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  • Question 1 - A 74-year-old widow is undergoing haemodialysis for chronic renal failure. What is the...

    Correct

    • A 74-year-old widow is undergoing haemodialysis for chronic renal failure. What is the most common problem that can arise in this case?

      Your Answer: Protein–calorie malnutrition

      Explanation:

      Protein-calorie malnutrition is observed in almost 50% of dialysis patients, contributing to increased morbidity and mortality. All the other complications listed can usually be prevented thanks to modern-day dialysis techniques.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Following a road traffic accident, a gentleman is brought to A&E. He is...

    Incorrect

    • Following a road traffic accident, a gentleman is brought to A&E. He is found to have oliguria and diagnosed with acute renal tubular necrosis.   What is the most common complication and cause of death in this condition?

      Your Answer: Electrolyte abnormalities

      Correct Answer: Infection

      Explanation:

      In patients with acute renal tubular necrosis, infection in the form of gram-negative septicaemia is the most common cause of death, especially while the patient is awaiting spontaneous recovery of their renal function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following types of renal stones are said to have a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following types of renal stones are said to have a semi-opaque appearance on x-ray?

      Your Answer: Urate stones

      Correct Answer: Cystine stones

      Explanation:

      Only cystine stones are semi-opaque because they contain sulphur. All the other stones will appear either radio-lucent or radio-opaque.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 66-year-old gentleman is seen in the Emergency Department complaining of muscle weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old gentleman is seen in the Emergency Department complaining of muscle weakness and lethargy. Admission bloods show the following: Na+ 138 mmol/L, K+ 6.6 mmol/L, Bicarbonate 15 mmol/L, Urea 9.2 mmol/L, Creatinine 110 µmol/L, An ECG is done which shows no acute changes. What is the most appropriate initial treatment to lower the serum potassium level?

      Your Answer: Intravenous calcium gluconate

      Correct Answer: Insulin/dextrose infusion

      Explanation:

      Insulin/dextrose infusion will increase the activity of the sodium-potassium pump in the cells, which will in turn decrease serum potassium levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      143
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 23-year-old pregnant woman presents with glycosuria. What is the most likely mechanism?...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old pregnant woman presents with glycosuria. What is the most likely mechanism?

      Your Answer: Reduced renal reabsorption

      Explanation:

      Throughout pregnancy the tubular reabsorption of glucose is less effective than in the non-pregnant state, this leads to glycosuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old female presents with polyuria and is passing 4 litres of urine...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female presents with polyuria and is passing 4 litres of urine per day. She was recently started on a new medication.   Results show: Serum sodium 144 mmol/L (137-144) Plasma osmolality 299 mosmol/L (275-290) Urine osmolality 210 mosmol/L (350-1000)   Which of the following drugs was prescribed?

      Your Answer: Metoprolol

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      The patient’s presentation is consistent with diabetes insipidus: eunatreaemia, high serum osmolality, and inappropriately dilute urine, which leads to the suspicion of lithium-induced diabetes insipidus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      145.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 46-year-old gentleman diagnosed with type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and proteinuria is started...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old gentleman diagnosed with type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and proteinuria is started on Ramipril to prevent development of renal disease. He reports to his GP that he has developed a troublesome cough since starting the medication. He has no symptoms of lip swelling, wheeze and has no history of underlying respiratory disease.   What increased chemical is thought to be the cause of his cough?

      Your Answer: Prostaglandins

      Correct Answer: Bradykinin

      Explanation:

      Ramipril is an ACE inhibitor that blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II as well as preventing the breakdown of bradykinin, leading to blood vessel dilatation and decreased blood pressure. However, bradykinin also causes smooth muscles in the lungs to contract, so the build-up of bradykinin is thought to cause the dry cough that is a common side-effect in patients that are on ACE inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      45.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 21-year-old gentleman presents with facial and ankle swelling. This has slowly been...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old gentleman presents with facial and ankle swelling. This has slowly been developing over the past week. During the review of systems, he describes passing ‘frothy’ urine. A urine dipstick shows protein +++.   What is the most likely cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer: Minimal change disease

      Explanation:

      Minimal change glomerulonephritis usually presents as nephrotic syndrome wherein the patient (usually a young adult) will present with proteinuria, oedema, and impaired kidney function, which were evident in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 11-year-old boy has a history of tonsillitis followed by haematuria and hypertension...

