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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman visits the genitourinary medicine clinic with four fleshy, pigmented lesions on her vulva after starting a new relationship. What is the best initial course of action?
Your Answer: Oral aciclovir
Correct Answer: Topical podophyllum
Explanation:For the treatment of genital warts, topical podophyllum is recommended for multiple, non-keratinised warts, while cryotherapy is recommended for solitary, keratinised warts. Cryotherapy can also be used as an initial treatment for genital warts.
Understanding Genital Warts
Genital warts, also known as condylomata accuminata, are a common reason for visits to genitourinary clinics. These warts are caused by various types of the human papillomavirus (HPV), with types 6 and 11 being the most common culprits. It is important to note that HPV, particularly types 16, 18, and 33, can increase the risk of cervical cancer.
The warts themselves are small, fleshy protrusions that are typically 2-5mm in size and may be slightly pigmented. They can cause discomfort, itching, and even bleeding. Treatment options for genital warts include topical podophyllum or cryotherapy, depending on the location and type of lesion. Topical agents are generally used for multiple, non-keratinised warts, while solitary, keratinised warts respond better to cryotherapy. Imiquimod, a topical cream, is often used as a second-line treatment. It is important to note that genital warts can be resistant to treatment, and recurrence is common. However, most anogenital HPV infections clear up on their own within 1-2 years without intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman has just been diagnosed with Hodgkin's lymphoma and has started her first day of chemotherapy. However, she has been feeling unwell since then and her U&E results show abnormalities such as hyperkalaemia, hyperphosphataemia, and hypocalcaemia. What prophylaxis is used to prevent the complication that this woman has experienced?
Your Answer: Thiazide-like diuretics
Correct Answer: Allopurinol
Explanation:Tumour lysis syndrome is characterized by high levels of potassium and phosphate, as well as low levels of calcium. This is evident in the case history of a lymphoma patient who has started chemotherapy. Allopurinol is the most commonly used prophylaxis, with rasburicase as an alternative. Diuretics are not recommended due to the potential to exacerbate acute kidney injury. It is important to note that steroids and radiotherapy are not common causes of tumour lysis syndrome.
Understanding Tumour Lysis Syndrome
Tumour lysis syndrome (TLS) is a life-threatening condition that can occur during the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias. Although it can happen without chemotherapy, it is usually triggered by the introduction of combination chemotherapy. Patients at high risk of TLS should be given prophylactic medication such as IV allopurinol or IV rasburicase to prevent the potentially deadly effects of tumour cell lysis. Rasburicase is a recombinant version of urate oxidase, an enzyme that metabolizes uric acid to allantoin, which is more easily excreted by the kidneys. Patients in lower-risk groups should be given oral allopurinol during chemotherapy cycles to avoid the condition. However, rasburicase and allopurinol should not be given together in the management of tumour lysis syndrome as this reduces the effect of rasburicase.
TLS occurs when tumour cells break down and release chemicals into the body, leading to high levels of potassium and phosphate and a low level of calcium. It should be suspected in any patient presenting with an acute kidney injury in the presence of high phosphate and uric acid levels. From 2004, TLS has been graded using the Cairo-Bishop scoring system, which considers abnormality in two or more of the following within three days before or seven days after chemotherapy: uric acid, potassium, phosphate, and calcium. Clinical tumour lysis syndrome is when laboratory tumour lysis syndrome is present along with increased serum creatinine, cardiac arrhythmia or sudden death, or seizure.
In summary, understanding tumour lysis syndrome is critical in the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias. Prophylactic medication can be given to prevent the potentially deadly effects of tumour cell lysis, and the Cairo-Bishop scoring system can be used to grade the severity of the condition. Early detection and management of TLS can improve patient outcomes and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of fatigue and sudden shortness of breath. An urgent full blood count is performed and the patient is diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL).
What is the most probable first-line treatment option for this patient's leukemia?Your Answer: Intravenous immunoglobulins
Correct Answer: Chemotherapy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acute Leukaemia: Chemotherapy, Stem-Cell Transplant, Blood Transfusion, Intravenous Immunoglobulins, and Radiotherapy
Acute leukaemias, such as acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL), are characterized by an increase in primitive undifferentiated blast cells in the bone marrow and blood, leading to marrow failure. The traditional treatment for ALL involves four components: induction, consolidation, maintenance, and central nervous system (CNS) prophylaxis. The first-line therapy for ALL is combination chemotherapy, which aims to eradicate the blast cells. Once remission is induced, maintenance chemotherapy is given to eliminate the disease that cannot be detected under the microscope.
Stem-cell transplants can be used to treat ALL once remission is induced using chemotherapy. This treatment can be allogeneic (the patient receives stem cells from a matched or partially mismatched related or unrelated donor) or autologous (the patient receives their own stem cells). The goal of a stem-cell transplant is to restore the body’s ability to produce normal blood cells. While it can be a curative treatment for patients with this disease, it is not used as a first-line treatment.
Blood transfusions are not a treatment for acute leukaemia, but they may be necessary to treat anaemia or platelet deficiency. Patients with leukaemia are at risk of graft-versus-host disease, so they are typically given irradiated blood components. Intravenous immunoglobulins are not used to treat acute leukaemia but may be used prophylactically against infection in patients with hypogammaglobulinaemia due to cancer treatment.
Radiotherapy is not a first-line treatment for acute leukaemia, but it may be used to treat the brain or spinal cord if the disease has spread there. Total body radiotherapy may also be used before a stem-cell transplant to suppress the immune system and reduce the risk of transplant rejection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man with a history of psoriasis develops plaques on his scalp. What is the most suitable treatment option among the following choices?
Your Answer: Coal tar
Correct Answer: Hydrocortisone 1%
Explanation:It’s a challenging question, especially since the decision on psoriasis treatment often involves the patient and doctor’s preference. While vitamin D analogues can be an option, calcipotriol is not advisable due to its potential to cause irritation. Instead, calcitriol and tacalcitol can be considered. For facial psoriasis, mild potency topical steroids can be effective. However, coal tar may not be well-tolerated for facial application due to its unpleasant odor and messiness.
NICE recommends a step-wise approach for chronic plaque psoriasis, starting with regular emollients and then using a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, followed by a vitamin D analogue twice daily, and then a potent corticosteroid or coal tar preparation if there is no improvement. Phototherapy, systemic therapy, and topical treatments are also options for management. Topical steroids should be used cautiously and vitamin D analogues may be used long-term. Dithranol and coal tar have adverse effects but can be effective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents with a swollen, erythematous finger and right axillary tenderness, 24 hours after being bitten by his pet dog.
Which of the following is the best treatment?Your Answer: Flucloxacillin
Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:Antibiotics for Dog Bite Infections: Recommended and Not Recommended Options
Dog bites can lead to infections caused by various micro-organisms, including anaerobic mouth flora and bacteria. Co-amoxiclav, a combination of amoxicillin and clavulanic acid, is the recommended antibiotic for dog bite-related infections, as it is effective against the most likely organisms. Fluconazole, an antifungal agent, is not indicated for such infections, as fungal micro-organisms in dogs usually cause only superficial skin rashes. Metronidazole, although effective against anaerobic bacteria, is not recommended for dog bite-related infections, except for patients allergic to penicillin. Aciclovir is not used for dog bite-related infections, as it is restricted to treating varicella-zoster and herpes zoster. Flucloxacillin, although recommended for skin infections, is not active against anaerobic bacteria and is not recommended for dog bite-related infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP with recurrent, foul-smelling discharge from her right ear and decreased hearing on that side. She has been experiencing these episodes every few months, but now notices the discharge on most days. During childhood, she frequently swam and had grommet insertion for glue ear, which fell out when she was around 10 years old. She has no significant medical history and takes only the combined oral contraceptive pill.
After conducting hearing tests, the following results were obtained:
- Rinne's test (right side): bone conduction > air conduction
- Rinne's test (left side): air conduction > bone conduction
- Weber's test: lateralisation to the right
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Tympanosclerosis
Correct Answer: Cholesteatoma
Explanation:The patient is experiencing a conductive hearing loss on the right side, as evidenced by Rinne’s test showing bone conduction > air conduction in the affected ear and Weber’s test lateralizing to the right ear. The most likely diagnosis is cholesteatoma, which is associated with recurrent ear discharge and glue ear. Cholesteatoma occurs when squamous epithelium forms pockets on the tympanic membrane, leading to cyst-like growths that produce keratin and slough over time. This causes erosion in the middle ear, creating an environment for anaerobic bacterial growth.
Acoustic neuroma, on the other hand, causes sensorineural hearing loss, which is characterized by air conduction > bone conduction in both ears and Weber test lateralizing to the unaffected ear. It is associated with dizziness and typically causes unilateral hearing loss. As the tumor grows, patients may develop neurological symptoms that can be predicted by the affected cranial nerves.
Otitis externa is an acute infection of the outer ear that can cause conductive hearing loss, but as the patient has a chronic history and lacks ear pain, this diagnosis is less likely. Otosclerosis, which presents with progressive conductive hearing loss and tinnitus, is an autosomal dominant trait that typically affects individuals aged 20-40 years with a family history of early-onset hearing loss. As it does not typically present with smelly ear discharge, other diagnoses should be considered first.
Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness
Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are two diagnostic tools used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test suggests conductive deafness if BC is greater than AC.
On the other hand, Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.
To interpret the results of Rinne’s and Weber’s tests, a normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound is midline in Weber’s test. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear, while AC is greater than BC in the unaffected ear, and the sound lateralizes to the affected ear in Weber’s test. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound lateralizes to the unaffected ear in Weber’s test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner by his mother, who reports that he has been feeling tired and has developed mouth sores. Additionally, he has bruises on his knees and palms. A bone marrow aspirate reveals a hypocellular image.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
Correct Answer: Aplastic anaemia
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Hypocellular Bone Marrow and Thrombocytopenia
Aplastic anaemia is a condition characterized by bone marrow failure, resulting in peripheral pancytopenia and bone-marrow hypoplasia. This leads to a deficiency in the production of red blood cells, causing anaemia, and a reduced production of white blood cells, leading to immunodeficiency. Patients may experience symptoms such as shortness of breath, lethargy, pallor, mouth ulcers, and increased frequency of infections. The reduced production of platelets causes easy bruising.
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a condition characterized by an isolated reduction in platelets with normal bone marrow, in the absence of another identifiable cause. Patients may present with abnormal bleeding and bruising, petechiae, and purpura.
Haemophilia A is an X-linked-recessive condition causing a deficiency in clotting factor VIII, leading to easy bruising, prolonged bleeding after injury, or spontaneous bleeding in severe cases.
Infectious mononucleosis is the result of Epstein–Barr virus infection, characterized by fever, pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy, and a macular or maculopapular rash.
Autoimmune neutropenia is associated with opportunistic infections, most commonly otitis media. However, this condition would not account for the thrombocytopenia observed in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
Correct
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A 56-year-old female presents with an acutely painful hand. She has a history of hypertension, Raynaud's phenomenon, and has smoked twenty cigarettes a day since she was twenty-two years old. She describes the pain as 'different from her usual Raynaud's,' there has been no relief of symptoms despite wearing gloves and making sure her hands are warm.
Upon examination, her blood pressure is 158/80 mmHg, her right hand is blanched white and feels cold, and the colour of her forearm is normal. The radial pulse is not palpable at the wrist. What is the most likely explanation for her symptoms?Your Answer: Buerger's disease
Explanation:If a patient with extremity ischaemia is diagnosed with Raynaud’s phenomenon, Buerger’s disease should be considered as a possible underlying condition. Buerger’s disease is a condition where the small and medium arteries in the hands and feet become inflamed and thrombosed, leading to acute or chronic progressive ischaemic changes and potentially gangrene. It is strongly associated with smoking. Osteoarthritis, on the other hand, presents with joint pain and swelling, typically in the wrist, knee, hip, or thumb base, and is more common with age. Radial artery dissection is unlikely in the given scenario as there is no history of traumatic injury. Raynaud’s phenomenon, which is characterised by transient vasospasm of the digits triggered by cold, is usually treated conservatively with warmth and sometimes calcium channel blockers in severe cases. It is mostly idiopathic but can be associated with underlying connective tissue disease.
Understanding Buerger’s Disease
Buerger’s disease, also known as thromboangiitis obliterans, is a type of vasculitis that affects the small and medium-sized blood vessels. This condition is strongly linked to smoking and can cause a range of symptoms, including extremity ischemia, intermittent claudication, ischaemic ulcers, superficial thrombophlebitis, and Raynaud’s phenomenon.
Individuals with Buerger’s disease may experience reduced blood flow to their limbs, which can lead to pain, numbness, and tingling sensations. This can make it difficult to walk or perform other activities, and may even result in the development of ulcers or sores on the skin.
Superficial thrombophlebitis, or inflammation of the veins close to the surface of the skin, is another common symptom of Buerger’s disease. This can cause redness, swelling, and tenderness in the affected area.
Raynaud’s phenomenon, which is characterized by the narrowing of blood vessels in the fingers and toes, is also associated with Buerger’s disease. This can cause the affected areas to turn white or blue and feel cold and numb.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 9
Correct
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An older woman with advanced breast cancer has been discharged from the hospital for palliative care at home. She was prescribed oral morphine at a dose of 10mg four times a day to manage her pain from bony metastases. This dosage was effective in controlling her pain.
However, the patient's condition has worsened, and she is now experiencing difficulty swallowing, making it impossible to take the medication orally. The GP has recommended converting the morphine to a subcutaneous injection, which will be administered by the district nurses.
What is the appropriate subcutaneous morphine dose for this patient?Your Answer: 5mg four times daily
Explanation:To convert from oral to subcutaneous morphine, divide the oral dose by two. In this case, the recommended subcutaneous morphine dose is 5mg four times daily, which is equivalent to 10mg of oral morphine four times daily. As the patient’s pain is currently well controlled, there is no need to adjust the analgesia dose.
Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 10
Correct
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A 51-year-old woman presents with non-specific abdominal discomfort that has been bothering her for the past 2 months. She also reports experiencing loose stools up to three times a day for the past month, despite previously having solid stools once daily. She denies any weight loss or blood in her stool. Upon examination, her abdomen is soft and nontender, and she has normal urine dip results. Blood tests, including a CA-125 and coeliac screen, and a faecal calprotectin test all come back within the normal range. Although you suspect irritable bowel syndrome, the patient is worried about the possibility of colorectal cancer. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Faecal immunochemical test (FIT)
Explanation:If a patient shows new symptoms of possible colorectal cancer but does not meet the 2-week criteria, it is recommended to undergo the FIT test. In the case of a patient experiencing unexplained abdominal pain and a change in bowel habit, a FIT test is the most appropriate next step, according to NICE guidance, especially considering the patient’s age and the absence of rectal bleeding. It is not advisable to simply suggest diet changes or reassure the patient without conducting the necessary tests, as her symptoms require complete investigation. Repeating a faecal calprotectin level is unlikely to be helpful and may only delay the patient from receiving the appropriate support.
Referral Guidelines for Colorectal Cancer
Colorectal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In 2015, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their referral guidelines for patients suspected of having colorectal cancer. According to these guidelines, patients who are 40 years or older with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain, 50 years or older with unexplained rectal bleeding, or 60 years or older with iron deficiency anemia or change in bowel habit should be referred urgently to colorectal services for investigation. Additionally, patients who test positive for occult blood in their feces should also be referred urgently.
An urgent referral should also be considered for patients who have a rectal or abdominal mass, unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, or are under 50 years old with rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms/findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss, or iron deficiency anemia.
The NHS offers a national screening program for colorectal cancer, which involves sending eligible patients aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of fecal occult blood test that uses antibodies to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.
The FIT test is also recommended for patients with new symptoms who do not meet the 2-week criteria listed above. For example, patients who are 50 years or older with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, under 60 years old with changes in their bowel habit or iron deficiency anemia, or 60 years or older who have anemia even in the absence of iron deficiency. Early detection and treatment of colorectal cancer can significantly improve patient outcomes, making it important to follow these referral guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male came to the emergency department complaining of shortness of breath during exertion. He had no medical history to report. During the examination, a midsystolic murmur was detected, which was most audible at the left lower sternal border. The murmur became louder when the Valsalva manoeuvre was performed. An echocardiogram revealed mitral regurgitation, asymmetric hypertrophy, systolic anterior motion of the anterior mitral valve leaflet, and left ventricular outflow tract obstruction. What medication should be avoided in this patient?
Your Answer: Amiodarone
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Patients with HOCM should avoid ACE-inhibitors.
The correct answer is Ramipril. In patients with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) and left ventricular outflow tract (LVOT) obstruction, ACE inhibitors are not recommended. This is because ACE inhibitors can decrease afterload, which may exacerbate the LVOT gradient. The patient in this case has echocardiographic evidence of HOCM, including asymmetric hypertrophy, systolic anterior motion of the anterior mitral valve leaflet, and mitral regurgitation.
However, amiodarone, atenolol, disopyramide, and verapamil are all viable treatment options for HOCM.
Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a genetic disorder that affects muscle tissue and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is estimated to have a prevalence of 1 in 500. The condition is caused by defects in the genes that encode contractile proteins.
The management of HOCM involves several approaches. Amiodarone is a medication that can be used to treat the condition. Beta-blockers or verapamil may also be prescribed to alleviate symptoms. In some cases, a cardioverter defibrillator or dual chamber pacemaker may be necessary. It is important to note that certain drugs, such as nitrates, ACE-inhibitors, and inotropes, should be avoided in patients with HOCM. Additionally, endocarditis prophylaxis may be recommended, although the 2008 NICE guidelines should be consulted for specific recommendations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 12
Correct
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A 74-year-old woman is being evaluated after taking oral flucloxacillin for cellulitis in her right lower limb. The local protocol recommends using oral clindamycin as the next line of treatment. What is the most crucial side effect of clindamycin that she should be cautioned about?
Your Answer: Diarrhoea
Explanation:The use of clindamycin as a treatment is strongly linked to an increased likelihood of contracting C. difficile.
Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.
To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 13
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman presented to her GP with a 3-week history of fatigue, fever and muscle aches. A new murmur was detected in the mitral area.
