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  • Question 1 - During your evaluation of a recently admitted patient, you observe that they are...

    Correct

    • During your evaluation of a recently admitted patient, you observe that they are taking a high dosage of haloperidol. What other factor in their medical history would increase their risk for QTc prolongation?

      Your Answer: Bradycardia

      Explanation:

      While certain factors in his medical history, such as smoking, may heighten the likelihood of a cardiac event, it is solely his bradycardia that is associated with QTc prolongation.

      Amantadine and QTc Prolongation

      Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old woman receiving treatment for epilepsy is hospitalized due to severe abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman receiving treatment for epilepsy is hospitalized due to severe abdominal pain in the center of her abdomen. Upon examination, it is discovered that her serum amylase levels are significantly elevated. What medication is the probable cause of this condition?

      Your Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      – Valproate is an anticonvulsant drug.
      – Side effects of valproate include weight gain, nausea, vomiting, hair loss, easy bruising, tremor, hepatic failure, and pancreatitis.
      – Acute drug-induced pancreatitis is a potential complication of valproate use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - How can the rights of patients be defined as an international statement? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can the rights of patients be defined as an international statement?

      Your Answer: Declaration of Geneva

      Correct Answer: Declaration of Lisbon

      Explanation:

      Declarations

      The World Medical Association has established global ethical standards through various declarations. These include:

      Declaration of Geneva: This declaration was created as a revision of the Hippocratic Oath after the atrocities committed in Nazi Germany.

      Declaration of Helsinki: This statement outlines ethical principles for medical research involving human subjects.

      Declaration of Tokyo: This declaration states that doctors should not participate in, condone, of allow torture, degradation, of cruel treatment of prisoners of detainees.

      Declaration of Malta: This declaration provides guidance to doctors treating individuals on hunger strike.

      Declaration of Lisbon: This international statement outlines the rights of patients.

      Declaration of Ottawa: This declaration sets out the principles necessary for optimal child health.

      Each of these declarations serves as a guide for medical professionals to uphold ethical standards in their practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is a true statement about attachment theory? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about attachment theory?

      Your Answer: The need for closeness to the caregiver tends to motivate attachment more than the need for food

      Explanation:

      Attachment Theory and Harlow’s Monkeys

      Attachment theory, developed by John Bowlby, suggests that children have an innate tendency to form relationships with people around them to increase their chance of survival. This attachment is different from bonding, which concerns the mother’s feelings for her infant. Children typically single out a primary caregiver, referred to as the principle attachment figure, from about 1-3 months. The quality of a person’s early attachments is associated with their adult behavior, with poor attachments leading to withdrawn individuals who struggle to form relationships and good attachments leading to socially competent adults who can form healthy relationships.

      Bowlby’s attachment model has four stages: preattachment, attachment in the making, clear-cut attachment, and formation of reciprocal attachment. The time from 6 months to 36 months is known as the critical period, during which a child is most vulnerable to interruptions in its attachment. Attachments are divided into secure and insecure types, with insecure types further divided into avoidant and ambivalent types.

      Harlow’s experiment with young rhesus monkeys demonstrated the importance of the need for closeness over food. The experiment involved giving the monkeys a choice between two different mothers, one made of soft terry cloth but provided no food and the other made of wire but provided food from an attached baby bottle. The baby monkeys spent significantly more time with their cloth mother than with their wire mother, showing the importance of attachment and closeness in early development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An agitated elderly patient requires restraint. Following the restraint, your examination of the...

    Correct

    • An agitated elderly patient requires restraint. Following the restraint, your examination of the patient reveals an inability to shrug the shoulders. Which nerve is most likely to have been damaged?

      Accessory

      91%

      Hypoglossal

      4%

      Abducent

      4%

      Oculomotor

      0%

      Glossopharyngeal

      1%

      This elderly patient has most likely suffered a traumatic injury to the accessory nerve.

      Your Answer: Accessory

      Explanation:

      It is probable that this individual has experienced a traumatic injury affecting the accessory nerve.

