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  • Question 1 - Which model of the mind is composed of the fundamental elements of the...

    Correct

    • Which model of the mind is composed of the fundamental elements of the Id, ego, and Superego?

      Your Answer: Structural

      Explanation:

      Freud’s Structural Theory: Understanding the Three Areas of the Mind

      According to Freud’s structural model, the human mind is divided into three distinct areas: the Id, the Ego, and the Superego. The Id is the part of the mind that contains instinctive drives and operates on the ‘pleasure principle’. It functions without a sense of time and is governed by ‘primary process thinking’. The Ego, on the other hand, attempts to modify the drives from the Id with external reality. It operates on the ‘reality principle’ and has conscious, preconscious, and unconscious aspects. It is also home to the defense mechanisms. Finally, the Superego acts as a critical agency, constantly observing a person’s behavior. Freud believed that it developed from the internalized values of a child’s main caregivers. The Superego contains the ‘ego ideal’, which represents ideal attitudes and behavior. It is often referred to as the conscience. Understanding these three areas of the mind is crucial to understanding Freud’s structural theory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which antidepressant has the highest risk of causing QTc prolongation? ...

    Correct

    • Which antidepressant has the highest risk of causing QTc prolongation?

      Your Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following statements is not a requirement for the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is not a requirement for the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

      Your Answer: Mating between individuals is random

      Correct Answer: Natural selection occurs

      Explanation:

      Hardy-Weinberg Principle and Allele Frequency

      Allele frequency refers to the proportion of a population that carries a specific variant at a particular gene locus. It can be calculated by dividing the number of individual alleles of a certain type by the total number of alleles in a population. The Hardy-Weinberg Principle states that both allele and genotype frequencies in a population remain constant from generation to generation unless specific disturbing influences are introduced. To remain in equilibrium, five conditions must be met, including no mutations, no gene flow, random mating, a sufficiently large population, and no natural selection. The Hardy-Weinberg Equation is used to predict the frequency of alleles in a population, and it can be used to estimate the carrier frequency of genetic diseases. For example, if the incidence of PKU is one in 10,000 babies, then the carrier frequency in the general population is 1/50. Couples with a previous child with PKU have a 25% chance of having another affected child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - On which chromosome is the candidate gene DISC1, which has been linked to...

    Incorrect

    • On which chromosome is the candidate gene DISC1, which has been linked to schizophrenia, located?

      Your Answer: 22

      Correct Answer: 1

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia is a complex disorder that is associated with multiple candidate genes. No single gene has been identified as the sole cause of schizophrenia, and it is believed that the more genes involved, the greater the risk. Some of the important candidate genes for schizophrenia include DTNBP1, COMT, NRG1, G72, RGS4, DAOA, DISC1, and DRD2. Among these, neuregulin, dysbindin, and DISC1 are the most replicated and plausible genes, with COMT being the strongest candidate gene due to its role in dopamine metabolism. Low activity of the COMT gene has been associated with obsessive-compulsive disorder and schizophrenia. Neuregulin 1 is a growth factor that stimulates neuron development and differentiation, and increased neuregulin signaling in schizophrenia may suppress the NMDA receptor, leading to lowered glutamate levels. Dysbindin is involved in the biogenesis of lysosome-related organelles, and its expression is decreased in schizophrenia. DISC1 encodes a multifunctional protein that influences neuronal development and adult brain function, and it is disrupted in schizophrenia. It is located at the breakpoint of a balanced translocation identified in a large Scottish family with schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, and other major mental illnesses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      5.8
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  • Question 5 - What is the tool used to evaluate an individual's capacity for abstract thinking?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the tool used to evaluate an individual's capacity for abstract thinking?

