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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman is found wandering the streets on Christmas Day and is brought by the police to the Emergency Department. She is wearing minimal clothing and appears to have marks across her back from a whip. On further questioning she tells you that she is Mary, and knows this because god spoke to her through the radio. She is happy to accept treatment from you because she believes you are one of her disciples. The nurses check her records against a driver's license found in her pocket, and see that she has attended on 2 previous occasions because of drug intoxication. On examination her BP is 130/80 mmHg; pulse is 90/min and regular. She is sweating and looks anxious. General physical is unremarkable although she appears unkempt and her BMI is 20.2.
What is the most appropriate course of action in this situation?Your Answer: Diazepam
Correct Answer: Risperidone
Explanation:Choosing the Right Medication for Acute Psychosis
When treating a patient with acute psychosis, it is important to consider the underlying cause and potential side effects of medication options. In this case, the patient is compliant with treatment demands and an atypical anti-psychotic is the most appropriate intervention. Risperidone is a better option than traditional anti-psychotics due to its lower risk of extrapyramidal side effects. Donepezil, a cholinergic agonist used in the treatment of dementia, and chlorpromazine, which carries a significant risk of extrapyramidal side effects, are not recommended. Diazepam, a benzodiazepine, is a second line therapy for patients with significant agitation on top of atypical anti-psychotics. Ropinirole, a dopamine agonist used in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease, is also not appropriate for this patient. Choosing the right medication is crucial in effectively managing acute psychosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with a maternal history of type 2 diabetes mellitus is found to have ++ glycosuria. She is a smoker of 20 cigarettes per day and has a BMI of 30 kg/m2. Her blood pressure is 132/88 mmHg and examination reveals no other abnormalities. Her investigations show a serum creatinine of 80 µmol/L, fasting plasma glucose of 11.3 mmol/L, total serum cholesterol of 5.5 mmol/L, and HDL cholesterol of 1.4 mmol/L.
What lifestyle change is most likely to improve her life expectancy?Your Answer: Weight loss to achieve a BMI of 25
Correct Answer: Stopping smoking
Explanation:Managing Cardiovascular Risk in a Diabetic and Obese Patient
She is classified as diabetic and obese based on her BMI of 30 kg/m2, putting her at high risk for cardiovascular disease. Studies have shown that individuals with diabetes have a significantly increased risk of cardiovascular mortality. To improve her life expectancy, it is recommended that she stop smoking, as this would have the greatest benefit among the risk factors mentioned (diabetes, mild dyslipidaemia, and hypertension). Tight glycaemic control has little impact on reducing cardiovascular risk, while statin therapy may have a small but significant effect. Despite the potential for weight gain, stopping smoking should be the first priority, as it is associated with a six-fold increase in cardiovascular risk for women and a three-fold increase for men. In fact, quitting smoking after a heart attack can reduce the risk of recurrence by 50%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You schedule a long term oxygen therapy (LTOT) assessment for a 68-year-old man with a history of COPD. He reports experiencing dyspnoea at rest.
The LTOT assessment reveals the following results:
ABG on room air:
- PaO2: 7.1 kPa
- PCO2: 5.1 kPa
- pH: 7.41
- HCO3: 26 mmol/l
ABG after administering 1 litre of O2 via a nasal cannula:
- PaO2: 9.3 kPa
- PCO2: 6.5 kPa
- pH: 7.33
- HCO3: 26 mmol/l
The patient reports feeling less short of breath at the end of the trial. How would you proceed with managing this patient?Your Answer: BiPAP
Correct Answer: Further medical optimisation and reassess after 4 weeks
Explanation:If a patient undergoing an LTOT assessment experiences a respiratory acidosis and/or a rise in PaCO2 of >1 kPa (7.5 mmHg), it may indicate unstable disease and further medical optimization is necessary. The patient should be reassessed after 4 weeks. In the case of a patient whose ABG on room air meets the LTOT criteria, a 1 hour trial of low flow oxygen may improve symptoms and increase PaO2, but it is important to monitor for a potential respiratory acidosis and elevated PCO2.
