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Question 1
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An 84-year-old man is referred to the memory clinic with progressive memory loss and difficulty with activities of daily living. He attends the clinic with his son, who provides further collateral history, and a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease is made. With the patient's consent, he is recruited to a study investigating the link between Alzheimer's disease and cellular processes. He is randomised to the arm of the trial investigating microtubule dysfunction.
What is the normal function of these cell components?Your Answer: Guide intracellular organelle transport
Explanation:Microtubules play a crucial role in guiding intracellular transport and binding internal organelles. However, their function can be disrupted in neurodegenerative diseases like Alzheimer’s due to the hyperphosphorylation of tau proteins. Attachment proteins move up and down the microtubules, facilitating the transport of various organelles, making this the correct answer.
Lysosomes are responsible for breaking down large proteins and polysaccharides, not microtubules.
The Golgi apparatus modifies and packages secretory molecules, and proteins may be tagged with mannose-6-phosphate for transport to lysosomes.
The nucleolus is where ribosome production occurs, not the microtubules.
Microtubules: Components of the Cytoskeleton
Microtubules are cylindrical structures found in the cytoplasm of all cells except red blood cells. They are composed of alternating α and β tubulin subunits that polymerize to form protofilaments. Microtubules are polarized, having a positive and negative end. They play a crucial role in guiding movement during intracellular transport and binding internal organelles.
Molecular transport is facilitated by attachment proteins called dynein and kinesin, which move up and down the microtubules. Dynein moves in a retrograde fashion, down the microtubule towards the centre of the cell (+ve → -ve), while kinesin moves in an anterograde fashion, up the microtubule away from the centre, towards the periphery (-ve → +ve).
In summary, microtubules are essential components of the cytoskeleton that help maintain cell shape and facilitate intracellular transport. Dynein and kinesin play a crucial role in molecular transport by moving up and down the microtubules.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A consultant physician is presenting his innovative research on antibiotics to a group of colleagues. He mentions that the antibiotics he is studying target the 50s ribosomal unit to inhibit protein synthesis.
Which specific antibiotic is the consultant referring to?Your Answer: Quinolones
Correct Answer: Tetracyclines
Explanation:Tetracyclines, including doxycycline and lymecycline, hinder protein synthesis by binding to the 30S subunit of the ribosome, which prevents the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA.
Rifampicin suppresses RNA synthesis and causes cell death by inhibiting DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.
Trimethoprim inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, which is necessary for the synthesis of DNA.
Cephalosporins hinder the synthesis of the peptidoglycan layer of bacterial cell walls by competing with penicillin-binding proteins, which are responsible for cross-linking the peptidoglycan layer. The peptidoglycan layer is crucial for maintaining the structural integrity of the cell wall.
Quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin, prevent DNA synthesis by inhibiting DNA gyrase.
Understanding Tetracyclines: Antibiotics Used in Clinical Practice
Tetracyclines are a group of antibiotics that are commonly used in clinical practice. They work by inhibiting protein synthesis, specifically by binding to the 30S subunit and blocking the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA. However, bacteria can develop resistance to tetracyclines through increased efflux by plasmid-encoded transport pumps or ribosomal protection.
Tetracyclines are used to treat a variety of conditions such as acne vulgaris, Lyme disease, Chlamydia, and Mycoplasma pneumoniae. However, they should not be given to children under 12 years of age or to pregnant or breastfeeding women due to the risk of discolouration of the infant’s teeth.
While tetracyclines are generally well-tolerated, they can cause adverse effects such as photosensitivity, angioedema, and black hairy tongue. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects and to use tetracyclines only as prescribed by a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 3
Correct
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A 6-year-old boy is referred to the child assessment unit for recurrent urinary tract infections. He is started on antibiotics and sent home with advice on supportive care.
Upon his return a week later, his renal function tests have worsened and an ultrasound scan reveals hydronephrosis in his kidneys, ureters, and bladder. The diagnosis is acute pyelonephritis and further investigations are ordered to determine the underlying cause. A voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG) confirms the diagnosis of posterior urethral valves (PUV).
The child and parents are informed of the diagnosis and inquire about treatment options. What is the definitive treatment for PUV?Your Answer: Endoscopic valvotomy
Explanation:The preferred and most effective treatment for a child with posterior urethral valves (PUV) is endoscopic valvotomy. While bilateral cutaneous ureterostomies can be used for urinary drainage, they are not considered the definitive treatment for PUV. Bladder augmentation may be necessary if the bladder cannot hold enough urine or if bladder pressures remain high despite medication and catheterization. However, permanent antibiotic prophylaxis and catheterization are not recommended.
Posterior urethral valves are a frequent cause of blockage in the lower urinary tract in males. They can be detected during prenatal ultrasound screenings. Due to the high pressure required for bladder emptying during fetal development, the child may experience damage to the renal parenchyma, resulting in renal impairment in 70% of boys upon diagnosis. Treatment involves the use of a bladder catheter, and endoscopic valvotomy is the preferred definitive treatment. Cystoscopic and renal follow-up is necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 4
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A 48-year-old smoker visits his doctor to discuss his smoking habit. He has been smoking 15 cigarettes a day for the past 25 years and wants to know how much more likely he is to develop lung cancer compared to a non-smoker. The doctor searches PubMed and finds a recent case-control study that provides the following data:
Lung cancer No lung cancer
Smokers 300 2700
Non-smokers 50 8950
What is the relative risk of smoking on lung cancer based on this data?Your Answer: 15
Explanation:Understanding Relative Risk in Clinical Trials
Relative risk (RR) is a measure used in clinical trials to compare the risk of an event occurring in the experimental group to the risk in the control group. It is calculated by dividing the experimental event rate (EER) by the control event rate (CER). If the resulting ratio is greater than 1, it means that the event is more likely to occur in the experimental group than in the control group. Conversely, if the ratio is less than 1, the event is less likely to occur in the experimental group.