      Your Answer: Rorschach inkblot test

      Correct Answer: Goldstein-Scheerer Object Sort Test

      Explanation:

      The Goldstein-Scheerer Object Sort Test

      The Goldstein-Scheerer Object Sort Test is a tool used to evaluate a person’s ability to think abstractly and form concepts effectively. This test involves sorting objects based on their colour of material and copying block patterns using coloured cubes. The purpose of this test is to assess the patient’s cognitive abilities and determine their level of abstract thinking. By analyzing the patient’s performance on this test, healthcare professionals can gain insight into their cognitive functioning and develop appropriate treatment plans. The Goldstein-Scheerer Object Sort Test is a valuable tool for assessing cognitive abilities and can be used in a variety of healthcare settings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      22.5
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  • Question 6 - What is a true statement about microglia? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about microglia?

      Your Answer: It is mesodermal in origin

      Explanation:

      Glial Cells: The Support System of the Central Nervous System

      The central nervous system is composed of two basic cell types: neurons and glial cells. Glial cells, also known as support cells, play a crucial role in maintaining the health and function of neurons. There are several types of glial cells, including macroglia (astrocytes and oligodendrocytes), ependymal cells, and microglia.

      Astrocytes are the most abundant type of glial cell and have numerous functions, such as providing structural support, repairing nervous tissue, nourishing neurons, contributing to the blood-brain barrier, and regulating neurotransmission and blood flow. There are two main types of astrocytes: protoplasmic and fibrous.

      Oligodendrocytes are responsible for the formation of myelin sheaths, which insulate and protect axons, allowing for faster and more efficient transmission of nerve impulses.

      Ependymal cells line the ventricular system and are involved in the circulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and fluid homeostasis in the brain. Specialized ependymal cells called choroid plexus cells produce CSF.

      Microglia are the immune cells of the CNS and play a crucial role in protecting the brain from infection and injury. They also contribute to the maintenance of neuronal health and function.

      In summary, glial cells are essential for the proper functioning of the central nervous system. They provide structural support, nourishment, insulation, and immune defense to neurons, ensuring the health and well-being of the brain and spinal cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      40.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - One statement that is false regarding the genetics of ADHD is: ADHD is...

    Correct

    • One statement that is false regarding the genetics of ADHD is: ADHD is caused by a single gene mutation.

      Your Answer: ADHD has been associated with the neuregulin 1 gene

      Explanation:

      While ADHD has been linked to various genes, neuregulin 1 is not among them. However, it has been suggested to play a role in schizophrenia.

      ADHD and Genetics

      Decades of research have shown that genetics play a crucial role in the development of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and its comorbidity with other disorders. However, twin estimates of heritability being less than 100% suggest that environmental factors also play a role. Parents and siblings of a child with ADHD are more likely to have ADHD themselves, but the way ADHD is inherited is complex and not related to a single genetic fault. The heritability of ADHD is around 74%, and longitudinal studies show that two-thirds of ADHD youth will continue to have impairing symptoms of ADHD in adulthood. Adoption studies suggest that the familial factors of ADHD are attributable to genetic factors rather than shared environmental factors. The heritability is similar in males and females, and studies suggest that the diagnosis of ADHD is the extreme of a continuous distribution of ADHD symptoms in the population. Several candidate genes, including DAT1, DRD4, DRD5, 5 HTT, HTR1B, and SNAP25, have been identified as significantly associated with ADHD.

      Source: Faraone (2019) Genetics of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. Molecular Psychiatry volume 24, pages 562–575 (2019).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      88.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which statement about pharmacokinetics in the elderly is incorrect? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement about pharmacokinetics in the elderly is incorrect?

      Your Answer: The volume of distribution for lipid-soluble drugs decreases

      Explanation:

      With aging, there is an increase in lean body weight and body water and a decrease in the proportion of fat. As a result, water-soluble drugs are distributed to a greater extent. Lipid-soluble drugs have a lower volume of distribution in the elderly due to the lower proportion of body fat.