      Overview of Cranial Nerves and Their Functions

      The cranial nerves are a complex system of nerves that originate from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. There are twelve cranial nerves, each with a specific function and origin. The following table provides a simplified overview of the cranial nerves, including their origin, skull exit, modality, and functions.

      The first cranial nerve, the olfactory nerve, originates from the telencephalon and exits through the cribriform plate. It is a sensory nerve that controls the sense of smell. The second cranial nerve, the optic nerve, originates from the diencephalon and exits through the optic foramen. It is a sensory nerve that controls vision.

      The third cranial nerve, the oculomotor nerve, originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement, pupillary constriction, and lens accommodation. The fourth cranial nerve, the trochlear nerve, also originates from the midbrain and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement.

      The fifth cranial nerve, the trigeminal nerve, originates from the pons and exits through different foramina depending on the division. It is a mixed nerve that controls chewing and sensation of the anterior 2/3 of the scalp. It also tenses the tympanic membrane to dampen loud noises.

      The sixth cranial nerve, the abducens nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the superior orbital fissure. It is a motor nerve that controls eye movement. The seventh cranial nerve, the facial nerve, also originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a mixed nerve that controls facial expression, taste of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, and tension on the stapes to dampen loud noises.

      The eighth cranial nerve, the vestibulocochlear nerve, originates from the pons and exits through the internal auditory canal. It is a sensory nerve that controls hearing. The ninth cranial nerve, the glossopharyngeal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls taste of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue, elevation of the larynx and pharynx, and swallowing.

      The tenth cranial nerve, the vagus nerve, also originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a mixed nerve that controls swallowing, voice production, and parasympathetic supply to nearly all thoracic and abdominal viscera. The eleventh cranial nerve, the accessory nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the jugular foramen. It is a motor nerve that controls shoulder shrugging and head turning.

      The twelfth cranial nerve, the hypoglossal nerve, originates from the medulla and exits through the hypoglossal canal. It is a motor nerve that controls tongue movement. Overall, the cranial nerves play a crucial role in controlling various functions of the head and neck, and any damage of dysfunction can have significant consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      73.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the accurate statement about the pathology of schizophrenia? ...

    Correct

    • What is the accurate statement about the pathology of schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Brain volume of affected individuals is often reduced

      Explanation:

      While ventricular enlargement is often observed in individuals with schizophrenia, it is not a definitive indicator of the condition as it can also be present in other disorders.

      Schizophrenia is a pathology that is characterized by a number of structural and functional brain alterations. Structural alterations include enlargement of the ventricles, reductions in total brain and gray matter volume, and regional reductions in the amygdala, parahippocampal gyrus, and temporal lobes. Antipsychotic treatment may be associated with gray matter loss over time, and even drug-naïve patients show volume reductions. Cerebral asymmetry is also reduced in affected individuals and healthy relatives. Functional alterations include diminished activation of frontal regions during cognitive tasks and increased activation of temporal regions during hallucinations. These findings suggest that schizophrenia is associated with both macroscopic and functional changes in the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Is macrocephaly associated with Fragile X syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Is macrocephaly associated with Fragile X syndrome?

      Your Answer: Fragile X syndrome

      Explanation:

      Macrocephaly is a characteristic often seen in individuals with Fragile X syndrome.

      Microcephaly: A Condition of Small Head Size

      Microcephaly is a condition characterized by a small head size. It can be a feature of various conditions, including fetal alcohol syndrome, Down’s syndrome, Edward’s syndrome, Patau syndrome, Angelman syndrome, De Lange syndrome, Prader-Willi syndrome, and Cri-du-chat syndrome. Each of these conditions has its own unique set of symptoms and causes, but they all share the common feature of microcephaly. This condition can have a range of effects on a person’s development, including intellectual disability, seizures, and motor problems. Early diagnosis and intervention can help manage the symptoms and improve outcomes for individuals with microcephaly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What drug states are capable of eliciting a biological response? ...

    Correct

    • What drug states are capable of eliciting a biological response?

      Your Answer: A drug unbound in the plasma

      Explanation:

      The biological response to a drug can only be triggered by the portion of the drug that is not bound.