Long-Term Oxygen Therapy for COPD Patients
Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is recommended for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who have severe or very severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, or oxygen saturations less than or equal to 92% on room air. LTOT involves breathing supplemental oxygen for at least 15 hours a day using oxygen concentrators.
To assess patients for LTOT, arterial blood gases are measured on two occasions at least three weeks apart in patients with stable COPD on optimal management. Patients with a pO2 of less than 7.3 kPa or those with a pO2 of 7.3-8 kPa and secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension should be offered LTOT. However, LTOT should not be offered to people who continue to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation advice and treatment, and referral to specialist stop smoking services.
Before offering LTOT, a structured risk assessment should be carried out to evaluate the risks of falls from tripping over the equipment, the risks of burns and fires, and the increased risk of these for people who live in homes where someone smokes (including e-cigarettes).
Overall, LTOT is an important treatment option for COPD patients with severe or very severe airflow obstruction or other related symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents with complaints of difficulty concentrating and irregular jerky movements in his extremities and fingers. He reports consuming around 20 units of alcohol per week and has a family history of dementia, with his father being diagnosed at the age of 40. On examination, he displays generalised choreiform movements, but his neurological and systemic examination is otherwise unremarkable. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hemiballismus
Correct Answer: Huntington's disease
Explanation:Huntington’s Disease
Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that is inherited through autosomal means. It is caused by an expanded CAG trinucleotide repeat on chromosome 4’s short arm. The disease is characterized by a gradual decline in cognitive function and increasingly erratic movements known as choreiform movements. Symptoms usually manifest between the ages of 30 and 50. Genetic testing is now available to accurately diagnose the disease. The average life expectancy after the onset of symptoms is approximately 15 years.
In summary, Huntington’s disease is a debilitating genetic disorder that affects cognitive function and movement. It is caused by an expanded CAG trinucleotide repeat on chromosome 4’s short arm. Symptoms typically appear in middle age, and genetic testing is now available to diagnose the disease accurately. Unfortunately, the average life expectancy after the onset of symptoms is relatively short.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You are requested to evaluate a 29-year-old woman who has been admitted to the ward after taking an overdose of Paracetamol. She is causing a disturbance on the ward and her partner informs you that she has a gambling addiction and has spent a significant amount on credit cards for unnecessary items. When you approach her, she is highly agitated and threatens to open an Emergency exit from the third floor ward, claiming that she can fly. She has declined observations from the nursing staff and has removed her N-acetylcysteine IV.
What is the most suitable pharmacological intervention in this case?Your Answer: IM Haloperidol
Correct Answer: IM Lorazepam
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acute Manic Episode
When a patient presents with an acute manic episode and poses a risk to themselves and others, immediate treatment is necessary. The most effective sedative agent in this situation is IM Lorazepam, with a usual dose of 1.5-5mg that can be repeated every 4 hours. Oral Carbamazepine is an alternative for chronic therapy for manic-depressive disorder, while IM Haloperidol should be avoided due to the risk of acute dystonias in young women. Oral Lithium is the standard chronic therapy for manic-depressive disorder but may increase agitation during the short term. Oral Risperidone is an option for patients with significant delusions when sedatives such as Lorazepam fail to control behavior during the short term. It is important to consider the individual patient’s needs and risks when selecting a treatment option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 6
Correct
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A 58-year-old man presents with confusion, fever, and decreased oral intake. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, osteoarthritis, and gout. Blood cultures reveal E. coli infection, and despite antibiotic treatment, he develops respiratory failure. The patient is intubated and placed on mechanical ventilation with an FiO2 of 70%, tidal volume of 370 ml, and respiratory rate of 14/min.