To calculate the relative risk reduction (RRR) or relative risk increase (RRI), the absolute risk change is divided by the control event rate. This provides a percentage that indicates the magnitude of the difference between the two groups. Understanding relative risk is important in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and treatments in clinical trials. By comparing the risk of an event in the experimental group to the control group, researchers can determine whether the intervention is beneficial or not.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man is diagnosed with paroxysmal atrial fibrillation after presenting to the GP with palpitations. Due to his age and his background of hypertension, he is offered anticoagulation treatment. After drug counselling, he is prescribed apixaban.
What is the mechanism of action of apixaban?Your Answer: It inhibits platelet activation
Correct Answer: It directly inhibits factor Xa
Explanation:Apixaban is a medication that directly inhibits factor Xa, which is responsible for the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin in the coagulation cascade. It is used as prophylaxis against embolic events in patients with atrial fibrillation, who are at increased risk due to blood pooling in the atria and potential clot formation. Unlike heparin, which activates antithrombin III to reduce blood clotting, apixaban works independently of antithrombin III. It also does not directly inhibit thrombin, which is the mechanism of action of dabigatran. Antiplatelets, such as aspirin and clopidogrel, work to decrease platelet activation and aggregation, but are not recommended for reducing the risks of embolic events in AF. Apixaban also does not inhibit vitamin K, which is the mechanism of action of warfarin.
Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) are medications used to prevent stroke in non-valvular atrial fibrillation (AF), as well as for the prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism (VTE). To be prescribed DOACs for stroke prevention, patients must have certain risk factors, such as a prior stroke or transient ischaemic attack, age 75 or older, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or heart failure. There are four DOACs available, each with a different mechanism of action and method of excretion. Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor, while rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban are direct factor Xa inhibitors. The majority of DOACs are excreted either through the kidneys or the liver, with the exception of apixaban and edoxaban, which are excreted through the feces. Reversal agents are available for dabigatran and rivaroxaban, but not for apixaban or edoxaban.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 65-year-old man visits the haemofiltration unit thrice a week for treatment. What is responsible for detecting alterations in salt concentrations, such as sodium chloride, in normally functioning kidneys and adjusting the glomerular filtration rate accordingly?
Your Answer: Macula densa
Explanation:The macula densa is a specialized area of columnar tubule cells located in the final part of the ascending loop of Henle. These cells are in contact with the afferent arteriole and play a crucial role in detecting the concentration of sodium chloride in the convoluted tubules and ascending loop of Henle. This detection is affected by the glomerular filtration rate (GFR), which is increased by an increase in blood pressure. When the macula densa detects high sodium chloride levels, it releases ATP and adenosine, which constrict the afferent arteriole and lower GFR. Conversely, when low sodium chloride levels are detected, the macula densa releases nitric oxide, which acts as a vasodilator. The macula densa can also increase renin production from the juxtaglomerular cells.
Juxtaglomerular cells are smooth muscle cells located mainly in the walls of the afferent arteriole. They act as baroreceptors to detect changes in blood pressure and can secrete renin.
Mesangial cells are located at the junction of the afferent and efferent arterioles and, together with the juxtaglomerular cells and the macula densa, form the juxtaglomerular apparatus.
Podocytes, which are modified simple squamous epithelial cells with foot-like projections, make up the innermost layer of the Bowman’s capsule surrounding the glomerular capillaries. They assist in glomerular filtration.
The Loop of Henle and its Role in Renal Physiology
The Loop of Henle is a crucial component of the renal system, located in the juxtamedullary nephrons and running deep into the medulla. Approximately 60 litres of water containing 9000 mmol sodium enters the descending limb of the loop of Henle in 24 hours. The osmolarity of fluid changes and is greatest at the tip of the papilla. The thin ascending limb is impermeable to water, but highly permeable to sodium and chloride ions. This loss means that at the beginning of the thick ascending limb the fluid is hypo osmotic compared with adjacent interstitial fluid. In the thick ascending limb, the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions occurs by both facilitated and passive diffusion pathways. The loops of Henle are co-located with vasa recta, which have similar solute compositions to the surrounding extracellular fluid, preventing the diffusion and subsequent removal of this hypertonic fluid. The energy-dependent reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the thick ascending limb helps to maintain this osmotic gradient. Overall, the Loop of Henle plays a crucial role in regulating the concentration of solutes in the renal system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 7
Correct
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A 50-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman comes to your clinic with symptoms of a malar rash, joint pain, and oral ulcers. Her blood test results reveal low hemoglobin levels, decreased platelets count, and a low white blood cell count. Additionally, she tests positive for anti-dsDNA antibodies. You inform her about her diagnosis and ask your medical trainee to educate her about medications that she should avoid.
Which of the following drugs is contraindicated for her?Your Answer: Hydralazine
Explanation:SLE patients should avoid taking hydralazine as it is known to cause drug-induced SLE, along with other medications such as isoniazid and procainamide.
Hydralazine: An Antihypertensive with Limited Use
Hydralazine is an antihypertensive medication that is not commonly used nowadays. It is still prescribed for severe hypertension and hypertension in pregnancy. The drug works by increasing cGMP, which leads to smooth muscle relaxation. However, there are certain contraindications to its use, such as systemic lupus erythematous and ischaemic heart disease/cerebrovascular disease.
Despite its potential benefits, hydralazine can cause adverse effects such as tachycardia, palpitations, flushing, fluid retention, headache, and drug-induced lupus. Therefore, it is not the first choice for treating hypertension in most cases. Overall, hydralazine is an older medication that has limited use due to its potential side effects and newer, more effective antihypertensive options available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 8
Correct
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A 50-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of abdominal pain, weight loss, and persistent diarrhoea for the past 5 months. During a colonoscopy, a suspicious growth is detected in his colon, which is later confirmed as adenocarcinoma. The patient reveals that his father was diagnosed with colon cancer at the age of 55.