      Prescribing medication for elderly individuals requires consideration of their unique pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics. As the body ages, changes in distribution, metabolism, and excretion can affect how medication is absorbed and processed. For example, reduced gastric acid secretion and motility can impact drug absorption, while a relative reduction of body water to body fat can alter the distribution of lipid soluble drugs. Additionally, hepatic metabolism of drugs decreases with age, and the kidneys become less effective, leading to potential accumulation of certain drugs.

      In terms of pharmacodynamics, receptor sensitivity tends to increase during old age, meaning smaller doses may be needed. However, older individuals may also take longer to respond to treatment and have an increased incidence of side-effects. It is important to start with a lower dose and monitor closely when prescribing medication for elderly patients, especially considering the potential for interactions with other medications they may be taking.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      51.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is a true statement about confidence intervals? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about confidence intervals?

      Your Answer: The desired level of confidence is determined by the data

      Correct Answer: The confidence level of confidence intervals does not describe any single sample

      Explanation:

      Confidence intervals become wider as the level of variance increases. Typically, researchers report confidence intervals at the 95% level. The level of confidence is predetermined by the researcher and reflects a significance level of 0.05. The range within which the true value of a parameter is likely to fall given repeated sampling is described by the confidence intervals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Description And Measurement
      109.2
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  • Question 10 - Which statement about XYY syndrome is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about XYY syndrome is correct?

      Your Answer: Testosterone levels are significantly increased

      Correct Answer: Affected individuals are usually asymptomatic

      Explanation:

      XYY Syndrome

      XYY Syndrome, also known as Jacobs’ Syndrome of super-males, is a genetic condition where males have an extra Y chromosome, resulting in a 47, XYY karyotype. In some cases, mosaicism may occur, resulting in a 47,XYY/46,XY karyotype. The error leading to the 47,XYY genotype occurs during spermatogenesis of post-zygotic mitosis. The prevalence of XYY Syndrome is as high as 1:1000 male live births, but many cases go unidentified as they are not necessarily associated with physical of cognitive impairments. The most common features are high stature and a strong build, and fertility and sexual development are usually unaffected. In the past, XYY Syndrome was linked to aggressiveness and deviance, but this is likely due to intermediate factors such as reduced IQ and social deprivation. XYY Syndrome is best thought of as a risk factor rather than a cause. There is an increased risk of developmental disorders such as learning difficulties, ASD, ADHD, and emotional problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is a licensed treatment for PTSD? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a licensed treatment for PTSD?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      While NICE recommends mirtazapine for the treatment of PTSD, its license only permits its use for major depression.

      Antidepressants (Licensed Indications)

      The following table outlines the specific licensed indications for antidepressants in adults, as per the Maudsley Guidelines and the British National Formulary. It is important to note that all antidepressants are indicated for depression.

      – Nocturnal enuresis in children: Amitriptyline, Imipramine, Nortriptyline
      – Phobic and obsessional states: Clomipramine
      – Adjunctive treatment of cataplexy associated with narcolepsy: Clomipramine
      – Panic disorder and agoraphobia: Citalopram, Escitalopram, Sertraline, Paroxetine, Venlafaxine
      – Social anxiety/phobia: Escitalopram, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Moclobemide, Venlafaxine
      – Generalised anxiety disorder: Escitalopram, Paroxetine, Duloxetine, Venlafaxine
      – OCD: Escitalopram, Fluoxetine, Fluvoxamine, Paroxetine, Sertraline, Clomipramine
      – Bulimia nervosa: Fluoxetine
      – PTSD: Paroxetine, Sertraline

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which statement accurately describes familial Alzheimer's disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement accurately describes familial Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: Familial Alzheimer's accounts for approximately 15% of all cases of Alzheimer's

      Correct Answer: The presenilin-1 gene is located on chromosome 14

      Explanation:

      Genetics plays a role in the development of Alzheimer’s disease, with different genes being associated with early onset and late onset cases. Early onset Alzheimer’s, which is rare, is linked to three genes: amyloid precursor protein (APP), presenilin one (PSEN-1), and presenilin two (PSEN-2). The APP gene, located on chromosome 21, produces a protein that is a precursor to amyloid. The presenilins are enzymes that cleave APP to produce amyloid beta fragments, and alterations in the ratios of these fragments can lead to plaque formation. Late onset Alzheimer’s is associated with the apolipoprotein E (APOE) gene on chromosome 19, with the E4 variant increasing the risk of developing the disease. People with Down’s syndrome are also at high risk of developing Alzheimer’s due to inheriting an extra copy of the APP gene.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      286.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - On which chromosome is the PSEN1 gene located? ...

