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Question 1
Correct
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You are evaluating a 4-year-old girl who has been diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). She had initially improved after receiving fluids, but her condition has worsened in the past hour. She is now expressing discomfort due to a headache and is displaying irritability. She has also started vomiting again, and the nursing staff has observed an increase in her blood pressure and a decrease in her heart rate.
What would be the most suitable course of treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Mannitol
Explanation:Cerebral edema is the most significant complication of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), leading to death in many cases. It occurs in approximately 0.2-1% of DKA cases. The high blood glucose levels cause an osmolar gradient, resulting in the movement of water from the intracellular fluid (ICF) to the extracellular fluid (ECF) space and a decrease in cell volume. When insulin and intravenous fluids are administered to correct the condition, the effective osmolarity decreases rapidly, causing a reversal of the fluid shift and the development of cerebral edema.
Cerebral edema is associated with a higher mortality rate and poor neurological outcomes. To prevent its occurrence, it is important to slowly normalize osmolarity over a period of 48 hours, paying attention to glucose and sodium levels, as well as ensuring proper hydration. Monitoring the child for symptoms such as headache, recurrent vomiting, irritability, changes in Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS), abnormal slowing of heart rate, and increasing blood pressure is crucial.
If cerebral edema does occur, it should be treated with either a hypertonic (3%) saline solution at a dosage of 3 ml/kg or a mannitol infusion at a dosage of 250-500 mg/kg over a 20-minute period.
In addition to cerebral edema, there are other complications associated with DKA in children, including cardiac arrhythmias, pulmonary edema, and acute renal failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents with a 4-day history of sudden right-sided scrotal pain and high fever. On examination, the epididymis is tender and swollen, and the overlying scrotal skin is red and warm to the touch. Lifting the scrotum provides relief from the pain. He has a history of epilepsy and takes phenytoin for it. He has no other significant medical history and no known allergies to medications.
What is the most suitable treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Levofloxacin
Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:Epididymo-orchitis refers to the inflammation of the epididymis and/or testicle. It typically presents with sudden pain, swelling, and inflammation in the affected area. This condition can also occur chronically, which means that the pain and inflammation last for more than six months.
The causes of epididymo-orchitis vary depending on the age of the patient. In men under 35 years old, the infection is usually sexually transmitted and caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae. In men over 35 years old, the infection is usually non-sexually transmitted and occurs as a result of enteric organisms that cause urinary tract infections, with Escherichia coli being the most common. However, there can be some overlap between these groups, so it is important to obtain a thorough sexual history in all age groups.
Mumps should also be considered as a potential cause of epididymo-orchitis in the 15 to 30 age group, as mumps orchitis occurs in around 40% of post-pubertal boys with mumps.
While most cases of epididymo-orchitis are infective, non-infectious causes can also occur. These include genito-urinary surgery, vasectomy, urinary catheterization, Behcet’s disease, sarcoidosis, and drug-induced cases such as those caused by amiodarone.
Patients with epididymo-orchitis typically present with unilateral scrotal pain and swelling that develops relatively quickly. The affected testis will be tender to touch, and there is usually a palpable swelling of the epididymis that starts at the lower pole of the testis and spreads towards the upper pole. The testis itself may also be involved, and there may be redness and/or swelling of the scrotum on the affected side. Patients may experience fever and urethral discharge as well.
The most important differential diagnosis to consider is testicular torsion, which requires immediate medical attention within 6 hours of onset to save the testicle. Testicular torsion is more likely in men under the age of 20, especially if the pain is very severe and sudden. It typically presents around four hours after onset. In this case, the patient’s age, longer history of symptoms, and the presence of fever are more indicative of epididymo-orchitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman visits your office expressing concern about a recent unprotected sexual encounter that occurred three days ago. She is extremely anxious and determined to prevent pregnancy. The patient has a history of asthma and currently takes Clenil Modulite. Her BMI is 30.
What is the most appropriate choice for her in this situation?Your Answer: Copper IUD
Explanation:Women have three options when requesting emergency contraception. The first option is Levonelle 1.5 mg, which contains levonorgestrel and can be used up to 72 hours after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI). If vomiting occurs within 2 hours of taking the tablet, another one should be given. Levonelle mainly works by preventing ovulation.
The second option is ulipristal acetate, the newest treatment available. It can be used up to 120 hours after UPSI. If vomiting occurs within 3 hours of ingestion, another tablet should be given. Ulipristal acetate also works by inhibiting ovulation. However, it should be avoided in patients taking enzyme-inducing drugs, those with severe hepatic impairment, or those with severe asthma requiring oral steroids.