    Incorrect

    • A 11-year-old boy has a history of tonsillitis followed by haematuria and hypertension about 10 days later.   What would be the characteristic blood test finding in this condition?

      Your Answer: Normal C3 level

      Correct Answer: Depressed CH 50 level

      Explanation:

      Because the medical history included tonsillitis followed by haematuria and hypertension, there is a strong suspicion of a case of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN). Patients with PSGN usually have serological findings showing depressed serum haemolytic component CH50 and serum concentrations of C3. Sometimes depressed C4 levels are also apparent, but not always, therefore, the answer to this question is: depressed CH50 level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 58-year-old lady was admitted to hospital with increasing thirst and generalised abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old lady was admitted to hospital with increasing thirst and generalised abdominal pain. She was diagnosed with breast carcinoma three years previously and treated with a radical mastectomy.   Investigations showed: Serum corrected calcium 3.5 mmol/L (NR 2.2-2.6) Serum alkaline phosphatase 1100 IU/L   Her serum calcium was still elevated following 4 litres of 0.9% saline intravenous infusion.   Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pamidronate 60 mg intravenously

      Explanation:

      This case has hypercalcaemia most likely associated with the bony metastases from her pre-existing breast carcinoma. The most appropriate next step is to give Pamidronate 60mg intravenously, a bisphosphonate, to immediately inhibit bone resorption and formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 63-year-old gentleman is admitted to the Emergency Department, with a past history...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old gentleman is admitted to the Emergency Department, with a past history of chronic renal failure, who complains of increasing shortness of breath. Bloods reveal a creatinine of 570 μmol/l, urea of 48 mmol/l. He is also anaemic with a haemoglobin (Hb) of 8.9 g/dl. On examination he has a pericardial rub and there are bibasal crackles consistent with heart failure. Which of the following represents the best treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent haemodialysis

      Explanation:

      This case presents with symptoms and lab results suggestive of uremic pericarditis, which is an indication for immediate haemodialysis. Uremic pericarditis is caused by inflammation of the membranes of the pericardial sac, which usually resolves after a period of intensive dialysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 11-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with diarrhoea and lethargy. There...

    Incorrect

    • A 11-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with diarrhoea and lethargy. There is a known local outbreak of E coli 0157:H7, and his initial bloods show evidence of acute renal failure. Given the likely diagnosis, which one of the following investigation results would be expected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fragmented red blood cells

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis in this case is Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS), which is generally seen in young children presenting with a triad of symptoms, namely: acute renal failure, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The typical cause of HUS is ingestion of a strain of Escherichia coli. The laboratory results will usually include fragmented RBCs, decreased serum haptoglobin, reduced platelet count, nonspecific WBC changes, and normal coagulation tests (PTT included).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old gentleman presents to the hospital feeling unwell and breathless. History reveals...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old gentleman presents to the hospital feeling unwell and breathless. History reveals that he has chronic renal failure, for which he receives haemodialysis three times per week. Since one week prior to consultation, he has been on vacation and has missed two dialysis sessions. Examination reveals pulmonary oedema. His ECG shows no P waves, broad QRS complexes and peaked T waves. What should you do?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give 10 ml of 10% calcium gluconate intravenously

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely complaining of the effects of hyperkalaemia, due to missing his dialysis sessions. Additionally, because the patient presents with a risk of cardiac arrest (based on pulmonary oedema and ECG findings), the best intervention is to give calcium gluconate that will address the hyperkalaemia as well as improve the cardiac condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which one of the following statements is true regarding autosomal recessive polycystic kidney...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements is true regarding autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: May be diagnosed on prenatal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD) is less common than ADPKD (dominant form) but can already present with symptoms and be diagnosed on prenatal ultrasound.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which is the most severe form among the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the most severe form among the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Class IV: diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      The classes refer to the WHO classification of glomerulonephritis in SLE patients.
      class I: normal kidney
      class II: mesangial glomerulonephritis
      class III: focal (and segmental) proliferative glomerulonephritis
      class IV: diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
      class V: diffuse membranous glomerulonephritis
      class VI: sclerosing glomerulonephritis

