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  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old aid worker returns from a 6-month placement in the former Soviet...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old aid worker returns from a 6-month placement in the former Soviet Union with a severe sore throat. He has a fever and generalised weakness and is restless. Examination reveals a swollen neck, tender lymph nodes and a white membrane over his throat. When you take a swab from the throat there is contact bleeding.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Streptococcal tonsillitis

      Correct Answer: Diphtheria

      Explanation:

      Diphtheria: A Rare but Serious Disease

      Diphtheria is a rare disease in Western Europe, but it still exists in the former USSR. The disease has an incubation period of 2-6 days and causes severe sore throat, malaise, and a pseudomembrane over the throat. Removing the pseudomembrane can cause bleeding. The toxin produced by Corynebacterium diphtheriae can lead to myocarditis and bulbar palsy. Diagnosis is done through a throat swab, and treatment involves macrolide antibiotics and antitoxin in severe cases. People traveling to areas where diphtheria is endemic should get vaccinated against the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      28.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 27-year-old woman on antiepileptic medication presents with nausea, diarrhoea, drowsiness, weight gain...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman on antiepileptic medication presents with nausea, diarrhoea, drowsiness, weight gain and thinning of hair.
      Select the medication that is most likely to cause these symptoms.

      Your Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      Common Side Effects of Antiepileptic Drugs

      Antiepileptic drugs are commonly used to treat epilepsy, but they can also cause a range of side effects. The British National Formulary lists the most common side effects of these drugs, which include ataxia, tremor, nystagmus, blood dyscrasias, liver damage, pancreatitis, and weight gain.

      Sodium valproate, for example, is associated with ataxia, tremor, nystagmus, blood dyscrasias, liver damage, and pancreatitis. Long-term use of this drug may also lead to weight gain. Phenytoin can cause gum hypertrophy, hirsutism, folate deficiency, osteomalacia, and neuropathy. Phenobarbital and carbamazepine can also cause folate deficiency, megaloblastic anemia, osteomalacia, and neuropathy.

      Vigabatrin usage may cause aggression, alopecia, retinal atrophy, and reduced peripheral vision. Carbamazepine can also cause ataxia, nystagmus, diplopia, thrombocytopenia, and other blood dyscrasias. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects when taking antiepileptic drugs and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which one of the following entries on a birth certificate would never be...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following entries on a birth certificate would never be acceptable?

      Your Answer: 1a: Old age. 2: Non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (93-year-old patient)

      Correct Answer: 1a: Cardiac arrest. 2: Non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Cardiac arrest cannot be listed as the sole cause of death on a death certificate as it is a method of dying and requires further clarification.

      While the use of old age is discouraged, it may be listed on a death certificate for patients over the age of 80 if specific criteria are met (refer to the provided link).

      The only acceptable abbreviations for HIV and AIDS should be used on a death certificate.

      Death Certification in the UK

      There are no legal definitions of death in the UK, but guidelines exist to verify it. According to the current guidance, a doctor or other qualified personnel should verify death, and nurse practitioners may verify but not certify it. After a patient has died, a doctor needs to complete a medical certificate of cause of death (MCCD). However, there is a list of circumstances in which a doctor should notify the Coroner before completing the MCCD.

      When completing the MCCD, it is important to note that old age as 1a is only acceptable if the patient was at least 80 years old. Natural causes is not acceptable, and organ failure can only be used if the disease or condition that led to the organ failure is specified. Abbreviations should be avoided, except for HIV and AIDS.

      Once the MCCD is completed, the family takes it to the local Registrar of Births, Deaths, and Marriages office to register the death. If the Registrar decides that the death doesn’t need reporting to the Coroner, he/she will issue a certificate for Burial or Cremation and a certificate of Registration of Death for Social Security purposes. Copies of the Death Register are also available upon request, which banks and insurance companies expect to see. If the family wants the burial to be outside of England, an Out of England Order is needed from the coroner.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      39.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 62-year-old man presents with a 4-year history of severe itching and sores...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old man presents with a 4-year history of severe itching and sores containing 'white fibers' which he claims are living 'bugs'. He is in good health and doesn't take any regular medication. Upon examination, there are well-defined, scooped-out clean ulcerations with occasional white filaments, some hypopigmented patches, and extensive chronic excoriations. There is sparing between the scapula. Despite numerous dermatology and infectious disease outpatient investigations and treatments, no cause has been found, and symptoms have not improved.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Delusional parasitosis

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing delusional parasitosis, which is a fixed false belief that they are infested with ‘bugs’. This is consistent with the symptoms of ‘Morgellons’, which is a form of delusional parasitosis. The reported fibers or materials are often found to be common household or clothing materials, and the skin lesions are likely caused by repetitive picking. The hypopigmented patches are healed lesions, and the area between the scapula is spared, indicating that the patient is unable to reach that area and no lesions were found there. This is not indicative of body dysmorphic disorder, conversion disorder, or somatic symptom disorder.

      Understanding Delusional Parasitosis

      Delusional parasitosis is a condition that is not commonly seen, but it can be quite distressing for those who experience it. Essentially, it involves a person having a false belief that they are infested with some kind of bug or parasite, such as worms, mites, or bacteria. This belief is fixed and unshakeable, even in the face of evidence to the contrary.