Based on this information, which genetic mutations are likely to be present in this patient?Your Answer: MSH2/MLH1
Explanation:Colorectal cancer can be classified into three types: sporadic, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC), and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Sporadic colon cancer is believed to be caused by a series of genetic mutations, including allelic loss of the APC gene, activation of the K-ras oncogene, and deletion of p53 and DCC tumor suppressor genes. HNPCC, which is an autosomal dominant condition, is the most common form of inherited colon cancer. It is caused by mutations in genes involved in DNA mismatch repair, leading to microsatellite instability. The most common genes affected are MSH2 and MLH1. Patients with HNPCC are also at a higher risk of other cancers, such as endometrial cancer. The Amsterdam criteria are sometimes used to aid diagnosis of HNPCC. FAP is a rare autosomal dominant condition that leads to the formation of hundreds of polyps by the age of 30-40 years. It is caused by a mutation in the APC gene. Patients with FAP are also at risk of duodenal tumors. A variant of FAP called Gardner’s syndrome can also feature osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma, and epidermoid cysts on the skin. Genetic testing can be done to diagnose HNPCC and FAP, and patients with FAP generally have a total colectomy with ileo-anal pouch formation in their twenties.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 9
Correct
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A teenage girl with suspected sensorineural hearing loss is being educated by her physician about the anatomy of the auditory system. The doctor informs her that there are three bones responsible for transmitting sound waves to the eardrum. Can you identify the correct sequence in which these bones are present?
Your Answer: Malleus, incus, stapes
Explanation:The order in which sound waves are transmitted to the oval window, the entrance to the inner ear, is through the bones known as malleus, incus, and stapes. The vestibulocochlear nerve plays a significant role in the process of sensorineural hearing.
Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 10
Correct
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Sarah is a 15-year-old female who presented to the clinic with concerns about her development. She has not grown as expected and remains shorter than most of the girls in her class. She also notes that she has not started her period yet, which is affecting her confidence.
On examination, she is 150cm tall and has no breast development. Pubic hair is sparse and axillary hair is absent. The uterus and ovaries are not palpable. A cleft palate is noted on examination of the mouth. When cranial nerve I was examined, she was unable to detect the smell of the odours sampled.
Blood tests show low levels of estrogen, follicular stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH). Liver function tests were normal. Blood glucose reading was 5.6mmol/L. Iron studies were unremarkable.
What is the likely cause for her symptoms?Your Answer: Kallmann syndrome
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms of delayed puberty and underdeveloped secondary sexual characteristics, along with a cleft palate and anosmia, suggest Kallmann syndrome. This condition is characterized by hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, as evidenced by low-normal levels of LH and FSH, as well as low testosterone levels. Kallmann syndrome is an X-linked inherited disorder caused by the failure of gonadotrophin-releasing hormone-producing neurons to migrate properly during fetal development.
While Klinefelter syndrome can also cause delayed puberty and small testes, it is associated with hypergonadotropic hypogonadism, which is characterized by elevated levels of FSH and LH but low testosterone levels. Anosmia is not typically a symptom of Klinefelter syndrome.
Hemochromatosis, a condition in which iron accumulates in the body, can also cause hypogonadotropic hypogonadism by affecting the hypothalamus. However, this is unlikely in this case as the patient’s iron studies were normal and anosmia is not a common symptom of hemochromatosis.
Kallmann’s syndrome is a condition that can cause delayed puberty due to hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. It is often inherited as an X-linked recessive trait and is believed to be caused by a failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus. One of the key indicators of Kallmann’s syndrome is anosmia, or a lack of smell, in boys with delayed puberty. Other features may include hypogonadism, cryptorchidism, low sex hormone levels, and normal or above-average height. Some patients may also have cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects.
Management of Kallmann’s syndrome typically involves testosterone supplementation. Gonadotrophin supplementation may also be used to stimulate sperm production if fertility is desired later in life. It is important for individuals with Kallmann’s syndrome to receive appropriate medical care and monitoring to manage their symptoms and ensure optimal health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 11
Incorrect
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You come across a patient in the medical assessment unit who has been admitted with a two-day history of haematemesis. An endoscopy revealed bleeding oesophageal varices that were banded and ligated. The consultant informs you that this patient has cirrhosis of the liver due to excessive alcohol consumption.
What other vein is likely to be dilated in this patient?Your Answer: Internal iliac vein
Correct Answer: Superior rectal vein
Explanation:The Relationship between Liver Cirrhosis and Varices
Liver cirrhosis is a condition that occurs in patients with alcohol-related liver disease due to the accumulation of aldehyde, which is formed during the metabolism of alcohol. The excessive amounts of aldehyde produced cannot be processed by hepatocytes, leading to the release of inflammatory mediators. These mediators activate hepatic stellate cells, which constrict off the inflamed sinusoids by depositing collagen in the space of Disse. This collagen deposition increases the resistance against the sinusoidal vascular bed, leading to portal hypertension.
To relieve excess pressure, the portal system forces blood back into systemic circulation at portosystemic anastomotic points. These anastomoses exist at various locations, including the distal end of the oesophagus, splenorenal ligament, retroperitoneum, anal canal, and abdominal wall. The high pressure causes the systemic veins to dilate, becoming varices, because the weak thin walls do not oppose resistance and pressure.
The superior rectal vein is the only vein that forms a collateral blood supply with systemic circulation. Therefore, the pressure from the superior rectal vein is passed onto the systemic veins, causing them to dilate and leading to the formation of haemorrhoids. The other veins listed are part of systemic circulation and have no collateral anastomoses with the portal circulatory system. In summary, liver cirrhosis can lead to varices due to the increased pressure in the portal system, which forces blood back into systemic circulation and causes systemic veins to dilate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 12
Incorrect
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As a medical student working with a geriatric care team, we recently conducted a blood test on a patient with a history of microcytic anemia. Our goal was to determine if a blood transfusion was necessary. At what Hb level is a transfusion typically recommended for elderly patients?
Your Answer: Hb <8g/dl
Correct Answer:
Explanation:According to the NICE guidelines, patients who require red blood cell transfusions but do not have major bleeding, acute coronary syndrome, or chronic anemia requiring regular transfusions should receive transfusions with a restrictive threshold. This threshold should be set at 7g/dl, with a target hemoglobin concentration of 7-9 g/dl after transfusion. For patients with acute coronary syndrome, a threshold of 8g/dl and a target hemoglobin concentration of 8-10g/dl after transfusion should be considered. For patients with chronic anemia requiring regular transfusions, individual thresholds and hemoglobin concentration targets should be established.