Which of the following is the most suitable initial investigation?Your Answer: Blood culture
Explanation:Investigations for Infective Endocarditis: Choosing the Most Appropriate Initial Test
When a patient presents with fever and a new murmur, infective endocarditis is a likely diagnosis until proven otherwise. The most appropriate initial investigation is a blood culture, with three samples taken from different sites before starting antibiotics. Positive blood cultures are a major criterion for diagnosing infective endocarditis.
While other investigations may be useful in aiding diagnosis, they are not as specific as blood cultures. An ECG may show evidence of an aortic root abscess and its possible sequelae, such as AV block. A 24-hour ECG is helpful in diagnosing paroxysmal arrhythmias.
C-reactive protein (CRP) and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) are non-specific markers that may be raised in infective endocarditis, but also in other conditions such as infection, malignancy, and pregnancy.
In summary, when suspecting infective endocarditis, the most appropriate initial investigation is a blood culture. Other investigations may be useful in aiding diagnosis, but are not as specific as blood cultures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 14
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with an acutely red and swollen left great toe, with no history of trauma. A diagnosis of gout is suspected.
Which of the following risk factors make it most likely that the patient will develop this condition?Your Answer: Alcohol excess
Explanation:Understanding the Risk Factors for Gout
Gout is a painful condition caused by hyperuricaemia, which can be influenced by various risk factors. While the cause of hyperuricaemia is multifactorial, certain factors have been identified as predisposing individuals to gout. These include high BMI, male gender, cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, and the use of certain drugs such as diuretics. Additionally, alcohol excess, particularly from spirits and beer, has been shown to increase the risk of gout. However, eczema and smoking are not recognized as risk factors for gout. Interestingly, gout is more common in men and rare in premenopausal women, and being overweight, rather than underweight, has been proposed as a risk factor for gout. Understanding these risk factors can help individuals take steps to prevent or manage gout.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 15
Incorrect
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You assess a 75-year-old patient with a complex medical history and taking multiple medications. The patient presents with significant bilateral breast tissue growth. Which medication is the most probable cause of this condition?
Your Answer: Terbinafine
Correct Answer: Goserelin (Zoladex)
Explanation:Gynaecomastia may occur as a side effect of using GnRH agonists like goserelin for prostate cancer management. Tamoxifen can be prescribed to address gynaecomastia.
Understanding Gynaecomastia: Causes and Drug Triggers
Gynaecomastia is a medical condition that occurs when males develop an abnormal amount of breast tissue. This condition is usually caused by an increased ratio of oestrogen to androgen. It is important to differentiate the causes of galactorrhoea, which is due to the actions of prolactin on breast tissue, from those of gynaecomastia.
There are several causes of gynaecomastia, including physiological changes that occur during puberty, syndromes with androgen deficiency such as Kallman’s and Klinefelter’s, testicular failure, liver disease, testicular cancer, ectopic tumour secretion, hyperthyroidism, and haemodialysis. Additionally, certain drugs can trigger gynaecomastia, with spironolactone being the most common drug cause. Other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include cimetidine, digoxin, cannabis, finasteride, GnRH agonists like goserelin and buserelin, oestrogens, and anabolic steroids.
It is important to note that while drug-induced gynaecomastia is rare, there are still some drugs that can trigger this condition. Some of the very rare drug causes of gynaecomastia include tricyclics, isoniazid, calcium channel blockers, heroin, busulfan, and methyldopa. Understanding the causes and drug triggers of gynaecomastia can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman presents with new-onset diabetes. She has no past drug or treatment history. Her fasting blood glucose is 7.3 mmol/l. Other significant medical history included occasional diarrhoea in the last four months, for which she took repeated courses of tinidazole. She also had an episode of severe leg pain three months ago, for which she takes warfarin. She is presently very depressed, as her sister has had renal calculus surgery, which has not gone well; she is in the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) with sepsis.
What is the most appropriate next test?Your Answer: Protein C assessment
Correct Answer: Genetic study
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Various Medical Conditions
Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) 1 Syndrome: A genetic study to detect MEN 1 gene mutation on chromosome 11 is the best diagnostic test for patients with new-onset diabetes, diarrhea, and a past episode of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) who have a family history of renal calculi at a young age. This autosomal dominant disease is characterized by endocrine hyperfunction in various glands, with the parathyroid gland being the most common gland affected. Enteropancreatic tumors are the second most common, with gastrinoma and insulinoma being the two most common tumors. Glucagonoma can also occur, but rarely. Plasma glucagon and ghrelin levels are elevated in these cases.
Giardiasis: A blood test for Giardia antigen is recommended for patients with watery, sometimes foul-smelling, diarrhea that may alternate with soft, greasy stools, fatigue or malaise, abdominal cramps and bloating, gas or flatulence, nausea, and weight loss. Tinidazole should have eliminated Giardia, but if symptoms persist, a blood test for Giardia antigen can confirm the diagnosis.
Diabetes: A C-peptide assay can help distinguish type I diabetes from type II diabetes or maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY) by measuring how much of their own natural insulin a person is producing. This is useful if a patient receives insulin injections. The C-peptide assay will help clarify the cause of diabetes, but it will not help in detecting the underlying disease.
Colonoscopy: Colonoscopy is not needed for the occasional diarrhea at present.
Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT): Protein C measurement will not help in the diagnosis of DVT. DVT occurs as a rare complication of glucagonoma, and treatment for glucagonoma includes octreotide, surgery, and streptozotocin (rarely).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 17
Correct
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A 47-year-old woman visits the local clinic with her husband, who reports that his wife has been experiencing chills, night sweats, coughing up yellow phlegm, and is having difficulty answering basic questions.
Which of the following is NOT part of the scoring evaluation for community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)?Your Answer: Creatinine
Explanation:Understanding the CURB65 Score and its Criteria
The CURB65 score is a tool used to assess the severity of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) in patients. It consists of five criteria, including confusion, respiratory rate, blood pressure, age, and urea levels. However, creatinine does not play a role in this score.
While the CURB65 score helps determine the appropriate level of care for patients with CAP, it is important to note that acute kidney injury and high creatinine levels may still be independent risk factors for morbidity and mortality.
The criteria for the CURB65 score are as follows: a score of 0-1 indicates that the patient can be managed at home, a score of 2-3 suggests hospital management with close monitoring, and a score of 4-5 indicates the need for admission and observation, potentially in an intensive therapy unit.
Age greater than 65 years old is one of the defining criteria of the CURB65 score, while confusion, respiratory rate > 30 breaths per minute, and blood pressure systolic < 90 mmHg or diastolic < 60 mmHg are also included. Additionally, a blood urea nitrogen level higher than 7 mmol/l is another criterion. In summary, understanding the CURB65 score and its criteria is essential in determining the appropriate level of care for patients with CAP. However, it is important to consider other risk factors, such as creatinine levels, in predicting morbidity and mortality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 18
Correct
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A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department after experiencing syncope. He reports an increase in palpitations since starting a new medication. On examination, his ECG reveals a prolonged QT interval of 500 msec. What is the probable medication he is taking?
Your Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Prolonged QT interval syndrome can be caused by tricyclic antidepressants and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, with citalopram being particularly associated with this effect. As a result, the MHRA issued a warning on its use and reduced the maximum recommended daily dose from 80 mg to 40mg due to the dose-dependent nature of QT prolongation. Although not mandatory, some GPs may request an initial ECG before prescribing citalopram.
Understanding Long QT Syndrome
Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a genetic condition that causes delayed repolarization of the ventricles, which can lead to ventricular tachycardia and sudden death. The most common types of LQTS are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.
There are various causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital factors, drugs, and other medical conditions. Some drugs that can prolong the QT interval include amiodarone, tricyclic antidepressants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Electrolyte imbalances, acute myocardial infarction, and subarachnoid hemorrhage can also cause a prolonged QT interval.
LQTS may be picked up on routine ECG or following family screening. The symptoms and events associated with LQTS can vary depending on the type of LQTS. Long QT1 is usually associated with exertional syncope, while Long QT2 is often associated with syncope following emotional stress or exercise. Long QT3 events often occur at night or at rest.
Management of LQTS involves avoiding drugs that prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate. Beta-blockers may be used, and in high-risk cases, implantable cardioverter defibrillators may be necessary. It is important to recognize and manage LQTS to prevent sudden cardiac death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man visits his primary care physician for a routine check-up. Upon examination, an irregularly irregular heart rate is detected and confirmed to be atrial fibrillation on an ECG. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. The physician is worried about preventing stroke. What medication would be the most appropriate for this concern?
Your Answer: Warfarin
Correct Answer: Rivaroxaban
Explanation:For reducing the risk of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation (AF), the first-line anticoagulation should be a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) such as rivaroxaban. This recommendation is based on a scenario where a patient is found to have AF during a wellbeing check and requires anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Aspirin is not the correct choice as it is an antiplatelet and not an anticoagulant. While dalteparin and enoxaparin are low molecular weight heparins that are often used for VTE prophylaxis, DOACs are preferred first-line for stroke risk reduction in AF. Patients often prefer DOACs as they are available in tablet form.