    Correct

    • On which chromosome is the PSEN1 gene located?

      Your Answer: 14

      Explanation:

      Genetics plays a role in the development of Alzheimer’s disease, with different genes being associated with early onset and late onset cases. Early onset Alzheimer’s, which is rare, is linked to three genes: amyloid precursor protein (APP), presenilin one (PSEN-1), and presenilin two (PSEN-2). The APP gene, located on chromosome 21, produces a protein that is a precursor to amyloid. The presenilins are enzymes that cleave APP to produce amyloid beta fragments, and alterations in the ratios of these fragments can lead to plaque formation. Late onset Alzheimer’s is associated with the apolipoprotein E (APOE) gene on chromosome 19, with the E4 variant increasing the risk of developing the disease. People with Down’s syndrome are also at high risk of developing Alzheimer’s due to inheriting an extra copy of the APP gene.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A child experiences anaphylactic shock following the administration of penicillin. What type of...

    Incorrect

    • A child experiences anaphylactic shock following the administration of penicillin. What type of hypersensitivity reaction have they experienced?

      Your Answer: Type IV

      Correct Answer: Type I

      Explanation:

      Adverse Drug Reactions (ADRs) refer to the harmful effects associated with the use of a medication at a normal dose. These reactions are classified into two types: Type A and Type B. Type A reactions can be predicted from the pharmacology of the drug and are dose-dependent, meaning they can be reversed by withdrawing the drug. On the other hand, Type B reactions cannot be predicted from the known pharmacology of the drug and include allergic reactions.

      Type A reactions account for up to 80% of all ADRs, while Type B reactions are less common. Allergic reactions are a type of Type B reaction and are further subdivided by Gell and Coombs into four types: Type I (IgE-mediated) reactions, Type II (cytotoxic) reactions, Type III (immune complex) reactions, and Type IV (cell-mediated) reactions. Proper identification and management of ADRs are crucial in ensuring patient safety and optimizing treatment outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A forensic psychiatrist evaluates a woman in custody who is accused of murdering...

    Incorrect

    • A forensic psychiatrist evaluates a woman in custody who is accused of murdering her 4 year old daughter. The woman has a background of schizophrenia. She confesses to the psychiatrist that she committed the crime and provides a detailed description of the event. The psychiatrist observes that although she appeared somewhat disturbed by her recollection of the incident, her level of disturbance was significantly lower than anticipated. What does this imply?

      Your Answer: Incongruity of affect

      Correct Answer: Blunt affect

      Explanation:

      The women’s affect is not flat as she displays some emotions, but they seem to be blunted and less intense than anticipated. However, her emotions are appropriate and in line with the situation, indicating that they are not incongruous.

      Mental State Exam – Mood and Affect

      Affect is a term used to describe a patient’s present emotional responsiveness, which is indicated by their facial expression and tone of voice. It can be described as being within normal range, constricted (where the affect is restricted in range and intensity), blunted (similar to constricted but a bit more so), of flat (where there are virtually no signs of affective expression). Mood, on the other hand, is a more prolonged prevailing state of disposition. A feeling is an active experience of somatic sensation of a passive subjective experience of an emotion, while an emotion is best thought of as a feeling and memory intertwined. Apathy is the absence of feeling. It is important to distinguish between affect and mood, as affect is momentary and mood is more prolonged.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 16 - A boy who is secretly struggling with their sexuality puts on a show...

