00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - You are working in the renal ward when you are asked to urgently...

    Incorrect

    • You are working in the renal ward when you are asked to urgently see a 75-year-old man. He has just returned from a tunnelled central venous catheter insertion for a planned start on dialysis and has developed tachycardia and hypotension. You note that the procedure report suggests a difficult insertion poorly tolerated by the patient. On return to the ward, he complained to the nurse of numbness around his mouth and tingling of his tongue.

      He has type 2 diabetes mellitus with nephropathy and atrial fibrillation. Medication includes alfacalcidol, bisoprolol, bumetanide, and edoxaban.

      Observations are as follows.

      Respiratory rate 30
      Oxygen saturations 94% on air
      Heart rate 180 beats per minute
      BP 100/65 mmHg
      T 37.4ºC

      ECG shows a regular broad complex tachycardia at 180 beats per minute. An urgent blood gas shows results as follows.

      Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 5.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Glucose 6.1 mmol/L (3.3 - 5.8)

      What is the most appropriate immediate course of action?

      Your Answer: Administer 10% calcium gluconate and organise urgent haemodialysis

      Correct Answer: Administer IV lipid emulsion

      Explanation:

      Administering calcium gluconate and urgent haemodialysis is not the appropriate treatment in this case. These interventions are typically used for severe hyperkalaemia in patients who require dialysis. Although ventricular tachycardia can occur in hyperkalaemia, the normal potassium level on the blood gas is reassuring.

      Administering IM glucagon is also not the correct course of action. This treatment is typically used for beta-blocker overdose, which presents with bradycardia and hypotension, not tachyarrhythmias. Additionally, hypoglycaemia is an unlikely cause of the patient’s symptoms, as the glucose level on the blood gas is normal.

      Commencing IV antibiotics for a line infection is not a suitable option at this stage. It is too early for a line infection to have developed, and the absence of fever does not support this diagnosis. While sepsis can cause hypotension, it is unlikely to be the primary cause of the patient’s ventricular tachycardia and haemodynamic instability.

      Overview of Local Anaesthetic Agents

      Local anaesthetic agents are drugs that block nerve impulses and provide pain relief in a specific area of the body. Lidocaine is a commonly used amide local anaesthetic that is also used as an antiarrhythmic drug. It is metabolized in the liver, protein-bound, and excreted in the urine. Toxicity can occur with excessive administration or in patients with liver dysfunction or low protein states. Acidosis can also cause lidocaine to detach from protein binding. Treatment for local anaesthetic toxicity involves the use of IV 20% lipid emulsion. Drug interactions with lidocaine include beta blockers, ciprofloxacin, and phenytoin. Cocaine is another local anaesthetic agent that is rarely used in mainstream surgical practice. Bupivacaine has a longer duration of action than lidocaine and is useful for topical wound infiltration. However, it is cardiotoxic and contraindicated in regional blockage. Levobupivicaine is a less cardiotoxic alternative. Prilocaine is less cardiotoxic than other local anaesthetic agents and is preferred for intravenous regional anaesthesia. Adrenaline can be added to local anaesthetic drugs to prolong their duration of action and permit higher doses, but it is contraindicated in patients taking MAOI’s or tricyclic antidepressants. The maximum total doses of local anaesthetic agents depend on the type of drug and are based on ideal body weight.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
      51.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An 81-year-old woman presents with progressive memory loss and leg weakness. She resides...

    Incorrect

    • An 81-year-old woman presents with progressive memory loss and leg weakness. She resides in a nursing home and has difficulty walking and recognizing her caregivers. She has a 22-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and takes metformin, as well as atenolol, enalapril, and verapamil for hypertension, and trimethoprim for recurrent urinary tract infections. Her MMSE score has decreased from 22/30 six months ago to 11/30 today. On examination, she appears pale and has pale conjunctiva. Neurological examination reveals reduced tone, power, and co-ordination with absent reflexes and upward plantar responses. Her blood count shows low Hb and MCV, and her B12 and folate levels are also low. What is the most likely cause of her B12 deficiency?

