes with a daily dose of 20 units of long acting insulin in the morning. What is the appropriate once-daily dose of insulin for her to take the day before her surgery?

      Your Answer: 24 Units

      Correct Answer: 16 Units

      Explanation:

      Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old woman comes to the neurology clinic reporting olfactory hallucinations that have...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman comes to the neurology clinic reporting olfactory hallucinations that have been occurring for the past 6 months. She works in an office and experiences sudden episodes of smelling burnt rubber, even though there is none present. These episodes last for approximately 2 minutes before subsiding, and she denies any accompanying headaches, visual disturbances, or loss of consciousness. The patient has a history of cannabis use disorder spanning 4 years and is currently receiving assistance to quit. She also has depression that is being managed with sertraline. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Olfactory hallucination due to cannabis use

      Correct Answer: Focal aware seizure

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for a woman who suddenly experiences the sensation of smelling roses while at work, while remaining conscious throughout, is a focal aware seizure. This type of seizure affects a small part of one of the brain’s lobes, and in this case, it is likely originating from the temporal lobe. Focal aware seizures can lead to hallucinations, such as olfactory, auditory, or gustatory, as well as epigastric rising and automatisms.

      Other options, such as absence seizure, focal impaired awareness seizure, and olfactory hallucination due to cannabis use, are not applicable in this case. Absence seizures typically occur in children and involve impaired consciousness, while focal impaired awareness seizures involve impaired consciousness as well. Olfactory hallucination due to cannabis use is unlikely, as the patient is receiving help for their cannabis-use disorder and there are no other signs of psychosis.

      Epilepsy is classified based on three key features: where seizures begin in the brain, level of awareness during a seizure, and other features of seizures. Focal seizures, previously known as partial seizures, start in a specific area on one side of the brain. The level of awareness can vary in focal seizures, and they can be further classified as focal aware, focal impaired awareness, or awareness unknown. Focal seizures can also be motor, non-motor, or have other features such as aura. Generalized seizures involve networks on both sides of the brain at the onset, and consciousness is lost immediately. They can be further subdivided into motor and non-motor types. Unknown onset is used when the origin of the seizure is unknown. Focal to bilateral seizures start on one side of the brain in a specific area before spreading to both lobes and were previously known as secondary generalized seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      44.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old man presents to the emergency department following a motor vehicle collision...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man presents to the emergency department following a motor vehicle collision where he was the driver. A lorry in front lost control and caused significant damage to his car, resulting in the dashboard and footwell being pushed forward. The patient is currently stable but complains of severe pain in his right leg. Upon examination, his right leg is internally rotated, slightly flexed, adducted, and shortened compared to the left. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Posterior hip dislocation

      Explanation:

      When a person has a posterior hip dislocation, their leg will appear shortened and internally rotated. This type of injury often occurs during car accidents, especially when the driver slams on the brakes to avoid a collision. The impact from the front of the car is then transferred through the leg to the hip joint, causing the femoral head to move behind the acetabulum. Pelvic fractures, on the other hand, typically cause pain when walking or touching the area, as well as instability, nerve or blood vessel damage in the leg, and signs of injury to pelvic organs such as bleeding from the rectum or blood in the urine. Anterior hip dislocations are less common than posterior ones, but they can cause the leg to appear abducted and externally rotated, with a noticeable bulge in the femoral head. These types of dislocations are often associated with hip prostheses. Finally, femoral shaft fractures can cause swelling, deformity, and shortening of the leg. Because such fractures require a significant amount of force to occur, there is usually also damage to the surrounding soft tissues and bleeding.

      Understanding Hip Dislocation: Types, Management, and Complications

      Hip dislocation is a painful condition that occurs when the ball and socket joint of the hip are separated. This is usually caused by direct trauma, such as road traffic accidents or falls from a significant height. The force required to cause hip dislocation can also result in other fractures and life-threatening injuries. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial to reduce morbidity.

      There are three types of hip dislocation: posterior, anterior, and central. Posterior dislocation is the most common, accounting for 90% of cases. It causes the affected leg to be shortened, adducted, and internally rotated. On the other hand, anterior dislocation results in abduction and external rotation of the affected leg, with no leg shortening. Central dislocation is rare and occurs when the femoral head is displaced in all directions.

      The management of hip dislocation follows the ABCDE approach, which includes ensuring airway, breathing, circulation, disability, and exposure. Analgesia is also given to manage the pain. A reduction under general anaesthetic is performed within four hours to reduce the risk of avascular necrosis. Long-term management involves physiotherapy to strengthen the surrounding muscles.

