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Question 1
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A 70-year-old woman with a history of ischaemic heart disease and congestive cardiac failure presents for a routine medical appointment. She was recently hospitalized for chest pain and shortness of breath, but acute coronary syndrome was ruled out. Her medications include ramipril, simvastatin, warfarin, carvedilol, digoxin, and isosorbide mononitrate. She has been experiencing a painful left toe and was started on oral colchicine by her GP, but had to stop due to severe diarrhea. On examination, she has jugular venous pressure, an irregularly irregular heart rate, and bilateral ankle edema. She also has acute gout in her left foot. What is the recommended treatment for her gout?
Treatment:Your Answer: Allopurinol
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:Medication Considerations for a Patient with Congestive Cardiac Failure
As a patient with significant congestive cardiac failure, certain medications should be avoided or used with caution. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like ibuprofen and diclofenac are a relative contraindication, especially if there is renal impairment. Etoricoxib should also be avoided as it can worsen underlying cardiac failure. While allopurinol can be given for prophylaxis of gout, it can worsen acute gout.
Paracetamol may not provide sufficient pain relief in these situations, and there is no trial evidence supporting its use. Oral and intra-articular steroids can be useful, but long-term oral steroid use is not recommended unless under specialist guidance. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider medication options for patients with congestive cardiac failure to avoid exacerbating their condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with a sudden onset severe headache accompanied by nausea and vomiting. She has also experienced intermittent uncontrollable twitching of her left hand and noticed blurring of vision in the last hour. The patient has a history of psoriatic arthropathy and is recovering from gastroenteritis. She is a smoker and drinks approximately 10 units of alcohol per week. On examination, she appears dehydrated with mild papilloedema and increased tone in the left arm and leg. A CT brain scan reveals an enhancing lesion within the right frontal cortical white matter junction associated with haemorrhage and cerebral oedema. Based on these findings, what is the most likely cause of the patient's neurological presentation?
Your Answer: Cerebral metastases secondary to lung carcinoma
Correct Answer: Dural venous sinus thrombosis secondary to anti-phospholipid syndrome
Explanation:Diagnosis and Possible Causes of Venous Sinus Thrombosis
This patient presents with a sudden onset headache, simple partial seizures, and focal left-sided pyramidal signs. The patient has a history of gastroenteritis and is dehydrated. Based on the patient’s history, a dural venous sinus thrombosis is expected. Further investigation reveals evidence of pulmonary hypertension with right heart strain, mild anemia, and thrombocytopenia with a prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time. The likely cause of the venous sinus thrombosis is anti-phospholipid syndrome, which leads to a hypercoagulable state.
On a CT brain scan, infarctions in a non-arterial distribution in the white matter and/or cortical white matter junction, often associated with hemorrhage, suggest the possible diagnosis of venous thrombosis. On a contrast-enhanced CT scan, the reverse delta sign (empty triangle sign) can be observed in the superior sagittal sinus from enhancement of the dural leaves surrounding the comparatively less dense thrombosed sinus.
Cerebral amyloid angiopathy (CAA) can cause hemorrhagic strokes but would not explain the right heart strain. Other than being a heavy smoker, there are no other features to suggest cerebral metastases. Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (HHT) causes arteriovenous malformations that predominantly affect the nose, skin, and gastrointestinal tract.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man presents with worsening shortness of breath over the past year. He has been using inhalers prescribed by his GP for the past two years, but only intermittently in the last three months. He has a six-year history of hypertension and takes ramipril 10 mg od and bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg daily. He quit smoking two years ago and drinks approximately 14 units of alcohol per week. On examination, he appears cyanosed with a swollen face and dilated superficial veins over the anterior chest wall, along with fixed dilated neck veins. His blood pressure is 154/88 mmHg, and his pulse is 88 beats per minute. Respiratory examination reveals a hyperexpanded chest with scattered expiratory wheeze, and there is pitting edema of the ankles. Abdominal examination is normal.
