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Question 1
Correct
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A 70 year old male who underwent aortic valve replacement 2 months ago presents to the emergency department with a 4 day history of fever, fatigue, and overall malaise. The initial observations are as follows:
Temperature: 38.7ºC
Pulse rate: 126 bpm
Blood pressure: 132/76 mmHg
Respiration rate: 24 bpm
Oxygen saturation: 96% on room air
During the examination, splinter hemorrhages are observed on the patient's fingernails, leading to a suspicion of infective endocarditis. What is the most likely causative organism in this particular case?Your Answer: Staphylococcus
Explanation:In this case, a 70-year-old male who recently underwent aortic valve replacement is presenting with symptoms of fever, fatigue, and overall malaise. Upon examination, splinter hemorrhages are observed on the patient’s fingernails, which raises suspicion of infective endocarditis. Given the patient’s history and symptoms, the most likely causative organism in this particular case is Staphylococcus.
Further Reading:
Infective endocarditis (IE) is an infection that affects the innermost layer of the heart, known as the endocardium. It is most commonly caused by bacteria, although it can also be caused by fungi or viruses. IE can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic depending on the duration of illness. Risk factors for IE include IV drug use, valvular heart disease, prosthetic valves, structural congenital heart disease, previous episodes of IE, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, immune suppression, chronic inflammatory conditions, and poor dental hygiene.
The epidemiology of IE has changed in recent years, with Staphylococcus aureus now being the most common causative organism in most industrialized countries. Other common organisms include coagulase-negative staphylococci, streptococci, and enterococci. The distribution of causative organisms varies depending on whether the patient has a native valve, prosthetic valve, or is an IV drug user.
Clinical features of IE include fever, heart murmurs (most commonly aortic regurgitation), non-specific constitutional symptoms, petechiae, splinter hemorrhages, Osler’s nodes, Janeway’s lesions, Roth’s spots, arthritis, splenomegaly, meningism/meningitis, stroke symptoms, and pleuritic pain.
The diagnosis of IE is based on the modified Duke criteria, which require the presence of certain major and minor criteria. Major criteria include positive blood cultures with typical microorganisms and positive echocardiogram findings. Minor criteria include fever, vascular phenomena, immunological phenomena, and microbiological phenomena. Blood culture and echocardiography are key tests for diagnosing IE.
In summary, infective endocarditis is an infection of the innermost layer of the heart that is most commonly caused by bacteria. It can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic and can be caused by a variety of risk factors. Staphylococcus aureus is now the most common causative organism in most industrialized countries. Clinical features include fever, heart murmurs, and various other symptoms. The diagnosis is based on the modified Duke criteria, which require the presence of certain major and minor criteria. Blood culture and echocardiography are important tests for diagnosing IE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 2
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant comes in with intense and continuous lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She describes the bleeding as lighter than her usual period. A CTG is conducted, revealing reduced variability in the fetal heart rate and late decelerations. During the examination, the uterus feels tender and firm.
What is the MOST probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Placental abruption
Explanation:Placental abruption, also known as abruptio placentae, occurs when the placental lining separates from the wall of the uterus before delivery and after 20 weeks of gestation.
In the early stages, there may be no symptoms, but typically abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding develop. Approximately 20% of patients experience a concealed placental abruption, where the haemorrhage is confined within the uterine cavity and the amount of blood loss can be significantly underestimated.
The clinical features of placental abruption include sudden onset abdominal pain (which can be severe), variable vaginal bleeding, severe or continuous contractions, abdominal tenderness, and an enlarged, tense uterus. The foetus often shows signs of distress, such as reduced movements, increased or decreased fetal heart rate, decreased variability of fetal heart rate, and late decelerations.
In contrast, placenta praevia is painless and the foetal heart is generally normal. The degree of obstetric shock is usually proportional to the amount of vaginal blood loss. Another clue that the cause of bleeding is placenta praevia rather than placental abruption is that the foetus may have an abnormal presentation or lie.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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Question 3
Correct
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A middle-aged man is brought in by ambulance, having collapsed. There is currently a summer heatwave, and he has a suspected diagnosis of heat stroke.
Which of the following statements regarding heat stroke is true?Your Answer: Diazepam can be helpful in patients with agitation and/or shivering
Explanation:Heat stroke is a condition characterized by a systemic inflammatory response, where the core body temperature exceeds 40.6°C. It is accompanied by changes in mental state and varying levels of organ dysfunction. Heat stroke occurs when the body’s ability to regulate temperature is overwhelmed by a combination of excessive environmental heat, excessive heat production from metabolic processes (usually due to exertion), and inadequate heat loss.