    Correct

    • A boy who is secretly struggling with their sexuality puts on a show of being interested in the opposite sex and constantly talks about their crushes on girls to their peers. What defense mechanism are they exhibiting?

      Your Answer: Reaction formation

      Explanation:

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      21.4
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  • Question 17 - Which manual for diagnosing mental disorders popularized the use of operational criteria in...

    Incorrect

    • Which manual for diagnosing mental disorders popularized the use of operational criteria in psychiatric diagnosis?

      Your Answer: DSM III-R

      Correct Answer: DSM III

      Explanation:

      The implementation of operational criteria in diagnosis was a significant feature of DSM III, which was a response to the criticism of the previous versions of the DSM that relied heavily on psychodynamic concepts. This shift in approach is often praised for revitalizing the field of psychiatry.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      72.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What was the primary issue faced during the initial application of electroconvulsive therapy...

    Incorrect

    • What was the primary issue faced during the initial application of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?

      Your Answer: Professional skepticism

      Correct Answer: Spinal and limb fractures

      Explanation:

      Delayed Seizures in Metrazol-Induced Convulsions

      During the early development of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), chemical convulsions using Metrazol were commonly used. However, this method was associated with a high risk of fractures due to the violent seizures induced. To address this issue, various forms of muscle relaxation were introduced, leading to the replacement of chemical convulsions with ECT.

      Despite the risks associated with Metrazol-induced convulsions, they were noted to be effective for severe depression. However, delayed seizures were a common occurrence with this method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • History Of Psychiatry
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A middle-aged patient with a lengthy mental health history and multiple medications presents...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged patient with a lengthy mental health history and multiple medications presents at the clinic with complaints of deteriorating physical health in the past six months. They report experiencing constipation, lethargy, and heightened depression. Additionally, they disclose being hospitalized two weeks ago and diagnosed with kidney stones. Which of their prescribed medications is the probable culprit for their symptoms?

      Your Answer: Chlorpromazine

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Lithium is known to cause hypercalcemia and hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to various symptoms. These symptoms may include constipation (groans), kidney stones (stones), bone pain (bones), and mental health issues such as depression, lethargy, and confusion (psychic moans).

      Lithium – Pharmacology

      Pharmacokinetics:
      Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.

      Ebstein’s:
      Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.

      Contraindications:
      Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.

      Side-effects:
      Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.

      Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.

      Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
      Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.

      Toxicity:
      Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.

      Pre-prescribing:
      Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.

      Monitoring:
      Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      134.9
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  • Question 20 - The catharsis hypothesis proposes which of the following? ...

    Correct

    • The catharsis hypothesis proposes which of the following?

      Your Answer: That participating in violent sports such as boxing can provide a means of discharging feelings of anger

      Explanation:

      The Catharsis Hypothesis and Its Effectiveness in Reducing Aggressive Feelings

      The catharsis hypothesis proposes that individuals can release their feelings of frustration and aggression through indirect means, such as engaging in aggressive activities like boxing of venting their emotions through talking. However, there is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of these methods in reducing aggressive feelings over the long term.

      Some individuals believe that engaging in physical activities like boxing can help release pent-up aggression and reduce the likelihood of future aggressive behavior. Others argue that this approach may actually reinforce aggressive tendencies and lead to an increase in violent behavior.

      Similarly, some individuals believe that venting one’s emotions through talking can be an effective way to reduce feelings of frustration and aggression. However, others argue that this approach may actually intensify negative emotions and lead to further aggression.

      Overall, the effectiveness of the catharsis hypothesis in reducing aggressive feelings remains a topic of debate. While some individuals may find these methods helpful in managing their emotions, others may require alternative approaches to address their aggressive tendencies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      35.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Social Psychology (2/3) 67%
Psychopharmacology (2/5) 40%
Genetics (2/6) 33%
Neurosciences (1/1) 100%
Description And Measurement (0/1) 0%
Classification And Assessment (1/3) 33%
History Of Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Passmed