      Your Answer: Trimethoprim

      Correct Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Metformin and Vitamin B12 Deficiency

      Metformin, a commonly prescribed medication for diabetes, has been linked to vitamin B12 deficiency. This deficiency can manifest as raised mean corpuscular volume or megaloblastic anemia. The mechanism behind this is believed to be the inhibition of vitamin B12 absorption from the ileum due to metformin’s effect on calcium-dependent membrane action. However, once metformin is discontinued, the vitamin B12 deficiency typically resolves. If it does not, other potential causes should be investigated. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of this potential side effect and monitor patients on metformin for signs of vitamin B12 deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
      52.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old woman, who is six weeks into her pregnancy, presents after taking...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman, who is six weeks into her pregnancy, presents after taking an unknown amount of white tablets. She refuses to wait for the results of her initial blood tests and leaves the hospital. However, she returns a few hours later complaining of feeling dizzy. Her investigations are repeated, and her salicylate levels are found to be 3.5 mmol/l on the first sample and 1.5 mmol/l on the subsequent one.

      Investigations:
      FBC, U&E, LFT Normal
      Initial ABG pH 7.5
      pa(CO2) 2.5 kPa
      HCO3– 26 mmol/l
      Repeat arterial blood gas (ABG) following return:
      pH 7.4
      pa(CO2) 3.5 kPa
      HCO3– 24 mmol/l

      What metabolic abnormality is observed during the first presentation?

      Your Answer: Respiratory alkalosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Blood Gas Results: Differentiating Acid-Base Disorders

      Interpreting blood gas results can be challenging, especially when trying to differentiate between different acid-base disorders. In this case, the initial blood gas showed an elevated pH with low CO2 and normal HCO3, which is consistent with a respiratory alkalosis. This is often seen in aspirin overdose.

      It’s important to note that a respiratory acidosis, which is associated with an elevated CO2, is not present in this case. This type of acidosis is typically seen in respiratory failure due to conditions such as COPD or acute lower respiratory tract infections, as well as in overdose of certain medications.

      By the time the patient re-presents, the second blood gas shows a metabolic acidosis with partial compensation, which is commonly seen in the third stage of aspirin overdose. A metabolic alkalosis can be ruled out since the bicarbonate is within the normal range.

      It’s also important to note that a mixed metabolic and respiratory acidosis, which is characterized by low bicarbonate and elevated CO2, is not present in this case. This type of acidosis may be seen in conditions such as myocardial infarction, where there is cardiac failure and decreased tissue perfusion.

      Understanding the different acid-base disorders and their corresponding blood gas results is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
      200.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old man of Pakistani descent presents with complaints of visual changes. He...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man of Pakistani descent presents with complaints of visual changes. He reports experiencing blurred vision and a decreased ability to perceive red colors. It is noted that he began treatment for tuberculosis eight weeks ago.

      Which medication from his treatment regimen is the most likely cause of his visual symptoms?

      Your Answer: Ethambutol

      Explanation:

      Adverse Effects of Antituberculosis Drugs

      Antituberculosis drugs are known to cause various adverse effects, including toxic optic neuropathy, peripheral neuropathy, hepatitis, and flu-like syndrome. Ethambutol is a well-known cause of toxic optic neuropathy, which typically manifests as loss of colour vision and dimness of vision. The onset of optic neuropathy usually occurs at least two months after starting the drug, with symptoms appearing at four to 10 months after initiation of treatment. Therefore, it is important to monitor vision before and during treatment with ethambutol. If detected early and the drug is stopped, most changes will recover, unless the damage is severe.

      Isoniazid may also cause optic neuropathy, but this is less common than with ethambutol. To reduce the incidence of peripheral neuropathy, pyridoxine (vitamin B6) is administered alongside isoniazid. Rifampicin is more commonly associated with flu-like syndrome and hepatitis. Pyrazinamide, on the other hand, can cause drug-induced hepatitis. Rifampicin may also cause a red-orange discolouration of sweat, tears, and urine. Therefore, it is important to monitor patients for these adverse effects and adjust treatment accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
      29.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 22-year-old woman is brought to the hospital after intentionally overdosing on paracetamol...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman is brought to the hospital after intentionally overdosing on paracetamol following a fight with her partner. She ingested 30 × 500 mg tablets of paracetamol along with a few glasses of wine. The next day, she confessed to her family about her actions. What factor would most likely lead to a referral to a specialized liver unit for this patient?