It is important to consider other clinical conditions that can cause an increased core temperature. Sepsis can present similarly and should be ruled out. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome should be excluded in patients taking phenothiazines or other antipsychotics. Serotonin syndrome should be excluded in patients taking serotonergic medications such as SSRIs. Malignant hyperthermia should be considered in patients with a recent history of general anesthesia. Screening for recreational drug use, particularly cocaine, amphetamines, and ecstasy, is also recommended.
In patients with agitation and/or shivering, benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam) can be beneficial. They help reduce excessive heat production and agitation. In severe cases of agitation, paralysis may be necessary. Dantrolene is commonly used, although there is currently limited high-level evidence supporting its use. Neuroleptics, such as chlorpromazine, which were once commonly used, should be avoided due to potential adverse effects.
Various cooling techniques are recommended, but there is currently insufficient evidence to determine the best approach. Simple measures like cold drinks, fanning, ice water packs, and spraying tepid water can be effective. Cold water immersion therapy may be helpful, but it requires patient stability and cooperation and may not be practical for critically ill patients. Advanced cooling techniques, such as cold IV fluids, surface cooling devices (SCD), intravascular cooling devices (ICD), and extracorporeal circuits, may be used for sicker patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 4
Correct
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A 45 year old male presents to the emergency department complaining of worsening headaches and visual disturbances over the past week. Upon examination, you observe that the patient has a round face, stretch marks on the abdomen, and excessive hair growth. You suspect that the patient may have Cushing syndrome.
Which of the following tests would be the most suitable to confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer: 24-hour urinary free cortisol
Explanation:The recommended diagnostic tests for Cushing’s syndrome include the 24-hour urinary free cortisol test, the 1 mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test, and the late-night salivary cortisol test. In this case, the patient exhibits symptoms of Cushing syndrome such as a moon face, abdominal striae, and hirsutism. These symptoms may be caused by Cushing’s disease, which is Cushing syndrome due to a pituitary adenoma. The patient also experiences headaches and visual disturbances, which could potentially be caused by high blood sugar levels. It is important to note that Cushing syndrome caused by an adrenal or pituitary tumor is more common in females, with a ratio of 5:1. The peak incidence of Cushing syndrome caused by an adrenal or pituitary adenoma occurs between the ages of 25 and 40 years.
Further Reading:
Cushing’s syndrome is a clinical syndrome caused by prolonged exposure to high levels of glucocorticoids. The severity of symptoms can vary depending on the level of steroid exposure. There are two main classifications of Cushing’s syndrome: ACTH-dependent disease and non-ACTH-dependent disease. ACTH-dependent disease is caused by excessive ACTH production from the pituitary gland or ACTH-secreting tumors, which stimulate excessive cortisol production. Non-ACTH-dependent disease is characterized by excess glucocorticoid production independent of ACTH stimulation.
The most common cause of Cushing’s syndrome is exogenous steroid use. Pituitary adenoma is the second most common cause and the most common endogenous cause. Cushing’s disease refers specifically to Cushing’s syndrome caused by an ACTH-producing pituitary tumor.
Clinical features of Cushing’s syndrome include truncal obesity, supraclavicular fat pads, buffalo hump, weight gain, moon facies, muscle wasting and weakness, diabetes or impaired glucose tolerance, gonadal dysfunction, hypertension, nephrolithiasis, skin changes (such as skin atrophy, striae, easy bruising, hirsutism, acne, and hyperpigmentation in ACTH-dependent causes), depression and emotional lability, osteopenia or osteoporosis, edema, irregular menstrual cycles or amenorrhea, polydipsia and polyuria, poor wound healing, and signs related to the underlying cause, such as headaches and visual problems.
Diagnostic tests for Cushing’s syndrome include 24-hour urinary free cortisol, 1 mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test, and late-night salivary cortisol. Other investigations aim to assess metabolic disturbances and identify the underlying cause, such as plasma ACTH, full blood count (raised white cell count), electrolytes, and arterial blood gas analysis. Imaging, such as CT or MRI of the abdomen, chest, and/or pituitary, may be required to assess suspected adrenal tumors, ectopic ACTH-secreting tumors, and pituitary tumors. The choice of imaging is guided by the ACTH result, with undetectable ACTH and elevated serum cortisol levels indicating ACTH-independent Cushing’s syndrome and raised ACTH suggesting an ACTH-secreting tumor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman comes in with a painful sore on the bottom of her right foot. She has a history of diabetes and high blood pressure and takes metformin, ramipril, and aspirin. She has no known allergies to medications. The sore is located on the front part of the foot, next to the big toe.