      Complications of hip dislocation include nerve injury, avascular necrosis, osteoarthritis, and recurrent dislocation due to damage to supporting ligaments. The prognosis is best when the hip is reduced less than 12 hours post-injury and when there is less damage to the joint. It takes about two to three months for the hip to heal after a traumatic dislocation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 38-year-old man visits his GP complaining of feeling generally unwell. He reports...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old man visits his GP complaining of feeling generally unwell. He reports experiencing daily frontal headaches for the past three months, which have not improved with regular paracetamol. Additionally, he has noticed some unusual symptoms such as his wedding ring no longer fitting, his shoe size apparently increasing, and a small amount of milky discharge from both nipples. During examination, his blood pressure is found to be 168/96 mmHg. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acromegaly

      Explanation:

      Acromegaly: Excess Growth Hormone and its Features

      Acromegaly is a condition characterized by excess growth hormone, which is usually caused by a pituitary adenoma in over 95% of cases. However, a minority of cases are caused by ectopic GHRH or GH production by tumours such as pancreatic. The condition is associated with several features, including a coarse facial appearance, spade-like hands, and an increase in shoe size. Patients may also have a large tongue, prognathism, and interdental spaces. Excessive sweating and oily skin are also common, caused by sweat gland hypertrophy.

      In addition to these physical features, patients with acromegaly may also experience symptoms of a pituitary tumour, such as hypopituitarism, headaches, and bitemporal hemianopia. Raised prolactin levels are also seen in about one-third of cases, which can lead to galactorrhoea. It is important to note that 6% of patients with acromegaly have MEN-1, a genetic disorder that affects multiple endocrine glands.

      Complications of acromegaly include hypertension, diabetes (seen in over 10% of cases), cardiomyopathy, and an increased risk of colorectal cancer. Early diagnosis and treatment of acromegaly are crucial to prevent these complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - As a rheumatology clinic doctor, you are reviewing a 75-year-old woman who has...

    Correct

    • As a rheumatology clinic doctor, you are reviewing a 75-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with osteoporosis. Following the FRAX/NOGG guidance and the results of her DEXA scan, you have prescribed alendronic acid as part of her treatment plan. During your counseling session, she asks why she cannot take this medication like her other medications after breakfast. What is the potential risk if she does not take the medication as instructed?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal reaction

      Explanation:

      When taking oral bisphosphonates, it is important to swallow them with plenty of water while sitting or standing on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or any other oral medication. After taking the medication, the patient should remain upright for at least 30 minutes. Effective counseling on administration is necessary as oral bisphosphonates can cause oesophageal retention and increase the risk of esophagitis. Oesophageal disorders and an unsafe swallow are contraindications for oral bisphosphonate therapy. Acute phase response may occur as a reaction to the bisphosphonate therapy itself, not the route of administration. Long-term bisphosphonate therapy is associated with atypical stress fractures, but this risk is not affected by the route of administration. Hypocalcaemia may occur with long-term bisphosphonate therapy, but it is not associated with the route of administration.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 45-year old teacher is diagnosed with a medical condition that is inherited...

    Correct

    • A 45-year old teacher is diagnosed with a medical condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner.
      Which of the following diseases is best described as being inherited in an autosomal dominant manner?

      Your Answer: Familial hypercholesterolaemia

      Explanation:

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia is a single gene disorder inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. Mutations in genes such as LDLR, Apo, and PCSK9 affect cholesterol handling in the body. Patients with mutations in the LDLR gene produce a defective receptor that cannot bind LDLs, leading to cholesterol accumulation outside cells and atherosclerosis. Heterozygotes are at risk of developing premature cardiovascular disease, while homozygotes can develop severe cardiovascular disease in childhood. Cystic fibrosis is the most common autosomal recessive disease caused by mutations in the CFTR gene, inhibiting the flow of chloride ions and water, leaving mucus thickened and blocking hollow organs. Hereditary haemochromatosis is caused by mutations in the HFE gene, leading to iron overload. Sickle cell anaemia is caused by a mutation in the gene coding for ÎČ globin, leading to deformed red cells that block circulation and cause tissue oxygen deficiency. Wilson’s disease is caused by a defective copper-transporting ATPase, leading to copper accumulation in the liver, brain, and other tissues, which can be fatal if not recognized.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Both restrictive lung disease and obstructive lung disease may affect a particular pulmonary...

    Incorrect

    • Both restrictive lung disease and obstructive lung disease may affect a particular pulmonary function test to a similar extent. Which test is this? Please select only one option from the list provided.

      Your Answer: Total lung capacity

      Correct Answer: Tidal volume

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary Function Tests: Understanding Tidal Volume, Total Lung Capacity, Residual Volume, FEV1/FVC Ratio, and FEV1

      Pulmonary function tests (PFTs) are a group of tests that measure how well the lungs are functioning. There are several parameters that are measured during PFTs, including tidal volume (TV), total lung capacity (TLC), residual volume (RV), forced expiratory volume in 1 second/forced vital capacity (FEV1/FVC) ratio, and forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1).

      Tidal volume refers to the amount of gas inspired or expired with each breath. It can be reduced in both obstructive and restrictive lung disease, but the underlying mechanism causing the reduction is different. In obstructive lung disease, there is airflow limitation, while in restrictive lung disease, there is reduced lung volume or inability to fully expand the thoracic cage.

      Total lung capacity is the volume of air in the lungs after a maximal inspiration. It is increased in obstructive lung disease due to air trapping, but is reduced in restrictive lung disease.

      Residual volume is the volume of air remaining in the lungs after a maximal expiration. It cannot be measured with spirometry, but it is increased in obstructive lung disease due to air trapping.