Understanding Microcytic Anaemia
Microcytic anaemia is a condition characterized by small red blood cells that result in a decrease in the amount of oxygen carried in the blood. There are several causes of microcytic anaemia, including iron-deficiency anaemia, thalassaemia, congenital sideroblastic anaemia, and lead poisoning. In some cases, microcytosis may be associated with a normal haemoglobin level, which could indicate the possibility of polycythaemia rubra vera. It is important to note that new onset microcytic anaemia in elderly patients should be urgently investigated to exclude underlying malignancy.
Beta-thalassaemia minor is a type of microcytic anaemia where the microcytosis is often disproportionate to the anaemia. It is important to identify the underlying cause of microcytic anaemia to determine the appropriate treatment. Iron-deficiency anaemia is the most common cause of microcytic anaemia and can be treated with iron supplements. Thalassaemia may require blood transfusions or bone marrow transplantation. Congenital sideroblastic anaemia may require treatment with vitamin B6 supplements. Lead poisoning can be treated by removing the source of lead exposure and chelation therapy. Overall, early diagnosis and treatment of microcytic anaemia can improve outcomes and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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You are asked to evaluate a 5-day old cyanotic infant named Benjamin. Benjamin has had a chest x-ray which shows a heart appearance described as 'egg-on-side'. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot
Correct Answer: Transposition of the great arteries
Explanation:The ‘egg-on-side’ appearance on x-rays is a characteristic finding of transposition of the great arteries, which is one of the causes of cyanotic heart disease along with tetralogy of Fallot. While the age of the patient can help distinguish between the two conditions, the x-ray provides a clue for diagnosis. Patent ductus arteriosus, coarctation of the aorta, and ventricular septal defect do not typically present with cyanosis.
Understanding Transposition of the Great Arteries
Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) is a type of congenital heart disease that results in cyanosis. This condition occurs when the aorticopulmonary septum fails to spiral during septation, causing the aorta to leave the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk to leave the left ventricle. Infants born to diabetic mothers are at a higher risk of developing TGA.
The clinical features of TGA include cyanosis, tachypnea, a loud single S2, and a prominent right ventricular impulse. Chest x-rays may show an egg-on-side appearance. To manage TGA, prostaglandins can be used to maintain the ductus arteriosus. However, surgical correction is the definitive treatment for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A new clinical trial is currently being designed by one of the research students in the hospital. As part of this design, the student wants to calculate the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is in fact false. They understand that the calculation of this will improve the reliability of the results.
Which of the following best describes the calculation above if the research student wants to calculate the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis?Your Answer: Type I statistical error
Correct Answer: Statistical power
Explanation:The probability of a type II error is inversely related to power, which is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false. Type I errors, or false positives, occur when the null hypothesis is wrongly rejected, while type II errors, or false negatives, occur when the null hypothesis is wrongly accepted. Hypothesis testing involves using statistical tests to determine whether the null hypothesis should be accepted or rejected. The standard error is a statistical measure of the accuracy of a sample distribution in representing a population, calculated using the standard deviation.
Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 15
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of vomiting and a severe headache that developed after experiencing blurred vision. The physician prescribes an antiemetic. Which of the following antiemetics aids in gastric emptying?
Your Answer: Metoclopramide
Explanation:The effectiveness of antiemetics depends on their ability to interact with different receptors to varying degrees. Therefore, the selection of an antiemetic will be based on the patient’s condition and the underlying cause of their nausea.
Metoclopramide functions as a dopamine antagonist, but it also has an agonistic impact on peripheral 5HT3 receptors and an antagonistic effect on muscarinic receptors, which helps to facilitate gastric emptying.
Understanding the Mechanism and Uses of Metoclopramide
Metoclopramide is a medication primarily used to manage nausea, but it also has other uses such as treating gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and gastroparesis secondary to diabetic neuropathy. It is often combined with analgesics for the treatment of migraines. However, it is important to note that metoclopramide has adverse effects such as extrapyramidal effects, acute dystonia, diarrhoea, hyperprolactinaemia, tardive dyskinesia, and parkinsonism. It should also be avoided in bowel obstruction but may be helpful in paralytic ileus.
The mechanism of action of metoclopramide is quite complicated. It is primarily a D2 receptor antagonist, but it also has mixed 5-HT3 receptor antagonist/5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. Its antiemetic action is due to its antagonist activity at D2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone, and at higher doses, the 5-HT3 receptor antagonist also has an effect. The gastroprokinetic activity is mediated by D2 receptor antagonist activity and 5-HT4 receptor agonist activity.
In summary, metoclopramide is a medication with multiple uses, but it also has adverse effects that should be considered. Its mechanism of action is complex, involving both D2 receptor antagonist and 5-HT3 receptor antagonist/5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. Understanding the uses and mechanism of action of metoclopramide is important for its safe and effective use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which foods are rich in vitamin D?
Your Answer: Spinach
Correct Answer: Salmon
Explanation:Sources of Vitamin D
Vitamin D is a crucial nutrient that is primarily produced by the body when exposed to sunlight. However, in the absence of sunlight, it is important to obtain vitamin D from dietary sources. These sources include oily fish such as salmon, mackerel, and catfish, as well as meat, eggs, and some mushrooms. It is important to note that vitamin D-containing foods are mostly animal or fish-based, which may put strict vegetarians at a greater risk of deficiency.
Vitamin D exists in two forms, D2 and D3, with dietary sources containing vitamin D3 in greater abundance than D2. It is essential to ensure that the body receives an adequate amount of vitamin D, as it plays a crucial role in maintaining bone health, regulating the immune system, and reducing the risk of certain diseases. By incorporating vitamin D-rich foods into the diet, individuals can ensure that they are meeting their daily requirements for this important nutrient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 17
Incorrect
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How can we describe the structure of the cell membrane? This vital component is present in all mammalian cells and is composed of lipids, proteins, carbohydrates, and other structures. The arrangement of these components is often referred to as the fluid mosaic model.