The third option is the copper IUD, which can be fitted up to 5 days after UPSI or ovulation, whichever is longer. The failure rate of the copper IUD is less than 1 in 1000, making it 10-20 times more effective than oral emergency contraceptive options. It is important to note that Levonelle and ulipristal may be less effective in women with higher BMIs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 4
Correct
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A 52 year old male is brought into the emergency department acutely ill and is transferred to resus. Your consultant suspects thyrotoxic crisis and instructs you to prepare the necessary medication. What drugs are typically administered during the initial treatment of thyrotoxic crisis?
Your Answer: Antithyroid drug, beta blocker, corticosteroids and iodine solution
Explanation:Thyroid storm, also known as thyrotoxic crisis, is a rare and dangerous complication of hyperthyroidism. The initial management of this condition involves the use of specific medications. These medications include a beta blocker, a corticosteroid, an antithyroid drug, and an iodine solution.
The beta blocker used is typically propranolol, which is administered intravenously at a dose of 1 mg over 1 minute. If a beta blocker is contraindicated, a calcium channel blocker such as diltiazem may be used instead, at a dose of 0.25 mg/kg over 2 minutes.
For corticosteroids, hydrocortisone is commonly used and given intravenously at a dose of 200 mg. Alternatively, dexamethasone can be used at a dose of 2 mg intravenously.
The antithyroid drug used is usually propylthiouracil, which is given orally, through a nasogastric tube, or rectally, at a dose of 200 mg.
An iodine solution, specifically Lugol’s iodine, is also part of the initial management. However, it should not be administered until at least 1 hour after the antithyroid drug has been given. This is because iodine can exacerbate thyrotoxicosis by stimulating thyroid hormone synthesis. Propylthiouracil, on the other hand, inhibits the normal interactions of iodine and peroxidase with thyroglobulin, preventing the formation of T4 and T3. Therefore, it is given first and allowed time to take effect before iodine is administered.
Further Reading:
The thyroid gland is an endocrine organ located in the anterior neck. It consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. The gland produces hormones called thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate energy use, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. The production of T4 and T3 is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the pituitary gland, which is in turn stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.
Thyroid disorders can occur when there is an imbalance in the production or regulation of thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, while hyperthyroidism is characterized by an excess. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. It is more common in women and is often associated with goiter. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, atrophic thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency. On the other hand, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves’ disease, which is also an autoimmune disorder. Other causes include toxic multinodular goiter and subacute thyroiditis.
The symptoms and signs of thyroid disorders can vary depending on whether the thyroid gland is underactive or overactive. In hypothyroidism, common symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, and dry skin. In hyperthyroidism, common symptoms include weight loss, restlessness, heat intolerance, and increased sweating. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can also affect other systems in the body, such as the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems.
Complications of thyroid disorders can include dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, coronary heart disease, heart failure, subfertility and infertility, impaired special senses, and myxedema coma in severe cases of hypothyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, complications can include Graves’ orbitopathy, compression of the esophagus or trachea by goiter, thyrotoxic periodic paralysis, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, mood disorders, and increased obstetric complications.
Myxedema coma is a rare and life-threatening complication of severe hypothyroidism. It can be triggered by factors such as infection or physiological insult and presents with lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 5
Correct
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You assess a patient who has been brought into the resuscitation room in an obtunded state. The patient is wearing a MedicAlert bracelet, indicating a diagnosis of Addison's disease.
Which ONE statement accurately describes this condition?Your Answer: ACTH levels are usually elevated
Explanation:Addison’s disease occurs when the adrenal glands do not produce enough steroid hormones. This includes glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and sex steroids. The most common cause is autoimmune adrenalitis, which accounts for about 70-80% of cases. It is more prevalent in women and typically occurs between the ages of 30 and 50.
The clinical symptoms of Addison’s disease include weakness, lethargy, low blood pressure (especially when standing up), nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reduced hair in the armpits and pubic area, depression, and hyperpigmentation (darkening of the skin in certain areas like the palms, mouth, and exposed skin).
Biochemically, Addison’s disease is characterized by increased levels of ACTH (a hormone that tries to stimulate the adrenal glands), low sodium levels, high potassium levels, high calcium levels, low blood sugar, and metabolic acidosis.
People with Addison’s disease have a higher risk of developing type 1 diabetes, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, Grave’s disease, premature ovarian failure, pernicious anemia, vitiligo, and alopecia.