      Drug Distribution in the Body

      After being absorbed, drugs can distribute to different parts of the body, such as fat, plasma, muscle, brain tissue, and glands like the thyroid. However, for a drug to have an effect, it must be present in the plasma in an unbound state. This means that the drug molecules are not attached to any other molecules and are free to interact with their target receptors. The concentration of unbound drug in the plasma is what determines the drug’s effectiveness and potential side effects. Therefore, understanding a drug’s distribution in the body is crucial for determining the appropriate dosage and monitoring its effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which aspect is not assessed through the Clock Drawing Test? ...

    Correct

    • Which aspect is not assessed through the Clock Drawing Test?

      Your Answer: Orientation to time

      Explanation:

      Clock Drawing Test: A Screening Tool for Cognitive Dysfunction

      The clock drawing test is a widely used screening tool for cognitive dysfunction. It involves asking the patient to draw a clock on a piece of paper, placing the numbers on the clock face and drawing the hands to indicate 10 minutes past 11. This simple task assesses a range of cognitive functions, including visuospatial ability, motor function, attention, and comprehension.

      The test is quick and easy to administer, making it a useful tool for healthcare professionals to identify potential cognitive impairment in patients. The clock drawing test has been shown to be effective in detecting cognitive dysfunction in a variety of conditions, including Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s disease.

      The image below illustrates examples of clocks drawn correctly by healthy controls and those drawn by patients with Alzheimer’s and Parkinson’s disease. By comparing the drawings, healthcare professionals can quickly identify potential cognitive dysfunction and take appropriate action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which neuroimaging technique that maps cortical activation uses the non-invasive BOLD method? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which neuroimaging technique that maps cortical activation uses the non-invasive BOLD method?

      Your Answer: Positron emission tomography (PET)

      Correct Answer: Functional MRI (fMRI)

      Explanation:

      The BOLD technique is used by fMRI to non-invasively map cortical activation, while PET and SPECT require the administration of a radioactive isotope and are invasive. Although all three magnetic imaging techniques are non-invasive, fMRI stands out for its use of the BOLD technique.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the function of the Nissl substance within a neuron? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the function of the Nissl substance within a neuron?

      Your Answer: Modification, sorting, and packaging of macromolecules

      Correct Answer: Protein synthesis

      Explanation:

      Melanin

      Melanin is a pigment found in various parts of the body, including the skin, hair, and eyes. It is produced by specialized cells called melanocytes, which are located in the skin’s basal layer. The function of melanin in the body is not fully understood, but it is thought to play a role in protecting the skin from the harmful effects of ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun. Additionally, melanin may be a by-product of neurotransmitter synthesis, although this function is not well established. Overall, the role of melanin in the body is an area of ongoing research.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which of the following is classified as a tertiary amine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is classified as a tertiary amine?

      Your Answer: Amoxapine

      Correct Answer: Clomipramine

      Explanation:

      Tricyclic Antidepressants: Uses, Types, and Side-Effects

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are a type of medication used for depression and neuropathic pain. However, due to their side-effects and toxicity in overdose, they are not commonly used for depression anymore. TCAs can be divided into two types: first generation (tertiary amines) and second generation (secondary amines). The secondary amines have a lower side effect profile and act primarily on noradrenaline, while the tertiary amines boost serotonin and noradrenaline.

      Some examples of secondary amines include desipramine, nortriptyline, protriptyline, and amoxapine. Examples of tertiary amines include amitriptyline, lofepramine, imipramine, clomipramine, dosulepin (dothiepin), doxepin, trimipramine, and butriptyline. Common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and urinary retention.

      Low-dose amitriptyline is commonly used for neuropathic pain and prophylaxis of headache. Lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose. However, amitriptyline and dosulepin (dothiepin) are considered the most dangerous in overdose. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication and to follow their instructions carefully.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You diagnose a mild depressive episode in a male patient undergoing lithium treatment...