NICE recommends using the CHA2DS2-VASc score to determine the need for anticoagulation in patients with any history of AF. The ORBIT scoring system should be used to assess bleeding risk, but anticoagulation should not be withheld solely on the grounds of age or risk of falls. DOACs are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF, with warfarin used second-line if a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 20
Correct
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A 20-year-old woman presents with complaints of malaise, tiredness, headache and abdominal discomfort over the past 3–4 days. She was prescribed amoxicillin two days ago and has developed a rash. She has lymphadenopathy and exudative tonsillitis. Her white cell count shows abnormal lymphocytosis.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Infectious mononucleosis
Explanation:Common Viral Infections: Symptoms and Characteristics
Infectious mononucleosis, also known as the kissing disease, is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus and is characterized by fever, pharyngitis, and adenopathy. It is primarily transmitted through intimate contact with body secretions, particularly oropharyngeal secretions. Pharyngitis is caused by the proliferation of infected B lymphocytes in the lymphatic tissue of the oropharynx. It is most common in young adults and can be mistaken for streptococcal pharyngitis.
German measles, or rubella, is a communicable exanthematous disease that is generally benign. However, pregnant women who contract the disease in the early weeks of gestation can experience teratogenic effects. The exanthema of rubella consists of a rose-pink maculopapular rash that starts on the face and neck and spreads to the trunk and extremities within 24 hours. It typically fades by the end of the third day.
Chickenpox is a childhood illness caused by the varicella-zoster virus. It is characterized by a vesicular exanthem and is typically self-limited and mild.
Herpes simplex viruses are host-adapted pathogens that cause a wide variety of disease states. HSV-1 is associated with orofacial disease, while HSV-2 is associated with genital disease. Oropharyngeal HSV-1 infection causes pharyngitis and tonsillitis more often than gingivostomatitis. Herpes labialis, or cold sores, is the most common manifestation of recurrent HSV-1 infection.
Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection is prevalent in developed countries, with at least 60% of the population having been exposed. It typically causes an asymptomatic infection or produces mild flu-like symptoms, with few clinical findings on physical examination. High-risk groups, such as fetuses whose mothers become infected during pregnancy or people with HIV, are more susceptible to severe complications.
Overview of Common Viral Infections and Their Characteristics
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 21
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman has confirmed menopause. She is considering HRT (hormone replacement therapy).
Which of the following conditions has an increased risk of association with oestrogen-only HRT?Your Answer: Endometrial cancer
Explanation:Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves administering synthetic oestrogen and progestogen to women experiencing menopausal symptoms. HRT can be given as local (creams, pessaries, rings) or systemic therapy (oral drugs, transdermal patches and gels, implants) and may contain oestrogen alone, combined oestrogen and progestogen, selective oestrogen receptor modulator, or gonadomimetics. The average age for menopause is around 50-51 years, and symptoms include hot flushes, insomnia, weight gain, mood changes, and irregular menses. HRT should be initiated at the lowest possible dosage and titrated based on clinical response. However, HRT is not recommended for women who have undergone hysterectomy due to the risk of endometrial hyperplasia, a precursor to endometrial cancer. HRT may also increase the risk of breast cancer and heart attacks, and non-hormonal options should be considered for menopausal effects in women who have previously had breast cancer. There is no evidence to suggest that HRT is associated with an increased or decreased risk of developing cervical cancer, and observational studies of systemic HRT after breast cancer are generally reassuring. Oestrogen is believed to be a growth factor that enhances cholinergic neurotransmission and prevents oxidative cell damage, neuronal atrophy, and glucocorticoid-induced neuronal damage, which may help prevent dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 22
Correct
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A mother brings her 10-month-old child to surgery, worried that he is not meeting developmental milestones compared to her friends' children. Upon observation, the child is able to sit without support but shows minimal interest in exploring his surroundings. He has a basic pincer grip, seems hesitant to engage with others, and only says mama. How would you describe his developmental progress?
Your Answer: Normal development
Explanation:Common Developmental Problems and Possible Causes
Developmental problems can manifest in various ways, including referral points such as not smiling at 10 weeks, inability to sit unsupported at 12 months, and failure to walk at 18 months. Fine motor skill problems may also arise, such as abnormal hand preference before 12 months, which could indicate cerebral palsy. Gross motor problems are often caused by a variant of normal, cerebral palsy, or neuromuscular disorders like Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Speech and language problems should always be checked for hearing issues, as they can also be caused by environmental deprivation or general development delay.
It is important to recognize these developmental problems early on and seek appropriate interventions to address them. By doing so, children can receive the necessary support to reach their full potential and overcome any challenges they may face. With proper care and attention, many children with developmental problems can go on to lead happy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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At the 4-month check, you observe bilateral hydroceles in a male infant. The swelling is limited to the scrotum and the testis can be felt in the scrotal sac. The infant is otherwise healthy and thriving. The mother expresses concern about the potential impact of the swelling on her son's fertility.
What is the best course of action for managing this situation?Your Answer: Urgent referral to urology
Correct Answer: Reassure mum that hydroceles are common in infants and often self resolve
Explanation:It is common for newborn males to have communicating hydroceles, which usually resolve on their own. This is due to the processus vaginalis remaining open. Parents should be reassured that the hydroceles typically disappear within a few months. However, if the hydrocele persists beyond one year, it is recommended to refer the child to a urologist for possible repair. Ultrasound is not necessary to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that hydroceles do not impact fertility, but undescended testes can affect fertility if not treated.
Common Scrotal Problems and Their Features
Epididymal cysts, hydroceles, and varicoceles are the most common scrotal problems seen in primary care. Epididymal cysts are usually found posterior to the testicle and are separate from the body of the testicle. They may be associated with conditions such as polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, and von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Diagnosis is confirmed by ultrasound, and management is usually supportive, although surgical removal or sclerotherapy may be attempted for larger or symptomatic cysts.
Hydroceles, on the other hand, describe the accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. They may be communicating or non-communicating, and may develop secondary to conditions such as epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors. Hydroceles are usually soft, non-tender swellings of the hemi-scrotum that transilluminate with a pen torch. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated. Management depends on the severity of the presentation, with infantile hydroceles generally repaired if they do not resolve spontaneously by the age of 1-2 years.
Varicoceles, on the other hand, are abnormal enlargements of the testicular veins that are usually asymptomatic but may be associated with subfertility. They are much more common on the left side and are classically described as a bag of worms. Diagnosis is confirmed by ultrasound with Doppler studies, and management is usually conservative, although surgery may be required if the patient is troubled by pain. There is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery to treat infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female presents to the ENT specialists with a 1-month-history of severe otalgia, temporal headaches, and purulent otorrhoea. She has a medical history of type one diabetes mellitus and no allergies. On examination, the left external auditory canal and periauricular soft tissue are erythematous and tender. What is the most suitable antibiotic treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Vancomycin
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:For patients with diabetes who present with otitis externa, it is important to consider the possibility of malignant otitis externa, which is a severe bacterial infection that can spread to the bony ear canal and cause osteomyelitis. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most common cause of this condition, so treatment should involve coverage for this bacteria. Intravenous ciprofloxacin is the preferred antibiotic for this purpose. It is also important to note that diabetic patients with non-malignant otitis externa should also be treated with ciprofloxacin due to their increased risk of developing malignant otitis externa. Clarithromycin and flucloxacillin are not appropriate choices for this condition, and leaving the infection untreated can lead to serious complications.
Malignant Otitis Externa: A Rare but Serious Infection
Malignant otitis externa is a type of ear infection that is uncommon but can be serious. It is typically found in individuals who are immunocompromised, with 90% of cases occurring in diabetics. The infection starts in the soft tissues of the external auditory meatus and can progress to involve the soft tissues and bony ear canal, eventually leading to temporal bone osteomyelitis.
When diagnosing malignant otitis externa, doctors will typically perform a CT scan. Key features in a patient’s medical history include diabetes or immunosuppression, severe and unrelenting ear pain, temporal headaches, and purulent otorrhea. In some cases, patients may also experience dysphagia, hoarseness, and/or facial nerve dysfunction.
If a patient presents with non-resolving otitis externa and worsening pain, they should be referred urgently to an ear, nose, and throat specialist. Treatment typically involves intravenous antibiotics that cover pseudomonal infections.
Overall, while malignant otitis externa is rare, it is important to be aware of its symptoms and risk factors, particularly in immunocompromised individuals. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent the infection from progressing and causing more serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 25
Correct
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A 64-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of worsening dyspnea. Upon taking a detailed medical history and conducting a thorough physical examination, the GP orders an outpatient chest CT scan. The results reveal lung fibrosis as the likely cause of the patient's symptoms. The patient has a medical history of gout and rheumatoid arthritis. Which medication prescribed to the patient is most likely responsible for causing lung fibrosis?
Your Answer: Sulfasalazine
Explanation:Drugs that can lead to lung fibrosis
Lung fibrosis is a condition where the lung tissue becomes scarred and thickened, making it difficult for the lungs to function properly. There are several drugs that can cause lung fibrosis as a side effect. These drugs include amiodarone, which is used to treat heart rhythm problems, cytotoxic agents such as busulphan and bleomycin, which are used to treat cancer, and anti-rheumatoid drugs like methotrexate and sulfasalazine. Nitrofurantoin, an antibiotic used to treat urinary tract infections, and ergot-derived dopamine receptor agonists like bromocriptine, cabergoline, and pergolide, which are used to treat Parkinson’s disease, can also cause lung fibrosis. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of these drugs and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider. Proper monitoring and management can help prevent or minimize the risk of lung fibrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 26
Correct
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A 6-week-old baby is brought in by his first-time mother concerned about a flaky/scaly rash on his scalp.