Management of Addison’s disease should be overseen by an Endocrinologist. Treatment typically involves taking hydrocortisone, fludrocortisone, and dehydroepiandrosterone. Some patients may also need thyroxine if there is hypothalamic-pituitary disease present. Treatment is lifelong, and patients should carry a steroid card and a MedicAlert bracelet in case of an Addisonian crisis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 52-year-old man presents with ataxia, left-sided loss of pain and temperature sense on the face, left-sided paralysis of the facial muscles and right-sided sensory loss to the body. He is also complaining of severe vertigo, nausea and tinnitus. CT and MRI head scans are undertaken, and he is discovered to have suffered a left-sided stroke. He is subsequently admitted under the stroke team.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Lateral pontine syndrome
Explanation:Obstruction of the long circumferential branches of the basilar artery leads to the lateral pontine syndrome. This condition is characterized by several symptoms. Firstly, there is ataxia, which is caused by damage to the cerebral peduncles. Additionally, there is ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature sense on the face, resulting from damage to CN V. Another symptom is ipsilateral paralysis of the upper and lower face, which occurs due to damage to CN VII. Furthermore, vertigo, nystagmus, tinnitus, deafness, and vomiting are present, all of which are caused by damage to CN VIII. Lastly, there is contralateral sensory loss to the body, which is a result of damage to the spinothalamic tracts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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You are managing a 72-year-old patient with type 2 respiratory failure. It has been decided to initiate BiPAP therapy. What initial EPAP and IPAP pressure settings would you recommend?
Your Answer: EPAP 3-5 cmH2O / IPAP 10-15 cmH2O
Correct Answer:
Explanation:When determining the initial EPAP and IPAP pressure settings for this patient, it is important to consider their specific needs and condition. In general, the EPAP pressure should be set between 3-5 cmH2O, which helps to maintain positive pressure in the airways during exhalation, preventing them from collapsing. This can improve oxygenation and reduce the work of breathing.
The IPAP pressure, on the other hand, should be set between 10-15 cmH2O. This higher pressure during inhalation helps to overcome any resistance in the airways and ensures adequate ventilation. It also assists in improving the patient’s tidal volume and reducing carbon dioxide levels.
Therefore, the recommended initial EPAP and IPAP pressure settings for this patient would be EPAP 3-5 cmH2O / IPAP 10-15 cmH2O. These settings provide a balance between maintaining airway patency during exhalation and ensuring sufficient ventilation during inhalation. However, it is important to regularly assess the patient’s response to therapy and adjust the settings as needed to optimize their respiratory function.
Further Reading:
Mechanical ventilation is the use of artificial means to assist or replace spontaneous breathing. It can be invasive, involving instrumentation inside the trachea, or non-invasive, where there is no instrumentation of the trachea. Non-invasive mechanical ventilation (NIV) in the emergency department typically refers to the use of CPAP or BiPAP.
CPAP, or continuous positive airways pressure, involves delivering air or oxygen through a tight-fitting face mask to maintain a continuous positive pressure throughout the patient’s respiratory cycle. This helps maintain small airway patency, improves oxygenation, decreases airway resistance, and reduces the work of breathing. CPAP is mainly used for acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema.
BiPAP, or biphasic positive airways pressure, also provides positive airway pressure but with variations during the respiratory cycle. The pressure is higher during inspiration than expiration, generating a tidal volume that assists ventilation. BiPAP is mainly indicated for type 2 respiratory failure in patients with COPD who are already on maximal medical therapy.
The pressure settings for CPAP typically start at 5 cmH2O and can be increased to a maximum of 15 cmH2O. For BiPAP, the starting pressure for expiratory pressure (EPAP) or positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is 3-5 cmH2O, while the starting pressure for inspiratory pressure (IPAP) is 10-15 cmH2O. These pressures can be titrated up if there is persisting hypoxia or acidosis.
In terms of lung protective ventilation, low tidal volumes of 5-8 ml/kg are used to prevent atelectasis and reduce the risk of lung injury. Inspiratory pressures (plateau pressure) should be kept below 30 cm of water, and permissible hypercapnia may be allowed. However, there are contraindications to lung protective ventilation, such as unacceptable levels of hypercapnia, acidosis, and hypoxemia.