Investigations show a hemoglobin level of 148 g/L (130-180), a white cell count of 12.91 ×109/L (4-11), platelets of 488 ×109/L (150-400), serum sodium of 130 mmol/L (137-144), serum urea of 10.8 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), and serum corrected calcium of 2.81 mmol/L (2.2-2.6). The ECG is normal, and a chest x-ray shows hyperexpanded lung fields with left paratracheal shadowing. A CT scan of the thorax reveals an anterior mediastinal mass.
What single investigation would be most useful in making a diagnosis?Your Answer: Bone marrow trephine biopsy
Correct Answer: Biopsy of the mediastinal mass
Explanation:Superior Vena Caval Obstruction (SVCO) and its Diagnosis and Treatment
The patient is exhibiting symptoms and signs of superior vena caval obstruction (SVCO) which is caused by an anterior mediastinal mass. The most effective way to diagnose this condition is through a histological confirmation of the lesion obtained from a biopsy. A percutaneous CT guided biopsy is usually the preferred method for this. The most common cause of SVCO is primary lung cancer, although lymphoma can also be a cause.
Treatment for SVCO involves addressing the underlying condition. However, in some cases of non-small cell lung cancer, stenting of the SVCO may be necessary to alleviate symptoms before chemotherapy or palliative radiotherapy can be administered. It is important to diagnose and treat SVCO promptly to prevent further complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presented to the emergency department with recurrent episodes of severe headache and vomiting over the past 5-6 days. She had a history of metastatic breast cancer and was receiving palliative chemotherapy. Additionally, she had type 2 diabetes mellitus and osteoarthritis of bilateral knee joints.
During examination, her pulse rate was 100/min, respiratory rate was 18/min, and blood pressure was 130/90 mmHg. Fundoscopy revealed early papilloedema.
A contrast-enhanced CT brain scan was performed, which revealed a solitary mass of 3.5 cm in the left cerebral hemisphere.
What would be the most appropriate course of action now?Your Answer: Start 16 mg of i.v dexamethasone and prophylactic anticonvulsants
Correct Answer: Start 16 mg of dexamethasone and arrange urgent MRI brain
Explanation:The primary approach for managing brain metastasis is administering high doses of dexamethasone. If a solitary lesion is detected on contrast enhanced CT brain, an MRI with gadolinium is necessary to evaluate the extent of intracranial disease. Anticonvulsant therapy should be given to patients who present with seizure activity. Patients with a limited number of lesions (less than four) may be considered for more aggressive treatment options such as neurosurgery or stereotactic radiotherapy, but not as an immediate step. If the primary is unknown, a biopsy of the lesion is recommended. For patients with multiple brain metastases (more than four), whole brain radiotherapy is the appropriate course of action.
Breast Cancer Management: Surgery, Radiotherapy, Hormone Therapy, Biological Therapy, and Chemotherapy
The management of breast cancer varies depending on the stage, type of tumor, and patient’s background. The treatment options include surgery, radiotherapy, hormone therapy, biological therapy, and chemotherapy. Surgery is the most common treatment option, and it involves removing the tumor. The type of surgery depends on the characteristics of the tumor, such as its size, location, and whether it has spread to the lymph nodes. Women may have a wide-local excision or a mastectomy.
Radiotherapy is recommended after a woman has had a wide-local excision to reduce the risk of recurrence. Hormonal therapy is offered if the tumor is positive for hormone receptors. Tamoxifen is used in pre- and peri-menopausal women, while aromatase inhibitors such as anastrozole are used in Postmenopausal women. Biological therapy is used for HER2 positive tumors, and the most common type is trastuzumab (Herceptin). Chemotherapy may be used before or after surgery, depending on the stage of the tumor.
It is important to note that each treatment option has its side effects, and the management plan should be tailored to the patient’s individual needs. Women should be offered breast reconstruction to achieve a cosmetically suitable result regardless of the type of operation they have.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 5
Correct
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An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with hemoptysis. He has a past medical history of hepatitis C. He declined anti-viral therapy.
On examination, he has a saddle nose deformity. There is a non-blanching rash on his lower limbs.