      Your Answer: Creatinine level of 330 μmol/l

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Prognostic Indicators in Paracetamol Overdose

      Paracetamol overdose can cause severe liver injury and renal damage, leading to poor prognostic outcomes. The following indicators are crucial in determining the severity of the overdose and the need for referral to a specialist transplant unit:

      – Creatinine levels above 300 μmol/l: Mortality rates approach 80% in patients with creatinine levels above this cutoff.
      – INR levels above 2 within 48 hours or above 3.5 within 72 hours: These levels indicate severe liver damage and poor prognosis.
      – pH levels below 7.3: Lactic acidosis is common in paracetamol overdose, and a pH below this level is associated with the worst outcomes.
      – Serum ALT levels above 3000 IU/l: While elevated transaminases indicate hepatocellular damage, impaired hepatic synthetic function is a better predictor of poor prognosis.
      – Systolic blood pressure below 80 mmHg: Low blood pressure is also associated with poor outcomes in paracetamol overdose.

      Treatment for paracetamol overdose includes oral activated charcoal and N-acetylcysteine. Methionine can be used in patients allergic to N-acetylcysteine. Referral to a specialist transplant unit is necessary in cases of severe liver damage, acute renal impairment, and hepatic encephalopathy. Understanding these prognostic indicators is crucial in managing paracetamol overdose and improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
      97.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old former teacher is seen in the Allergy Clinic. She has a...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old former teacher is seen in the Allergy Clinic. She has a history of peanut allergy, with two episodes of anaphylaxis over the past year, and she carries an adrenaline auto-injector with her at all times for this reason. Her primary care physician is asking about appropriate medications to manage her high blood pressure. She has no other significant medical history. During her visit, her blood pressure is 160/95 mmHg, and her pulse is 80 bpm and regular. Her BMI is 23 kg/m2.
      Which antihypertensive medication should be avoided due to its potential to worsen anaphylactic reactions?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      When it comes to managing blood pressure in patients at risk of anaphylaxis, it’s important to consider the potential risks associated with certain medications. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, such as ramipril, are thought to have the highest risk of worsening anaphylaxis episodes. This is due to their ability to prevent a compensatory rise in angiotensin II and reduce the breakdown of bradykinin.

      Bendroflumethiazide, on the other hand, is a second-line intervention that can be used to manage blood pressure without potentiating anaphylaxis. Amlodipine is often the most appropriate initial intervention for blood pressure management in these patients.

      Beta blockers like atenolol should be avoided in asthmatic patients due to the risk of triggering an asthma attack, but they are not associated with potentiation of anaphylaxis. Angiotensin receptor blockers like losartan do not potentiate anaphylaxis, but they may still drive episodes of angio-oedema in their own right. Overall, careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits of different blood pressure medications is crucial in managing patients at risk of anaphylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
      46.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You are working as the duty physician at a high school athletics meet...

    Correct

    • You are working as the duty physician at a high school athletics meet and are collecting samples to look for drugs of abuse.

      Which of the following initial tests is most useful to look for testosterone abuse?

      Your Answer: Urinary testosterone/epitestosterone ratio

      Explanation:

      The urinary testosterone/epitestosterone ratio is the best initial test for testosterone abuse, with a ratio greater than 6:1 being confirmatory. SHBG levels are too non-specific, while LH levels may be affected by other factors. Prolactin levels are also non-specific, and urinary hCG is useful only for detecting abuse of hCG itself. False positives may occur in patients with testicular cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
      48.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old male presents having taken 25 aspirin 500mg tablets in a suicide...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presents having taken 25 aspirin 500mg tablets in a suicide attempt. He has felt well since and is asymptomatic, and now regrets these actions. He has a background of bipolar disorder for which he takes quetiapine and has never attempted suicide in the past. He was seen by his GP with a presumed respiratory tract infection two weeks ago and prescribed amoxicillin. Cardiovascular, respiratory and abdominal examinations are all unremarkable. His blood gas reveals a ph 7.42, lactate 0.6 mmol/L and laboratory bloods are unremarkable other than a salicylate level 4 hours post ingestion of 700 mg/L.

      What is the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Reassure and discharge

      Correct Answer: IV Sodium bicarbonate 1.26%

      Explanation:

      Despite showing no apparent symptoms of overdose, this young woman’s salicylate levels exceed the recommended limit of 450 mg/L for moderate poisoning. To address this, sodium bicarbonate was administered to increase the alkalinity of her urine, which is considered more effective than excessive diuresis. The ideal urine pH should be between 8.0-8.5, with a minimum of 7.5, according to guidelines available here.

      Salicylate overdose can cause a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. The respiratory center is initially stimulated, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, the direct acid effects of salicylates, combined with acute renal failure, can later cause metabolic acidosis. In children, metabolic acidosis tends to be more prominent. Other symptoms of salicylate overdose include tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia, nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      The treatment for salicylate overdose involves general measures such as airway, breathing, and circulation support, as well as administering activated charcoal. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can help eliminate aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary. Indications for hemodialysis include a serum concentration of over 700 mg/L, metabolic acidosis that is resistant to treatment, acute renal failure, pulmonary edema, seizures, and coma.