      It is important to note that delusional parasitosis can occur on its own, but it may also be a symptom of other psychiatric conditions. Despite the delusion, many people with this condition are otherwise functional and able to carry out their daily activities. However, the belief can cause significant anxiety and distress, and may lead to behaviors such as excessive cleaning or avoidance of certain places or activities. Treatment for delusional parasitosis typically involves a combination of medication and therapy to address the underlying psychiatric condition and help the person manage their symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      158.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 6-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital after experiencing a haemarthrosis in...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital after experiencing a haemarthrosis in his right knee while playing outside. The following blood tests are conducted:

      Platelets 220 * 109/l
      PT 11 secs
      APTT 76 secs
      Factor VIIIc activity Normal

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemophilia B

      Explanation:

      An extremely high APTT can result from the use of heparin, as well as from haemophilia or antiphospholipid syndrome. If factor VIIIc activity is normal, the patient may have haemophilia B (which involves a deficiency of factor IX). Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that increases the risk of blood clots.

      Haemophilia is a genetic disorder that affects blood coagulation and is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. It is possible for up to 30% of patients to have no family history of the condition. Haemophilia A is caused by a deficiency of factor VIII, while haemophilia B, also known as Christmas disease, is caused by a lack of factor IX.

      The symptoms of haemophilia include haemoarthroses, haematomas, and prolonged bleeding after surgery or trauma. Blood tests can reveal a prolonged APTT, while the bleeding time, thrombin time, and prothrombin time are normal. However, up to 10-15% of patients with haemophilia A may develop antibodies to factor VIII treatment.

      Overall, haemophilia is a serious condition that can cause significant bleeding and other complications. It is important for individuals with haemophilia to receive appropriate medical care and treatment to manage their symptoms and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      43.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 42-year-old amateur footballer visits his General Practitioner with complaints of feeling lightheaded...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old amateur footballer visits his General Practitioner with complaints of feeling lightheaded during exercise. Upon physical examination, a laterally displaced apical impulse is noted. On auscultation, a mid-systolic murmur is heard in the aortic area that intensifies upon sudden standing. The electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) and Q waves in the V2-V5 leads.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Correct Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy from Other Cardiac Conditions

      Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a leading cause of sudden death in young athletes, but many patients are asymptomatic or have mild symptoms. Dyspnea is the most common symptom, along with chest pain, palpitations, and syncope. Physical examination may reveal left ventricular hypertrophy, a loud S4, and a double or triple apical impulse. The carotid pulse may have a jerky feature due to late systolic pulsation. ECG changes often include ST-T wave abnormalities and left ventricular hypertrophy, but Q waves may also be present. It is important to distinguish hypertrophic cardiomyopathy from other cardiac conditions, such as acute myocardial infarction, aortic stenosis, atrial septal defect, and young-onset hypertension. Each of these conditions has distinct clinical features and diagnostic criteria that can help guide appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      237.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 14-year-old boy with nasal obstruction presents to you in surgery. Examining him,...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy with nasal obstruction presents to you in surgery. Examining him, you find what you think are nasal polyps.
      Which of the following statements regarding nasal polyps is correct?

      Your Answer: Surgical polypectomy is curative

      Correct Answer: Polyps may be associated with cystic fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nasal Polyps: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Nasal polyps are growths that develop in the nasal cavity or paranasal sinuses. They are often a sign of underlying inflammation and can cause progressive nasal obstruction. While they can occur at any age, they are relatively uncommon in children. However, in children with cystic fibrosis, rates of nasal polyps can be as high as 50%.

      Symptoms of nasal polyps include nasal obstruction, loss of smell, and postnasal drip. They are not typically associated with pain or bleeding, which may suggest neoplastic growths or foreign bodies. While surgical polypectomy can provide temporary relief, recurrence is common. The underlying inflammation should be targeted with topical corticosteroids, which can improve symptoms and reduce the risk of recurrence.

      If a child presents with nasal polyps, it is important to test for cystic fibrosis. While there is no single curative treatment for nasal polyps, early detection and management can improve quality of life and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 42-year-old man is currently waiting for the results of his recent HIV...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man is currently waiting for the results of his recent HIV test. The test has a specificity of 99.6%. What can be said about this test?

      Your Answer: 99.6% of patients with HIV are tested positive

      Correct Answer: 99.6% of patients without HIV are tested negative

      Explanation:

      The sensitivity of 99.6 suggests that almost all patients with HIV are tested positive.

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 59-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a lump on her upper...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a lump on her upper eyelid that she has noticed recently. The lump is not causing any discomfort. Upon examination, a 6mm firm lump is observed that distorts the eyelid margin and causes loss of eyelashes. The lump appears to be slightly ulcerated. What would be the most suitable course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Arrange a 2 week referral

      Explanation:

      A possible meibomian cyst is suggested by the patient’s history. These cysts typically develop slowly over several weeks, resulting in a firm, localized swelling of the eyelid. While there may be initial discomfort, pain and tenderness are usually absent. Meibomian cysts are most commonly found on the upper eyelid and are typically 2-8 mm in diameter.

      When the eyelid is turned inside out, a meibomian cyst appears as a distinct, immobile, circular, yellowish lump (lipogranuloma). In the acute phase, it may appear inflamed, tender, and red. The skin overlying the cyst is usually normal and freely movable, while the meibomian cyst itself adheres to the tarsal plate. There should be no associated ulceration, bleeding, telangiectasia, or discharge.

      Warm compresses and massage are the first-line treatments for meibomian cysts. Topical or oral antibiotics should not be used.