Blood tests:
Hb 88 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 489 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 8.2 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 18.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 155 µmol/L (55 - 120)
CRP 151 mg/L (< 5)
Urinalysis:
Blood +
Protein +++
Plain radiography of the chest demonstrates bilateral infiltrates.
What test is most likely to be positive given the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: C-ANCA
Explanation:The correct answer is cANCA. The patient is presenting with a multisystem disease that includes haemoptysis, saddle nose deformity, likely pulmonary haemorrhage, anaemia, and acute kidney injury with haematoproteinuria. These symptoms are indicative of granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA), which is an ANCA-associated vasculitis that is most commonly associated with cANCA.
The answer choices of anti-GBM, cryoglobulins, dsDNA, and pANCA are incorrect. While anti-GBM can also cause a pulmonary-renal syndrome, it is not associated with the ENT features seen in GPA. Cryoglobulins are less likely to cause pulmonary haemorrhage and are not associated with ENT involvement. dsDNA is specific to systemic lupus erythematosus, which typically affects younger women and does not typically involve ENT symptoms. pANCA is more commonly associated with microscopic polyangiitis, which lacks ENT involvement in most cases and has a poor positive predictive value for vasculitis when pANCA is positive with negative MPO/PR3.
Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis: An Autoimmune Condition
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis, previously known as Wegener’s granulomatosis, is an autoimmune condition that affects the upper and lower respiratory tract as well as the kidneys. It is characterized by a necrotizing granulomatous vasculitis. The condition presents with various symptoms such as epistaxis, sinusitis, nasal crusting, dyspnoea, haemoptysis, and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. Other symptoms include a saddle-shape nose deformity, vasculitic rash, eye involvement, and cranial nerve lesions.
To diagnose granulomatosis with polyangiitis, doctors perform various investigations such as cANCA and pANCA tests, chest x-rays, and renal biopsies. The cANCA test is positive in more than 90% of cases, while the pANCA test is positive in 25% of cases. Chest x-rays show a wide variety of presentations, including cavitating lesions. Renal biopsies reveal epithelial crescents in Bowman’s capsule.
The management of granulomatosis with polyangiitis involves the use of steroids, cyclophosphamide, and plasma exchange. Cyclophosphamide has a 90% response rate. The median survival rate for patients with this condition is 8-9 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 6
Correct
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A 45-year-old man presents to the hospital with a two-week history of flu-like symptoms, wheezing, shortness of breath when lying flat, and palpitations. He has no significant medical history. His vital signs include a heart rate of 98 beats per minute, blood pressure of 96/50 mmHg, and oxygen saturation of 96% on 2 liters of oxygen. He has no fever.
Upon examination, the patient has a low volume pulse with a raised jugular venous pressure and a raised Y descent. A third heart sound is audible, but there are no murmurs. Bilateral crepitations and pitting edema of the legs are present.
Blood tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 158 g/L, platelet count of 335 * 109/L, white blood cell count of 11.7 * 109/L, and elevated neutrophils, lymphocytes, and eosinophils. Electrolyte levels are within normal limits, and the C-reactive protein level is elevated.
The patient's ECG shows sinus rhythm with left ventricular hypertrophy but no signs of ischemia. The PR interval is normal. An echocardiogram reveals preserved systolic function with moderate concentric left ventricular hypertrophy, dilated atria, and evidence of diastolic dysfunction. There is no valvular pathology or suspicious lesions surrounding the valves.
In this case, what imaging modality would be most appropriate for identifying the patient's diagnosis?Your Answer: Cardiac MRI
Explanation:When investigating the potential cause of cardiomyopathy, cardiac MRI is the preferred method alongside echocardiography. In this case, the echocardiography and examination results suggest restrictive cardiomyopathy, and the patient’s significant eosinophilia raises the possibility of Löffler’s endocarditis.
While there are various cardiac imaging options available, cardiac MRI provides the most detailed information on heart function and structure in such cases. A transoesophageal echocardiogram is not necessary as the likelihood of infective endocarditis is low.
While a catheterisation or myocardial perfusion scan can provide valuable information on ischaemia, they will not reveal the underlying cause of restrictive cardiomyopathy. A high resolution CT thorax is not indicated as the suspicion is primarily on a cardiac issue.