Which nerve provides sensory innervation to the area where the sore is located?Your Answer: Sural nerve
Correct Answer: Medial plantar nerve
Explanation:The tibial nerve has three main sensory branches that provide sensory function. These branches include the medial plantar nerve, which supplies the skin on the medial sole and the medial three and a half toes. The lateral plantar nerve supplies the skin on the lateral sole and the lateral one and a half toes. Lastly, the medial calcaneal branches of the tibial nerve supply the skin over the heel. Overall, these branches play a crucial role in providing sensory supply to the sole of the foot.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman comes in with an ear injury that happened while playing soccer earlier today. The helix of her ear is swollen, red, and causing pain. The swelling is soft and can be compressed.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Auricular subchondral haematoma
Explanation:This patient has developed an acute auricular subchondral haematoma. It occurs when blood and serum collect in the space between the cartilage and the supporting perichondrium due to a shearing force that separates the perichondrium from the underlying cartilage.
It is important to differentiate this condition from cauliflower ear, which is a common complication that arises when an auricular haematoma is not treated. If a subchondral haematoma is left untreated, the damaged perichondrium forms a fibrocartilage plate, leading to scarring and cartilage regeneration. This results in an irregular and thickened pinna, typically along the helical rim.
The management of an auricular haematoma involves the following steps:
1. Infiltration with a local anaesthetic, such as 1% lidocaine.
2. Drainage or needle aspiration of the haematoma.
3. Application of firm packing and compression bandaging to prevent re-accumulation.
4. Administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics.By following these management steps, the patient can effectively address and treat the auricular haematoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 7
Correct
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A 42-year-old chronic smoker comes in with a chronic productive cough, difficulty breathing, and wheezing. Blood tests reveal an elevated packed cell volume (PCV). A chest X-ray shows more than 6 ribs visible above the diaphragm in the midclavicular line. An arterial blood gas indicates slightly low pO2 levels.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: COPD
Explanation:Based on the provided information, it is highly probable that this patient is suffering from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). This conclusion is supported by several factors. Firstly, the patient has a history of chronic productive cough and wheezing, which are common symptoms of COPD. Additionally, the patient has a long-term smoking history, which is a major risk factor for developing this condition.
Furthermore, the patient’s raised packed cell volume (PCV) is likely a result of chronic hypoxemia, a common complication of COPD. This indicates that the patient’s body is trying to compensate for the low oxygen levels in their blood.
Moreover, the chest X-ray reveals evidence of hyperinflation, which is a characteristic finding in patients with COPD. This suggests that the patient’s lungs are overinflated and not functioning optimally.
Lastly, the arterial blood gas analysis shows hypoxemia, indicating that the patient has low levels of oxygen in their blood. This is another significant finding that aligns with a diagnosis of COPD.
In summary, based on the patient’s history, smoking habits, raised PCV, chest X-ray findings, and arterial blood gas results, it is highly likely that they have COPD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female smoker presents with an episode of acute right-sided chest pain. She describes the pain as being ‘extremely severe’, and it is aggravated by movement and coughing. The pain radiates to her neck and shoulder on the affected side. Her vital signs are within normal limits, and her oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. On examination, she exhibits localized tenderness around the 4th rib on the right-hand side. Her lung fields are clear, and her heart sounds are normal.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Pleurisy
Correct Answer: Tietze’s syndrome
Explanation:Tietze’s syndrome is an uncommon condition that leads to localized pain and tenderness in one or more of the upper four ribs, with the second and third ribs being the most commonly affected. The exact cause of this syndrome is still unknown, although it has been suggested that it may be linked to repeated small injuries to the chest wall.
The pain experienced in Tietze’s syndrome is typically aggravated by movement, sneezing, and coughing, and it can also extend to the neck or shoulder on the affected side. In some cases, a firm swelling can be felt over the cartilage of the affected rib. While the pain usually diminishes after a few weeks or months, the swelling may persist.
Treatment for Tietze’s syndrome involves the use of pain-relieving medications, such as NSAIDs. In more severe or persistent cases, local steroid injections may be beneficial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 6-month-old boy has been brought to the hospital for evaluation of a severe respiratory infection. The medical team suspects a diagnosis of pertussis (whooping cough).
What is the MOST SUITABLE investigation for this case?Your Answer: PCR testing
Explanation:Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a respiratory infection caused by the bacteria Bordetella pertussis. It is transmitted through respiratory droplets and has an incubation period of about 7-21 days. This disease is highly contagious and can be transmitted to around 90% of close household contacts.
The clinical course of whooping cough can be divided into two stages. The first stage is called the catarrhal stage, which resembles a mild respiratory infection with symptoms like low-grade fever and a runny nose. A cough may be present, but it is usually mild compared to the second stage. The catarrhal stage typically lasts for about a week.