      Class IV: diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis is the most common and the most severe form, where more than 50% of the glomeruli are involved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 60-year-old gentleman presents with symptoms of nocturia and difficulty in passing urine....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old gentleman presents with symptoms of nocturia and difficulty in passing urine. He is not known to have any previous prostatic problems and denies any dysuria. Following a digital rectal examination, he is started on Finasteride and Tamsulosin. Three months later he presents to the emergency department with urinary retention and is catheterized, and a craggy mass is felt on rectal examination. He is referred to a urologist, and a prostatic ultrasound and needle biopsy are arranged, and prostate serum antigen (PSA) is requested. Which of the following factors is most likely to give a false negative PSA?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Finasteride

      Explanation:

      Finasteride is often prescribed for patients with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) or enlarged prostate. However, it has been known to cause a decrease in Prostatic Specific Antigen (PSA) levels in patients with BPH, which may lead to false negatives in a case like this, where a palpable mass has been detected and malignancy is suspected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 61-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism and inflammatory arthritis is admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism and inflammatory arthritis is admitted after slipping on ice and falling over. Some routine blood tests are performed: Na+ 141 mmol/L, K+ 2.9 mmol/L, Chloride 114 mmol/L, Bicarbonate 16 mmol/L, Urea 5.2 mmol/L, Creatinine 75 µmol/L, Which one of the following is most likely to explain these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal tubular acidosis (type 1)

      Explanation:

      The patient’s underlying arthritis has most likely led to Renal tubular acidosis RTA type 1, which presents with the following symptoms consistent with the presentation of the patient: Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis/acidaemia, hypokalaemia and hyperchloremia. Comparatively, the other conditions are ruled out because Aspirin and diabetic ketoacidosis is associated with a raised anion gap, Conn’s syndrome explains hypokalaemia but not the metabolic acidosis, and RTA type 4 is associated with hyperkalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0
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  • Question 18 - A 63-year-old woman visits the diabetes clinic for review. She has had type-2...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman visits the diabetes clinic for review. She has had type-2 diabetes for 9 years and is now on insulin therapy. She has diabetic nephropathy, as exemplified by hypertension and proteinuria (urinary PCR 155); a recent creatinine level was 205 μmol/l and eGFR 24 ml/min.   Which of the following options best fits her prognosis or management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treatment with ARB or ACE-I may slow further deterioration in renal function

      Explanation:

      Treatment with ARB or ACE-I may slow further deterioration in renal function in this patient, as studies have shown that blocking of the RAS in type 2 diabetic patients improve renal function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 71-year-old female presents for investigation of fatigue and weight loss. Investigations reveal:...

    Incorrect

    • A 71-year-old female presents for investigation of fatigue and weight loss. Investigations reveal: Haemoglobin 9.0 g/dL (11.5-16.5) White cell count 2.0 x109/L (4-11 x109) Platelet count 250 x109/L (150-400 x109) Total protein 74 g/L (61-76) Albumin 28 g/L (37-49) Urea 16 mmol/L (2.5-7.5) Creatinine 250 mol/L (60-110) Plasma glucose 6.5 mmol/L (3.0-6.0) Urine dipstick analysis: Protein+ & blood+ Renal ultrasound: Normal Which one of the following investigations would be most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plasma protein electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      This patient’s symptoms of anaemia, leukopenia, and elevated non-albumin protein concentration with fatigue and weight loss, point to myeloma. Thus plasma protein electrophoresis or Serum Protein Electrophoresis (SPE) is indicated when there is suspicion of myeloma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 68-year-old gentleman has been receiving dialysis for 6 years. His PTH is...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old gentleman has been receiving dialysis for 6 years. His PTH is elevated at 345 pg/ml (NR 25-65), phosphate 2.13 mmol/l and corrected calcium 2.01 mmol/l.   Of the following, which is most likely responsible for renal osteodystrophy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diminished activity of renal 1-α-hydroxylase

      Explanation:

      Renal osteodystrophy is a metabolic bone disease often affecting long-term dialysis patients. The kidneys are no longer able to maintain the calcium levels in the blood, thus the PTH increases as the body attempts to raise blood calcium levels. Osteomalacia in these cases is most likely caused by the diminished activity of renal 1-a-hydroxylase that is important for hydroxylation of Calciferol to calcitriol (Vitamin D). This bioactive form of Vitamin D is responsible for increasing intestinal absorption of calcium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0
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  • Question 21 - A 15-year-old boy presents with hypertension and acute renal failure after an episode...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presents with hypertension and acute renal failure after an episode of diarrhoea. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemolytic–uraemic syndrome

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis in this case is Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS), which is generally seen in young children presenting with a triad of symptoms, namely: acute renal failure, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The typical cause of HUS is ingestion of a strain of Escherichia coli causing diarrhoea in these cases as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0
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  • Question 22 - In idiopathic hypercalciuria, what management should be initiated if there is renal stone...