      The FEV1/FVC ratio is a measure of how much air a person can forcefully exhale in one second compared to the total amount of air they can exhale. A ratio of less than 70% is indicative of obstructive lung disease, while a ratio greater than 70% is indicative of restrictive lung disease.

      FEV1 is the amount of air a person can forcefully exhale in one second. It is characteristically reduced in obstructive lung disease, but normal in restrictive lung disease because there is no airflow limitation.

      Understanding these parameters can help healthcare professionals diagnose and manage lung diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      1468.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 67-year-old man presents to you with progressive numbness in his right hand...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents to you with progressive numbness in his right hand and entire right side, indicating a possible stroke. You promptly arrange for an ambulance and he returns 6 weeks later to express his gratitude and discuss medication. If there are no contraindications, what antiplatelet regimen is recommended after an acute ischemic stroke?

      Your Answer: Aspirin 300 mg daily for 2 weeks then clopidogrel 75 mg daily long-term

      Explanation:

      When a patient shows symptoms of acute stroke, it is crucial to immediately send them to the nearest stroke center. Treatment should not be administered until a diagnosis of ischemic stroke is confirmed. Once confirmed, the patient should be prescribed aspirin 300 mg daily for two weeks, followed by long-term use of clopidogrel 75 mg daily. Additionally, if the patient is not already taking a statin, it should be offered as a treatment option.

      The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      36.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 72-year-old man presents for follow-up. He was diagnosed with angina pectoris and...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents for follow-up. He was diagnosed with angina pectoris and is currently prescribed aspirin 75mg once daily, simvastatin 40 mg once daily, and atenolol 100 mg once daily. If his angina symptoms are not adequately managed with this regimen, what would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Add isosorbide mononitrate MR

      Correct Answer: Add a long-acting dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker

      Explanation:

      When beta-blockers fail to control angina, it is recommended to supplement with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker that has a longer duration of action.

      Angina pectoris is a condition that can be managed through various methods, including lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. The first-line medication should be either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If the initial treatment is not effective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, other drugs such as long-acting nitrates, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Nitrate tolerance is a common issue, and patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate should use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. This effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      36.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 57-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She developed a blistering rash under her...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She developed a blistering rash under her left breast that spread to her back about 4 weeks ago, and was diagnosed with shingles. However, she has been experiencing intense shooting pains and tenderness in the affected area since then, despite trying both paracetamol and ibuprofen. What would be the most suitable course of action for managing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Lidocaine patch

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      The woman is suffering from post-herpetic neuralgia and NICE suggests starting treatment with amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin.

      Understanding Neuropathic Pain and its Management

      Neuropathic pain is a type of pain that occurs due to damage or disruption of the nervous system. It is a complex condition that is often difficult to treat and does not respond well to standard painkillers. Examples of neuropathic pain include diabetic neuropathy, post-herpetic neuralgia, trigeminal neuralgia, and prolapsed intervertebral disc.

      To manage neuropathic pain, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidance in 2013. The first-line treatment options include amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If the first-line drug treatment does not work, patients may try one of the other three drugs. Unlike standard painkillers, drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used as monotherapy, meaning that if they do not work, patients should switch to a different drug rather than adding another one.

      Tramadol may be used as rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain, while topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain, such as post-herpetic neuralgia. Pain management clinics may also be useful for patients with resistant problems. However, it is important to note that for some specific conditions, such as trigeminal neuralgia, the guidance may vary, and carbamazepine may be used as a first-line treatment. Overall, understanding neuropathic pain and its management is crucial for improving the quality of life for patients suffering from this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      40.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 60-year-old man had a left mastectomy three years ago for breast cancer....

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man had a left mastectomy three years ago for breast cancer. He has now presented with a 4-month history of progressive ataxia and dysarthria. On examination, there is gaze-evoked nystagmus, dysarthria, upper limb ataxia and gait ataxia. Power, tone, reflexes and sensation are normal. Plantar response is flexor bilaterally. Computerised tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) microscopy are normal.
      Which one of the following is the most likely cause of his ataxia?

      Your Answer: Paraneoplastic cerebellum syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for a patient with subacute cerebellar dysfunction and normal imaging

      Paraneoplastic cerebellum syndrome, multiple sclerosis, cerebellar metastasis, malignant meningitis, and Wernicke’s encephalopathy are among the possible diagnoses for a patient presenting with subacute onset of cerebellar signs and normal imaging.

      Paraneoplastic cerebellum syndrome is a rare immune-mediated complication of many cancers, which may be diagnosed before the underlying tumour. Symptoms develop rapidly and include dizziness, nausea, vertigo, nystagmus, ataxia, oscillopsia, dysarthria, tremor, dysphagia, and blurry vision. MRI may be normal, but CSF may show raised protein and anti-neuronal antibodies.

      Multiple sclerosis is more common in women and usually presents with transient episodes of visual change or limb weakness/paraesthesiae, as well as bladder and cerebellar dysfunction. MRI may visualise plaques of demyelination, and CSF shows oligoclonal bands.