Your Answer: A phospholipid bilayer with hydrophilic heads directly apposed with the hydrophobic tails facing the cytosolic and extracellular environments
Correct Answer: A phospholipid bilayer with hydrophobic tails directly apposed with the hydrophilic heads facing the cytosolic and extracellular environments
Explanation:The Fluid Mosaic Model of the Cell Membrane
The cell membrane is composed of a bilayer of phospholipids with hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails. This arrangement allows for the passive diffusion of hydrophobic molecules while preventing the transfer of polar solutes. Cholesterol is also present in the membrane, with higher concentrations leading to greater insulation. The cell membrane is supported by a complex network of microtubules and microfilaments, which can assist in modulating the cell’s shape and allow for endocytosis and exocytosis. These processes involve the invagination of the substrate and formation of a vesicle before expelling it into the intracellular or extracellular compartment. The cytoskeleton also plays a role in internal scaffolding, cilia, filopodia, and microvilli. The fluid mosaic model of the cell membrane describes the arrangement of these components as a floating sandwich with the heads facing the cytosolic and extracellular compartments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of dyspnea while in a supine position. Despite having a normal ejection fraction, what could be a potential cause for his symptoms?
Your Answer: He has decreased afterload
Correct Answer: He has diastolic dysfunction
Explanation:When there is systolic dysfunction, the ejection fraction decreases as the stroke volume decreases. However, in cases of diastolic dysfunction, ejection fraction is not a reliable indicator as both stroke volume and end-diastolic volume may be reduced. Diastolic dysfunction occurs when the heart’s compliance is reduced.
Cardiovascular physiology involves the study of the functions and processes of the heart and blood vessels. One important measure of heart function is the left ventricular ejection fraction, which is calculated by dividing the stroke volume (the amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle with each heartbeat) by the end diastolic LV volume (the amount of blood in the left ventricle at the end of diastole) and multiplying by 100%. Another key measure is cardiac output, which is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute and is calculated by multiplying stroke volume by heart rate.
Pulse pressure is another important measure of cardiovascular function, which is the difference between systolic pressure (the highest pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) and diastolic pressure (the lowest pressure in the arteries between heartbeats). Factors that can increase pulse pressure include a less compliant aorta (which can occur with age) and increased stroke volume.
Finally, systemic vascular resistance is a measure of the resistance to blood flow in the systemic circulation and is calculated by dividing mean arterial pressure (the average pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) by cardiac output. Understanding these measures of cardiovascular function is important for diagnosing and treating cardiovascular diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a persistent cough and increased production of sputum over the past year. She also reports feeling fatigued and experiencing shortness of breath. The patient mentions having had four chest infections in the last 12 months, all of which were treated with antibiotics. She has no personal or family history of lung issues and has never smoked.
The healthcare provider suspects that bronchiectasis may be the underlying cause of her symptoms and orders appropriate tests.
Which test is most likely to provide a definitive diagnosis?Your Answer: Chest radiography
Correct Answer: High-resolution computerised tomography
Explanation:Bronchiectasis can be diagnosed through various methods, including chest radiography, histopathology, and pulmonary function tests.
Chest radiography can reveal thickened bronchial walls, cystic lesions with fluid levels, collapsed areas with crowded pulmonary vasculature, and scarring, which are characteristic features of bronchiectasis.
Histopathology, which is a more invasive investigation often done through autopsy or surgery, can show irreversible dilation of bronchial airways and bronchial wall thickening.
However, high-resolution computerised tomography is a more favorable imaging technique as it is less invasive than histopathology.
Pulmonary function tests are commonly used to diagnose bronchiectasis, but they should be used in conjunction with other investigations as they are not sensitive or specific enough to provide sufficient diagnostic evidence on their own. An obstructive pattern is the most common pattern encountered, but a restrictive pattern is also possible.
Understanding the Causes of Bronchiectasis
Bronchiectasis is a condition characterized by the permanent dilation of the airways due to chronic inflammation or infection. There are various factors that can lead to this condition, including post-infective causes such as tuberculosis, measles, pertussis, and pneumonia. Cystic fibrosis, bronchial obstruction caused by lung cancer or foreign bodies, and immune deficiencies like selective IgA and hypogammaglobulinaemia can also contribute to bronchiectasis. Additionally, allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA), ciliary dyskinetic syndromes like Kartagener’s syndrome and Young’s syndrome, and yellow nail syndrome are other potential causes. Understanding the underlying causes of bronchiectasis is crucial in developing effective treatment plans for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with sudden-onset acute left flank pain that started an hour ago. He describes the pain as colicky and radiating down to his groin. The man is also experiencing nausea and vomiting and appears restless. He has no significant medical or surgical history and has never been hospitalized before. His body mass index is 31 kg per m2. Upon examination, his heart rate is 94 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 19 breaths per minute, and blood pressure is 136/79 mmHg. Radiographic studies confirm the presence of stones in the left ureter. What is a characteristic of the most common type of kidney stones?
Your Answer: Hexagonal-shaped crystals
Correct Answer: Envelope-shaped crystals
Explanation:The patient displayed symptoms consistent with urolithiasis, specifically ureterolithiasis, as imaging revealed the presence of stones in the left ureter. Kidney stones are commonly composed of calcium oxalate, but can also consist of calcium phosphate, ammonium magnesium phosphate, uric acid, or cystine, depending on urine pH and other factors.
Uric acid stones are characterized by diamond or rhomboid-shaped crystals and are often found in individuals with hyperuricemia. Calcium oxalate stones, which have envelope-shaped crystals, are the most common type and are associated with low water intake and dehydration. Cystine stones, with hexagonal-shaped crystals, are prevalent in patients with the genetic condition COLA, which impairs the reabsorption of certain amino acids in the proximal convoluted tubule. Ammonium magnesium phosphate stones, also known as struvites, have coffin-lid shaped crystals and are common in individuals with urinary tract infections caused by urease-producing organisms, such as Klebsiella, Staphylococcus saprophyticus, and Proteus mirabilis. Preventive strategies should be a focus of future management for patients diagnosed with kidney stones.