The second stage is known as the paroxysmal stage. During this phase, the cough becomes more severe as the catarrhal symptoms start to subside. The coughing occurs in spasms, often preceded by an inspiratory whoop sound, followed by a series of rapid coughs. Vomiting may occur, and patients may develop subconjunctival hemorrhages and petechiae. Patients generally feel well between coughing spasms, and there are usually no abnormal chest findings. This stage can last up to 3 months, with a gradual recovery over time. The later stages of this phase are sometimes referred to as the convalescent stage.
Complications of whooping cough can include secondary pneumonia, rib fractures, pneumothorax, hernias, syncopal episodes, encephalopathy, and seizures.
Public Health England (PHE) provides recommendations for testing whooping cough based on the patient’s age, time since onset of illness, and severity of symptoms. For infants under 12 months of age who are hospitalized, PCR testing is recommended. Non-hospitalized infants within two weeks of symptom onset should undergo culture testing of a nasopharyngeal swab or aspirate. Non-hospitalized infants presenting over two weeks after symptom onset should be tested for anti-pertussis toxin IgG antibody levels using serology.
For children over 12 months of age and adults, culture testing of a nasopharyngeal swab or aspirate is recommended within two weeks of symptom onset. Children aged 5 to 16 who have not received the vaccine within the last year and present over two weeks after symptom onset should undergo oral fluid testing for anti-pertussis toxin IgG antibody levels. Children under 5 or adults over
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 10
Correct
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A 45-year-old individual is brought into the emergency department following a head injury from a ladder fall. The patient's condition worsens. You proceed to re-evaluate the patient's GCS. At what GCS range is intubation recommended?
Your Answer: 8 or less
Explanation:Intubation is necessary for patients with a compromised airway. In comatose patients, a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 8 or less indicates the need for intubation. According to NICE guidelines, immediate intubation and ventilation are advised in cases of coma where the patient is not responsive to commands, not speaking, and not opening their eyes. Other indications for intubation include the loss of protective laryngeal reflexes, ventilatory insufficiency as indicated by abnormal blood gases, spontaneous hyperventilation, irregular respirations, significantly deteriorating conscious level, unstable fractures of the facial skeleton, copious bleeding into the mouth, and seizures. In certain cases, intubation and ventilation should be performed before the patient begins their journey.
Further Reading:
Indications for CT Scanning in Head Injuries (Adults):
– CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if any of the following features are present:
– GCS < 13 on initial assessment in the ED
– GCS < 15 at 2 hours after the injury on assessment in the ED
– Suspected open or depressed skull fracture
– Any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign)
– Post-traumatic seizure
– New focal neurological deficit
– > 1 episode of vomitingIndications for CT Scanning in Head Injuries (Children):
– CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if any of the features in List 1 are present:
– Suspicion of non-accidental injury
– Post-traumatic seizure but no history of epilepsy
– GCS < 14 on initial assessment in the ED for children more than 1 year of age
– Paediatric GCS < 15 on initial assessment in the ED for children under 1 year of age
– At 2 hours after the injury, GCS < 15
– Suspected open or depressed skull fracture or tense fontanelle
– Any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign)
– New focal neurological deficit
– For children under 1 year, presence of bruise, swelling or laceration of more than 5 cm on the head– CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if none of the above features are present but two or more of the features in List 2 are present:
– Loss of consciousness lasting more than 5 minutes (witnessed)
– Abnormal drowsiness
– Three or more discrete episodes of vomiting
– Dangerous mechanism of injury (high-speed road traffic accident, fall from a height) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 11
Correct
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You assess a 50-year-old woman who has a past medical history of hereditary angioedema. What is the ONE option that can be utilized for the chronic prevention of this condition?
Your Answer: Tranexamic acid
Explanation:Hereditary angioedema is a condition caused by a lack of C1 esterase inhibitor, a protein that is part of the complement system. It is typically inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. Symptoms usually start in childhood and continue sporadically into adulthood. Attacks can be triggered by minor surgical procedures, dental work, and stress. The main clinical signs of hereditary angioedema include swelling of the skin and mucous membranes, with the face, tongue, and extremities being the most commonly affected areas. There is often a tingling sensation before an attack, sometimes accompanied by a non-itchy rash.
Angioedema and anaphylaxis resulting from C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency do not respond to adrenaline, steroids, or antihistamines. Treatment requires the use of C1 esterase inhibitor concentrate or fresh frozen plasma, both of which contain C1 esterase inhibitor. In situations that may trigger an attack, short-term prophylaxis can be achieved by administering C1 esterase inhibitor or fresh frozen plasma infusions prior to the event. For long-term prevention, androgenic steroids like stanozolol or antifibrinolytic drugs such as tranexamic acid can be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy
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Question 12
Correct
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The Emergency Medicine consultant in charge of the department today asks for your attention to present a case of superior orbital fissure syndrome (SOFS) in a 30-year-old woman with a Le Fort II fracture of the midface after a car accident.