    Incorrect

    • You diagnose a mild depressive episode in a male patient undergoing lithium treatment for bipolar disorder.
      Which of the following mood stabilizers should be avoided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Tamoxifen metabolism to its active metabolite may be inhibited by the use of fluoxetine and paroxetine, therefore, these medications should be avoided in patients receiving tamoxifen. Venlafaxine is considered the safest choice of antidepressant as it has little to no effect on tamoxifen metabolism. Mirtazapine has been found to have minimal effect on CYP2D6, while the other commonly prescribed antidepressants have mild to moderate degrees of CYP2D6 inhibition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What is the definition of Othello syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of Othello syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Delusional belief that the one's partner is unfaithful

      Explanation:

      Morbid jealousy of delusions of jealousy are also known as Othello syndrome, named after the Shakespearean character who murdered his wife due to false beliefs of her infidelity. This condition poses a significant risk to the partner, similar to the original story. It can affect individuals of any gender and occur in relationships of any status of gender combination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Assessment
      0
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  • Question 15 - What psychological test is used to explore an individual's theory of mind? ...

    Incorrect

    • What psychological test is used to explore an individual's theory of mind?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sally-Anne Test

      Explanation:

      The assessment of theory of mind is conducted through the Sally Ann test, while executive function is evaluated through the tower of London test. Projective personality tests include the tell-me-a-story test and the Rorschach test. Ammons Quick Test is utilized to aid in the evaluation of premorbid intelligence.

      The Sally-Anne Test and the Theory of Mind

      The Sally-Anne test, conducted by Simon Baron-Cohen, led to the development of the theory of mind idea. The experiment involved several groups of children, including those with autism. During the test, a skit was performed where Sally put a marble in a basket and left the room. Anne then removed the marble from the basket and placed it in a box. When Sally returned, the children were asked where she would look for her marble.

      The results showed that most non-autistic children correctly identified the basket, while most autistic children pointed to of named the box. This led the researchers to conclude that the autistic children who chose the box lacked the ability to understand that Sally did not know the marble was in the box. The Sally-Anne test thus became a crucial tool in understanding the theory of mind, which refers to the ability to attribute mental states to oneself and others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 16 - The CATIE trial data indicates what percentage of individuals with schizophrenia are likely...

    Incorrect

    • The CATIE trial data indicates what percentage of individuals with schizophrenia are likely to fulfill the criteria for metabolic syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 40%

      Explanation:

      CATIE Study: Comparing Antipsychotic Medications for Schizophrenia Treatment

      The Clinical Antipsychotic Trials of Intervention Effectiveness (CATIE) Study, funded by the National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH), was a nationwide clinical trial that aimed to compare the effectiveness of older and newer antipsychotic medications used to treat schizophrenia. It is the largest, longest, and most comprehensive independent trial ever conducted to examine existing therapies for schizophrenia. The study consisted of two phases.

      Phase I of CATIE compared four newer antipsychotic medications to one another and an older medication. Participants were followed for 18 months to evaluate longer-term patient outcomes. The study involved over 1400 participants and was conducted at various treatment sites, representative of real-life settings where patients receive care. The results from CATIE are applicable to a wide range of people with schizophrenia in the United States.

      The medications were comparably effective, but high rates of discontinuation were observed due to intolerable side-effects of failure to adequately control symptoms. Olanzapine was slightly better than the other drugs but was associated with significant weight gain as a side-effect. Surprisingly, the older, less expensive medication (perphenazine) used in the study generally performed as well as the four newer medications. Movement side effects primarily associated with the older medications were not seen more frequently with perphenazine than with the newer drugs.

      Phase II of CATIE sought to provide guidance on which antipsychotic to try next if the first failed due to ineffectiveness of intolerability. Participants who discontinued their first antipsychotic medication because of inadequate management of symptoms were encouraged to enter the efficacy (clozapine) pathway, while those who discontinued their first treatment because of intolerable side effects were encouraged to enter the tolerability (ziprasidone) pathway. Clozapine was remarkably effective and was substantially better than all the other atypical medications.