The current arterial blood gases are:
pH 7.45
pO2 7.86 kPa
pCO2 3.99 kPa
HCO3 21 mmol/l
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Add positive end-expiratory pressure
Explanation:The best course of action for this patient with ARDS and hypoxemia is to increase PEEP. This will prevent alveolar collapse and potentially reopen collapsed alveoli, directly addressing the cause of hypoxemia. Increasing tidal volume or respiratory rate would not improve oxygenation and could worsen respiratory alkalosis or increase the risk of barotrauma. Decreasing FiO2 would further reduce oxygenation and should only be considered after other measures to increase oxygenation have been taken.
Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a serious condition that has a mortality rate of around 40% and can cause significant morbidity in those who survive. It is caused by the increased permeability of alveolar capillaries, leading to fluid accumulation in the alveoli, which is known as non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema. ARDS can be caused by various factors such as infection, trauma, smoke inhalation, and Covid-19. The clinical features of ARDS are typically of an acute onset and severe, including dyspnoea, elevated respiratory rate, bilateral lung crackles, and low oxygen saturations. Key investigations for ARDS include a chest x-ray and arterial blood gases.
The American-European Consensus Conference has established criteria for the diagnosis of ARDS, which include an acute onset within one week of a known risk factor, pulmonary oedema with bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray, non-cardiogenic pulmonary artery wedge pressure, and pO2/FiO2 < 40 kPa (300 mmHg). Due to the severity of the condition, patients with ARDS are generally managed in the intensive care unit. Treatment involves oxygenation/ventilation to treat hypoxaemia, general organ support such as vasopressors as needed, and treatment of the underlying cause such as antibiotics for sepsis. Certain strategies such as prone positioning and muscle relaxation have been shown to improve outcomes in ARDS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman has been experiencing hirsutism for the past six years, with coarse dark hair appearing under her chin. As a nurse, this has been causing her significant distress. She has attempted to manage the symptoms with shaving and depilatory creams, but has not found a lasting solution. Her menstrual cycle is irregular, with oligomenorrhoea, and she began menstruating at the age of 13. She has not yet become pregnant and currently uses a contraceptive coil. At night, she takes 5 mg of diazepam.
During examination, her BMI was found to be 24. She has coarse, dark hair on her chin, lower back, and inner thighs. There are no other clinical features to suggest Cushing's, and she does not have galactorrhoea.
Investigations conducted during the follicular phase revealed the following results:
- Serum androstenedione: 9.8 nmol/L (0.6-8.8)
- Serum dehydroepiandrosterone sulphate: 11.2 µmol/L (2-10)
- Serum 17-hydroxyprogesterone: 18.6 nmol/L (1-10)
- Serum oestradiol: 380 pmol/L (200-400)
- Serum testosterone: 2.6 nmol/L (0.5-3)
- Plasma luteinising hormone: 3.3 U/L (2.5-10)
- Plasma follicle-stimulating hormone: 3.6 U/L (2.5-10)
What is the most appropriate next step in investigating this patient's condition?Your Answer: Ultrasound scan of ovaries
Correct Answer: Short Synacthen test with measurement of 17 hydroxy progesterone (17 OHP)
Explanation:Non-Classical Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia vs Polycystic Ovary Syndrome
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) is a genetic disorder that affects the production of cortisol and/or aldosterone. Non-classical CAH is a milder form of the disorder that typically presents in adolescence or adulthood. The most common cause is 21-hydroxylase deficiency, which can result in symptoms similar to polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), such as hirsutism.
To distinguish between PCOS and non-classical CAH, the synacthen stimulation test can be used to evaluate adrenal gland function and measure 17-OHP levels. A diagnosis of non-classical CAH due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency is made when ACTH-stimulated 17-OHP levels are above 30 nmol/L (although this value may vary depending on the assay used). Treatment for hirsutism in non-classical CAH may involve antiandrogens, but glucocorticoids are typically not necessary.