Which of the following anatomical structures does NOT traverse through the superior orbital fissure?Your Answer: Facial vein
Explanation:The superior orbital fissure is a gap in the back wall of the orbit, created by the space between the greater and lesser wings of the sphenoid bone. Several structures pass through it to enter the orbit, starting from the top and going downwards. These include the lacrimal nerve (a branch of CN V1), the frontal nerve (another branch of CN V1), the superior ophthalmic vein, the trochlear nerve (CN IV), the superior division of the oculomotor nerve (CN III), the nasociliary nerve (a branch of CN V1), the inferior division of the oculomotor nerve (CN III), the abducens nerve (CN VI), and the inferior ophthalmic vein.
Adjacent to the superior orbital fissure, on the back wall of the orbit and towards the middle, is the optic canal. The optic nerve (CN II) exits the orbit through this canal, along with the ophthalmic artery.
Superior orbital fissure syndrome (SOFS) is a condition characterized by a combination of symptoms and signs that occur when cranial nerves III, IV, V1, and VI are compressed or injured as they pass through the superior orbital fissure. This condition also leads to swelling and protrusion of the eye due to impaired drainage and congestion. The main causes of SOFS are trauma, tumors, and inflammation. It is important to note that CN II is not affected by this syndrome, as it follows a separate path through the optic canal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maxillofacial & Dental
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Question 13
Correct
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A 62 year old male is brought into the emergency department by concerned family members. They inform you that the patient is a heavy drinker but appeared very confused and disoriented, which is unusual for him. The patient scores 4/10 on the abbreviated mental test score (AMTS). Upon examination, you observe that the patient has yellowing of the eyes, shifting dullness on abdominal palpation, dilated abdominal veins, and asterixis. The patient's vital signs and initial blood tests are as follows:
Blood pressure: 122/80 mmHg
Pulse: 92 bpm
Respiration rate: 18 bpm
Temperature: 37.7ºC
Bilirubin: 68 µmol/l
ALP: 198 u/l
ALT: 274 u/l
Albumin: 26 g/l
INR: 1.7
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Hepatic encephalopathy
Explanation:Hepatic encephalopathy occurs when a person with liver disease experiences an episode where their brain function is affected. This happens because the liver is unable to properly process waste products, leading to an accumulation of nitrogenous waste in the body. These waste products then cross into the brain, where they cause changes in the brain’s osmotic pressure and disrupt neurotransmitter function. As a result, individuals may experience altered consciousness, behavior, and personality. Symptoms can range from confusion and forgetfulness to coma, and signs such as slurred speech and increased muscle tone may also be present. Hepatic encephalopathy is often triggered by factors like gastrointestinal bleeding, infections, or certain medications.
Further Reading:
Cirrhosis is a condition where the liver undergoes structural changes, resulting in dysfunction of its normal functions. It can be classified as either compensated or decompensated. Compensated cirrhosis refers to a stage where the liver can still function effectively with minimal symptoms, while decompensated cirrhosis is when the liver damage is severe and clinical complications are present.
Cirrhosis develops over a period of several years due to repeated insults to the liver. Risk factors for cirrhosis include alcohol misuse, hepatitis B and C infection, obesity, type 2 diabetes, autoimmune liver disease, genetic conditions, certain medications, and other rare conditions.
The prognosis of cirrhosis can be assessed using the Child-Pugh score, which predicts mortality based on parameters such as bilirubin levels, albumin levels, INR, ascites, and encephalopathy. The score ranges from A to C, with higher scores indicating a poorer prognosis.
Complications of cirrhosis include portal hypertension, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, variceal hemorrhage, increased infection risk, hepatocellular carcinoma, and cardiovascular complications.
Diagnosis of cirrhosis is typically done through liver function tests, blood tests, viral hepatitis screening, and imaging techniques such as transient elastography or acoustic radiation force impulse imaging. Liver biopsy may also be performed in some cases.
Management of cirrhosis involves treating the underlying cause, controlling risk factors, and monitoring for complications. Complications such as ascites, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, oesophageal varices, and hepatic encephalopathy require specific management strategies.
Overall, cirrhosis is a progressive condition that requires ongoing monitoring and management to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 45 year old comes to the emergency department with swelling of the lips and tongue that developed slowly over the past 3 hours. There is no accompanying rash. The patient denies consuming anything unusual and has no known allergies. The patient recently began taking multiple new medications after experiencing a heart attack one month ago. You suspect that the patient is experiencing non-allergic drug induced angioedema. What is the most probable cause of the patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:The most frequent cause of non-allergic drug induced angioedema is ACE inhibitors. Symptoms usually appear several days to weeks after beginning the medication. It is important to note that penicillin and NSAIDs are the primary drug culprits for angioedema, but they trigger it through an IgE mediated allergic mechanism, resulting in both angioedema and urticaria. The onset of symptoms in these cases typically occurs within minutes to hours after exposure.