      The CATIE study also looked at the risk of metabolic syndrome (MS) using the US National Cholesterol Education Program Adult Treatment Panel criteria. The prevalence of MS at baseline in the CATIE group was 40.9%, with female patients being three times as likely to have MS compared to matched controls and male patients being twice as likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 17 - Where is the nucleus basalis of Meynert located? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where is the nucleus basalis of Meynert located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior to globus pallidus

      Explanation:

      The nucleus basalis of Meynert, located in the basal forebrain substantia innominata, is a cluster of neurons that sends extensive projections to the neocortex. It is situated below the globus pallidus and contains high levels of acetylcholine esterase and choline acetyltransferase. In Alzheimer’s disease, the nucleus basalis of Meynert degenerates, leading to a decrease in acetylcholine levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological Examination
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  • Question 18 - Which mathematician, who won the Nobel Prize, had their struggle with mental illness...

    Incorrect

    • Which mathematician, who won the Nobel Prize, had their struggle with mental illness depicted in the movie 'A Beautiful Mind'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: John Forbes Nash

      Explanation:

      The lives of several notable individuals have been impacted by mental health issues, including John Forbes Nash Jr., a gifted mathematician who battled schizophrenia and still won the Nobel Prize in economics in 1994. David Helfgott, the subject of the award-winning film ‘Shine’, was a talented pianist who also struggled with mental health. Iris Murdoch, a renowned novelist, developed Alzheimer’s disease later in life. Dr. Watson, who played a key role in discovering the molecular structure of DNA, has a son who faces mental health challenges. Additionally, Kim Peek, who inspired the film ‘Rain Man’, is another example of someone whose life was affected by mental health issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Stigma And Culture
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  • Question 19 - Which one of these pathways is not associated with dopamine? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of these pathways is not associated with dopamine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Limbostriatal pathway

      Explanation:

      Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 20 - In your clinic, a 25-year-old female patient presents with a frequent history of...

    Incorrect

    • In your clinic, a 25-year-old female patient presents with a frequent history of wrist cutting. Upon evaluation, you determine that she has a personality disorder. What specific type of personality disorder is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Anankastic personality disorder is a personality disorder characterized by a preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control. It falls under cluster C personality disorders according to DSM-IV classification.

      Deliberate self-harm is commonly associated with cluster B personality disorders. In the United Kingdom, poisoning by drugs accounts for 90% of deliberate self-harm cases, while wrist cutting accounts for 6-7%, and all other methods combined account for 3-4%. Frequent wrist cutting can be a part of recurrent suicidal gestures seen in individuals with depressive disorder, schizophrenia, and borderline personality disorder.

      The reasons for wrist cutting are varied and complex, including a means of punishment oneself, reducing tension, feeling bodily instead of emotional pain, wishing to die, testing the benevolence of fate, seeking an interruption to an unendurable state of tension, crying for help, communicating with others, and unbearable symptoms.

      Borderline personality disorder (BPD) is characterized by impulsive acts, mood instability, and chaotic relationships. Individuals with BPD are impulsive in areas that have a potential for self-harm and exhibit recurrent suicidal gestures such as wrist cutting, overdose, of self-mutilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
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  • Question 21 - What is the term used to describe the decrease in anxiety that occurs...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the decrease in anxiety that occurs during flooding therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Habituation

      Explanation:

      Flooding as a Treatment for Phobias

      Flooding is a treatment method for phobias that involves directly confronting the fear and remaining in the situation until the anxiety subsides. This process is called habituation and is different from systematic desensitization. However, flooding can be challenging for patients as it produces high levels of anxiety, which can cause them to leave the situation before the fear response is extinguished. As a result, desensitization is generally preferred over flooding as a treatment method for phobias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 22 - How can primary process thinking be described? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can primary process thinking be described?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Id

      Explanation:

      Freud’s Structural Theory: Understanding the Three Areas of the Mind

      According to Freud’s structural model, the human mind is divided into three distinct areas: the Id, the Ego, and the Superego. The Id is the part of the mind that contains instinctive drives and operates on the ‘pleasure principle’. It functions without a sense of time and is governed by ‘primary process thinking’. The Ego, on the other hand, attempts to modify the drives from the Id with external reality. It operates on the ‘reality principle’ and has conscious, preconscious, and unconscious aspects. It is also home to the defense mechanisms. Finally, the Superego acts as a critical agency, constantly observing a person’s behavior. Freud believed that it developed from the internalized values of a child’s main caregivers. The Superego contains the ‘ego ideal’, which represents ideal attitudes and behavior. It is often referred to as the conscience. Understanding these three areas of the mind is crucial to understanding Freud’s structural theory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 23 - Freud believed that the conscience is located in which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • Freud believed that the conscience is located in which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superego