      If a malignant eyelid tumor is suspected, such as if the meibomian cyst has an unusual appearance (such as distortion of the eyelid margin, loss of eyelashes, ulceration, or bleeding) or if a suspected meibomian cyst recurs in the same location, NICE recommends arranging a 2-week wait referral. As a result, the correct answer is a 2-week referral.

      Source: CKS

      According to the April 2016 feedback report, candidates should be familiar with the presentation and management of common eye conditions, as well as less common eye conditions that require urgent attention.

      Eyelid problems are quite common and can include a variety of issues such as blepharitis, styes, chalazions, entropion, and ectropion. Blepharitis is an inflammation of the eyelid margins that can cause redness in the eye. Styes are infections that occur in the glands of the eyelids, with external styes affecting the sebum-producing glands and internal styes affecting the Meibomian glands. Chalazions, also known as Meibomian cysts, are retention cysts that present as painless lumps in the eyelid. While most cases of chalazions resolve on their own, some may require surgical drainage.

      When it comes to managing styes, there are different types to consider. External styes are usually caused by a staphylococcal infection in the glands of Zeis or Moll, while internal styes are caused by an infection in the Meibomian glands. Treatment typically involves hot compresses and pain relief, with topical antibiotics only recommended if there is an associated conjunctivitis.

      Overall, eyelid problems can be uncomfortable and even painful, but with proper management and treatment, they can be resolved effectively. It’s important to seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You see a 55-year-old lady in your family planning clinic. She is fit...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 55-year-old lady in your family planning clinic. She is fit and well with no relevant past medical history. She has been taking the combined oral contraceptive pill for 10 years. She takes no other medication, has no relevant family history. Her blood pressure (BP) and BMI are normal. She takes the COCP as contraception as she is still having regular periods.

      Which statement below is true?

      Your Answer: The progesterone-only injectable would be a suitable alternative for this patient

      Correct Answer: She should be advised to stop taking the COCP for contraception, and prescribe an alternative, safer method

      Explanation:

      For women over 40, combined hormonal contraception (COCP) can be beneficial in reducing menstrual bleeding and pain, as well as alleviating menopausal symptoms. However, it is important to consider certain factors when prescribing COCP to women over 40. The UKMEC criteria for women over 40 is 2, while for women from menarche until 40, it is 1. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health recommends the use of COCP until age 50, provided there are no other contraindications. However, women over 50 should be advised to switch to a safer alternative method of contraception, as the risks associated with COCP use outweigh the benefits. Women who smoke should stop using COCP at 35, as smoking increases the risk of mortality. While COCP is associated with a reduced risk of ovarian and endometrial cancer, there is a slightly increased risk of breast cancer among women using COCP, which diminishes after 10 years of cessation. Women using COCP for non-contraceptive benefits after the age of 50 should be considered on an individual basis using clinical judgement and informed choice.

      Women over the age of 40 still require effective contraception until they reach menopause, despite a significant decline in fertility. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has produced specific guidance for this age group, titled Contraception for Women Aged Over 40 Years. No method of contraception is contraindicated by age alone, with all methods being UKMEC1 except for the combined oral contraceptive pill (UKMEC2 for women >= 40 years) and Depo-Provera (UKMEC2 for women > 45 years). The FSRH guidance provides specific considerations for each method, such as the use of COCP in the perimenopausal period to maintain bone mineral density and reduce menopausal symptoms. Depo-Provera use is associated with a small loss in bone mineral density, which is usually recovered after discontinuation. The FSRH also provides a table detailing how different methods may be stopped based on age and amenorrhea status. Hormone replacement therapy cannot be relied upon for contraception, and a separate method is needed. The FSRH advises that the POP may be used in conjunction with HRT as long as the HRT has a progestogen component, while the IUS is licensed to provide the progestogen component of HRT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      52.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - An 80-year-old man visits his general practice clinic with painless, frank haematuria. He...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man visits his general practice clinic with painless, frank haematuria. He reports no dysuria, fever, or other symptoms and feels generally well. He is currently taking apixaban, atenolol, simvastatin, and ramipril due to a history of myocardial infarction and atrial fibrillation. A urine dipstick test shows positive for blood but negative for leukocytes and nitrites. What is the best course of action for management? Choose only ONE option.

      Your Answer: Review use of apixaban as this is the likely cause of his symptoms

      Correct Answer: Refer him under the 2-week wait pathway to urology for suspected cancer

      Explanation:

      Management of Painless Haematuria: Choosing the Right Pathway

      When a patient presents with painless haematuria, it is important to choose the right management pathway. In this case, a 2-week wait referral to urology for suspected cancer is the appropriate course of action for a patient over 45 years old with unexplained haematuria. Routine referral to urology is not sufficient in this case.

      Sending a mid-stream urine sample for culture and sensitivity and starting antibiotics is not recommended unless there are accompanying symptoms such as dysuria or fever. Referring for an abdominal X-ray and ultrasound is also not the best option as a CT scan is more appropriate for ruling out bladder or renal carcinoma.

      It is also important to note that while anticoagulants like apixaban can increase the risk of bleeding, they do not explain the underlying cause of haematuria. Therefore, reviewing the use of apixaban alone is not sufficient in managing painless haematuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      175
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 27-year-old GP trainee, who has been with the surgery for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old GP trainee, who has been with the surgery for the past three months, announces that she is four months pregnant and would like to return to the practice one year after the birth of her child, then working only part time for the next two years.

      Which one of the following is true with respect to your obligations?