      Cerebellar metastasis could occur in breast cancer, but it would be visualised on MRI.

      Malignant meningitis occurs when cancer spreads to the meninges and presents with confusion, headaches, and weakness. Imaging and CSF would be abnormal.

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is due to thiamine deficiency, typically seen in alcoholics, and presents with acute confusional state, ophthalmoplegia, and gait ataxia. Dysarthria is not usually a feature. Thiamine deficiency is not suggested by this patient’s history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      84.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You are a foundation year 2 doctor on your GP placement. You see...

    Correct

    • You are a foundation year 2 doctor on your GP placement. You see 8-year-old Lily whose mother has brought her to see you as she feels Lily is snoring very loudly and wonders whether this is affecting her quality of sleep. Lily is overweight and has a background of childhood asthma.
      What is a frequent cause of snoring in childhood?

      Your Answer: Obesity

      Explanation:

      Snoring in Children: Possible Causes

      Snoring in children can be caused by various factors. One of the common causes is obesity, which can lead to the narrowing of the airways and difficulty in breathing during sleep. Another possible cause is nasal problems such as polyps, deviated septum, and hypertrophic nasal turbinates, which can also obstruct the airways and cause snoring. Recurrent tonsillitis can also contribute to snoring, as the inflamed tonsils can block the air passages.

      In some cases, snoring in children may be associated with certain medical conditions such as Down’s syndrome and hypothyroidism. These conditions can affect the structure and function of the respiratory system, leading to snoring and other breathing difficulties.

      It is important to identify the underlying cause of snoring in children and seek appropriate treatment to prevent potential health complications. Parents should consult a healthcare professional if their child snores regularly or experiences other symptoms such as daytime sleepiness, difficulty concentrating, or behavioral problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 75-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after being found unresponsive in his home. His medical records show that he had recently been prescribed doxycycline for an unknown reason. Upon assessment, he is breathing rapidly with a respiratory rate of 40 breaths/min and has bibasal crackles. His heart rate is 96 beats/min and his blood pressure is 82/44 mmHg. His blood glucose is 4.1mmol/L, his temperature 38.9ÂșC and his Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is 9 (E3M4V2). He is given a fluid bolus and an arterial blood gas (ABG) on 4L/min of oxygen is taken, revealing an abnormal pH. What is the most likely cause of the abnormal pH?

      Your Answer: Acute kidney injury (AKI)

      Correct Answer: Lactic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Metabolic Acidosis and Anion Gap

      Metabolic acidosis is a condition that occurs when the body produces too much acid or when the kidneys are not able to remove enough acid from the body. It is commonly classified according to the anion gap, which can be calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate levels from the sum of sodium and potassium levels. The normal range for anion gap is 10-18 mmol/L. If a question supplies the chloride level, it may be a clue that the anion gap should be calculated.

      There are two types of metabolic acidosis based on anion gap levels. Normal anion gap or hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis is caused by gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss, prolonged diarrhea, ureterosigmoidostomy, fistula, renal tubular acidosis, drugs, ammonium chloride injection, and Addison’s disease. On the other hand, raised anion gap is caused by lactate, ketones, urate, acid poisoning, and other factors.

      Metabolic acidosis secondary to high lactate levels may be subdivided into two types: lactic acidosis type A and lactic acidosis type B. Lactic acidosis type A is caused by sepsis, shock, hypoxia, and burns, while lactic acidosis type B is caused by metformin. Understanding the different types of metabolic acidosis and anion gap levels can help in diagnosing and treating the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      104.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old law student visits his primary care physician complaining of ear pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old law student visits his primary care physician complaining of ear pain. He suspects that this is related to the same issue causing dryness in his scalp and beard, as well as eczema-like patches in his nasolabial folds. He has been using non-prescription topical treatments to manage these symptoms but seeks guidance for his earache. What is the probable diagnosis that connects all of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Eczema herpeticum

      Correct Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis can lead to common complications such as otitis externa and blepharitis. The patient is experiencing eczema-like plaques and dry skin in areas rich in sebum, which he has been treating with over-the-counter antifungal shampoos. However, his complaint of earache may be due to otitis externa, which is associated with seborrhoeic dermatitis. A full ear examination should be performed to rule out other diagnoses. Contact dermatitis is unlikely to present in this distribution and would not cause otalgia. Eczema herpeticum is a severe primary infection by herpes-simplex-virus 1 or 2, commonly seen in children with atopic eczema. Guttate psoriasis commonly affects children after Streptococcal upper respiratory tract infection and will clear over the course of ,3 months without treatment. Irritant dermatitis is unlikely to cause such focal areas of irritation.

      Understanding Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Adults

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a chronic skin condition that affects around 2% of the general population. It is caused by an inflammatory reaction related to the overgrowth of a fungus called Malassezia furfur, which is a normal inhabitant of the skin. The condition is characterized by eczematous lesions that appear on the sebum-rich areas of the body, such as the scalp, periorbital, auricular, and nasolabial folds. It can also lead to the development of otitis externa and blepharitis.