Overall, mechanical ventilation, whether invasive or non-invasive, is used in various respiratory and non-respiratory conditions to support or replace spontaneous breathing and improve oxygenation and ventilation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 8
Correct
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You are present for the unexpected delivery of a baby in one of the cubicles in the Emergency Department. Your consultant evaluates the newborn one minute after birth and informs you that:
The hands and feet appear bluish in color
The heart rate is 110 beats per minute
There is no response to stimulation
There is slight bending of the limbs
The cry is feeble, and the baby is gasping for breath
What is the Apgar score of the newborn at one minute?Your Answer: 5
Explanation:The Apgar score is a straightforward way to evaluate the well-being of a newborn baby right after birth. It consists of five criteria, each assigned a score ranging from zero to two. Typically, the assessment is conducted at one and five minutes after delivery, with the possibility of repeating it later if the score remains low. A score of 7 or higher is considered normal, while a score of 4-6 is considered fairly low, and a score of 3 or below is regarded as critically low. To remember the five criteria, you can use the acronym APGAR:
Appearance
Pulse rate
Grimace
Activity
Respiratory effortThe Apgar score criteria are as follows:
Score of 0:
Appearance (skin color): Blue or pale all over
Pulse rate: Absent
Reflex irritability (grimace): No response to stimulation
Activity: None
Respiratory effort: AbsentScore of 1:
Appearance (skin color): Blue at extremities (acrocyanosis)
Pulse rate: Less than 100 per minute
Reflex irritability (grimace): Grimace on suction or aggressive stimulation
Activity: Some flexion
Respiratory effort: Weak, irregular, gaspingScore of 2:
Appearance (skin color): No cyanosis, body and extremities pink
Pulse rate: More than 100 per minute
Reflex irritability (grimace): Cry on stimulation
Activity: Flexed arms and legs that resist extension
Respiratory effort: Strong, robust cry -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatal Emergencies
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Question 9
Correct
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A 72 year old male patient has arrived at the emergency department after injuring himself in a fall. Upon reviewing the patient's medical history, you discover that he was diagnosed with mitral stenosis last year. You advise the medical students to assess the patient for indications of this condition.
What is a typical symptom observed in individuals with mitral stenosis?Your Answer: Malar flush
Explanation:One of the clinical features of mitral stenosis is malar flush, which refers to a reddening or flushing of the cheeks. Other clinical features include a mid-late diastolic murmur that is best heard during expiration, a loud S1 heart sound with an opening snap, a low volume pulse, atrial fibrillation, and signs of pulmonary edema such as crepitations or the presence of white or pink frothy sputum.
Further Reading:
Mitral Stenosis:
– Causes: Rheumatic fever, Mucopolysaccharidoses, Carcinoid, Endocardial fibroelastosis
– Features: Mid-late diastolic murmur, loud S1, opening snap, low volume pulse, malar flush, atrial fibrillation, signs of pulmonary edema, tapping apex beat
– Features of severe mitral stenosis: Length of murmur increases, opening snap becomes closer to S2
– Investigation findings: CXR may show left atrial enlargement, echocardiography may show reduced cross-sectional area of the mitral valveMitral Regurgitation:
– Causes: Mitral valve prolapse, Myxomatous degeneration, Ischemic heart disease, Rheumatic fever, Connective tissue disorders, Endocarditis, Dilated cardiomyopathy
– Features: pansystolic murmur radiating to left axilla, soft S1, S3, laterally displaced apex beat with heave
– Signs of acute MR: Decompensated congestive heart failure symptoms
– Signs of chronic MR: Leg edema, fatigue, arrhythmia (atrial fibrillation)
– Investigation findings: Doppler echocardiography to detect regurgitant flow and pulmonary hypertension, ECG may show signs of LA enlargement and LV hypertrophy, CXR may show LA and LV enlargement in chronic MR and pulmonary edema in acute MR. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is brought in by ambulance following a car crash. A FAST scan is conducted to assess for the presence of a haemoperitoneum.
Where is free fluid most likely to be observed if a haemoperitoneum is present?Your Answer: Spleen
Correct Answer: Liver
Explanation:A Focussed Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (FAST) scan is a point-of-care ultrasound examination conducted when a trauma patient arrives. Its primary purpose is to identify the presence of intra-abdominal free fluid, which is typically assumed to be haemoperitoneum in the context of trauma. This information is crucial for making decisions regarding further management of the patient.
The sensitivity of FAST scanning for detecting intraperitoneal fluid is approximately 90%, while its specificity is around 95%. However, its sensitivity for detecting solid organ injuries is much lower. As a result, FAST scanning has largely replaced diagnostic peritoneal lavage as the preferred initial method for assessing haemoperitoneum.