      Your Answer: You must allow her to return but can specify full time hours only

      Correct Answer: You must allow her to return and she can work part time for the specified period

      Explanation:

      Maternity Leave Entitlements for Employed Women

      The rules regarding pregnancy and maternity leave are straightforward. All employed pregnant women are entitled to 52 weeks (one year) of maternity leave, regardless of their length of service with their employer. This consists of 26 weeks of ordinary maternity leave and 26 weeks of additional maternity leave. If a woman decides to return to work at the end of her leave period, she may request that her employer provide flexible working arrangements.

      Unless there are specific reasons why she cannot return to the same role, with the option of part-time work if necessary, her needs must be accommodated. It is generally not permissible to require her to return full-time or to transfer her to a different surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      46
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which one of the following statements regarding appraisal is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding appraisal is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Formal training is required to become an appraiser

      Correct Answer: A different appraiser should conduct the appraisal each year

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Appraisal for GPs

      Appraisal is a crucial process that has been mandatory for GPs since 2002. Its primary purpose is to identify areas for development rather than performance management. With the introduction of revalidation by the GMC, appraisals have become even more important as they provide a structured system for recording progress towards revalidation and identifying development needs.

      After the Primary Care Trusts were disbanded, NHS England took on the responsibility for appraisals. The appraiser should be another GP who has been properly trained in appraisal. It is recommended that a doctor should have no more than three consecutive appraisals by the same appraiser in the same revalidation cycle. The average time commitment for appraisal is a minimum of 4.5 to 6.5 hours, including between 2 and 4 hours for preparation.

      The content of appraisal is based on the 4 key domains set out in the GMC’s Good Medical Practice document. These domains include knowledge, skills, and performance, contributing and complying with systems to protect patients, communication, partnership, and teamwork, and maintaining trust. It is essential for GPs to participate in appraisal regularly to ensure they are providing the best possible care to their patients and maintaining their professional standards.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      47.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A new publication describes a new test for detecting Alzheimer's disease.
    You want to...

    Incorrect

    • A new publication describes a new test for detecting Alzheimer's disease.
      You want to know what proportion of patients with Alzheimer's disease would be accurately diagnosed by this new test.
      What value would indicate this?

      Your Answer: Specificity

      Correct Answer: Sensitivity

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sensitivity and Positive Predictive Value in Medical Testing

      Medical testing is an essential tool in diagnosing diseases and conditions. Two important measures in evaluating the effectiveness of a test are sensitivity and positive predictive value. Sensitivity refers to the proportion of patients with the disease who are correctly identified by the test. In other words, it measures the accuracy of the test in detecting true positives. On the other hand, positive predictive value refers to the percentage of people who test positive for the disease and actually have it. This measure takes into account the prevalence of the disease in the population being tested and helps to determine the likelihood of a positive test result being a true positive. Understanding these measures is crucial in interpreting medical test results and making informed decisions about patient care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - You arrange a routine pelvic X-ray for a 60-year-old man with painful hips....

    Correct

    • You arrange a routine pelvic X-ray for a 60-year-old man with painful hips. The report comments on the possibility of Paget’s disease. You arrange some blood tests.
      Which of the following tests is most likely to show an abnormal result?

      Your Answer: Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Markers for Paget’s Disease of Bone

      Paget’s disease of bone is a condition characterized by cellular remodelling and deformity of one or more bones. To aid in its diagnosis, several diagnostic markers are used, including alkaline phosphatase (ALP), calcium, parathyroid hormone, phosphate, and uric acid.

      ALP is a useful marker for Paget’s disease as bone-specific ALP levels are elevated due to increased osteoblastic activity and bone formation. However, the adequacy of total ALP levels depends on the patient having normal liver function and a normal level of liver ALP. Serial measuring of ALP is also used to monitor the effects of treatment and disease activity.

      Calcium levels should be normal in patients with Paget’s disease, but hypercalcaemia or hypercalciuria may develop in patients who are immobile. Parathyroid hormone levels are usually normal in Paget’s disease, but hyperparathyroidism causes osteitis fibrosa cystica with low bone mineral density, bone pain, skeletal deformities, and fractures. Phosphate levels are usually normal.

      Hyperuricaemia can occur in Paget’s disease and is more common in men than women. It is due to the increased turnover of nucleic acids as a result of high bone turnover, and attacks of gout may be precipitated.

      In conclusion, the measurement of ALP and other diagnostic markers can aid in the diagnosis and monitoring of Paget’s disease of bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic complaining of a burning sensation while urinating. She reports no vaginal bleeding and is in good health otherwise. She has no recorded drug allergies. Urinalysis shows positive results for nitrates and 3+ leucocytes. The GP suspects a urinary tract infection.

      What is the best course of action in primary care?

      Your Answer: Arrange for a urine culture, and treat with a 7-day course of oral trimethoprim. No need for repeat urine culture following treatment course

      Correct Answer: Arrange for a urine culture, and treat with a 7-day course of oral cefalexin. Repeat the urine culture seven days after antibiotics have completed as a test of cure

      Explanation:

      To avoid the risk of birth defects, trimethoprim should not be used during the first trimester of pregnancy. When a urinary tract infection is suspected in women, it is recommended to start treatment before waiting for culture results. However, a urine culture and sensitivity test should be done before starting antibiotics and again seven days after completing treatment to ensure it was effective. Local guidelines for prescribing antibiotics should be followed, and cefalexin is a safe alternative to trimethoprim. The current recommendation is to take antibiotics for seven days.