Which of the following is the diagnosis?Your Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis
Explanation:Understanding Infantile Seborrhoeic Dermatitis (Cradle Cap)
Infantile seborrhoeic dermatitis, commonly known as cradle cap, is a condition that typically affects infants between the second week of life and the sixth month. It presents as a yellow scaly/flaky rash on the scalp, but can also affect other areas such as the ears, neck, face, and napkin area. While the condition is not harmful, it can be unsightly and uncomfortable for the infant.
Management of cradle cap involves simple measures such as regular washing of the scalp with baby shampoo, softening of scales with baby oil or soaking the crusts overnight with white petroleum jelly, then shampooing in the morning. If these measures are not effective, topical imidazole cream can be used.
It is important to note that cradle cap is not a fungal infection, eczema, erythema toxicum neonatorum (ETN), or scalp psoriasis. These conditions have different presentations and require different management strategies. Understanding the differences between these conditions can help parents and caregivers provide appropriate care for their infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 27
Correct
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A 55-year-old man with a history of cytomegalovirus infection presented to the ED complaining of blurred vision, light sensitivity, floaters, and redness in his right eye for the past two weeks. Upon fundus examination, a combination of white and red retinal lesions were observed. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Chorioretinitis
Explanation:Chorioretinitis can be identified through a pizza pie appearance on fundoscopy. This occurs when the choroid and retina become inflamed, typically in patients with cytomegalovirus. It is important to note that anterior uveitis will not show any fundal signs. While floaters may suggest retinal detachment, it does not present as a pizza pie appearance on fundoscopy.
Causes of Chorioretinitis
Chorioretinitis is a medical condition that affects the retina and choroid, which are the layers of tissue at the back of the eye. There are several causes of chorioretinitis, including syphilis, cytomegalovirus, toxoplasmosis, sarcoidosis, and tuberculosis.
Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. It can cause chorioretinitis as part of its secondary stage. Cytomegalovirus is a common virus that can cause chorioretinitis in people with weakened immune systems, such as those with HIV/AIDS. Toxoplasmosis is a parasitic infection that can be contracted from contaminated food or water, and it can cause chorioretinitis in some cases.
Sarcoidosis is a condition that causes inflammation in various parts of the body, including the eyes. It can lead to chorioretinitis in some cases. Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can affect the lungs, but it can also spread to other parts of the body, including the eyes. It can cause chorioretinitis as a rare complication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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The action of warfarin is characterized by which of the following statements?
Your Answer: It increases vitamin K-dependent clotting factors
Correct Answer: It interacts with miconazole to increase anticoagulant effect
Explanation:Warfarin, a medication used to prevent blood clots, can interact with other drugs and have various effects on the body. For example, certain antimicrobial agents can increase the risk of bleeding in patients taking warfarin, including azole antifungals, macrolides, quinolones, co-trimoxazole, penicillins, and cephalosporins. Miconazole, in particular, can greatly enhance the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Warfarin works by blocking the action of vitamin K epoxide reductase, which reactivates vitamin K1. This decreases the clotting ability of certain factors in the blood. However, warfarin can also have negative effects, such as warfarin necrosis, a rare but serious complication that can lead to skin necrosis and limb gangrene. When taking warfarin, it is important to consider drug interactions, such as displacement from protein-binding sites or enzyme inhibition or induction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Given that PKU is an autosomal-recessive condition that can be diagnosed at birth or in adolescence and adulthood, a teenager seeks genetic counselling. His mother and brother have PKU, while his father is a carrier but does not have the disease. The teenager himself does not have PKU. What is the probability that he is a carrier of the disease?
Your Answer: 50%
Correct Answer: 100%
Explanation:Understanding Autosomal-Recessive Inheritance and Phenylketonuria (PKU)
Autosomal-recessive diseases require both parents to carry the gene, with one parent having the disease and the other being a carrier. In the case of Phenylketonuria (PKU), a specific enzyme deficiency leads to the accumulation of phenylalanine and a deficiency of tyrosine, resulting in reduced melanin and pigmented areas of the brain being affected. PKU is tested for at birth using the Guthrie test and can be treated by removing phenylalanine from the diet.
In the given scenario, the teenager’s mother has the disease and his father is a carrier. This means there is a 100% chance that the teenager has at least one abnormal copy of the gene, making him a carrier. It is important to understand the inheritance pattern of autosomal-recessive diseases to identify carriers and prevent mental retardation in affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old man presents to the emergency department after experiencing syncope. Upon assessment, his respiratory rate is 20/min, heart rate is 170/min, and BP is 78/40 mmHg. An ECG reveals a regular tachycardia with a wide complex. The patient is given a peripheral venous line, blood is drawn, and an ECG monitor is attached. What is the next best course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer: Intravenous fluid bolus
Correct Answer: DC cardioversion
Explanation:Given the patient’s syncope, low BP, and regular wide complex tachycardia, which is likely to be ventricular tachycardia, the appropriate next step is DC cardioversion since the systolic BP is below 90 mmHg. Adenosine is not relevant in this scenario as it is used for managing narrow complex regular tachycardia with no adverse features. Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic medication that could be used to treat ventricular tachycardia, but it is not appropriate in this case due to the patient’s syncope and low BP.
Management of Peri-Arrest Tachycardias
The Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines for the management of peri-arrest tachycardias have been simplified in the 2015 update. The previous separate algorithms for broad-complex tachycardia, narrow complex tachycardia, and atrial fibrillation have been replaced by a unified treatment algorithm. After basic ABC assessment, patients are classified as stable or unstable based on the presence of adverse signs such as hypotension, pallor, sweating, confusion, or impaired consciousness. If any of these signs are present, synchronised DC shocks should be given, up to a maximum of three shocks.
The treatment following this is based on whether the QRS complex is narrow or broad and whether the rhythm is regular or irregular. For broad-complex tachycardia, a loading dose of amiodarone followed by a 24-hour infusion is given if the rhythm is regular. If the rhythm is irregular, expert help should be sought as it could be due to atrial fibrillation with bundle branch block, atrial fibrillation with ventricular pre-excitation, or torsade de pointes.
For narrow-complex tachycardia, vagal manoeuvres followed by IV adenosine are given if the rhythm is regular. If unsuccessful, atrial flutter is considered, and rate control is achieved with beta-blockers. If the rhythm is irregular, it is likely due to atrial fibrillation, and electrical or chemical cardioversion is considered if the onset is less than 48 hours. Beta-blockers are usually the first-line treatment for rate control unless contraindicated. The full treatment algorithm can be found on the Resuscitation Council website.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 3-month-old baby boy is brought to the hospital with suspected meningitis. His parents report that he has been feverish and lethargic for the past day. During the examination, his temperature is recorded as 39.5ºC, heart rate is 165/min, and respiratory rate is 52/min. The anterior fontanelle is visibly swollen, but no petechial rash is observed. Apart from cefotaxime, what other intravenous antibiotic should be administered?
Your Answer: Gentamicin
Correct Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:To ensure coverage for Listeria, it is recommended to administer IV amoxicillin along with cefotaxime when treating meningitis in children under 3 months of age.
Investigation and Management of Meningitis in Children
Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children. When investigating meningitis, it is important to note any contraindications to lumbar puncture, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, focal neurological signs, papilloedema, significant bulging of the fontanelle, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or signs of cerebral herniation. For patients with meningococcal septicaemia, a lumbar puncture is contraindicated, and blood cultures and PCR for meningococcus should be obtained instead.
The management of meningitis in children involves administering antibiotics, such as IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) and IV cefotaxime for children under three months, and IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) for children over three months. Steroids should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals certain findings, such as purulent cerebrospinal fluid, a high white blood cell count, or bacteria on Gram stain. Fluids should be administered to treat shock, and cerebral monitoring should be conducted, including mechanical ventilation if necessary.
It is also important to notify public health authorities and administer antibiotic prophylaxis to contacts. Ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin for this purpose. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of meningitis in children is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits her GP with a breast lump. The lump is painless and she reports first noticing it 3 weeks ago. During examination, a hard, non-mobile lump measuring 2cm x 2cm is detected in the upper, outer quadrant of her right breast. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Provide the patient with a fibroadenoma patient information leaflet and give worsening advice
Correct Answer: Urgent suspected cancer referral to the breast team
Explanation:If a woman over the age of 30 presents with an unexplained breast lump, it is important to refer her urgently to the breast team using a suspected cancer pathway referral. It is important to inform the patient that they are being referred to a cancer service, but also explain that not all referrals to cancer services result in a cancer diagnosis. It is incorrect to perform a biopsy as an initial investigation, as this will be done in secondary care. While fibroadenoma is a common cause of breast lumps in young women, urgent referral to the breast team is necessary to rule out cancer in patients over 30 years old. It is not appropriate to schedule a GP review in 2 weeks, as this lump needs prompt investigation by the breast team.