Renal stones can be classified into different types based on their composition. Calcium oxalate stones are the most common, accounting for 85% of all calculi. These stones are formed due to hypercalciuria, hyperoxaluria, and hypocitraturia. They are radio-opaque and may also bind with uric acid stones. Cystine stones are rare and occur due to an inherited recessive disorder of transmembrane cystine transport. Uric acid stones are formed due to purine metabolism and may precipitate when urinary pH is low. Calcium phosphate stones are associated with renal tubular acidosis and high urinary pH. Struvite stones are formed from magnesium, ammonium, and phosphate and are associated with chronic infections. The pH of urine can help determine the type of stone present, with calcium phosphate stones forming in normal to alkaline urine, uric acid stones forming in acidic urine, and struvate stones forming in alkaline urine. Cystine stones form in normal urine pH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man is referred to the gastroenterologist for ongoing nausea and epigastric pain. He recently returned from a trip to southeast Asia. Blood tests show he has iron deficiency anemia, and faecal microscopy reveals hookworm eggs. What type of immune cell is responsible for protecting against helminths?
Your Answer: Basophils
Correct Answer: Eosinophils
Explanation:The defence against parasites, including helminths and protozoa, is carried out by eosinophils, which are innate cells. The role of basophils in the immune system is not well understood, but they are closely linked to mast cells. Neutrophils, on the other hand, are crucial phagocytic cells present in acute inflammation.
Innate Immune Response: Cells Involved
The innate immune response is the first line of defense against invading pathogens. It involves a variety of cells that work together to quickly recognize and eliminate foreign invaders. The following cells are primarily involved in the innate immune response:
Neutrophils are the most common type of white blood cell and are the primary phagocytic cell in acute inflammation. They contain granules that contain myeloperoxidase and lysozyme, which help to break down and destroy pathogens.
Basophils and mast cells are similar in function and both release histamine during an allergic response. They also contain granules that contain histamine and heparin, and express IgE receptors on their cell surface.
Eosinophils defend against protozoan and helminthic infections, and have a bi-lobed nucleus.
Monocytes differentiate into macrophages, which are involved in phagocytosis of cellular debris and pathogens. They also act as antigen-presenting cells and are a major source of IL-1.
Natural killer cells induce apoptosis in virally infected and tumor cells, while dendritic cells act as antigen-presenting cells.
Overall, these cells work together to provide a rapid and effective response to invading pathogens, helping to protect the body from infection and disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents to the hospital with joint pain, fatigue, unintentional weight loss, and diffuse abdominal pain. He is also complaining of polyuria and polydipsia. He is somewhat of a loner, who lives alone and has never visited a doctor before. He is an orphan who does not know anything about his biological parents.
Upon examination, tenderness is noticed in the right upper quadrant, and the presence of ascites on percussion. Additionally, this man's skin has a grey-discoloration. He is diagnosed with cirrhosis and chronic pancreatitis resulting in type 1 diabetes mellitus. An investigation is launched to determine the cause of his condition.
What is the most probable cause of the patient's cirrhosis and chronic pancreatitis?Your Answer: Excessive alcohol intake
Correct Answer: Hereditary haemochromatosis
Explanation:Chronic pancreatitis can be attributed to genetic factors such as cystic fibrosis and hereditary haemochromatosis. In the case of a man with a slate-grey skin tone, it was discovered that he had developed cirrhosis due to untreated hereditary haemochromatosis. Despite being a hereditary condition, the man was never diagnosed earlier as he was an orphan and a recluse. Excessive alcohol consumption can also lead to cirrhosis and pancreatitis, but it would not explain the grey skin. Chronic hepatitis B infection is another cause of cirrhosis, but it would not be the reason for the pancreatitis.
Understanding Chronic Pancreatitis
Chronic pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation that can affect both the exocrine and endocrine functions of the pancreas. While alcohol excess is the leading cause of this condition, up to 20% of cases are unexplained. Other causes include genetic factors such as cystic fibrosis and haemochromatosis, as well as ductal obstruction due to tumors, stones, and structural abnormalities.
Symptoms of chronic pancreatitis include pain that worsens 15 to 30 minutes after a meal, steatorrhoea, and diabetes mellitus. Abdominal x-rays and CT scans are used to detect pancreatic calcification, which is present in around 30% of cases. Functional tests such as faecal elastase may also be used to assess exocrine function if imaging is inconclusive.
Management of chronic pancreatitis involves pancreatic enzyme supplements, analgesia, and antioxidants. While there is limited evidence to support the use of antioxidants, one study suggests that they may be beneficial in early stages of the disease. Overall, understanding the causes and symptoms of chronic pancreatitis is crucial for effective management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old patient presented to her doctor with a complaint of feeling down for the past month. She works as a teacher and has had to take time off as she felt she was not able to perform well in her job. She reports feeling fatigued all the time and has no motivation to engage in her usual activities. She has also noticed some weight gain despite a decreased appetite since she last weighed herself and she observed that her face has become more round. During examination, the doctor finds a pulse of 59 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 105/63 mmHg. The doctor also notes that the neck region overlying the thyroid gland is symmetrically enlarged but the patient denies any pain or tenderness when the doctor palpated her neck. What is the most likely pathological feature in this patient?
Your Answer: Disruption of the thyroid follicles with a patchy inflammatory infiltrate with some follicles containing multinucleated giant cells
Correct Answer: Lymphocytic infiltration of the thyroid gland and the formation of germinal centers
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms and history suggest a diagnosis of hypothyroidism, which is commonly caused by Hashimoto’s thyroiditis in developed countries. This autoimmune condition is more prevalent in women and certain populations, such as the elderly and those with HLA-DR3, 4, and 5 polymorphisms. Other thyroid conditions, such as subacute thyroiditis, Riedel’s thyroiditis, multinodular goitres, and papillary carcinoma, have different characteristic features.