      Explanation:

      Freud’s Structural Theory: Understanding the Three Areas of the Mind

      According to Freud’s structural model, the human mind is divided into three distinct areas: the Id, the Ego, and the Superego. The Id is the part of the mind that contains instinctive drives and operates on the ‘pleasure principle’. It functions without a sense of time and is governed by ‘primary process thinking’. The Ego, on the other hand, attempts to modify the drives from the Id with external reality. It operates on the ‘reality principle’ and has conscious, preconscious, and unconscious aspects. It is also home to the defense mechanisms. Finally, the Superego acts as a critical agency, constantly observing a person’s behavior. Freud believed that it developed from the internalized values of a child’s main caregivers. The Superego contains the ‘ego ideal’, which represents ideal attitudes and behavior. It is often referred to as the conscience. Understanding these three areas of the mind is crucial to understanding Freud’s structural theory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 24 - Who coined the term 'psychopathic inferiority'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who coined the term 'psychopathic inferiority'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Koch

      Explanation:

      History of Psychiatric Terms

      In the exams, it is important to be familiar with the individuals associated with certain psychiatric terms. For example, Kraepelin is associated with dementia praecox and manic depression, while Bleuler is associated with schizophrenia. Other terms and their associated individuals include Hebephrenia (Hecker), Catatonia (Kahlbaum), Schizoaffective (Kasanin), Neurasthenia (Beard), Unipolar and bipolar (Kleist), Hypnosis (Braid), Group dynamics (Lewin), Group psychotherapy (Moreno), Psychopathic inferiority (Koch), Psychiatry (Reil), and Institutional Neurosis (Barton).

      It should be noted that there is some debate over the origins of certain terms. While Kraepelin is often credited with coining the term dementia praecox, some sources suggest that it was first used in its Latin form by Arnold Pick in 1891. The original term demence precoce was first used by Morel in 1852. Despite this, the College appears to favor the Kraepelin attribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 25 - You are evaluating a 56-year-old patient with depression that has not responded to...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 56-year-old patient with depression that has not responded to previous treatments. The patient inquires about the potential use of phenelzine. However, they have a pertinent medical history.
      What medical condition would prohibit the prescription of phenelzine in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phaeochromocytoma

      Explanation:

      Phenelzine belongs to a class of antidepressants called Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs). However, it is contraindicated in patients with phaeochromocytoma, a rare tumor that secretes catecholamines, as MAOIs inhibit the breakdown of catecholamines and can lead to hypertensive crises, brain hemorrhage, and even death in such patients.

      While antidepressants are generally considered to have a negligible effect on seizure activity in epileptics, caution should be exercised when using MAOIs in patients with thyroid disease. Additionally, as with all antidepressants, MAOIs may precipitate mania and should be used with caution in bipolar disorder, although they are not contraindicated.

      Hyponatremia, a condition characterized by low sodium levels, is a potential side effect of most antidepressants, including MAOIs. However, MAOIs are not considered high risk compared to other antidepressant drugs. If sodium levels fall below 125 mmol/L, antidepressants should be stopped.

      Reference:
      Taylor, D., Paton, C., & Kapur, S. (2018). The Maudsley Prescribing Guidelines in Psychiatry (13th ed.). John Wiley & Sons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
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  • Question 26 - A 25 year old woman is feeling nervous while walking alone at night....

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old woman is feeling nervous while walking alone at night. She spots what appears to be a figure of a person in the distance and decides to cross the street. Upon approaching, she realizes that it was just a shadow created by a nearby streetlight. What is the term used to describe this phenomenon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An illusion

      Explanation:

      An affect illusion is when a person’s perception is distorted by the shadow cast from a tree. Hallucinations, on the other hand, occur when there is no external stimulus present. It is important to note that a delusion is a belief, rather than a perception.