Understanding Restrictive Cardiomyopathy
Restrictive cardiomyopathy is a condition that is primarily characterized by decreased compliance of the ventricular endomyocardium, leading to predominantly diastolic dysfunction. There are several causes of this condition, including amyloidosis, haemochromatosis, post-radiation fibrosis, Loeffler’s syndrome, endocardial fibroelastosis, sarcoidosis, and scleroderma. Among these, amyloidosis is the most common cause in the UK.
The features of restrictive cardiomyopathy are similar to those of constrictive pericarditis, but there are some differences. For instance, patients with restrictive cardiomyopathy may have a prominent apical pulse, absence of pericardial calcification on CXR, and an enlarged heart. Additionally, ECG abnormalities such as bundle branch block and Q waves may be present.
To diagnose restrictive cardiomyopathy, doctors may use echocardiography and cardiac MRI. These tests can help to identify the underlying cause of the condition and determine the best course of treatment. Overall, understanding the causes, pathophysiology, and features of restrictive cardiomyopathy is essential for accurate diagnosis and effective management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with dysuria and abdominal pain. He has a past medical history of chronic kidney disease stage IV. His medications include atorvastatin, amlodipine and ramipril.
On examination, there is mild suprapubic tenderness.
Urinalysis:
Nitrites positive
Leucocytes +++
Blood +
Protein +
Glucose negative
Blood tests:
Hb 137 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 189 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 8.2 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 137 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 22.1 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 278 µmol/L (55 - 120)
EGFR 23 mL/min/1.73m2 (90-120)
CRP 48 mg/L (< 5)
Which antibiotic would be inappropriate for this likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin
Explanation:Prescribing for Patients with Renal Failure
Prescribing medication for patients with renal failure can be challenging. It is important to know which drugs to avoid and which ones require dose adjustment. Antibiotics such as tetracycline and nitrofurantoin, as well as NSAIDs, lithium, and metformin should be avoided in patients with renal failure. These drugs can cause further damage to the kidneys or accumulate in the body, leading to toxicity.
On the other hand, some drugs require dose adjustment in patients with chronic kidney disease. Antibiotics such as penicillins, cephalosporins, vancomycin, gentamicin, and streptomycin, as well as digoxin, atenolol, methotrexate, sulphonylureas, and furosemide, are among the drugs that require dose adjustment. Opioids should also be used with caution in patients with renal failure.
There are also drugs that are relatively safe to use in patients with renal failure. Antibiotics such as erythromycin and rifampicin, as well as diazepam and warfarin, can sometimes be used at normal doses depending on the degree of chronic kidney disease.
In summary, prescribing medication for patients with renal failure requires careful consideration of the drugs’ potential effects on the kidneys and the need for dose adjustment. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to ensure safe and effective medication management for these patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man had surgery to remove a tumor from his right lung three years ago. He received postoperative radiation therapy of 5000 cGy. His primary care physician has referred him for assessment of a painful right arm with weakness.
During the examination at the clinic, the patient appears alert but apprehensive. The right palpebral fissure is slightly smaller than the left, but eye movements are normal. The right pupil is smaller than the left. Swallowing and speech are normal, as is facial expression. The small muscles of the right hand are atrophied and weak, with clawing affecting the right ring and little fingers. There is decreased sensitivity to pinprick on the ulnar border of the right hand and forearm.