Understanding Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is a chronic autoimmune disorder that affects the thyroid gland. It is more common in women and is typically associated with hypothyroidism, although there may be a temporary period of thyrotoxicosis during the acute phase. The condition is characterized by a firm, non-tender goitre and the presence of anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO) and anti-thyroglobulin (Tg) antibodies.
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is often associated with other autoimmune conditions such as coeliac disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, and vitiligo. Additionally, there is an increased risk of developing MALT lymphoma with this condition. It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, as shown in the Venn diagram. Understanding the features and associations of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis can aid in its diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 24
Correct
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A 70-year-old man with a history of untreated hypertension and diabetes mellitus presents to the clinic with worsening bone and joint pain. Upon examination, diffuse muscular tenderness is noted but is otherwise unremarkable. The following blood test results are obtained:
Calcium 1.9 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
Phosphate 2.0 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
ALP 170 IU/L (44-147)
Parathyroid Hormone 70 pg/mL (15-65)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Secondary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:The patient’s low serum calcium, high serum phosphate, high ALP, and high PTH levels suggest that they have chronic kidney disease leading to secondary hyperparathyroidism. This occurs when the kidneys are unable to synthesize enough vitamin D, resulting in low calcium levels. Additionally, poor kidney function leads to high phosphate levels. As a compensatory mechanism, the parathyroid hormone levels increase, causing lytic bone lesions and high ALP, which explains the patient’s diffuse musculoskeletal tenderness.
Humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy is a condition where parathyroid hormone-related peptide acts similarly to parathyroid hormone, leading to high calcium levels. However, phosphate levels would be low or normal due to the effect of this hormone. In contrast, this patient’s parathyroid hormone levels are high, indicating secondary hyperparathyroidism.
Liver disease alone does not typically cause disturbances in calcium metabolism.
Primary hyperparathyroidism is characterized by excess secretion of parathyroid hormone, resulting in high serum calcium and parathyroid hormone levels. However, in this condition, phosphate levels are low due to the effect of high parathyroid hormone. This patient’s blood work does not suggest primary hyperparathyroidism.
Tertiary hyperparathyroidism occurs in end-stage renal disease, where longstanding secondary hyperparathyroidism leads to excess production of parathyroid hormone and eventual hypercalcemia, rather than hypocalcemia.
Lab Values for Bone Disorders
When it comes to bone disorders, certain lab values can provide important information about the condition. In cases of osteoporosis, calcium, phosphate, alkaline phosphatase (ALP), and parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are typically normal. However, in osteomalacia, calcium and phosphate levels are decreased while ALP and PTH levels are increased. Primary hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to osteitis fibrosa cystica, is characterized by increased calcium and PTH levels but decreased phosphate levels. Chronic kidney disease can result in secondary hyperparathyroidism, which is marked by decreased calcium levels and increased phosphate and PTH levels. Paget’s disease, on the other hand, typically shows normal calcium and phosphate levels but increased ALP levels. Finally, osteopetrosis is associated with normal levels of calcium, phosphate, ALP, and PTH. By analyzing these lab values, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat bone disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male presents with two episodes of haemetemesis. He has a medical history of ischaemic heart disease (IHD) and is currently on medication. What is the probable reason for his condition?
Your Answer: Mallory-Weiss tear
Correct Answer: Peptic ulceration
Explanation:The effects of different medications on renal tubular acidosis (RTA) are significant. RTA is a condition that affects the kidneys’ ability to regulate acid-base balance in the body. Various medications can cause RTA through different mechanisms.
Spironolactone, for instance, is a direct antagonist of aldosterone, a hormone that regulates sodium and potassium levels in the body. By blocking aldosterone, spironolactone can lead to hyperkalemia (high potassium levels) and a reduction in serum bicarbonate, which is a type of RTA known as type 4.
Type 4 RTA can also occur in people with diabetes mellitus due to scarring associated with diabetic nephropathy. Metformin, a medication commonly used to treat diabetes, can cause lactic acidosis, a condition where there is an excess of lactic acid in the blood. Pioglitazone, another diabetes medication, can cause salt and water retention and may also be associated with bladder tumors.
Ramipril, a medication used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure, can also cause hyperkalemia, but this is not related to direct aldosterone antagonism. Healthcare providers must be aware of the effects of different medications on RTA to ensure proper management and treatment of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old female smoker with a two-month history of worsening shortness of breath presents for evaluation. On examination, she appears comfortable at rest with a regular pulse of 72 bpm, respiratory rate of 16/min, and blood pressure of 128/82 mmHg. Physical findings include reduced expansion on the left lower zone, dullness to percussion over this area, and absent breath sounds over the left lower zone with bronchial breath sounds just above this region. What is the likely clinical diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bronchial carcinoma
Correct Answer: Pleural effusion
Explanation:Pleural Effusion and its Investigation
Pleural effusion is a condition where there is an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the pleural space, which is the space between the lungs and the chest wall. This can be caused by various factors such as post-infection, carcinoma, or emboli. To determine the cause of the pleural effusion, a pleural tap is the most appropriate investigation. The sample obtained from the pleural tap is sent for cytology, protein concentration, and culture.
A normal pleural tap would have clear appearance, pH of 7.60-7.64, protein concentration of less than 2%, white blood cells count of less than 1000/mm³, glucose level similar to that of plasma, LDH level of less than 50% of plasma concentration, amylase level of 30-110 U/L, triglycerides level of less than 2 mmol/l, and cholesterol level of 3.5-6.5 mmol/l.
A transudative tap is associated with conditions such as congestive heart failure, liver cirrhosis, severe hypoalbuminemia, and nephrotic syndrome. On the other hand, an exudative tap is associated with malignancy, infection (such as empyema due to bacterial pneumonia), trauma, pulmonary infarction, and pulmonary embolism.