    Incorrect

    • In idiopathic hypercalciuria, what management should be initiated if there is renal stone disease or bone demineralization?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dietary modification and thiazide diuretics

      Explanation:

      Idiopathic hypercalciuria presents with excess calcium in the urine without an apparent cause. Dietary modification is the first step in addressing this condition, however, because hypercalciuria increases the risk of developing renal stones and bone demineralisation, thiazide diuretics should be prescribed to increase calcium reabsorption when these symptoms are also present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0
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  • Question 23 - A 61-year-old gentleman presents with pain in his right flank and haematuria. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old gentleman presents with pain in his right flank and haematuria. A CT scan of the abdomen reveals a large 8 × 8cm solid mass in the right kidney and a 3 × 3cm solid mass occupying the upper pole of the left kidney. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right radical nephrectomy and left partial nephrectomy

      Explanation:

      This patient presents with the classic triad of renal carcinoma: haematuria, loin pain and a mass in the kidneys. Management will entail right radical nephrectomy because of the 8x8cm solid mass and a left partial nephrectomy of the 3x3cm solid mass.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0
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  • Question 24 - A 65-year-old gentleman with a history of chronic renal failure due to diabetes...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old gentleman with a history of chronic renal failure due to diabetes comes to the clinic for review. He has reported increasing bone and muscle aches over the past few weeks.   Medications include ramipril, amlodipine and indapamide for blood pressure control, atorvastatin for lipid management, and insulin for control of his blood sugar. On examination his BP is 148/80 mmHg, his pulse is 79 and regular. His BMI is 28.   Investigations show: Haemoglobin 10.7 g/dl (13.5-17.7) White cell count 8.2 x 10(9)/l (4-11) Platelets 202 x 10(9)/l (150-400) Serum sodium 140 mmol/l (135-146) Serum potassium 5.0 mmol/l (3.5-5) Creatinine 192 μmol/l (79-118) Calcium 2.18 mmol/l (2.2-2.67) Phosphate 1.9 mmol/l (0.7-1.5)   He has tried following a low phosphate diet.   Which of the following would be the next most appropriate step in controlling his phosphate levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sevelamer

      Explanation:

      Sevelamer is a phosphate-binding drug that can lower raised serum phosphate levels in chronic kidney disease. Because of its aluminium-related side-effects, aluminium hydroxide is no longer the drug of choice.
      The other options are calcium-containing salts that may increase risks of tissue calcification.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0
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  • Question 25 - A 72-year-old woman is admitted with general deterioration and ‘off-legs’. On examination in...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman is admitted with general deterioration and ‘off-legs’. On examination in the emergency department, she looks dry and uremic.   Investigations reveal:
      • K+ 7.2 mmol/L
      • Na+ 145 mmol/L
      • Creatinine 512 μmol/L
      • Urea 36.8 mmol/L
      Which TWO of the following measures are most appropriate in her immediate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ECG & IV Calcium gluconate bolus

      Explanation:

      First and foremost, the patient should be put on ECG monitoring to identify the cardiac state, and because of the markedly raised serum potassium, a calcium gluconate bolus will have the immediate effect of moderating the nerve and muscle performance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0
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  • Question 26 - Which one of the following is a recognised cause of hypokalaemia associated with...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is a recognised cause of hypokalaemia associated with hypertension:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liddle's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Liddle’s Syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder that presents with hypertension usually in young patients, that do not respond to anti-hypertensive therapy and is later associated with hypokalaemia, low renin plasma, and low aldosterone levels as well. The other conditions listed do not present with hypertension and associated hypokalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0
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  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old woman was admitted to hospital with a 3 day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman was admitted to hospital with a 3 day history of feeling generally unwell, with fatigue, arthralgia and pruritis. She had recently finished a 5 day course of antibiotics for a urinary tract infection but there was no other significant past medical history. She had no significant findings on clinical examination except for a widespread erythematous rash. Investigation results are below: Haemoglobin (Hb) 12.6 g/dL, White cell count (WCC) 13.0 × 109/l (eosinophilia) Platelets 390 × 109/L, Creatinine 720 μmol/L, Na+ 135 mmol/L, K+ 5.2 mmol/L, Urea 22.0 mmol/L, Urinalysis Protein ++ blood + What is the most important investigation to establish the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal biopsy