In 2015, NICE released guidelines for referring individuals suspected of having breast cancer. If a person is 30 years or older and has an unexplained breast lump with or without pain, or if they are 50 years or older and have discharge, retraction, or other concerning changes in one nipple only, they should be referred using a suspected cancer pathway referral for an appointment within two weeks. If a person has skin changes that suggest breast cancer or is 30 years or older with an unexplained lump in the axilla, a suspected cancer pathway referral should also be considered. For individuals under 30 years old with an unexplained breast lump with or without pain, non-urgent referral should be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department after being hit on the side of his head by a cricket ball during a match. According to his teacher, he initially fell to the ground and complained of a sore head. However, he got up after two minutes, claimed to feel fine, and resumed playing. Unfortunately, after 30 minutes, he suddenly collapsed and lost consciousness. What kind of injury is he likely to have suffered?
Your Answer: Subdural haematoma
Correct Answer: Extradural haematoma
Explanation:Extradural (epidural) hematoma – Head injury with a lucid interval
Types of Traumatic Brain Injury
Traumatic brain injury can result in primary and secondary brain injury. Primary brain injury can be focal or diffuse. Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing, which causes disruption and tearing of axons. Intra-cranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural, or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to or contralateral to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury. The normal cerebral auto regulatory processes are disrupted following trauma rendering the brain more susceptible to blood flow changes and hypoxia. The Cushings reflex often occurs late and is usually a pre-terminal event.
Extradural haematoma is bleeding into the space between the dura mater and the skull. It often results from acceleration-deceleration trauma or a blow to the side of the head. The majority of epidural haematomas occur in the temporal region where skull fractures cause a rupture of the middle meningeal artery. Subdural haematoma is bleeding into the outermost meningeal layer. It most commonly occurs around the frontal and parietal lobes. Risk factors include old age, alcoholism, and anticoagulation. Subarachnoid haemorrhage classically causes a sudden occipital headache. It usually occurs spontaneously in the context of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm but may be seen in association with other injuries when a patient has sustained a traumatic brain injury. Intracerebral haematoma is a collection of blood within the substance of the brain. Causes/risk factors include hypertension, vascular lesion, cerebral amyloid angiopathy, trauma, brain tumour, or infarct. Patients will present similarly to an ischaemic stroke or with a decrease in consciousness. CT imaging will show a hyperdensity within the substance of the brain. Treatment is often conservative under the care of stroke physicians, but large clots in patients with impaired consciousness may warrant surgical evacuation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 30-year-old woman who has been admitted under Section 2 of the Mental Health Act. She has a history of depression and was recently referred for a Mental Health Act assessment because her family were concerned about her. She has been talking about her insides rotting and believes that she is going to die in her sleep. She cannot be convinced otherwise. She is not eating, barely drinking and lacks energy, concentration and motivation. Just prior to the Assessment she used a biro pen to cut into her forearm to 'prove that there is nothing inside that will bleed', and this required reconstructive surgery.
She is admitted to a psychiatric hospital and is commenced on an SSRI and an antipsychotic. One week into her admission the nurses call you because she is scoring highly on the Early Warning Score.
On examination you find Sarah to be confused. She has a temperature of 39ºC and is sweating. Her heart rate is 130 beats/min and her blood pressure is 80/50 mmHg. She complains of muscle stiffness but is not sure when this began. Cogwheel rigidity is present.
Urgent blood tests reveal the following:
Hb 155 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 200 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 18 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Creatine Kinase 2032 9/L (32-294)
Na+ 135 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.9 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 3.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 118 µmol/L (55 - 120)
What is the likely cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: Sepsis secondary to forearm wound
Correct Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Explanation:Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a severe reaction that can occur in response to antipsychotic medication and can be life-threatening. The patient is exhibiting symptoms consistent with NMS, including muscle rigidity and elevated creatine kinase levels. Amphetamine intoxication is an unlikely cause as there is no history of drug use and the patient is under Section 2 of the MHA. Encephalitis and sepsis are important differential diagnoses to consider, but cogwheel rigidity would not be expected in encephalitis and sepsis would not typically cause muscle rigidity or elevated creatine kinase levels.
Understanding Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but serious condition that can occur in patients taking antipsychotic medication. It can also happen with dopaminergic drugs used for Parkinson’s disease. The exact cause of this condition is unknown, but it is believed that dopamine blockade induced by antipsychotics triggers massive glutamate release, leading to neurotoxicity and muscle damage. Symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome typically appear within hours to days of starting an antipsychotic and include fever, muscle rigidity, autonomic lability, and agitated delirium with confusion.
A raised creatine kinase is present in most cases, and acute kidney injury may develop in severe cases. Management of neuroleptic malignant syndrome involves stopping the antipsychotic medication and transferring the patient to a medical ward or intensive care unit. Intravenous fluids may be given to prevent renal failure, and dantrolene or bromocriptine may be used in selected cases. It is important to differentiate neuroleptic malignant syndrome from serotonin syndrome, which has similar symptoms but is caused by excessive serotonin activity.
In summary, neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but potentially life-threatening condition that can occur in patients taking antipsychotic medication or dopaminergic drugs. Early recognition and management are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 35
Correct
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A 67-year-old man presents for a review of his chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. He reports experiencing constant shortness of breath during physical activity, which has remained stable over the past year. He has a history of asbestos exposure and is currently under the care of a respiratory physician. During the examination, no abnormalities are detected, but a chest X-ray reveals the presence of pleural plaques. The patient expresses concern that these plaques may develop into cancer. What advice do you offer this patient regarding his test results?
Your Answer: Benign and do not require follow-up
Explanation:Pleural plaques are benign and do not develop into cancerous growths, so there is no need for any follow-up. These plaques are the most common form of lung disease caused by asbestos exposure, but they do not increase the risk of lung cancer or mesothelioma. While ongoing monitoring of the patient’s lung disease is recommended, there is no need to specifically monitor the pleural plaques. It is important to note that pleural plaques are a sign of past asbestos exposure, which could increase the risk of mesothelioma, but the plaques themselves are not a cause for concern. Therefore, the patient does not require a specialist referral for the pleural plaques alone. However, if the patient experiences worsening shortness of breath or frequent exacerbations, a specialist referral may be necessary to assess for disease progression or malignancy.
Asbestos-Related Lung Diseases
Asbestos exposure can lead to various lung diseases, ranging from benign pleural plaques to malignant mesothelioma. Pleural plaques are non-cancerous and do not require any follow-up, but they are the most common form of asbestos-related lung disease and typically appear after a latent period of 20-40 years. Asbestos exposure may also cause diffuse pleural thickening, which is similar to the pattern seen after an empyema or haemothorax, but the underlying pathophysiology is not fully understood.
Asbestosis is a lung disease that is related to the length of exposure to asbestos. It causes lower lobe fibrosis and is typically characterized by dyspnea, reduced exercise tolerance, clubbing, bilateral end-inspiratory crackles, and a restrictive pattern with reduced gas transfer on lung function tests. Asbestosis is treated conservatively, as no interventions offer significant benefits. The latent period for asbestosis is typically 15-30 years.
Mesothelioma is a malignant disease of the pleura that is caused by asbestos exposure, with crocidolite (blue) asbestos being the most dangerous form. Possible features of mesothelioma include progressive shortness-of-breath, chest pain, and pleural effusion. Patients are usually offered palliative chemotherapy, and there is a limited role for surgery and radiotherapy. Unfortunately, the prognosis for mesothelioma is very poor, with a median survival from diagnosis of 8-14 months.
Although mesothelioma is often associated with asbestos exposure, lung cancer is actually the most common form of cancer related to asbestos exposure. It has a synergistic effect with cigarette smoke, which increases the risk of developing lung cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 36
Incorrect
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What is a factor that leads to cyanotic congenital heart disease?
Your Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus
Correct Answer: Transposition of the great arteries
Explanation:Congenital heart disease can be categorized into two types: acyanotic and cyanotic. Acyanotic heart diseases are more common and include ventricular septal defects (VSD), atrial septal defect (ASD), patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), coarctation of the aorta, and aortic valve stenosis. VSD is the most common acyanotic heart disease, accounting for 30% of cases. ASDs are less common than VSDs, but they are more frequently diagnosed in adult patients as they tend to present later. On the other hand, cyanotic heart diseases are less common and include tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries (TGA), and tricuspid atresia. Fallot’s is more common than TGA, but TGA is the more common lesion at birth as patients with Fallot’s generally present at around 1-2 months. The presence of cyanosis in pulmonary valve stenosis depends on the severity and any other coexistent defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 37
Correct
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A 32-year-old male patient comes in for mole removal. Which areas of the body are more prone to developing keloid scars?
Your Answer: Sternum
Explanation:Understanding Keloid Scars
Keloid scars are abnormal growths that develop from the connective tissue of a scar and extend beyond the boundaries of the original wound. They are more common in people with dark skin and tend to occur in young adults. Keloids are most frequently found on the sternum, shoulder, neck, face, extensor surface of limbs, and trunk.
To prevent keloid scars, incisions should be made along relaxed skin tension lines. However, if keloids do develop, early treatment with intra-lesional steroids such as triamcinolone may be effective. In some cases, excision may be necessary, but this should be approached with caution as it can potentially lead to further keloid scarring.
It is important to note that the historical use of Langer lines to determine optimal incision lines has been shown to produce worse cosmetic results than following skin tension lines. Understanding the predisposing factors and treatment options for keloid scars can help individuals make informed decisions about their care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl comes to see her doctor because she has not yet begun menstruating. During the physical examination, you observe that she has a short stature and a webbed neck. What would you anticipate hearing when listening to her heart?