      Understanding Trimethoprim: Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Use in Pregnancy

      Trimethoprim is an antibiotic that is commonly used to treat urinary tract infections. Its mechanism of action involves interfering with DNA synthesis by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase. This may cause an interaction with methotrexate, which also inhibits dihydrofolate reductase. However, the use of trimethoprim may also lead to adverse effects such as myelosuppression and a transient rise in creatinine. The drug competitively inhibits the tubular secretion of creatinine, resulting in a temporary increase that reverses upon stopping the medication. Additionally, trimethoprim blocks the ENaC channel in the distal nephron, causing a hyperkalaemic distal RTA (type 4). It also inhibits creatinine secretion, which often leads to an increase in creatinine by around 40 points, but not necessarily causing AKI.

      When it comes to the use of trimethoprim in pregnancy, caution is advised. The British National Formulary (BNF) warns of a teratogenic risk in the first trimester due to its folate antagonist properties. Manufacturers advise avoiding the use of trimethoprim during pregnancy. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication, especially during pregnancy, to ensure the safety of both the mother and the developing fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      64.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A seven-year-old girl comes to the clinic with a 2-day history of fever,...

    Incorrect

    • A seven-year-old girl comes to the clinic with a 2-day history of fever, urinary frequency, and dysuria. A urine dipstick test is done on a fresh urine sample which shows positive for nitrites and negative for leucocytes. She has no signs of systemic illness and no abdominal or loin symptoms. The child has been healthy in the past and has never had a urinary tract infection. What is the best initial management plan?

      Your Answer: Treat as a UTI with an antibiotic and send urine for culture

      Correct Answer: Treat as a UTI with antibiotic but do not send urine for culture

      Explanation:

      Managing Urinary Tract Infections in Children

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are a common issue in children, but managing them can be challenging. To effectively manage UTIs in children, it is important to know when to use urine dipstick testing and when to send urine for culture.

      In infants and children over 3 months old with suspected UTIs, a urine dipstick test should be performed on a fresh urine sample. If the test is positive for nitrites and negative for leukocytes, antibiotics should be started, and a fresh urine sample should be sent for culture to confirm the diagnosis. The results should be reassessed.

      If the dipstick test is positive for nitrites and leukocytes, antibiotics should be started for a UTI. Urine should only be sent for culture if the child is under 3 years old, there is suspected pyelonephritis, there is a risk of serious illness, there is a past history of UTI, or there is no response to treatment and a urine sample has not already been sent.

      By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage UTIs in children and ensure appropriate use of urine dipstick testing and urine culture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      52
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is an important factor to consider when providing medical services to a...

    Incorrect

    • What is an important factor to consider when providing medical services to a high security prison?

      Your Answer: A clinical governance lead should be identified who can oversee care within the prison

      Correct Answer: Collusion between medical staff and offenders is very common

      Explanation:

      Clinical Governance Lead in Prisons

      Prison Service Order 3100 mandates the appointment of a clinical governance lead in prisons. Although this order was implemented before the transfer of responsibility for service provision to the PCT, the need for an effective clinical governance structure remains crucial. In 2005, formal responsibility for medical services was transferred, resulting in a well-organized service that includes regular GP surgeries, drug and alcohol support services, and pre-discharge medical appointments. However, in high-security prisons, staffing ratios may result in missed secondary care appointments despite the provision of key services.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of feeling constantly fatigued. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of feeling constantly fatigued. She denies any symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, blurred vision, abdominal pain, or vomiting, and has no known medical conditions. Her mother and maternal aunt were both diagnosed with diabetes around her age and manage it with tablets. On examination, her BMI is 23 kg/m2, and urinalysis is unremarkable. Blood tests reveal an HbA1c of 50 mmol/mol (normal range: 20-42 mmol/mol). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Type II diabetes mellitus (TIIDM)

      Correct Answer: Maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY)

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Hyperglycaemia: Understanding the Different Types of Diabetes

      Hyperglycaemia, or high blood sugar, can be caused by various types of diabetes. One uncommon form is maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY), which typically occurs before the age of 25 and is characterised by a slow onset of symptoms, absence of obesity and ketosis, and autosomal-dominant inheritance with multiple possible genetic mutations responsible.

      To rule out other types of diabetes, it is important to consider the patient’s symptoms and medical history. Gestational diabetes, which occurs during pregnancy, is unlikely in this case as the patient is not known to be pregnant and typically affects those with a BMI of 30 or more. Steroid-induced diabetes, which can occur with prolonged steroid use for medical conditions such as Addison’s disease or asthma, is also unlikely as the patient has no pre-existing medical conditions for which she would be prescribed steroids.

      Type I diabetes mellitus (TIDM) commonly occurs in young, slim individuals with a family history of TIDM or other autoimmune conditions and is treated with insulin. However, in this case, the patient has very few symptoms of diabetes, a normal urinalysis, and a family history of diabetes treated with tablets rather than insulin. Type II diabetes mellitus (TIIDM), which commonly occurs in older individuals who are overweight but is increasingly more common in younger individuals due to childhood obesity, is also less likely as the patient is young, has a normal BMI, and has a family history of diabetes treated with tablets at a young age.

      In conclusion, based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history, the most likely diagnosis is MODY. Understanding the different types of diabetes and their characteristic features can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate management of hyperglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 20 - A 29-year-old man with a history of moderate ulcerative colitis and mesalazine use...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old man with a history of moderate ulcerative colitis and mesalazine use presents with a fever and sore throat lasting for a week. What is the primary investigation that should be conducted initially?