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often associated with other medical conditions, such as HIV and Parkinson’s disease. The management of the condition depends on the affected area. For scalp disease, over-the-counter preparations containing zinc pyrithione and tar are usually the first-line treatment. If these are not effective, ketoconazole is the preferred second-line agent. Selenium sulphide and topical corticosteroids may also be useful.

      For the face and body, topical antifungals such as ketoconazole and topical steroids are often used. However, it is important to use steroids for short periods only to avoid side effects. Seborrhoeic dermatitis can be difficult to treat, and recurrences are common. Therefore, it is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to manage the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      66.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 67-year-old man visits his doctor with a complaint of a rash on...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man visits his doctor with a complaint of a rash on his face. Upon examination, the doctor observes a vesicular rash around the left orbit and on the bridge of the nose. The patient reports experiencing pain. The eye appears unaffected and is not inflamed. The doctor suspects shingles.
      What would be the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Urgent referral to ophthalmology and start oral prednisolone

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral to ophthalmology and start oral aciclovir

      Explanation:

      Immediate ophthalmological assessment and a 7-10 day course of oral antivirals are necessary for the treatment of herpes zoster ophthalmicus. Hutchinson’s sign, which involves the tip of the nose, is a strong indicator of ocular involvement and warrants urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. While oral corticosteroids may help alleviate pain, they are not as crucial as antivirals or ophthalmological evaluation.

      Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications

      Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition that occurs when the varicella-zoster virus reactivates in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is responsible for approximately 10% of shingles cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong indicator of nasociliary involvement and increases the risk of ocular involvement.

      Treatment for HZO involves oral antiviral medication for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be necessary for severe infections or immunocompromised patients. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review to prevent complications such as conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

      In summary, HZO is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It presents with a vesicular rash around the eye and may involve the eye itself. Treatment involves oral antiviral medication and urgent ophthalmology review is necessary for ocular involvement. Complications of HZO include various eye conditions, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old man presents with complaints of frequent headaches. He also admits to...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with complaints of frequent headaches. He also admits to experiencing erectile dysfunction and decreased sex drive that has progressively worsened over the past six months. Visual field examination reveals a bitemporal hemianopia. Laboratory examination reveals an elevation in serum prolactin, while serum luteinizing hormone (LH) and testosterone are decreased.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Craniopharyngioma

      Correct Answer: Prolactinoma

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Pituitary Disorders: Causes and Symptoms

      Pituitary disorders can present with a variety of symptoms, making it important to differentiate between them for proper diagnosis and treatment. Here are some common causes and symptoms of pituitary disorders:

      Prolactinoma: This is the most common functional pituitary tumor, which can cause headaches, visual field defects, and suppression of the normal hypothalamus-pituitary-gonadal axis, leading to loss of libido and gonadotrophin levels.

      Craniopharyngioma: More common in children and adolescents, this tumor can lead to hypopituitarism, growth hormone deficiency, and visual changes. It can sometimes cause increased serum prolactin.

      Idiopathic panhypopituitarism: This condition manifests with decreases in all anterior pituitary hormones, including prolactin.

      Isolated LH deficiency: This can explain loss of libido and decreased plasma levels of LH and testosterone, but not the increase in prolactin or bitemporal hemianopia.

      Pituitary infarction: This can occur in women who hemorrhage excessively during parturition, leading to varying degrees of hypopituitarism, but not hyperprolactinemia.

      By understanding the specific causes and symptoms of pituitary disorders, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 12-year-old girl comes to her GP with a complaint of amenorrhoea. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl comes to her GP with a complaint of amenorrhoea. Her parents inform the doctor that she requires extra support at school due to learning difficulties. During the examination, the doctor observes sparse breast development, broad shoulders, a wide neck, and elevated blood pressure. What is the most probable chromosomal abnormality in this patient?

      Your Answer: 47 XXY

      Correct Answer: 45 XO

      Explanation:

      Common Chromosomal Abnormalities and Their Associated Conditions

      45 XO is a chromosomal abnormality associated with Turner syndrome, which is characterized by sparse breast development, broad shoulders, high blood pressure, and a wide neck.

      46 XY is the normal karyotype for men, but genetic abnormalities involving other chromosomes can still occur.

      46 XX is the normal karyotype for women, but genetic abnormalities involving other chromosomes can still occur.

      47 XXX is the chromosomal abnormality associated with triple X syndrome, which can be asymptomatic or result in learning difficulties, tall stature, or microcephaly.

      47 XXY is the chromosomal abnormality associated with Klinefelter syndrome, which is characterized by tall stature, gynaecomastia, and infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old woman presents with a complaint of epigastric pain after meals for...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with a complaint of epigastric pain after meals for the past 2 months. She has no significant medical history and is not currently taking any medications. Despite trying gaviscon, her symptoms have not improved. What is the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Refer for gastroscopy

      Correct Answer: Treat with a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) at full dose for 1 month

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing dyspepsia but does not exhibit any alarming symptoms nor is taking any medication that could trigger the condition. Lifestyle modifications should be recommended, followed by either a month-long administration of a full dose proton pump inhibitor (PPI) or testing and treatment for Helicobacter pylori.