During a standard FAST scan, four regions are examined. The subxiphoid transverse view is used to assess for pericardial effusion and left lobe liver injuries. The longitudinal view of the right upper quadrant helps identify right liver injuries, right kidney injury, and fluid in the hepatorenal recess (Morison’s pouch). The longitudinal view of the left upper quadrant is used to assess for splenic injury and left kidney injury. Lastly, the transverse and longitudinal views of the suprapubic region are used to examine the bladder and fluid in the pouch of Douglas.
In addition to the standard FAST scan, an extended FAST or eFAST may be performed to assess the left and right thoracic regions. This helps determine the presence of pneumothorax and haemothorax.
The hepatorenal recess is the deepest part of the peritoneal cavity when the patient is lying flat. Consequently, it is the most likely area for fluid to accumulate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 11
Correct
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A 45-year-old man comes in with sudden onset of severe lower back pain. Upon evaluation, you determine that prescribing ibuprofen and codeine phosphate would be appropriate. The patient has a history of depression and is currently taking fluoxetine. In which ONE situation would you consider adding a PPI to provide gastro-protection?
Your Answer: Co-prescription of fluoxetine
Explanation:According to the current recommendations by NICE, it is advised to consider gastro-protection for patients who meet more than one of the following criteria: using the highest recommended dose of an NSAID, being 65 years or older, having a history of peptic ulcer or gastrointestinal bleeding, taking medications that increase the risk, using low dose aspirin, anticoagulants, corticosteroids, or anti-depressants including SSRIs and SNRIs, requiring prolonged NSAID usage, having osteoarthritis or rheumatoid arthritis at any age, or experiencing long-term back pain if older than 45.
If gastro-protection is necessary, it is recommended to choose either omeprazole 20 mg daily or lansoprazole 15-30 mg daily as the preferred PPIs.
In the case of this patient, they are currently taking 400 mg of ibuprofen three times a day, which is within the maximum recommended dose of 2.4 g daily. Therefore, there is no need for gastro-protection based on the dosage of ibuprofen alone. Additionally, factors such as co-prescription of codeine, a raised BMI, and a family history of peptic ulceration would also not warrant the need for gastro-protection.
For more information, you can refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on prescribing issues with NSAIDs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 12
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman comes in seeking contraceptive advice. She is currently 48 hours behind schedule in starting the first pill of her new packet. She took all of her pills consistently last month before her pill-free interval. She engaged in unprotected sexual intercourse last night and wants to know the best course of action.
What is the MOST suitable advice to provide her?Your Answer: She should take the most recent missed pill, the remaining pills should be continued at the usual time, but no emergency contraception is required
Explanation:If you have missed one pill, which means it has been 48-72 hours since you took the last pill in your current packet or you started the first pill in a new packet 24-48 hours late, you need to take the missed pill as soon as you remember. Make sure to continue taking the remaining pills at your usual time. Emergency contraception is generally not necessary in this situation, but it may be worth considering if you have missed pills earlier in the packet or during the last week of the previous packet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 13
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman presents with a gradual decline in her hearing. She struggles to understand her husband's words at times and describes his voice as muffled. Both of her ears are affected, and her hearing worsens in noisy settings. During the examination, both of her eardrums appear normal, and Rinne's test yields normal results.
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Presbycusis
Explanation:Presbycusis is a type of hearing loss that occurs gradually as a person gets older. It affects both ears and is caused by the gradual deterioration of the hair cells in the cochlea and the cochlear nerve. The most noticeable hearing loss is at higher frequencies, and it worsens over time. People with presbycusis often have difficulty hearing speech clearly, and they may describe words as sounding muffled or blending together. A test called Rinne’s test will show normal results in cases of presbycusis. If a patient has presbycusis, it is recommended that they be referred for a hearing aid fitting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 14
Correct
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A 75-year-old man is brought to the resuscitation area of your Emergency Department by ambulance. He has become increasingly unwell over the past few weeks with vomiting and diarrhea. His wife tells you that he was started on a medication by his GP six months ago for pain and stiffness around his shoulders, upper arms, and hips. She describes this medication as being '6 small blue tablets.' He has been unable to take these tablets for the past few days. On examination, he is pale and sweaty and appears confused. His observations are as follows: temperature 37.2°C, HR 130 bpm, BP 90/50, RR 22, SaO2 97% on 2 L oxygen, GCS 13. He has intravenous access in situ, and his BM stick glucose is 2.5.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Addisonian crisis
Explanation:This patient has presented with an Addisonian crisis, which is a rare but potentially catastrophic condition if not diagnosed promptly. The most likely underlying rheumatological diagnosis in this case is polymyalgia rheumatica, and it is likely that the GP started the patient on prednisolone medication.