      Your Answer: Full blood count

      Explanation:

      If a patient is taking aminosalicylates, they may experience various haematological adverse effects, including agranulocytosis. Therefore, it is crucial to conduct a full blood count promptly if the patient presents with symptoms such as fever, sore throat, fatigue, or bleeding gums.

      While C-reactive protein may be a part of the overall management plan, it is not the most critical initial investigation and is unlikely to alter the management plan.

      Although the monospot test for glandular fever may be useful if glandular fever is suspected, it is not the primary investigation that needs to be conducted urgently.

      Similarly, while a throat swab may be necessary as part of the overall management plan, it is not the most crucial initial investigation that needs to be performed urgently.

      Aminosalicylate Drugs for Inflammatory Bowel Disease

      Aminosalicylate drugs are commonly used to treat inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). These drugs work by releasing 5-aminosalicyclic acid (5-ASA) in the colon, which acts as an anti-inflammatory agent. The exact mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed that 5-ASA may inhibit prostaglandin synthesis.

      Sulphasalazine is a combination of sulphapyridine and 5-ASA. However, many of the side effects associated with this drug are due to the sulphapyridine component, such as rashes, oligospermia, headache, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and lung fibrosis. Mesalazine is a delayed release form of 5-ASA that avoids the sulphapyridine side effects seen in patients taking sulphasalazine. However, it is still associated with side effects such as gastrointestinal upset, headache, agranulocytosis, pancreatitis, and interstitial nephritis.

      Olsalazine is another aminosalicylate drug that consists of two molecules of 5-ASA linked by a diazo bond, which is broken down by colonic bacteria. It is important to note that aminosalicylates are associated with a variety of haematological adverse effects, including agranulocytosis. Therefore, a full blood count is a key investigation in an unwell patient taking these drugs. Pancreatitis is also more common in patients taking mesalazine compared to sulfasalazine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 21 - Samantha is an 80-year-old woman with chronic kidney disease and hypertension who has...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is an 80-year-old woman with chronic kidney disease and hypertension who has scheduled an appointment with you for a medication review. She is currently on ramipril 2.5mg once daily and amlodipine 5mg once daily. Her recent blood and urine tests are as follows:

      Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 8.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 135 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      eGFR 39 ml/min/1.73m²

      Urine albumin:creatinine ratio = 73 mg/mmol.

      Based on the above results, what is the target blood pressure for Samantha according to NICE guidelines?

      Your Answer: <140/90 mmHg

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      For patients with chronic kidney disease, hypertension, and a urinary albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) of 70 or more, it is recommended to aim for a lower blood pressure target of <130/80 mmHg. This approach can provide advantages such as reducing the risk of cardiovascular complications and slowing the progression of the disease. However, if the patient’s ACR is less than 70 mg/mmol, the blood pressure target can be slightly higher at <140/90 mmHg. For individuals under 80 years old, the recommended target for home blood pressure readings is <135/85 mmHg. Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are especially effective in proteinuric renal disease like diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs can reduce filtration pressure, leading to a slight decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and an increase in creatinine. NICE guidelines state that a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes. If the rise is greater than this, it may indicate underlying renovascular disease. Furosemide is a useful Antihypertensive drug for CKD patients, particularly when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min*. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient is at risk of dehydration (e.g. due to gastroenteritis), the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 22 - A 76-year-old woman presents for review. Her daughter is very concerned because her...

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old woman presents for review. Her daughter is very concerned because her mother is becoming increasingly apathetic, some days not getting out of bed and wearing the same clothes for a number of days in a row. She appears to be having difficulty with word finding. You understand that her husband died three months earlier. Apart from hypertension, she is otherwise physically well.
      Physical examination is unremarkable. Her body mass index is 23 kg/m2. Her heart rate is 72 bpm and regular.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between types of dementia and depression

      When assessing a patient with cognitive decline, it is important to consider the various possible diagnoses. In the case of a patient who recently lost their spouse and is experiencing symptoms such as apathy and sleep disturbance, depression is the most likely diagnosis. Cognitive behavioural therapy is the recommended intervention in this situation.

      Multi-infarct dementia, on the other hand, is typically seen in patients with vascular risk factors such as diabetes and atrial fibrillation. This type of dementia is characterized by a stepwise decline in functioning, with personality traits remaining relatively intact until late in the disease.

      Alcohol abuse can also lead to cognitive decline, with weight loss and signs of chronic liver disease being common physical manifestations.

      Alzheimer’s dementia is associated with progressive short-term memory loss, difficulties with language and decision-making, and problems with planning. While patients may present with dementia after the death of a partner, the symptoms described here are more consistent with depression.

      Finally, frontal lobe dementia is characterized by early symptoms of inappropriate social behaviour, disinhibition, and loss of empathy and sympathy. Memory loss is a late feature of this disease. By carefully considering the patient’s symptoms and medical history, healthcare professionals can make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 23 - A 50-year-old man comes to your clinic with a large scaly erythematous eruption...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to your clinic with a large scaly erythematous eruption on the left side of his chest with a few smaller patches nearby. He believes it started about a year ago. The edge of the lesion looks a bit more inflamed than the central parts. It is itchy. Your colleague gave him topical steroids, and he thinks there may have been some improvement, but it never went away and worsened on stopping the treatment.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Eczema

      Correct Answer: Tinea corporis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Epidermal Conditions: Distinguishing Features and Diagnosis

      When it comes to epidermal conditions, eczema and psoriasis are often the first to come to mind. However, there are other conditions that produce scale and have distinct features that set them apart. One such condition is ringworm, which is characterized by asymmetrical lesions with an active scaly edge and central clearing. To diagnose ringworm, skin scrapings should be taken and sent for fungal analysis, as it is often caused by the dermatophyte Trichophyton rubrum.