      Explanation:

      There is a strong suspicion of drug-induced acute tubulo-interstitial nephritis with the classic triad of symptoms of rash, joint pain and eosinophils in the blood, associated with non-specific symptoms of fever and fatigue. This can be confirmed with renal biopsy showing interstitial oedema with a heavy infiltrate of inflammatory cells and variable tubular necrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 28 - A 26-year-old patient, previously fit and well, is admitted with fluctuating confusion and...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old patient, previously fit and well, is admitted with fluctuating confusion and frank haematuria. He has recently been complaining of generalised malaise and joint pains. Examination reveals jaundice, splenomegaly, and petechiae. His blood pressure is 155/84 mmHg, temperature 37.9oC.   Initial investigations reveal: Haemoglobin 9.5 g/dL, White cell count 12 × 109/L, Platelets 40 × 109/L, Creatinine 142 μmol/L, Sodium 139 mmol/L, Potassium 4.5 mmol/L, Urea 9.2 mmol/L, Lactate dehydrogenase 495 U/l (10–250) Urinalysis Protein ++, blood +++ Blood film shows schistocytes   What treatment should NOT be given to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Platelet transfusion

      Explanation:

      There is a strong suspicion of Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP) in this patient as he presents with neurological changes (from confusion to convulsions and coma), fever, haemolysis, thrombocytopenia, and renal failure. Additionally, TTP cases may present with jaundice, splenomegaly, and hypertension as seen in this patient. With a diagnosis of TTP, recent studies have shown that platelet transfusion is not recommended in this case because it has been shown to increase the risk for arterial thrombosis and mortality possibly due to increased aggregations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 29 - A 41-year-old female is referred to medical assessment unit by her physician for...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old female is referred to medical assessment unit by her physician for querying thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) after she presented with a temperature of 38.9C. Her subsequent urea and electrolytes showed deteriorating renal function with a creatinine 3 times greater than her baseline. What is the underlying pathophysiology of TTP?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Failure to cleave von Willebrand factor normally

      Explanation:

      Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is characterised by the von Willebrand factor (vWF) microthrombi within the vessels of multiple organs. In this condition, the ADAMTS13 metalloprotease enzyme which is responsible for the breakdown of vWF multimer, is deficient, causing its build-up and leading to platelet clots that then decreases the circulating platelets, leading to bleeding in the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 30 - A 3-year-old boy presents with recurrent urinary tract infections. What is the most...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old boy presents with recurrent urinary tract infections. What is the most common cause for this problem in a child of this age?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vesicoureteric reflux

      Explanation:

      Vesicoureteral reflux is the condition when the urine flows backwards from the bladder into the kidneys, which is the most common cause of UTI in patients this age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 31 - A 3-year old boy presents with an abdominal mass. Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year old boy presents with an abdominal mass. Which of the following is associated with Wilm’s tumour (nephroblastoma)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

      Explanation:

      Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome is a inherited condition associated with organomegaly, macroglossia, abdominal wall defects, Wilm’s tumour and neonatal hypoglycaemia. Wilm’s tumour is a kidney cancer that usually occurs in children. The causes are unknown, however, risk factors include race and family history. Of note, Wilm’s tumour can occur as part of the following syndromes: WAGR syndrome, Denys-Drash syndrome, and Beckwith-Wiedmann syndrome and not the other listed options in this question.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 32 - A gentleman arrives at the renal clinic for review. He has longstanding chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A gentleman arrives at the renal clinic for review. He has longstanding chronic renal failure and is unfortunately suffering from metabolic bone disease. His GP has asked for an explanation of the causes and features of metabolic bone disease. Which of the following best describes the biochemical changes involved?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phosphate excretion is decreased, parathyroid hormone levels are increased and 1,25-OH vitamin D levels are decreased

      Explanation:

      The patient’s chronic renal failure causes decreased renal hydroxylation of vitamin D which leads to decreased calcium absorption in the gut. Simultaneously, there is also decreased renal excretion of phosphate, and this combination of factors results in increased PTH levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 33 - A 63-year-old gentleman with chronic kidney disease secondary to diabetes mellitus is reviewed....