In summary, while PCOS and non-classical CAH can present with similar symptoms, it is important to distinguish between the two in order to provide appropriate treatment. The synacthen stimulation test and measurement of 17-OHP levels can aid in making a diagnosis of non-classical CAH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 8
Correct
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A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 2-week history of feeling generally unwell. He is a known alcoholic and reports consuming around 1L whiskey per day for the last two months. On further questioning, he reports progressive shortness of breath with some dizziness and palpitations but denies any haematemesis or melaena. He has had no chest or abdominal pain. He states that he takes no regular medications and aside from alcohol dependency has no other medical problems.
Examination reveals scleral icterus but no asterixis and unremarkable respiratory and cardiovascular systems with some right upper quadrant tenderness on abdominal assessment.
Bloods are performed and demonstrate:
Hb 80 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 112 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 10.1 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Reticulocytes 5% (0.5 - 2.5%)
LDH 500 u/L (140 - 280)
Na+ 140 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 5.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 1.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 70 µmol/L (55 - 120)
Bilirubin 35 µmol/L (3 - 17)
ALP 150 u/L (30 - 100)
ALT 50 u/L (3 - 40)
Triglycerides 5.6g/dL (<1.7)
Blood film polychromasia, macrocytosis, teardrop cells, spur cells and schistocytes
An ultrasound abdomen shows steatohepatitis and splenomegaly.
Endoscopic examination of the upper and lower gastrointestinal systems shows no signs of active bleeding with no varices.
What is the underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Zieve's syndrome
Explanation:The patient has Zieve syndrome, which is characterized by haemolytic anaemia, cholestatic jaundice, and hyperlipidaemia. Cholecystitis and chronic liver disease are in the differential, but do not fully explain the symptoms. Myelodysplasia is also a possibility, but does not account for the hyperlipidaemia.
Decompensated Liver Disease: Causes, Signs, and Management
Decompensated liver disease is a condition where the liver is unable to function properly, leading to various complications. There are several causes of decompensation, including infections such as pneumonia and viral hepatitis, drugs like paracetamol and anaesthetic agents, toxins such as alcohol and Amanita phalloides mushroom, vascular disorders like Budd-Chiari syndrome and vena-occlusive disease, haemorrhage from upper gastrointestinal bleed, and constipation.
The signs of decompensated liver disease include asterixis, jaundice, hepatic encephalopathy, and constructional apraxia, which is a difficulty in drawing a clock face. To manage this condition, it is important to investigate and identify the underlying causes of decompensation. This may involve checking blood tests, reviewing the drug chart, performing a rectal examination for melaena and constipation, and conducting a septic screen.
To enhance nitrate clearance, phosphate enemas can be used to achieve a minimum of three loose stools per day. Lactulose can also be administered to enhance the binding of nitrate in the intestine. Proper management of decompensated liver disease can help prevent further complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a worsening headache and blurred vision over the past 2 weeks. Upon examination, there are no focal neurologic findings, and his vital signs are stable. However, bilateral retinal vein dilation and tortuosity with visible retinal haemorrhages are observed on fundoscopy.
The patient's blood results reveal a low Hb level, decreased platelet count, elevated creatinine and urea levels, and increased IgM levels.
Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the urgent treatment required for this patient?Your Answer: Ibrutinib
Correct Answer: Plasma exchange
Explanation:Patients diagnosed with Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia often experience secondary issues related to hyperviscosity. In this case, the patient is displaying symptoms of hyperviscosity, such as headaches, blurred vision, and renal impairment, which have been confirmed through a raised plasma viscosity. Additionally, the patient’s fundoscopic appearances, including bilateral retinal vein dilation and tortuosity with retinal haemorrhages, are classic indicators of hyperviscosity within the retinal vasculature.
The significantly elevated IgM level is suggestive of Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia. However, it is important to consider alternative causes for the patient’s anaemia and thrombocytopenia, such as autoimmune haemolytic anaemia and immune thrombocytopenia, as bone marrow infiltration may not be the sole cause.