      Altered Perceptual Experiences

      Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.

      Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.

      Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 27 - What is a true statement about Levinson's theory of human development? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about Levinson's theory of human development?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stages are based on age ranges rather than on developmental events

      Explanation:

      Erik Erikson and Daniel Levinson expanded the understanding of adult development. Erikson proposed a life-span model of human development consisting of eight successive psychosocial stages, each associated with an inherent conflict of crisis that the individual must encounter and successfully resolve to proceed with development. Levinson proposed a developmental theory consisting of universal stages of phases that extend from the infancy state to the elderly state, based on biographical interviews of 40 men in America. Both theorists maintained that personality develops in a predetermined order and builds upon each previous stage, and that failure to successfully negotiate a stage can result in a reduced ability to complete further stages and therefore a more unhealthy personality and sense of self. However, Levinson’s theory is age-based rather than event-based, and his model proposed a ‘life sequence’ consisting of a series of alternating stable (structure-building) periods and cross-era transitional (structure-changing) periods, with transitional periods typically lasting 5 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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  • Question 28 - Which concept is linked to the term 'eudaimonia'? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which concept is linked to the term 'eudaimonia'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Virtue ethics

      Explanation:

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 29 - What is the term used to describe an intense and brief emotional reaction...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe an intense and brief emotional reaction to a minor trigger?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emotional lability

      Explanation:

      Understanding Emotional Lability

      Emotional lability is a condition characterized by an excessive and brief emotional response to a minor stimulus. It is a common symptom of various neurological and psychiatric disorders, including traumatic brain injury, multiple sclerosis, Parkinson’s disease, bipolar disorder, and borderline personality disorder. People with emotional lability may experience sudden and intense mood swings, such as crying, laughing, anger, of irritability, that are out of proportion to the situation.

      One of the most challenging aspects of emotional lability is the lack of control over one’s emotions. Pathological crying of laughing is a common manifestation of emotional lability, where a person may burst into tears of laughter without any apparent reason of context. This can be embarrassing, distressing, and socially isolating, as it may be perceived as a sign of weakness, instability, of immaturity.

      Treatment for emotional lability depends on the underlying cause and severity of the symptoms. In some cases, medication, such as antidepressants, antipsychotics, of mood stabilizers, may be prescribed to regulate the mood and reduce the frequency and intensity of emotional outbursts. Psychotherapy, such as cognitive-behavioral therapy of dialectical behavior therapy, can also help individuals with emotional lability to develop coping skills, emotional regulation strategies, and interpersonal communication skills.

      It is important to note that emotional lability is not a character flaw of a personal weakness, but a medical condition that requires proper diagnosis and treatment. Seeking professional help from a qualified healthcare provider can help individuals with emotional lability to improve their quality of life, enhance their relationships, and regain their emotional stability and resilience.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 30 - What is the most probable diagnosis for an army officer, aged 19, who...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most probable diagnosis for an army officer, aged 19, who presented with symptoms of unusual behavior, excessive sleepiness, and increased appetite, but recovered after a 7-day hospital stay?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kleine-Levin syndrome

      Explanation:

      Kleine-Levin Syndrome: A Mysterious Condition

      Kleine-Levin syndrome is a peculiar disorder that typically affects adolescent boys. It is characterized by an excessive need for sleep and an insatiable appetite when awake. The condition is also associated with emotional and behavioral issues such as irritability and aggression.

      The onset of symptoms is sudden and can last for several days to weeks before disappearing. This is followed by a period of normalcy, only to be followed by another episode. This pattern can continue for years, but the severity of symptoms tends to decrease over time. During the periods between episodes, those affected appear to be perfectly healthy with no signs of physical of behavioral dysfunction. The media has dubbed this condition as Sleeping Beauty syndrome.

      Despite extensive research, the cause of Kleine-Levin syndrome remains unknown. However, the prognosis is generally positive, with most individuals making a full recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychopharmacology (3/4) 75%
Social Psychology (0/1) 0%
Psychological Development (1/1) 100%
Neurosciences (2/4) 50%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
Classification And Assessment (1/1) 100%
Passmed