      Management of Dyspepsia and Referral for Possible Cancer

      Dyspepsia is a common symptom that can be caused by various factors, including medication and lifestyle choices. However, it can also be a sign of underlying conditions such as stomach or oesophageal cancer. The 2015 NICE guidelines provide updated advice on when urgent referral for endoscopy is necessary. Patients with dysphagia or an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer should be referred urgently. Patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also be referred urgently. Non-urgent referrals include patients with haematemesis or those with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with other symptoms.

      For patients with undiagnosed dyspepsia, a step-wise approach is recommended. First, medications should be reviewed for possible causes. Lifestyle advice should also be given. If symptoms persist, a trial of full-dose proton pump inhibitor for one month or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried. If symptoms persist after either approach, the alternative should be attempted. Testing for H. pylori infection can be done using a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms resolve following test and treat, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      46.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 62-year-old man presents to the clinic with a history of ischaemic heart...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man presents to the clinic with a history of ischaemic heart disease and a recent diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus. His HbA1c at the time of diagnosis was 7.6% (60 mmol/mol) and he was started on metformin, which was titrated up to a dose of 1g bd. His most recent blood work shows a HbA1c of 6.8% (51 mmol/mol). He has recently retired from the IT industry and has a BMI of 28 kg/mÂČ. He is currently taking atorvastatin 80 mg, aspirin 75mg, bisoprolol 2.5 mg, and ramipril 5mg. What would be the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Make no changes to his medication

      Correct Answer: Add empagliflozin

      Explanation:

      In addition to metformin, an SGLT-2 inhibitor (such as empagliflozin) should be prescribed for this patient who has a history of cardiovascular disease.

      NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      32.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - An 80-year-old male visits his GP complaining of new visual symptoms. He is...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old male visits his GP complaining of new visual symptoms. He is having difficulty reading the newspaper, particularly at night, and his symptoms appear to be fluctuating in severity. Upon fundoscopy, the doctor observes small deposits of extracellular material between Bruch's membrane and the retinal pigment epithelium, but otherwise the examination is unremarkable. The patient has a history of lifelong smoking. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dry age-related macular degeneration

      Explanation:

      Dry macular degeneration is also known as drusen. This condition is characterized by a gradual loss of central vision, which can fluctuate and worsen over time. Symptoms may include difficulty seeing in low light conditions and distorted or blurry vision. There are two forms of macular degeneration: dry and wet.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      46.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - An 80-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up with his General Practitioner....

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up with his General Practitioner. He has a medical history of atrial fibrillation, type II diabetes, depression, and chronic alcohol abuse. His current medications include warfarin 3 mg once daily, ramipril 2.5 mg once daily, bisoprolol 2 mg once daily, erythromycin 500 mg four times daily (day five of a 7-day course for cellulitis on the leg), and sertraline 50 mg once daily (started four weeks ago). He is allergic to penicillin. His blood work shows an INR of 6.5 (target 2.0-3.0). What is the most likely reason for his elevated INR?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin is a P450 inhibiter

      Explanation:

      The patient is taking erythromycin for cellulitis, which inhibits the cytochrome P450 enzymes responsible for breaking down drugs like warfarin and statins. As a result, the effects of warfarin are potentiated, leading to a higher than expected INR. Bisoprolol is unlikely to have contributed to the change in INR as it does not affect the P450 system. Chronic alcohol abuse can induce P450 enzymes, but this would cause a lower INR. Erythromycin is an inhibitor, not an inducer, of P450 enzymes. Sertraline, though recently started, is also an enzyme inhibitor and cannot explain the high INR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      35.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 30-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after being found unconscious...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after being found unconscious on the street with a syringe and used pack of oxycodone and alprazolam nearby. Upon examination, he is lethargic with pinpoint pupils, reduced bowel sounds, and fresh needle marks on his right arm. His vital signs are: blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, heart rate 55/min, oxygen saturation of 95% on room air, temperature 36ÂșC, and respiratory rate of 5 breaths per minute. His blood glucose level is 8 mmol/L. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Naloxone

      Explanation:

      The individual displays classic symptoms of acute opioid overdose, including slow breathing, constricted pupils, and changes in consciousness.

      The management of overdoses and poisonings involves specific treatments for each toxin. For paracetamol overdose, activated charcoal is recommended if ingested within an hour, followed by N-acetylcysteine or liver transplantation if necessary. Salicylate overdose can be managed with urinary alkalinization using IV bicarbonate or haemodialysis. Opioid/opiate overdose can be treated with naloxone, while benzodiazepine overdose can be treated with flumazenil in severe cases. Tricyclic antidepressant overdose may require IV bicarbonate to reduce the risk of seizures and arrhythmias, but class 1a and class Ic antiarrhythmics should be avoided. Lithium toxicity may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline or haemodialysis in severe cases. Warfarin overdose can be treated with vitamin K or prothrombin complex, while heparin overdose can be treated with protamine sulphate. Beta-blocker overdose may require atropine or glucagon. Ethylene glycol poisoning can be managed with fomepizole or ethanol, while methanol poisoning can be treated with the same. Organophosphate insecticide poisoning can be treated with atropine, and digoxin overdose can be treated with digoxin-specific antibody fragments. Iron overdose can be managed with desferrioxamine, and lead poisoning can be treated with dimercaprol or calcium edetate. Carbon monoxide poisoning can be managed with 100% oxygen or hyperbaric oxygen, while cyanide poisoning can be treated with hydroxocobalamin or a combination of amyl nitrite, sodium nitrite, and sodium thiosulfate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - An 80-year-old man complains of lower back pain and right hip pain. Upon...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man complains of lower back pain and right hip pain. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained:
      Calcium 2.20 mmol/l
      Phosphate 0.8 mmol/l
      ALP 890 u/L
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paget's disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone

      Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities. Predisposing factors include increasing age, male sex, northern latitude, and family history.

      Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. The stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Classical, untreated features include bowing of the tibia and bossing of the skull. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, which show raised ALP, and x-rays, which reveal osteolysis in early disease and mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions later.

      Treatment is indicated for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fracture, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are the preferred treatment. Calcitonin is less commonly used now. Complications of Paget’s disease include deafness, bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years), fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.

      Overall, understanding Paget’s disease of the bone is important for early diagnosis and management of symptoms and complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 30-year-old man presents with multiple, ring-shaped, papular rashes on his legs. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents with multiple, ring-shaped, papular rashes on his legs. He has recently noticed a red, raised intra-oral lesion.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ring Worm

      Correct Answer: Lichen planus

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions: Lichen Planus, Erythema Multiforme, Psoriasis, Ringworm, and Tinea Versicolor

      Lichen Planus: A skin condition that affects cutaneous and mucosal surfaces, characterised by flat-topped plaques and papules with a purple hue and white striae. It can be treated with topical steroids and immunomodulators.

      Erythema Multiforme: A skin condition characterised by targetoid lesions with a central depression, usually starting on the acral extensor surfaces and progressing to involve the trunk and back. It can be caused by medications, infections, or underlying conditions.

      Psoriasis: An autoimmune chronic skin condition presenting with erythematous plaques and greyscale on the extensor surfaces of extremities. It is not associated with intra-oral mucosal lesions.

      Ringworm: A fungal skin infection characterised by erythematous, scaly patches on the skin surface of the trunk, back, and extremities. It can lead to the formation of pustules or vesicles.

      Tinea Versicolor: A fungal skin infection characterised by pale or dark, copper-coloured patches on the arms, neck, and trunk. It does not involve mucosal surfaces.

      Understanding Different Skin Conditions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old man presents with a daytime-average ABPM reading of 162/100 mmHg and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with a daytime-average ABPM reading of 162/100 mmHg and a calculated QRISK-3 score of 13.8%. He has no significant past medical history and is of Pakistani background. What initial pharmacological management should be offered, in addition to lifestyle advice?

      Your Answer: A statin and an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor

      Correct Answer: A statin and a calcium-channel blocker

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      53.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 64-year-old woman presents to the clinic after undergoing a lumpectomy for a...

    Correct

    • A 64-year-old woman presents to the clinic after undergoing a lumpectomy for a cancerous lump in her left breast. The histopathology report indicates that the tissue was oestrogen receptor-positive, and the patient is offered anastrozole therapy as adjuvant treatment. She has no significant medical history and is not currently taking any medications. The patient is eager to begin the recommended adjuvant therapy. What diagnostic tests should be conducted before initiating treatment?

      Your Answer: DEXA scan

      Explanation:

      Anastrozole, an aromatase inhibitor, is a recommended adjuvant therapy for patients with oestrogen positive cancer (ER+). However, it may lead to osteoporosis as an adverse effect. Therefore, NICE recommends performing a DEXA scan before initiating therapy. A clotting screen is not necessary before starting anastrozole, as it does not cause coagulopathies. ECGs are not required either, as cardiac changes and arrhythmias are not associated with this medication. Unlike certain medications like statins, anastrozole is not known to commonly affect lipid profiles, so it does not need to be monitored. Liver function tests are also not routinely assessed before starting anastrozole, as it is not known to affect liver function. However, it would have been appropriate to send a clotting screen before the patient’s lumpectomy.

      Anti-oestrogen drugs are used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulators (SERM) such as Tamoxifen act as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. However, Tamoxifen can cause adverse effects such as menstrual disturbance, hot flushes, venous thromboembolism, and endometrial cancer. On the other hand, aromatase inhibitors like Anastrozole and Letrozole reduce peripheral oestrogen synthesis, which is important in postmenopausal women. Anastrozole is used for ER +ve breast cancer in this group. However, aromatase inhibitors can cause adverse effects such as osteoporosis, hot flushes, arthralgia, myalgia, and insomnia. NICE recommends a DEXA scan when initiating a patient on aromatase inhibitors for breast cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      40
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 28-year-old woman presents with a history of headache every day for the...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with a history of headache every day for the past three months. She describes that it is worse in the evening. There are no associated symptoms.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tension headache

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Headaches

      Headaches are a common ailment that can be caused by a variety of factors. Here are some of the different types of headaches and their distinguishing characteristics:

      1. Tension headache: This type of headache is often described as a tight, band-like pain across the forehead and is more common in females. It typically worsens towards the end of the day but does not interfere with daily activities. Chronic tension headaches occur at least 15 days of the month for at least three months.