In this situation, plasma exchange is the correct course of action. Hyperviscosity is a medical emergency, and the patient requires immediate plasma exchange to reduce the IgM level. Plasma exchange is an extracorporeal technique that can remove macromolecules, such as IgM, from the blood.
While chemotherapy will likely be necessary to treat the underlying disorder, it is not the priority at this time. Ibrutinib, a type of tyrosine kinase inhibitor, may be effective in treating Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia, but plasma exchange is the immediate concern.
Red cell transfusion is not recommended at this time, as it could worsen the patient’s hyperviscosity.
Understanding Waldenstrom’s Macroglobulinaemia
Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia is a rare condition that primarily affects older men. It is a type of lymphoplasmacytoid malignancy that is characterized by the production of a monoclonal IgM paraprotein. This condition can cause a range of symptoms, including systemic upset, hyperviscosity syndrome, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, and cryoglobulinemia.
One of the most significant features of Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia is the hyperviscosity syndrome, which can lead to visual disturbances and other complications. This occurs because the pentameric configuration of IgM increases serum viscosity, making it more difficult for blood to flow through the body. Other symptoms of this condition can include weight loss, lethargy, and Raynaud’s.
To diagnose Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia, doctors will typically look for a monoclonal IgM paraprotein in the patient’s blood. A bone marrow biopsy can also be used to confirm the presence of lymphoplasmacytoid lymphoma cells in the bone marrow.
Treatment for Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia typically involves rituximab-based combination chemotherapy. This approach can help to reduce the production of the monoclonal IgM paraprotein and alleviate symptoms associated with the condition. With proper management, many patients with Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinaemia are able to live full and healthy lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents to neurology clinic for follow-up. She was diagnosed with trigeminal neuralgia 6 months ago and started on carbamazepine, but has had limited benefit from the treatment. During her current visit, she reports ongoing pain episodes on the right side of her face and recent episodes on the left side as well. She mentions that her carbamazepine dose was appropriately titrated up by her GP, but the severity of her pain has worsened. Additionally, she reveals that her mother had several episodes of visual loss without medical investigation. On examination, there is no facial nerve weakness but a subjective numbness in the left cheek region is noted. Peripheral neurological examination shows borderline dysdiadochokinesia in the right upper limb and a positive Babinski response in the right lower limb. What is the most suitable investigation for this patient?
Your Answer: CSF oligoclonal bands
Correct Answer: Standard protocol MRI brain with contrast
Explanation:The patient’s diagnosis of trigeminal neuralgia needs to be reviewed due to several red-flag features, including limited response to carbamazepine, simultaneous bilateral pain, and soft neurological signs suggestive of CNS lesions. Multiple sclerosis is the most likely alternative diagnosis, and the best investigation to assess for differentials is standard protocol MRI brain with contrast. Specialised MRI protocols for observing vascular contacts are not normally performed.
Understanding Trigeminal Neuralgia
Trigeminal neuralgia is a type of pain syndrome that is characterized by severe pain on one side of the face. While most cases are idiopathic, some may be caused by compression of the trigeminal roots due to tumors or vascular problems. According to the International Headache Society, trigeminal neuralgia is defined as a disorder that causes brief electric shock-like pains that are limited to one or more divisions of the trigeminal nerve. The pain is often triggered by light touch, such as washing, shaving, or brushing teeth, and can occur spontaneously. Certain areas of the face may be more susceptible to pain, known as trigger areas, and the pain may remit for varying periods.
It is important to note that there are red flag symptoms and signs that may suggest a serious underlying cause, such as sensory changes, ear problems, history of skin or oral lesions, pain only in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, optic neuritis, a family history of multiple sclerosis, or onset before the age of 40.
The first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia is carbamazepine. However, if there is a failure to respond to treatment or atypical features are present, such as onset before the age of 50, referral to neurology may be necessary. Understanding the symptoms and management of trigeminal neuralgia can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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