Further Reading:
Angioedema and urticaria are related conditions that involve swelling in different layers of tissue. Angioedema refers to swelling in the deeper layers of tissue, such as the lips and eyelids, while urticaria, also known as hives, refers to swelling in the epidermal skin layers, resulting in raised red areas of skin with itching. These conditions often coexist and may have a common underlying cause.
Angioedema can be classified into allergic and non-allergic types. Allergic angioedema is the most common type and is usually triggered by an allergic reaction, such as to certain medications like penicillins and NSAIDs. Non-allergic angioedema has multiple subtypes and can be caused by factors such as certain medications, including ACE inhibitors, or underlying conditions like hereditary angioedema (HAE) or acquired angioedema.
HAE is an autosomal dominant disease characterized by a deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor. It typically presents in childhood and can be inherited or acquired as a result of certain disorders like lymphoma or systemic lupus erythematosus. Acquired angioedema may have similar clinical features to HAE but is caused by acquired deficiencies of C1 esterase inhibitor due to autoimmune or lymphoproliferative disorders.
The management of urticaria and allergic angioedema focuses on ensuring the airway remains open and addressing any identifiable triggers. In mild cases without airway compromise, patients may be advised that symptoms will resolve without treatment. Non-sedating antihistamines can be used for up to 6 weeks to relieve symptoms. Severe cases of urticaria may require systemic corticosteroids in addition to antihistamines. In moderate to severe attacks of allergic angioedema, intramuscular epinephrine may be considered.
The management of HAE involves treating the underlying deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor. This can be done through the administration of C1 esterase inhibitor, bradykinin receptor antagonists, or fresh frozen plasma transfusion, which contains C1 inhibitor.
In summary, angioedema and urticaria are related conditions involving swelling in different layers of tissue. They can coexist and may have a common underlying cause. Management involves addressing triggers, using antihistamines, and in severe cases, systemic corticosteroids or other specific treatments for HAE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 15
Correct
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A 78 year old male is brought into the emergency department from a retirement home due to increasing disorientation and drowsiness. Blood tests reveal a serum sodium level of 117 mmol/L and the patient is administered Intravenous 3% sodium chloride solution. The patient initially demonstrates some improvement, becoming more awake and less confused, but after approximately 90 minutes, he becomes lethargic and experiences difficulty speaking with noticeable dysarthria.
What is the probable underlying reason?Your Answer: Central pontine myelinolysis
Explanation:The probable underlying reason for the patient’s symptoms is central pontine myelinolysis. This condition is characterized by the destruction of the myelin sheath in the pons, a region of the brainstem. It is often caused by a rapid correction of hyponatremia, which is a low level of sodium in the blood. In this case, the patient’s serum sodium level was initially low at 117 mmol/L, and the administration of intravenous 3% sodium chloride solution caused a rapid increase in sodium levels. This sudden change in sodium concentration can lead to the development of central pontine myelinolysis. The initial improvement in the patient’s symptoms may have been due to the correction of hyponatremia, but the subsequent development of lethargy and dysarthria suggests the onset of central pontine myelinolysis.
Further Reading:
Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is a condition characterized by low sodium levels in the blood due to excessive secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). ADH, also known as arginine vasopressin (AVP), is responsible for promoting water and sodium reabsorption in the body. SIADH occurs when there is impaired free water excretion, leading to euvolemic (normal fluid volume) hypotonic hyponatremia.
There are various causes of SIADH, including malignancies such as small cell lung cancer, stomach cancer, and prostate cancer, as well as neurological conditions like stroke, subarachnoid hemorrhage, and meningitis. Infections such as tuberculosis and pneumonia, as well as certain medications like thiazide diuretics and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), can also contribute to SIADH.
The diagnostic features of SIADH include low plasma osmolality, inappropriately elevated urine osmolality, urinary sodium levels above 30 mmol/L, and euvolemic. Symptoms of hyponatremia, which is a common consequence of SIADH, include nausea, vomiting, headache, confusion, lethargy, muscle weakness, seizures, and coma.
Management of SIADH involves correcting hyponatremia slowly to avoid complications such as central pontine myelinolysis. The underlying cause of SIADH should be treated if possible, such as discontinuing causative medications. Fluid restriction is typically recommended, with a daily limit of around 1000 ml for adults. In severe cases with neurological symptoms, intravenous hypertonic saline may be used. Medications like demeclocycline, which blocks ADH receptors, or ADH receptor antagonists like tolvaptan may also be considered.