      It is important to note that treating a potential tinea infection with potent steroids can alter the appearance of the lesion and even produce pustules. Therefore, it is crucial to have a negative skin scraping before using strong steroids. Additionally, tinea infections may also be present on the feet with nail involvement.

      Other epidermal conditions, such as pityriasis rosea and pityriasis versicolor, have their own distinct features. Pityriasis rosea begins with a herald patch followed by smaller oval red scaly patches mainly on the chest and back. Pityriasis versicolor, on the other hand, affects the trunk, neck, and/or arms and is caused by a yeast infection rather than a dermatophyte infection.

      In summary, understanding the distinguishing features and proper diagnosis of different epidermal conditions is crucial in providing effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 24 - A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism presents with fatigue and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism presents with fatigue and a painful tongue. Her blood tests reveal the following results:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 10.7 g/dl
      - Mean corpuscular volume (MCV): 121 fl
      - Platelet count (Plt): 177 * 109/l
      - White blood cell count (WBC): 5.4 * 109/l

      Further investigations reveal that her vitamin B12 levels are 64 ng/l (normal range: 200-900 ng/l) and her folic acid levels are 7.2 nmol/l (normal range: > 3.0 nmol/l). Antibodies to intrinsic factor are also detected. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: 1 mg of IM hydroxocobalamin 3 times each week for 2 weeks, then once every 3 months + folic acid 5mg od

      Correct Answer: 1 mg of IM hydroxocobalamin 3 times each week for 2 weeks, then once every 3 months

      Explanation:

      Vitamin B12 is essential for the development of red blood cells and the maintenance of the nervous system. It is absorbed through the binding of intrinsic factor, which is secreted by parietal cells in the stomach, and actively absorbed in the terminal ileum. A deficiency in vitamin B12 can be caused by pernicious anaemia, post gastrectomy, a vegan or poor diet, disorders or surgery of the terminal ileum, Crohn’s disease, or metformin use.

      Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include macrocytic anaemia, a sore tongue and mouth, neurological symptoms, and neuropsychiatric symptoms such as mood disturbances. The dorsal column is usually affected first, leading to joint position and vibration issues before distal paraesthesia.

      Management of vitamin B12 deficiency involves administering 1 mg of IM hydroxocobalamin three times a week for two weeks, followed by once every three months if there is no neurological involvement. If a patient is also deficient in folic acid, it is important to treat the B12 deficiency first to avoid subacute combined degeneration of the cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      37.4
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  • Question 25 - Which of the following statements about children with special educational needs (SEN) is...

    Correct

    • Which of the following statements about children with special educational needs (SEN) is not true?

      Your Answer: A special educational needs coordinator (SENCO) is a paediatrician who specialises in education

      Explanation:

      A teacher who specializes in coordinating special educational needs is known as a SENCO.

      Special educational needs (SEN) refer to children who have a greater difficulty in learning compared to their peers or have a disability that hinders their access to educational facilities. When a child is struggling, a review called ‘School Action’ is conducted by the school and parents to determine what can be done. If outside help is required, such as from an educational psychologist or speech therapist, the review is called ‘School Action Plus’. However, if these actions are not sufficient, a formal statement of educational needs may be necessary.

      To assess children who may require help, a special educational needs coordinator (SENCO) is a teacher who specializes in this area. The statement of SEN should be made and reviewed annually to ensure that the child’s needs are being met. The Education Act 1993 aimed to provide early intervention to children with SEN.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 26 - What is the most typical trait of a patient with vitamin C deficiency?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most typical trait of a patient with vitamin C deficiency?

      Your Answer: Ocular muscle palsy and dementia

      Correct Answer: Paraesthesia and ataxia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vitamin C Deficiency and Scurvy

      Vitamin C is an essential nutrient that is primarily found in fruits and vegetables. A deficiency of ascorbic acid can lead to scurvy, a condition characterized by inflamed and bleeding gums, impaired wound healing, and other symptoms. Cutaneous findings of scurvy include follicular hyperkeratosis, perifollicular haemorrhages, ecchymoses, xerosis, leg oedema, poor wound healing, and bent or coiled body hairs.

      It is important to note that cheilosis and red tongue are more indicative of vitamin B12 or iron deficiency, while diarrhoea and delusions suggest vitamin B deficiency (pellagra). Ocular muscle palsy and dementia are more likely to be associated with thiamine deficiency or Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      Vitamin C deficiency is not uncommon in the elderly population, and it is crucial to be aware of the signs and symptoms to make a proper diagnosis. Measuring vitamin C concentrations in the white cell can confirm the diagnosis of scurvy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 27 - A 4-week-old girl is referred to you by the health visitor after her...