In summary, pleural effusion can be caused by various factors and a pleural tap is the most appropriate investigation to determine the cause. The results of the pleural tap can help differentiate between transudative and exudative effusions, which can provide important information for diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old male presents with flushing, diarrhoea and hypotension. A small bowel MRI reveals a mass in the ileum. The diagnosis of carcinoid syndrome is confirmed and the consultant starts treatment with octreotide.
What is the mechanism of action of octreotide?Your Answer: Somatostatin antagonist
Correct Answer: Somatostatin analogue
Explanation:Octreotide, a somatostatin analogue, is commonly used as a first line treatment for carcinoid syndrome due to its potent inhibition of gastrointestinal secretions. Additionally, it is effective in inhibiting growth hormone, glucagon, and insulin. Cyproheptadine, an antihistamine drug with anti-serotonergic properties, is also used in the treatment of carcinoid syndrome. Glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists, on the other hand, are insulin secretagogues primarily used in the management of diabetes mellitus.
Octreotide: A Long-Acting Analogue of Somatostatin
Octreotide is a medication that acts as a long-acting analogue of somatostatin. Somatostatin is a hormone that is naturally released from the D cells of the pancreas and helps to inhibit the release of growth hormone, glucagon, and insulin. Octreotide is used in the treatment of various conditions, including acute variceal haemorrhage, acromegaly, carcinoid syndrome, complications following pancreatic surgery, VIPomas, and refractory diarrhoea.
One of the main benefits of octreotide is its ability to help control the release of hormones that can cause problems in the body. However, like all medications, it can also cause adverse effects. One potential side effect of octreotide is the development of gallstones, which can occur as a result of biliary stasis. It is important for patients to be aware of the potential risks and benefits of octreotide and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 28
Correct
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A 72-year-old man presents with biliary colic and an abdominal aortic aneurysm measuring 4.8 cm is discovered. Which of the following statements regarding this condition is false?
Your Answer: The wall will be composed of dense fibrous tissue only
Explanation:These aneurysms are genuine and consist of all three layers of the arterial wall.
Understanding Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms
Abdominal aortic aneurysms occur when the elastic proteins in the extracellular matrix fail, causing the arterial wall to dilate. This is typically caused by degenerative disease and can be identified by a diameter of 3 cm or greater. The development of aneurysms is complex and involves the loss of the intima and elastic fibers from the media, which is associated with increased proteolytic activity and lymphocytic infiltration.
Smoking and hypertension are major risk factors for the development of aneurysms, while rare causes include syphilis and connective tissue diseases such as Ehlers Danlos type 1 and Marfan’s syndrome. It is important to understand the underlying causes and risk factors for abdominal aortic aneurysms in order to prevent and treat this potentially life-threatening condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 29
Correct
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A 54-year-old man visits the clinic after his spouse was diagnosed with hypertension and advised him to get his blood pressure checked. He has no symptoms. Upon measurement, his blood pressure is 155/92 mmHg. To further evaluate, a 24-hour blood pressure monitoring is scheduled. During the consultation, you discuss the physiology of blood pressure and mention the significance of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system in maintaining blood pressure homeostasis. Can you identify the primary site of aldosterone action in the kidney?
Your Answer: Distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct of the nephron
Explanation:Aldosterone functions in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting ducts of the nephron. Spironolactone is a diuretic that preserves potassium levels by blocking aldosterone receptors. The loop of Henle and Bowman’s capsule are located closer to the beginning of the nephron. Prostaglandins regulate the afferent arteriole of the glomerulus, causing vasodilation. NSAIDs can lead to renal failure by inhibiting prostaglandin production. The vasa recta are straight capillaries that run parallel to the loop of Henle in the kidney. To confirm a diagnosis of hypertension, NICE recommends a 24-hour ambulatory blood pressure reading to account for the potential increase in blood pressure in clinical settings.
Aldosterone is a hormone that is primarily produced by the adrenal cortex in the zona glomerulosa. Its main function is to stimulate the reabsorption of sodium from the distal tubules, which results in the excretion of potassium. It is regulated by various factors such as angiotensin II, potassium, and ACTH, which increase its secretion. However, when there is an overproduction of aldosterone, it can lead to primary hyperaldosteronism, which is a common cause of secondary hypertension. This condition can be caused by an adrenal adenoma, which is also known as Conn’s syndrome. It is important to note that spironolactone, an aldosterone antagonist, can cause hyperkalemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old patient with known HIV presents to hospital with increasing shortness of breath, fever, and fatigue. He admits to having been inconsistent with his adherence to his anti-retroviral medication.
Chest x-ray shows diffuse infiltrates, and sputum is induced to allow for culture; this confirms a diagnosis of Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia. He is started on co-trimoxazole, which is a combination medication containing trimethoprim, a dihydrofolate reductase inhibitor, and sulfamethoxazole.
What is the mechanism of action of sulfamethoxazole, the second drug in this combination?Your Answer: Inhibition of 50S ribosome
Correct Answer: Inhibition of dihydropteroate synthetase
Explanation:Sulfonamides work by inhibiting dihydropteroate synthetase, an enzyme involved in bacterial folate synthesis. This enzyme is not present in eukaryotes, making it a suitable target for antibiotics. Fluoroquinolones, on the other hand, inhibit DNA gyrase, while alkylating agents prevent DNA cross-linking. Inhibition of the 30S and 50S ribosomes are mechanisms of action for aminoglycoside, tetracycline, macrolide, and chloramphenicol antibiotics.
Understanding Sulfonamides and Their Adverse Effects
Sulfonamides are a type of drug that work by inhibiting dihydropteroate synthetase. This class of drugs includes antibiotic sulfonamides such as sulfamethoxazole, sulfadiazine, and sulfisoxazole. Co-trimoxazole, a combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim, is commonly used in the management of Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia. Non-antibiotic sulfonamides like sulfasalazine and sulfonylureas also exist.
However, the use of co-trimoxazole may lead to adverse effects such as hyperkalaemia, headache, and rash, including the potentially life-threatening Steven-Johnson Syndrome. It is important to understand the potential risks associated with sulfonamides and to consult with a healthcare professional before taking any medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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