It is important to monitor serum sodium levels closely during treatment, especially if using hypertonic saline, to prevent rapid correction that can lead to central pontine myelinolysis. Osmolality abnormalities can help determine the underlying cause of hyponatremia, with increased urine osmolality indicating dehydration or renal disease, and decreased urine osmolality suggesting SIADH or overhydration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man has been brought into the Emergency Department, experiencing seizures that have lasted for 40 minutes before his arrival. On arrival, he is still having a tonic-clonic seizure. He is a known epileptic and is currently taking lamotrigine for seizure prevention. He has received a single dose of rectal diazepam by the paramedics en route approximately 15 minutes ago. His vital signs are as follows: HR 92, BP 120/70, SaO2 98% on high flow oxygen, temperature is 36.8°C. His blood glucose level is 1.5 mmol/L, and he has an intravenous line in place.
Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to administer next?Your Answer: Phenytoin infusion
Correct Answer: Intravenous glucose
Explanation:Status epilepticus is a condition characterized by continuous seizure activity lasting for 5 minutes or more without the return of consciousness, or recurrent seizures (2 or more) without a period of neurological recovery in between. In such cases, it is important to address any low blood glucose levels urgently by administering intravenous glucose. While the patient may require additional antiepileptic drug (AED) therapy, the management of status epilepticus involves several general measures.
During the early stage of status epilepticus (0-10 minutes), the airway should be secured and resuscitation measures should be taken. Oxygen should be administered and the cardiorespiratory function should be assessed. It is also important to establish intravenous access. In the second stage (0-30 minutes), regular monitoring should be instituted and the possibility of non-epileptic status should be considered. Emergency AED therapy should be initiated and emergency investigations should be conducted. If there are indications of alcohol abuse or impaired nutrition, glucose and/or intravenous thiamine may be administered. Acidosis should be treated if severe.
In the third stage (0-60 minutes), the underlying cause of status epilepticus should be identified. The anaesthetist and intensive care unit (ITU) should be alerted. Any medical complications should be identified and treated, and pressor therapy may be considered if appropriate. In the fourth stage (30-90 minutes), the patient should be transferred to intensive care. Intensive care and EEG monitoring should be established, and intracranial pressure monitoring may be initiated if necessary. Initial long-term, maintenance AED therapy should also be initiated.
Emergency investigations for status epilepticus include blood tests for blood gases, glucose, renal and liver function, calcium and magnesium, full blood count (including platelets), blood clotting, and AED drug levels. Serum and urine samples should be saved for future analysis, including toxicology if the cause of the convulsive status epilepticus is uncertain. A chest radiograph may be taken to evaluate the possibility of aspiration. Additional investigations, such as brain imaging or lumbar puncture, may be conducted depending on the clinical circumstances.
Monitoring during the management of status epilepticus involves regular neurological observations and measurements of pulse, blood pressure, and temperature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 17
Correct
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You provide Entonox to a patient who has experienced a significant injury for temporary pain relief.
Which ONE statement about Entonox is accurate?Your Answer: It can cause inhibition of vitamin B12 synthesis
Explanation:Entonox is a combination of oxygen and nitrous oxide, with equal parts of each. Its primary effects are pain relief and a decrease in activity within the central nervous system. The exact mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to involve the modulation of enkephalins and endorphins in the central nervous system.
When inhaled, Entonox takes about 30 seconds to take effect and its effects last for approximately 60 seconds after inhalation is stopped. It is stored in cylinders that are either white or blue, with blue and white sections on the shoulders. Entonox has various uses, including being used alongside general anesthesia, as a pain reliever during labor, and for painful medical procedures.
There are some known side effects of Entonox, which include nausea and vomiting in about 15% of patients, dizziness, euphoria, and inhibition of vitamin B12 synthesis. It is important to note that there are certain situations where the use of Entonox is not recommended. These contraindications include reduced consciousness, diving injuries, pneumothorax, middle ear disease, sinus disease, bowel obstruction, documented allergy to nitrous oxide, hypoxia, and violent or disabled psychiatric patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pain & Sedation
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Question 18
Correct
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A 52 year old male visits the emergency department after crashing into the side of a car while riding his bicycle downhill at a fast pace. The handlebars were forcefully pushed into his abdomen, resulting in a noticeable large contusion on the front of his abdominal wall. The patient's vital signs are as follows:
Blood pressure: 92/60 mmHg
Pulse rate: 104 bpm
Temperature: 37.1ºC
SpO2: 97% on room air
Which two abdominal organs are most commonly affected in cases of blunt abdominal trauma?Your Answer: Liver and spleen
Explanation:Blunt abdominal trauma often results in injury to the liver and spleen, which are the two organs most commonly affected. The liver, being the largest and located in a vulnerable position, is particularly prone to injury in such cases.