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old gentleman with chronic kidney disease secondary to diabetes mellitus is reviewed. When assessing his estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR), which one of the following variables is not required by the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum urea

      Explanation:

      A formula for estimating glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is the Modification Diet of Renal Disease (MDRD) equation which takes into account the following variables: serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. Thus, serum urea is not required in this formula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 34 - A 33-year-old Afro–Caribbean gentleman with a 5 year history of HIV infection presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old Afro–Caribbean gentleman with a 5 year history of HIV infection presents with swollen ankles. He has been treated with highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) for 2 years, with partial response. His plasma creatinine concentration is 358 μmol/l, albumin is 12 g/dl, CD4 count is 35/μl and 24 hour urine protein excretion rate is 6.8 g. Renal ultrasound shows echogenic kidneys 13.5 cm in length. What would a renal biopsy show?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Microcystic tubular dilatation and collapsing FSGS

      Explanation:

      HIV-associated nephropathy (HIVAN) show typical findings of scarring called focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS) and microcystic tubular dilatation, prominent podocytes, and collapsing capillary loops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      0
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  • Question 35 - A 57-year-old man, who suffers from biventricular cardiac failure, comes to his doctor...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man, who suffers from biventricular cardiac failure, comes to his doctor for a review. His symptoms are currently well controlled; he is taking Ramipril 10mg, Spironolactone 25mg, Bisoprolol 10mg, and Furosemide 40mg. His main complaint is of painful gynaecomastia that he says has developed over the past 6 months. Physical exam reveals a blood pressure of 125/80 mmHg and no residual signs of cardiac failure. Renal function is unchanged from 6 months earlier, with stable creatinine at 125 µmol/l. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Change the spironolactone to eplerenone

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist diuretic that is well-known to cause gynaecomastia because it increases testosterone clearance and oestradiol production. The patient’s primary complaint of gynaecomastia should immediately prompt discontinuation of spironolactone and replacement with Eplerenone, which lacks the antiandrogenic effects, and thus there is less risk of gynaecomastia.

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  • Question 36 - A 64-year-old woman presents with malaise, ankle swelling and shortness of breath. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old woman presents with malaise, ankle swelling and shortness of breath. Her blood pressure is 215/140 mmHg, she has +2 peripheral oedema and the skin over her fingers appears very tight. Fundoscopy discloses bilateral papilledema.   Plasma creatinine concentration is 370 μmol/l, potassium is 4.9 mmol/l, haemoglobin is 8.9 g/dl and her platelet count is 90 x 109 /ml.   What is the pathological hallmark of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mucoid intimal thickening of vascular endothelium

      Explanation:

      The history is suggestive of scleroderma renal crisis, where we would expect thrombotic microangiopathy process with vascular endothelium involvement manifesting as mucoid intimal thickening or onion skin effect.

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  • Question 37 - A 23-year-old student commences chemotherapy for B-type acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. She suffers from...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old student commences chemotherapy for B-type acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. She suffers from vomiting, but 36 hours later her condition worsens and her bloods reveal a corrected calcium of 2.0 mmol/l and serum potassium of 6.7 mmol/l. Which of the following options is the best way to avoid this problem from occurring?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydration and allopurinol pre-chemotherapy

      Explanation:

      This case is most likely tumour lysis syndrome, often occurring immediately after starting chemotherapy because the tumour cells are killed and their contents are released into the bloodstream. After treating lymphomas or leukaemia, there is a sudden hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hyperkalaemia

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  • Question 38 - A 48-year-old patient with type 1 diabetes and chronic kidney disease attends for...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old patient with type 1 diabetes and chronic kidney disease attends for review. His blood tests show: Haemoglobin 11.2 g/dl (13.0 – 18.0 g/dL) MCV 87 fl (80 – 96 fL) Sodium 133 mmol/l (137 – 144 mmol/L) Potassium 4.3 mmol/l (3.5 – 4.9 mmol/L) Urea 19.1 mmol/l (2.5 – 7.5 mmol/L) Creatinine 267 μmol/l (60 – 110 μmol/L) Ferritin 150 μg/l (15 – 300 μg/L) C reactive protein <5 mg/l (< 10 mg/L)   What is the most appropriate management of his anaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Monitor haemoglobin, no treatment required at present