Your Answer: Pansystolic murmur
Correct Answer: Ejection systolic murmur
Explanation:The ejection systolic murmur present in this patient is likely due to her Turner’s syndrome, which is associated with a bicuspid aortic valve. A continuous machinery murmur, late systolic murmur, and mid-late diastolic murmur are less likely causes, as they are associated with different conditions that are not commonly seen in patients with Turner’s syndrome.
Understanding Turner’s Syndrome
Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is denoted as 45,XO or 45,X.
The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s syndrome, and there is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune thyroiditis) and Crohn’s disease.
In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and can cause a range of physical features and health issues. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 39
Correct
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A 63-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer complains of worsening dyspnea. She is undergoing chemotherapy treatment. During the physical examination, a third heart sound is heard and the apex beat is displaced to the anterior axillary line in the 6th intercostal space. Which chemotherapy drug is most likely causing these symptoms?
Your Answer: Doxorubicin
Explanation:Cardiomyopathy can be caused by anthracyclines such as doxorubicin.
Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin, degrade preformed DNA and can lead to lung fibrosis. Anthracyclines, such as doxorubicin, stabilize the DNA-topoisomerase II complex and inhibit DNA and RNA synthesis, but can also cause cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, like methotrexate, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, leading to myelosuppression, mucositis, liver fibrosis, and lung fibrosis. Fluorouracil (5-FU) is a pyrimidine analogue that induces cell cycle arrest and apoptosis by blocking thymidylate synthase, but can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and dermatitis. Cytarabine is a pyrimidine antagonist that interferes with DNA synthesis specifically at the S-phase of the cell cycle and inhibits DNA polymerase, but can also cause myelosuppression and ataxia. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and vinblastine, inhibit the formation of microtubules and can cause peripheral neuropathy, paralytic ileus, and myelosuppression. Docetaxel prevents microtubule depolymerisation and disassembly, decreasing free tubulin, but can also cause neutropaenia. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA, but can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin, cause cross-linking in DNA and can lead to ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, and hypomagnesaemia. Hydroxyurea (hydroxycarbamide) inhibits ribonucleotide reductase, decreasing DNA synthesis, but can also cause myelosuppression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old child presents to the emergency department with a 3 day history of left knee pain and irritability. The child had recently recovered from a viral respiratory tract infection and is currently asymptomatic and without fever. Upon examination, the joint is painful to move but not hot or red, and the child is able to bear weight. Laboratory results reveal a hemoglobin level of 140 g/L (male: 135-180, female: 115-160), platelet count of 450 * 109/L (150-400), white cell count of 11.5 * 109/L (4.0-11.0), CRP of 29 mg/L (<5), and ESR of 32 mm/hr (0-10). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Septic arthritis
Correct Answer: Transient synovitis
Explanation:Understanding Septic Arthritis in Children
Septic arthritis is a condition that affects children and can lead to permanent joint damage and systemic infection if not treated promptly. It has an incidence of around 4-5 per 100,000 children and is more common in boys, with a M:F ratio of 2:1. The hip, knee, and ankle are the most commonly affected joints. Symptoms of septic arthritis include joint pain, limp, fever, and lethargy. Signs of the condition include a swollen and red joint, with minimal movement possible.
To diagnose septic arthritis, joint aspiration is necessary to culture the affected area. This will show a raised white blood cell count. Inflammatory markers in the blood will also be raised, and blood cultures will be taken. The Kocher criteria are used to diagnose septic arthritis and include a fever of over 38.5 degrees Celsius, non-weight bearing, raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), and raised white cell count (WCC).
Understanding septic arthritis in children is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment to reduce the risk of permanent joint damage and systemic infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 41
Correct
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A 25-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of an itchy rash on both his wrists that has been present for 1 week. Upon examination, the doctor notes small purplish papules on the flexural aspect of both wrists with a flat top and small white lines on the surface. The patient also has areas of hyperpigmentation on the inner aspect of his elbows. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms and medical history suggest a diagnosis of lichen planus, a skin condition with an unknown cause that is likely immune-mediated. The rash is typically itchy and appears as papules with a shiny, purplish color in areas such as the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and may have white lines known as Wickham’s striae. Over time, the papules flatten and are replaced by hyperpigmentation. Oral involvement is common, with a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Management usually involves topical steroids, but more severe cases may require oral steroids or immunosuppressants. Atopic eczema, irritant eczema, molluscum contagiosum, and psoriasis are different skin conditions that do not fit the patient’s symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 42
Correct
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A 68-year-old man presents with intermittent dull abdominal pain for the past few weeks. He reports no weight loss but has had one episode of dark, foul-smelling stool in the past week. On examination, he appears well and all vital signs are within normal limits. A rectal exam is unremarkable. Laboratory tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 112 g/L (normal range for males: 135-180 g/L), a hematocrit of 0.38 L/L (normal range: 0.37-0.49 L/L), a mean cell volume of 70 fL (normal range: 80-101 fL), a mean cell hemoglobin of 28 pg (normal range: 27-34 pg), a platelet count of 165 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L), and a white blood cell count of 6.4 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L). What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer: Refer on 2 week wait pathway
Explanation:Microcytic Anaemia: Causes and Considerations
Microcytic anaemia is a condition characterized by small red blood cells and low haemoglobin levels. There are several possible causes of microcytic anaemia, including iron-deficiency anaemia, thalassaemia, congenital sideroblastic anaemia, and lead poisoning. It is important to note that while anaemia of chronic disease can also present with microcytosis, it typically appears as a normocytic, normochromic picture.
In some cases, a normal haemoglobin level may be observed alongside microcytosis. This can be a red flag for polycythaemia rubra vera, which can cause iron-deficiency secondary to bleeding. Additionally, new onset microcytic anaemia in elderly patients should be investigated promptly to rule out underlying malignancy. It is worth noting that in beta-thalassaemia minor, the microcytosis may be disproportionate to the anaemia.
Overall, understanding the potential causes and considerations of microcytic anaemia is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman contacts the endocrinology nurse seeking advice. She has been experiencing vomiting for the past 24 hours and has been unable to take her regular medications due to this. She has a medical history of Addison's disease and usually takes oral hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. She denies any other symptoms apart from reduced oral intake and has not experienced dizziness on standing, blackouts, or diarrhea. Her temperature has been normal. She has IM hydrocortisone available at home. What is the most appropriate advice to give regarding her hydrocortisone?
Your Answer: Adviser her to take IM hydrocortisone only if starting to feel faint or experiencing postural symptoms
Correct Answer: Advise her to take the IM hydrocortisone at home whilst vomiting
Explanation:If a person with Addison’s disease experiences vomiting and is unable to take their regular oral hydrocortisone, they should be administered IM hydrocortisone until the vomiting subsides. This is crucial to prevent an Addisonian crisis. It is recommended that all patients with Addison’s disease have access to IM hydrocortisone in case of such situations. In case of systemic involvement, hospitalization for IV fluids and IV hydrocortisone may be necessary.
Addison’s disease is a condition that requires patients to undergo both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy. This treatment usually involves taking a combination of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. Hydrocortisone is typically given in 2 or 3 divided doses, with patients requiring 20-30 mg per day, mostly in the first half of the day. Patient education is crucial, and it is essential to emphasize the importance of not missing glucocorticoid doses. Additionally, patients should consider wearing MedicAlert bracelets and steroid cards, and they should be provided with hydrocortisone for injection with needles and syringes to treat an adrenal crisis.
During an intercurrent illness, it is crucial to manage the glucocorticoid dose properly. In simple terms, the glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, while the fludrocortisone dose should remain the same. The Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel has produced guidelines that detail specific scenarios, and patients should refer to these guidelines for more information. It is essential to discuss how to adjust the glucocorticoid dose during an intercurrent illness with a healthcare professional. Proper management of Addison’s disease is crucial to ensure that patients can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman complains of right elbow discomfort for a few weeks. Upon examination, there is tenderness on the lateral aspect of the forearm and pain on passive extension of the wrist, with the elbow fully extended. What is the most probable cause?
Your Answer: Olecranon bursitis
Correct Answer: Tennis elbow
Explanation:Tennis elbow is inflammation of the wrist extensor tendon at the insertion site into the lateral epicondyle, causing elbow pain that radiates down the forearm. Cubital tunnel syndrome is compression of the ulnar nerve at the elbow, causing sensory changes and weakness of hand muscles. Carpal tunnel syndrome is compression of the median nerve at the wrist, causing paraesthesia and motor deficits in the first three digits. Golfer’s elbow is inflammation of the wrist flexor tendon at the site of insertion into the medial epicondyle, causing elbow pain that radiates into the forearm. Olecranon bursitis is inflammation of the bursa overlying the olecranon process, causing a swelling that may be tender or painless.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 45
Correct
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A 28-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with a 3-month history of a non-productive cough, dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain, especially when climbing stairs. She reports intermittent fevers of up to 39°C and a 3.5-kg weight loss. She complains of wrist and ankle pain that has interfered with her work. She smokes two packets of cigarettes per day. Her full blood count is normal and serum ANA is negative. On examination there are red nodules over her lower legs.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Sarcoidosis
Explanation:Sarcoidosis is a condition where non-caseating granulomata develop in at least two organs, causing systemic inflammation. It is most common in African-Caribbean women and often affects the lungs, causing symptoms such as dry cough, dyspnea, and weight loss. Erythema nodosum is also frequently seen in patients with sarcoidosis. Histoplasmosis, Goodpasture’s syndrome, adenocarcinoma of the lung, and systemic lupus erythematosus are all possible differential diagnoses, but the absence of specific features makes sarcoidosis more likely in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 46
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman is diagnosed with breast cancer. After undergoing a wide local excision, it is discovered that the tumour is oestrogen-receptor positive. To lower the risk of recurrence, she is prescribed tamoxifen as adjuvant treatment. What is the most probable adverse effect she may encounter?