Further Reading:
Abdominal trauma can be classified into two categories: blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma occurs when compressive or deceleration forces are applied to the abdomen, often resulting from road traffic accidents or direct blows during sports. The spleen and liver are the organs most commonly injured in blunt abdominal trauma. On the other hand, penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and enter the abdominal cavity, such as stabbings, gunshot wounds, or industrial accidents. The bowel and liver are the organs most commonly affected in penetrating injuries.
When it comes to imaging in blunt abdominal trauma, there are three main modalities that are commonly used: focused assessment with sonography in trauma (FAST), diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL), and computed tomography (CT). FAST is a non-invasive and quick method used to detect free intraperitoneal fluid, aiding in the decision on whether a laparotomy is needed. DPL is also used to detect intraperitoneal blood and can be used in both unstable blunt abdominal trauma and penetrating abdominal trauma. However, it is more invasive and time-consuming compared to FAST and has largely been replaced by it. CT, on the other hand, is the gold standard for diagnosing intra-abdominal pathology and is used in stable abdominal trauma patients. It offers high sensitivity and specificity but requires a stable and cooperative patient. It also involves radiation and may have delays in availability.
In the case of penetrating trauma, it is important to assess these injuries with the help of a surgical team. Penetrating objects should not be removed in the emergency department as they may be tamponading underlying vessels. Ideally, these injuries should be explored in the operating theater.
In summary, abdominal trauma can be classified into blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma is caused by compressive or deceleration forces and commonly affects the spleen and liver. Penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and commonly affect the bowel and liver. Imaging modalities such as FAST, DPL, and CT are used to assess and diagnose abdominal trauma, with CT being the gold standard. Penetrating injuries should be assessed by a surgical team and should ideally be explored in the operating theater.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 19
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of dizziness and palpitations. She informs you that she was recently diagnosed with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. You proceed to perform an ECG.
Which ONE statement about the ECG findings in Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is accurate?Your Answer: Type A WPW can resemble right bundle branch block
Explanation:Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical system of the heart. It occurs when there is an abnormal pathway, known as the bundle of Kent, between the atria and the ventricles. This pathway can cause premature contractions of the ventricles, leading to a type of rapid heartbeat called atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia (AVRT).
In a normal heart rhythm, the electrical signals travel through the bundle of Kent and stimulate the ventricles. However, in WPW syndrome, these signals can cause the ventricles to contract prematurely. This can be seen on an electrocardiogram (ECG) as a shortened PR interval, a slurring of the initial rise in the QRS complex (known as a delta wave), and a widening of the QRS complex.
There are two distinct types of WPW syndrome that can be identified on an ECG. Type A is characterized by predominantly positive delta waves and QRS complexes in the praecordial leads, with a dominant R wave in V1. This can sometimes be mistaken for right bundle branch block (RBBB). Type B, on the other hand, shows predominantly negative delta waves and QRS complexes in leads V1 and V2, and positive in the other praecordial leads, resembling left bundle branch block (LBBB).
Overall, WPW syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical conduction system of the heart, leading to abnormal heart rhythms. It can be identified on an ECG by specific features such as shortened PR interval, delta waves, and widened QRS complex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 40-year-old woman comes in with tremors, anxiety, sweating, and nausea. Her vital signs reveal an elevated heart rate of 119 bpm. She typically consumes 2-3 large bottles of strong cider daily but has recently run out of money and has not had an alcoholic beverage since the previous evening.
Which ONE of the following benzodiazepine medications is currently approved for use in clinical practice in the UK for treating symptoms of alcohol withdrawal?Your Answer: Diazepam
Explanation:Benzodiazepines are commonly used in the UK to manage symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Currently, only diazepam and chlordiazepoxide have been authorized for this purpose. Other benzodiazepines like alprazolam, clobazam, and lorazepam do not currently have authorization for treating alcohol withdrawal symptoms in the UK.
Carbamazepine is also used in the UK to manage alcohol-related withdrawal symptoms, but it does not have official authorization for this use.
Clomethiazole, on the other hand, does have UK marketing authorization for treating alcohol withdrawal symptoms, but it is only recommended for use in a hospital setting with close supervision. The product information for clomethiazole advises caution when prescribing it to individuals with a history of addiction or outpatient alcoholics. It is also not recommended for patients who continue to drink or abuse alcohol. Combining alcohol with clomethiazole, especially in alcoholics with cirrhosis, can lead to fatal respiratory depression even with short-term use. Therefore, clomethiazole should only be used in a hospital under close supervision or, in rare cases, by specialist units on an outpatient basis with careful monitoring of the daily dosage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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