      Salicylates can also cause the uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation, which leads to decreased adenosine triphosphate production, increased oxygen consumption, and increased carbon dioxide and heat production. It is important to recognize the symptoms of salicylate overdose and seek prompt medical attention to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
      337.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old man who has recently completed an opiate detoxification program is brought...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man who has recently completed an opiate detoxification program is brought in by ambulance after collapsing at a local park. Next to him are an empty bottle of diazepam and an empty bottle of methadone.
      Upon examination, his respiratory rate is 8/min, his BP is 90/70 mmHg, and his pulse is 85. His pupils are normal size and sluggishly reactive, and his Glasgow coma scale is 7/15.
      The following are the results of his investigations:
      pH 7.25 (7.36-7.44)
      pO2 10.1 kPa (10.5-13.5)
      pCO2 6.7 kPa (4.7-6.0)

      What is the best course of therapy for him?

      Your Answer: Intubation and ventilation

      Explanation:

      Importance of Intubation and Ventilation in a Hypoventilating Patient with an At Risk Airway

      This patient requires urgent intubation and ventilation due to hypoventilation and an at risk airway. Without ventilator support, there is a high risk of aspiration and further deterioration. The patient is experiencing significant CO2 retention and acidosis, which can be life-threatening if left untreated.

      It is important to note that options containing flumazenil are not appropriate as they can cause seizures when used to reverse benzodiazepine overdose. Additionally, reversing only the benzodiazepine component of the overdose is insufficient. Similarly, a single dose of naloxone alone will not completely reverse respiratory depression and will require repeated dosing. Therefore, using naloxone in isolation is not recommended.

      Observation alone is also not advised as it does not address the underlying issue of hypoventilation and at risk airway. Intubation and ventilation are essential to ensure the patient’s safety and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
      77.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 27 year old male presents to the hospital with wheezing, difficulty breathing,...

    Correct

    • A 27 year old male presents to the hospital with wheezing, difficulty breathing, and a cough producing green sputum. Upon assessment, he is diagnosed with a lower respiratory tract infection with supporting biochemical and radiological evidence. The patient has a history of unpredictable asthma and has previously been admitted to the ICU and placed on a ventilator. He is currently taking salbutamol and formoterol/budesonide inhalers at their maximum doses, montelukast, aminophylline, and monthly subcutaneous injections of omalizumab (Xolair).

      Which antibiotic should be avoided in this patient's treatment?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Co-administration of aminophylline with ciprofloxacin can lead to toxicity due to a five-fold increase in serum concentrations of metabolising substrate. The use of macrolide antibiotics with aminophylline is controversial as most macrolides reduce aminophylline levels by inducing activity of 1A2, similar to the effect of long term smoking. However, both drugs can increase the risk of ventricular arrhythmia by prolonging myocardial repolarisation time. While azithromycin only poses a theoretical risk, erythromycin should be avoided. Doxycycline use with aminophylline may cause fluctuations in serum levels, but regular monitoring can prevent toxicity. Amoxicillin and gentamicin do not have significant drug interactions with aminophylline.

      The P450 system is responsible for metabolizing many drugs in the body, and drug interactions can occur when certain drugs inhibit or induce the activity of these enzymes. The most common and important enzyme system involved in drug interactions is CYP3A4. Macrolides, antiretrovirals, and calcium channel blockers are substrates for this enzyme, while macrolides, protease inhibitors (including ritonavir), and imidazoles are inhibitors. Carbamazepine, phenytoin, phenobarbitone, rifampicin, and St John’s Wort are inducers of CYP3A4. Other enzyme systems affected by common drugs include CYP2D6, CYP2C9, CYP1A2, and CYP2E1. Tricyclic antidepressants and antipsychotics are substrates for CYP2D6, while SSRIs and ritonavir are inhibitors. Warfarin and sulfonylureas are substrates for CYP2C9, while imidazoles, amiodarone, and sodium valproate are inhibitors. Theophylline is a substrate for CYP1A2, while ciprofloxacin and omeprazole are inhibitors. Chronic alcohol and isoniazid are inducers of CYP2E1. It is important to be aware of these interactions to avoid adverse effects and ensure optimal drug therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
      171.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics (6/10) 60%
Passmed