Your Answer: Hot flushes
Explanation:Hot flushes are a common side effect of tamoxifen, a medication used to treat oestrogen-receptor positive breast cancer by selectively blocking oestrogen receptors. Other side effects are similar to those experienced during menopause due to the systemic blockade of oestrogen receptors. Tamoxifen does not cause deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in itself, but patients taking it are at a higher risk of developing DVT during periods of immobility. Patients with a personal or family history of unprovoked thromboembolism should not start tamoxifen treatment. Tamoxifen increases the risk of developing endometrial cancer over time, but the risk is still lower than that of experiencing hot flushes. Hair thinning, rather than hair loss, is a possible side effect of tamoxifen. Tamoxifen may also cause headaches, including migraines, but this occurs less frequently than hot flushes.
Tamoxifen: A SERM for Breast Cancer Management
Tamoxifen is a medication that belongs to the class of Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulators (SERMs). It works by acting as an antagonist to the oestrogen receptor while also partially agonizing it. This medication is commonly used in the management of breast cancer that is positive for oestrogen receptors. However, tamoxifen can cause some adverse effects such as menstrual disturbances like vaginal bleeding and amenorrhoea, hot flushes, venous thromboembolism, and endometrial cancer. Climacteric side-effects are also common, with 3% of patients stopping tamoxifen due to this reason. Typically, tamoxifen is used for five years after the removal of the tumour. For those who are at risk of endometrial cancer, raloxifene is a better option as it is a pure oestrogen receptor antagonist and carries a lower risk of endometrial cancer.
Overall, tamoxifen is a useful medication for the management of breast cancer that is positive for oestrogen receptors. However, it is important to be aware of the potential adverse effects that it can cause. Patients who experience any of these side-effects should consult their healthcare provider. Additionally, for those who are at risk of endometrial cancer, raloxifene may be a better option to consider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents with bilateral hearing loss and tinnitus for several months. Her mother and brother had similar issues. Ear examination reveals no abnormalities. An audiometry test indicates bilateral conductive hearing loss.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Meniere’s disease
Correct Answer: Otosclerosis
Explanation:Common Causes of Hearing Loss and Their Characteristics
Hearing loss can be caused by various factors, including genetic factors, abnormal bone formation, and tumors. Here are some common causes of hearing loss and their characteristics:
1. Otosclerosis: This condition affects young adults and causes conductive deafness. It is caused by abnormal bone formation around the base of the stapes, which eventually fuses with the bone of the cochlea, reducing normal sound transmission.
2. Glue ear: This is a type of conductive hearing loss that is more common in children. There is no evidence of ear examination, but it can cause hearing difficulties.
3. Meniere’s disease: This is a sensorineural type of hearing loss that is usually accompanied by vertigo and a sensation of fullness or pressure in the ear.
4. Presbycusis: This is a sensorineural hearing loss that is associated with aging. Audiometry should show a bilateral high-frequency hearing loss.
5. Vestibular schwannomas: This is a benign primary intracranial tumor that affects the vestibulocochlear nerve. It commonly presents with unilateral hearing loss and can affect the facial nerve causing facial palsy as well.
Understanding the characteristics of these common causes of hearing loss can help in early detection and management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman presents to her GP with a complaint of difficulty moving her eyes horizontally. She reports that this is more pronounced after she has been conversing.
What is the most probable reason for her symptoms?Your Answer: Mononeuritis multiplex
Correct Answer: Myasthenia gravis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Ocular Weakness: Myasthenia Gravis, Mononeuritis Multiplex, Guillain-Barré Syndrome, Multiple Sclerosis, and Polymyositis
Ocular weakness can be caused by a variety of conditions, including myasthenia gravis (MG), mononeuritis multiplex, Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS), multiple sclerosis (MS), and polymyositis. MG is an autoimmune disorder that affects the neuromuscular junction, causing fatigable weakness of the periocular, facial, bulbar, and girdle muscles. Mononeuritis multiplex is a rare condition that involves neuropathy of multiple peripheral and/or cranial nerves, often caused by systemic disorders such as diabetes or granulomatosis with polyangiitis. GBS is an acute, post-infectious polyneuropathy that presents with progressive, ascending weakness, while MS is a chronic, immune-mediated inflammatory condition of the CNS that typically presents with relapsing-remitting disease and transient episodes of visual change or limb weakness. Polymyositis is a connective tissue disease that causes symmetrical proximal muscle weakness, often accompanied by dermatitis. Understanding the key features of each condition can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She has recently started dating someone new and wants to begin taking the COCP before becoming sexually active with him. She is currently on day 10 of her 28-day menstrual cycle. After taking a detailed medical history, you decide to prescribe Microgynon (COCP).
The patient requests to start taking the pill immediately and inquires about any additional precautions she should take.Your Answer: Use condoms until next period
Correct Answer: Use condoms for 7 days
Explanation:If the COC is initiated on the first day of the menstrual cycle, it becomes effective immediately. However, if it is started on any other day, additional contraception such as condoms should be used for the first 7 days. The injection, implant, IUS, and POP require 7 days to become effective, while the IUD is effective immediately upon insertion.
Counselling for Women Considering the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
Women who are considering taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COC) should receive counselling on the potential harms and benefits of the pill. The COC is highly effective if taken correctly, with a success rate of over 99%. However, there is a small risk of blood clots, heart attacks, and strokes, as well as an increased risk of breast and cervical cancer.
In addition to discussing the potential risks and benefits, women should also receive advice on how to take the pill. If the COC is started within the first 5 days of the menstrual cycle, there is no need for additional contraception. However, if it is started at any other point in the cycle, alternative contraception should be used for the first 7 days. Women should take the pill at the same time every day and should be aware that intercourse during the pill-free period is only safe if the next pack is started on time.
There have been recent changes to the guidelines for taking the COC. While it was previously recommended to take the pill for 21 days and then stop for 7 days to mimic menstruation, it is now recommended to discuss tailored regimes with women. This is because there is no medical benefit to having a withdrawal bleed, and options include never having a pill-free interval or taking three 21-day packs back-to-back before having a 4 or 7 day break.
Women should also be informed of situations where the efficacy of the pill may be reduced, such as vomiting within 2 hours of taking the pill, medication that induces diarrhoea or vomiting, or taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs. It is also important to discuss sexually transmitted infections and precautions that should be taken with enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin.
Overall, counselling for women considering the COC should cover a range of topics to ensure that they are fully informed and able to make an informed decision about their contraceptive options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presented to the clinic with proximal muscle weakness and a cough lasting eight weeks. He also reported pain in the small joints of his hands and small haemorrhages in the nailfolds. On examination, there was no lymphadenopathy or clubbing, but bibasal crackles were heard. A chest radiograph revealed diffuse reticular infiltrates, and lung function tests showed a restrictive pattern. What is the most likely underlying cause of his interstitial lung disease?
Your Answer: Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis
Correct Answer: Polymyositis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Polymyositis: A Comparison with Other Connective Tissue Diseases
Polymyositis is a systemic connective tissue disease that causes inflammation of the striated muscle and skin in the case of dermatomyositis. Patients typically present with muscle weakness, pain in the small joints of the fingers, and dermatitis. The disease is associated with HLA-B8 and HLA-DR3, and underlying malignancy is present in at least 5-8% of cases. Here, we compare polymyositis with other connective tissue diseases to aid in differential diagnosis.
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is another systemic inflammatory disease that affects mainly the joints, in particular, the proximal interphalangeal joints, in a symmetrical fashion. Pulmonary fibrosis is a known complication of RA, and muscular weakness is also a possible feature. However, in RA, joint-related symptoms are typically more prominent than muscle weakness, making polymyositis a more likely diagnosis in cases of predominant muscle weakness.
Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis, also known as idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, presents with diffuse reticular infiltrates on chest radiographs and a restrictive pattern on lung function tests. However, the history of proximal muscle weakness and pain in the small joints of the hands does not fit with this diagnosis and suggests polymyositis instead.
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. While SLE would be in the differential diagnosis for polymyositis, the prominent proximal muscle weakness and the fact that the patient is a man (SLE affects women in 90% of cases) make polymyositis a more likely diagnosis.
Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is an inflammatory rheumatic disease that primarily affects the axial joints and entheses. AS can be associated with pulmonary fibrosis and produces a restrictive pattern on spirometry. However, the more prominent complaint of proximal muscle weakness and the involvement of the small joints of the hands make AS a less likely diagnosis in cases of predominant muscle weakness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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