      Explanation:

      Because the patient has chronic kidney disease, we need to consider the associated adverse effects of trying to maintain normal haemoglobin levels (14-18g/dl in this patient) and instead only instigate therapy when the level falls below 11 g/dl. Thus, in this case we should just monitor the haemoglobin levels and not initiate therapy just yet.

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      • Nephrology
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  • Question 39 - A 52-year-old woman with polycystic kidney disease and a slowly rising creatinine, which...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman with polycystic kidney disease and a slowly rising creatinine, which was 320 μmol/L at her last clinic visit 3 weeks ago, is brought into the Emergency Department having been found collapsed at home by her partner. She is now fully conscious but complains of a headache.   What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      One of the most important complications in patients with PKD is being affected by berry aneurysms that may burst, causing a subarachnoid haemorrhage, which seems to be the case in this patient.

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  • Question 40 - A 16-year-old boy suffers recurrent episodes of haematuria following a flu-like illness. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy suffers recurrent episodes of haematuria following a flu-like illness. He is otherwise well. Physical examination is normal. Urinalysis reveals no proteinuria, blood ++, and 2–3 white blood cells/mm3.   What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy

      Explanation:

      IgA nephropathy’s characteristic presentation is haematuria following a non-specific upper respiratory infection as was evident in this case. IgA nephropathy also usually occurs in children and young males, like this patient.

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  • Question 41 - A 70-year-old complains of lower urinary tract symptoms. Which one of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old complains of lower urinary tract symptoms. Which one of the following statements regarding benign prostatic hyperplasia is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Goserelin is licensed for refractory cases

      Explanation:

      Goserelin (Zoladex) is usually prescribed to treat hormone-sensitive cancers of the breast and prostate not for BPH. All other statements are correct.

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      • Nephrology
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  • Question 42 - A 61-year-old gentleman presents with heart failure and pedal oedema. The oedema occurs...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old gentleman presents with heart failure and pedal oedema. The oedema occurs due to:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased release of renin

      Explanation:

      The oedema is an effect of the a decreased cardiac output that increases renin release which leads to vasoconstriction and sodium and water retention.

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      • Nephrology
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  • Question 43 - A 20-year-old woman presents to casualty with flank pain and a 48 hour...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman presents to casualty with flank pain and a 48 hour history of dysuria. Her past medical history includes polycystic ovarian syndrome. She is not in a steady relationship at present. There is haematuria and proteinuria on urine dipstick testing. Examination reveals a pyrexia of 38.1 °C and flank pain. What diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyelonephritis

      Explanation:

      The patient presents with flank pain and fever with haematuria and proteinuria associated with a social history of not being in a steady relationship. This patient is a young presumably sexually active female, so the diagnosis is most likely pyelonephritis which has an increased incidence in young sexually active women or men of >50 years of age.

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      • Nephrology
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  • Question 44 - Which of the following is most helpful in differentiating chronic from acute renal...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most helpful in differentiating chronic from acute renal failure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kidney size at ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      The size of the kidneys on ultrasound would differentiate chronic from acute renal failures. Chronic renal failure is more associated with small-sized kidneys.

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  • Question 45 - A 21-year-old woman presents with lethargy and confusion. On examination, you note a...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman presents with lethargy and confusion. On examination, you note a purpuric rash covering the abdominal wall and thighs, and a fever of 38C. Investigations reveal haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia, and acute kidney injury.   Which feature of the presentation makes the diagnosis of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura more likely than haemolytic uremic syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Confusion

      Explanation:

      Confusion in the patient refers to neurological symptoms that are more associated with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura than with haemolytic uremic syndrome. All the other symptoms present in both conditions similarly.

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      • Nephrology
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  • Question 46 - A 28 year old female presents to her GP with joint pain ,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old female presents to her GP with joint pain , fever, a butterfly rash and fatigue. She has marked peripheral oedema. She is found to be hypertensive, in acute renal failure, low albumin levels and proteinuria.   A renal biopsy is performed and reveals focal glomerulonephritis with subendothelial and mesangial immune deposits.   What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lupus nephritis Class III

      Explanation:

      This case presents with characteristic symptoms of SLE and with her renal biopsy results of focal glomerulonephritis, this is clearly Class III SLE.