      2. Brain tumour: Headaches caused by space-occupying lesions tend to be worse in the morning and when bending forward. They may also be associated with vomiting.

      3. Cluster headache: This type of headache is more common in men and presents with intense pain localized around one eye, which can last for a few minutes up to three hours. There may also be simultaneous lacrimation and nasal congestion. Symptoms occur every day or multiple times every day for a number of weeks, followed by a symptom-free period lasting months or even years.

      4. Giant cell arteritis: This type of headache typically occurs in those aged over 50 years and is characterized by an abrupt onset and recurrent daily headache. Common symptoms include scalp pain/tenderness, jaw claudication, visual disturbances, fever, weight loss, and lethargy. A diagnosis of GCA requires three out of five specific criteria.

      5. Migraine: Migraines can occur daily but are typically accompanied by associated features such as nausea or vomiting, photophobia, or phonophobia. The International Headache Society criteria for migraine without aura include at least five attacks fulfilling specific criteria.

      Understanding the different types of headaches and their characteristics can help in proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 70-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of feeling generally unwell...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of feeling generally unwell and lethargic for the past 2 weeks. He reports a yellow-green tinge to his vision as his only other symptom. The patient has a medical history of atrial fibrillation, depression, and a myocardial infarction 3 years ago. He takes multiple medications that come in a blister pack, but he is unsure of their names. Upon blood testing, his Digoxin concentration is 3 mcg/l (<1 mcg/l). What medication could have caused this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Thiazides like bendroflumethiazide can cause digoxin toxicity by causing hypokalaemia, which allows digoxin to have more of an effect on Na+/K+ ATPase. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity are vague but may include gastrointestinal upset, weakness, fatigue, and xanthopsia. Citalopram, isosorbide mononitrate, and ramipril do not appear to have any significant effect on digoxin toxicity.

      Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring for toxicity.

      Toxicity may occur even when the digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range. Symptoms of toxicity include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor, as it allows digoxin to more easily bind to the ATPase pump and increase its inhibitory effects. Other factors that may contribute to toxicity include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, and verapamil.

      Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of Digibind, correction of arrhythmias, and monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to recognize the potential for toxicity and monitor patients accordingly to prevent adverse outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      36.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 50 year old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of cramp-like...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 year old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of cramp-like abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting that started 4 hours ago. She describes the pain as intermittent and has experienced similar pain before, but not as severe as this time. The patient has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, which is well-controlled with inhalers, and has been a smoker for 25 pack years.

      Her vital signs are heart rate 110/min, respiratory rate 20/min, blood pressure 130/84 mmHg, temperature 38.6ÂșC, and oxygen saturation of 99% on room air. Upon examination, the patient appears very ill and sweaty, with some yellowing of the eyes. Palpation of the abdomen reveals tenderness in the right upper quadrant.

      What is the most likely cause of this woman's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Mirizzi's sydrome

      Correct Answer: Ascending cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Cholangitis can occur even in the absence of stones, although they are commonly associated with the condition. ERCP can be used to drain the biliary tree, but surgical exploration of the common bile duct may be necessary in certain cases.

      Understanding Ascending Cholangitis

      Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.

      To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.

      Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - You assess a patient's eye and discovered that both pupils constrict when focusing...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a patient's eye and discovered that both pupils constrict when focusing on a nearby object but fail to narrow when exposed to bright light. What is the most frequent reason for this pupillary response in the United Kingdom?

      Your Answer: Gonorrhoea

      Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      In the UK, diabetes mellitus is now the most frequent cause of Argyll-Robertson pupil, as neurosyphilis is no longer commonly observed due to effective antibiotic treatment. This condition is not caused by sexually transmitted diseases such as chlamydia or gonorrhoea, nor is it associated with optic neuritis, which instead causes a Marcus Gunn pupil or Relative afferent pupillary defect.

      Argyll-Robertson Pupil: A Classic Pupillary Syndrome

      The Argyll-Robertson Pupil (ARP) is a classic pupillary syndrome that is sometimes observed in neurosyphilis. It is characterized by small, irregular pupils that do not respond to light but do respond to accommodation. A useful mnemonic for remembering this syndrome is Accommodation Reflex Present (ARP) but Pupillary Reflex Absent (PRA).

      The ARP can be caused by various factors, including diabetes mellitus and syphilis. It is important to note that the presence of an ARP may indicate underlying neurological or systemic disease and should prompt further evaluation and management. Proper diagnosis and treatment of the underlying condition can help prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      8.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (1/4) 25%
Neurology (3/5) 60%
Musculoskeletal (3/3) 100%
Genetics (1/2) 50%
Respiratory Medicine (0/2) 0%
Cardiovascular (0/2) 0%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (0/2) 0%
Ophthalmology (1/3) 33%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (0/2) 0%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (2/3) 67%
Haematology/Oncology (1/1) 100%
Passmed