What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Radiation plexopathy
Correct Answer: Metastatic infiltration of the brachial plexus
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Brachial Plexus Lesion
A brachial plexus lesion can have various causes, and a proper differential diagnosis is crucial for effective treatment. In this case, metastatic infiltration of the brachial plexus is the most likely cause, as evidenced by the wasting and weakness of small hand muscles, clawing of fingers (especially fourth and fifth), sensory loss in C8 T1 distribution, and Horner syndrome indicating T1 root involvement. Radiation plexopathy is another possibility, but it usually affects the upper brachial plexus and is painless with lymphoedema. Cervical ribs leading to thoracic outlet syndrome involving C7 are rare and should be considered only after ruling out a lesion related to breast cancer. Syringomyelia presents with progressive bilateral weakness affecting both arms and legs, along with dissociated sensory loss, which is not the case here. Monomelic motor neurone disease is a focal motor neurone disease that does not cause sensory loss and is therefore unlikely to be responsible for the symptoms seen in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents for a follow-up after being diagnosed with limited-stage small cell lung cancer (SCLC). He underwent four cycles of chemotherapy and concurrent radiation to the tumour site, resulting in significant tumour response as confirmed by CT scan, which showed scarring only in the area of the primary tumour in the right upper lobe and no evidence of recurrence. The patient has a good performance status and physical examination is unremarkable except for decreased breath sounds and crackles in the right upper chest. Neurologic examination results are normal.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: Expectant observation
Correct Answer: Prophylactic cranial irradiation
Explanation:Prophylactic Cranial Irradiation for Small Cell Lung Cancer
The brain is a common site of relapse in patients with small cell lung cancer (SCLC) after initial chemotherapy. To prevent this, prophylactic cranial irradiation (PCI) should be considered for patients who respond to initial chemotherapy. Randomized clinical trials have shown that PCI can decrease the risk of intracranial relapse from 40% to 20% and improve long-term survival by approximately 5% in patients with limited-stage SCLC. Therefore, PCI is preferred over expectant observation in these patients.
Maintenance therapy with topotecan has been shown to improve progression-free survival in patients who responded to first-line chemotherapy, but not overall survival due to the emergence of chemotherapy resistance. SCLC vaccination is not an effective therapy for SCLC, as a phase III study showed no prolonged survival in patients who received the vaccine after induction chemotherapy.
Surgical treatment has a limited role in SCLC, as the disease almost always has concurrent micrometastases, and surgical therapy for cure is not an option. However, NICE guidelines suggest considering surgery in people with early-stage SCLC (T1-2a, N0, M0).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the Neurology Clinic. She has been struggling to keep up with her work and is experiencing difficulty sleeping at night. During the day, she often falls asleep unexpectedly, which is causing her significant embarrassment. These episodes tend to occur in stressful situations or when she is engaged in a lively conversation. To help her sleep, she has been drinking large amounts of alcohol in the evenings. Upon further questioning, she reports experiencing hypnagogic hallucinations. A friend suggested she try amphetamines to help her stay awake during the day. Neurological examination is unremarkable. Laboratory investigations reveal the following results:
Haemoglobin (Hb): 132 g/l (normal range: 135-175 g/l)
White cell count (WCC): 6.2 × 109/l (normal range: 4.0-11.0 × 109/l)
Platelets (PLT): 187 × 109/l (normal range: 150-400 × 109/l)
Sodium (Na+): 142 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l)
Potassium (K+): 4.5 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
Creatinine (Cr): 95 μmol/l (normal range: 50-120 µmol/l)
Urine toxicology screen: Amphetamines+
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Narcolepsy
Explanation:Sleep Disorders: Types and Characteristics
Sleep disorders can manifest in various ways, each with its own set of characteristics. Narcolepsy, for instance, is marked by excessive daytime sleepiness, cataplexy, hypnagogic hallucinations, and sleep paralysis. Patients may resort to alcohol and sedatives to aid their sleep at night, and amphetamines during the day to prevent sudden sleep attacks. Restless legs syndrome, on the other hand, is characterized by an uncontrollable urge to move the legs at night, accompanied by burning pain or discomfort. It is treated with dopamine agonists.
REM sleep disorder, which is often an early sign of Parkinson’s disease, is characterized by physical movements during REM sleep, such as kicking, laughing, punching, or fighting invisible enemies. Alcohol dependency may also lead to sleep disorders, but the sudden episodes of daytime sleep and emotional outbursts are more consistent with narcolepsy. Finally, MDMA users may experience sleep paralysis and sleep apnea, but not narcolepsy specifically.
In summary, sleep disorders can take on different forms, each with its own unique set of symptoms and treatment options. It is important to identify the specific type of sleep disorder in order to provide appropriate care and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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