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  • Question 47 - A 53-year-old gentleman presents with several months’ history of generalised swelling, fatigue, dyspnoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old gentleman presents with several months’ history of generalised swelling, fatigue, dyspnoea and several episodes of haemoptysis. There is no significant past medical history and he did not take any regular medication. He smokes 20 cigarettes per day and drinks 14 units of alcohol per week. On examination, he is grossly oedematous and has ascites. Cardiorespiratory examination is unremarkable and there are no neurological signs or rashes. Investigation results are below: Haemoglobin (Hb) 10.2 g/dL, White cell count (WCC) 6.0 × 109/L, Platelets 380 × 109/L, Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 90fl Na+ 145 mmol/L, K+ 3.7 mmol/L, Urea 8.2 mmol/L, Bilirubin 16 μmol/L, Creatinine 180 μmol/L, Albumin 22 g/l Aspartate transaminase 32 iu/l Alkaline phosphatase 120 iu/l Urinalysis: Protein +++ 24 h urinary protein excretion: 5g Chest radiograph: Enlarged right hilum Echocardiogram: Mild left ventricular impairment, no valve lesion Abdominal ultrasound scan: Normal-sized kidneys, no abnormality seen A renal biopsy was performed. What is it most likely to show?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thickened glomerular basement membrane with deposits of IgG and C3

      Explanation:

      Renal biopsy in this patient will most likely show thickened glomerular basement membrane with deposits of IgG and C3 as a result of membranous glomerulonephritis that has caused the nephrotic syndrome in this patient. Membranous glomerulonephritis in this case is most likely associated with an underlying bronchial carcinoma, consistent with the patient’s smoking history and physical presentation.

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  • Question 48 - A 65-year-old gentleman gives a two week history of progressive lethargy and weakness....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old gentleman gives a two week history of progressive lethargy and weakness. Eight weeks previously, he was treated for hypertensive heart failure with 120 mg furosemide and 5 mg enalapril daily. His haemoglobin at the time was 12.0, urea 14.2 mmol/l and creatinine 298 μmol/l. His blood pressure in clinic was 148/85 mmHg. His blood results are shown below: Hb 10.2g/dL, MCV 89.2 fl WCC 4.9 x 109/L, Plats 175 x 109/L, Na+ 135 K+ 5.2 mmol/L, Urea 25.2 mmol/L, Creat 600 μmol/L, Assuming that he is not volume overloaded, what would be the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: stop the enalapril and furosemide

      Explanation:

      The patient presents with worsened renal condition from the last consultation when he was started on enalapril (an ACE inhibitor) so this medication should be stopped. Because there is also no fluid overload; furosemide, a diuretic, should also be stopped.

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      • Nephrology
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  • Question 49 - A 20-year-old woman presents with weakness and is found to have a serum...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman presents with weakness and is found to have a serum potassium of 2.2 mmol/l and pH 7.1.   Which of the following would be LEAST useful in differentiating between renal tubular acidosis Types 1 and 2?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteomalacia

      Explanation:

      Osteomalacia is a marked softening of the bones that can present in both type I and type II Renal Tubular Acidosis (RTA) and will thus not differentiate the two types in any case. The other measures will allow differentiation of the two types.

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      • Nephrology
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  • Question 50 - An 83-year-old gentleman presents to his GP with increasing oedema and ascites. He...

    Incorrect

    • An 83-year-old gentleman presents to his GP with increasing oedema and ascites. He is hypertensive, for which he takes amlodipine. There is shortness of breath on exercise. His alcohol history is two cans of stout per day.   ECG is normal, and CXR reveals normal heart size and no signs of cardiac failure. Serum albumin is 23 g/dl; urinary albumin excretion is 7 g/24 h, with no haematuria. He has mild anaemia with a normal MCV. Total cholesterol is elevated.   What diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Nephrotic syndrome usually presents with the symptoms in this patient: low albumin, abnormal cholesterol, increased urinary albumin excretion, oedema, and as a consequence, hypertension as well.

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      • Nephrology
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