    Correct

    • A 4-week-old girl is referred to you by the health visitor after her mother noticed that she ‘looked yellow’. On examination, she is jaundiced, with dark urine and pale stools. Examination is otherwise normal. The mother had an uneventful pregnancy and birth, and the baby has had vitamin K.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Biliary atresia

      Explanation:

      Neonatal Jaundice: Differential Diagnosis

      Biliary atresia is a congenital condition that causes obstructive jaundice due to the obliteration of the extrahepatic biliary system. It presents soon after birth with persistent jaundice, pale stools, and dark urine. Physiological jaundice, which appears after 2-3 days of age, is a different condition that doesn’t cause changes in stool and urine color. Gallstones and Rhesus incompatibility can also present with obstructive jaundice, but they are less likely. Vitamin K deficiency is not a likely cause of neonatal jaundice if the child has received vitamin K soon after birth. Any term infant who is still jaundiced after 14 days (or preterm infants after 21 days) should be investigated for the underlying cause of their jaundice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      39
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Anna is a 35-year-old woman who has been unsuccessful in conceiving a child...

    Incorrect

    • Anna is a 35-year-old woman who has been unsuccessful in conceiving a child after three rounds of IVF. She is now contemplating adoption and fostering as alternatives. Anna adores children and desires to have a big family.

      What is the highest number of children that Anna can foster simultaneously?

      Your Answer: 2

      Correct Answer: 3

      Explanation:

      As per the Children Act 1989, families are restricted to fostering a maximum of three children.

      Foster care is a system in which children who cannot live with their birth families are placed with foster families who provide them with a safe and nurturing environment. According to Schedule 7 of the Children Act 1989, there is a limit of three foster children per family. Additionally, all children in long-term foster care require a medical examination every six months to ensure their physical and emotional well-being. This system aims to provide children with stability and support while their birth families work towards resolving any issues that led to their placement in foster care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old man has become withdrawn and is receiving messages via the television....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man has become withdrawn and is receiving messages via the television. You suspect he may have schizophrenia.
      Select from the list the single correct statement regarding the treatment of schizophrenia.

      Your Answer: Clozapine is indicated for treatment-resistant schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic Medication for Schizophrenia: Types, Side-Effects, and Treatment Options

      Antipsychotic medication is commonly used to alleviate the symptoms of schizophrenia, particularly positive symptoms. However, they may not be as effective for negative symptoms. Newer or atypical antipsychotics, such as amisulpride, aripiprazole, clozapine, olanzapine, quetiapine, risperidone, and sertindole, are often preferred as they have a better balance between efficacy and side-effects.

      First-generation antipsychotic drugs, also known as typical antipsychotics, primarily block dopamine D2 receptors in the brain, which can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms and elevated prolactin. Second-generation antipsychotic drugs, or atypical antipsychotics, act on a wider range of receptors and have more distinct clinical profiles. Both types of antipsychotics are effective in treating schizophrenia.

      Early treatment is recommended to prevent further deterioration of brain functioning. In some cases, long-acting antipsychotic injections may be used to improve compliance. Benzodiazepines may also be used as a short-term adjunct therapy for behavior disturbances, insomnia, aggression, and agitation, although the evidence supporting this is limited.

      Clozapine is indicated for patients with schizophrenia who are unresponsive to or intolerant of conventional antipsychotic drugs. It can only be prescribed by a specialist and requires at least two previous trials of antipsychotics, including one newer/atypical antipsychotic, at adequate dosages and treatment periods. However, it carries a risk of life-threatening neutropenia as a potential side-effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 30 - You come across a 20-year-old art student who complains of a painful, red...

    Correct

    • You come across a 20-year-old art student who complains of a painful, red right eye. The symptoms started four days ago with a sensation of something being stuck in her eye, but she cannot see anything. Her eyelids are now slightly swollen, and her eye is watering. She experiences blurred vision and sensitivity to light. She is generally healthy and wears contact lenses daily, with no history of cold sores.

      Upon examination, you observe a diffusely red right eye. Her pupil reaction is normal, but her visual acuity is slightly reduced. Staining reveals a small, circular area on the cornea that takes up the dye.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Corneal ulcer

      Explanation:

      When a patient who wears contact lenses experiences a foreign body sensation in their eye, along with a red eye and an ulcer on staining, it is a classic presentation of a corneal ulcer. However, it is important to rule out herpes simplex keratitis as a differential diagnosis, especially if the patient has a history of herpes. Anterior uveitis, episcleritis, and scleritis would not show any abnormalities on staining the eye.

      A corneal ulcer is a condition where there is a defect in the cornea, usually caused by an infection. This is different from a corneal abrasion, which is a defect in the cornea caused by physical trauma. Risk factors for corneal ulcers include using contact lenses and having a vitamin A deficiency, which is more common in developing countries.

      The pathophysiology of corneal ulcers can be caused by bacterial, fungal, viral, or Acanthamoeba infections. Bacterial keratitis, fungal keratitis, and viral keratitis (such as herpes simplex or herpes zoster) can lead to a dendritic ulcer. Acanthamoeba keratitis is often associated with contact lens use.

      Symptoms of a corneal ulcer include eye pain, sensitivity to light, and watering of the eye. The cornea may also show focal fluorescein staining.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infectious Disease And Travel Health (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/1) 0%
Mental Health (3/3) 100%
Haematology (2/2) 100%
Cardiovascular Health (0/1) 0%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (0/1) 0%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (0/2) 0%
Eyes And Vision (2/2) 100%
Gynaecology And Breast (0/1) 0%
Kidney And Urology (0/3) 0%
Consulting In General Practice (0/2) 0%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/1) 100%
Children And Young People (2/4) 50%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/1) 0%
Genomic Medicine (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
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