Addison’s disease occurs when the adrenal glands underproduce steroid hormones, affecting the production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and sex steroids. The main causes of Addison’s disease include autoimmune adrenalitis (accounting for 80% of cases), bilateral adrenalectomy, Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome (hemorrhage into the adrenal glands), and tuberculosis.
An Addisonian crisis is most commonly triggered by the deliberate or accidental withdrawal of steroid therapy in patients with Addison’s disease. Other factors that can precipitate a crisis include infection, trauma, myocardial infarction, cerebral infarction, asthma, hypothermia, and alcohol abuse.
The clinical features of Addison’s disease include weakness, lethargy, hypotension (especially orthostatic hypotension), nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reduced axillary and pubic hair, depression, and hyperpigmentation (particularly in palmar creases, buccal mucosa, and exposed areas). In an Addisonian crisis, the main features are usually hypoglycemia and shock, characterized by tachycardia, peripheral vasoconstriction, hypotension, altered consciousness, and coma.
Biochemically, Addison’s disease is characterized by increased ACTH levels (as a compensatory response to stimulate the adrenal glands), elevated serum renin levels, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypercalcemia, hypoglycemia, and metabolic acidosis. Diagnostic investigations may include the Synacthen test, plasma ACTH level, plasma renin level, and adrenocortical antibodies.
Management of Addison’s disease should be overseen by an Endocrinologist. Typically, patients require hydrocortisone, fludrocortisone, and dehydroepiandrosterone. Some patients may also need thyroxine if there is hypothalamic-pituitary disease present. Treatment is lifelong, and patients should carry a steroid card and a MedicAlert bracelet, being aware of the possibility of an Addisonian crisis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman with a history of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia is found to have a diagnosis of Lown-Ganong-Levine (LGL) syndrome.
Which of the following statements about LGL syndrome is NOT true?Your Answer: It is caused by an accessory pathway for conduction
Explanation:Lown-Ganong-Levine (LGL) syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical conducting system of the heart. It is classified as a pre-excitation syndrome, similar to the more well-known Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome. However, unlike WPW syndrome, LGL syndrome does not involve an accessory pathway for conduction. Instead, it is believed that there may be accessory fibers present that bypass all or part of the atrioventricular node.
When looking at an electrocardiogram (ECG) of a patient with LGL syndrome in sinus rhythm, there are several characteristic features to observe. The PR interval, which represents the time it takes for the electrical signal to travel from the atria to the ventricles, is typically shortened and measures less than 120 milliseconds. The QRS duration, which represents the time it takes for the ventricles to contract, is normal. The P wave, which represents the electrical activity of the atria, may be normal or inverted. However, what distinguishes LGL syndrome from other pre-excitation syndromes is the absence of a delta wave, which is a slurring of the initial rise in the QRS complex.
It is important to note that LGL syndrome predisposes individuals to paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (SVT), a rapid heart rhythm that originates above the ventricles. However, it does not increase the risk of developing atrial fibrillation or flutter, which are other types of abnormal heart rhythms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 35 year old firefighter is recommended to go to the emergency department after responding to a house fire where a gas explosion occurred. The firefighter helped evacuate the residents and then inspected the basement where a leaking gas pipe was found.
What is the most suitable agent to offer this patient for decontamination?Your Answer: Pralidoxime
Correct Answer: Prussian blue
Explanation:Prussian blue is a substance that helps remove radioactive caesium from the body, a process known as decorporation. It is specifically effective for caesium exposure. When taken orally, Prussian blue binds to the radioactive caesium, forming a compound that can be excreted from the body, preventing further absorption. By using Prussian blue, the whole body radiation dose can be reduced by approximately two-thirds. Radioactive caesium is utilized in various medical, geological, and industrial applications, although incidents of environmental contamination are rare, they have been reported in Western Australia and Eastern Thailand during the first quarter of 2023.
Further Reading:
Radiation exposure refers to the emission or transmission of energy in the form of waves or particles through space or a material medium. There are two types of radiation: ionizing and non-ionizing. Non-ionizing radiation, such as radio waves and visible light, has enough energy to move atoms within a molecule but not enough to remove electrons from atoms. Ionizing radiation, on the other hand, has enough energy to ionize atoms or molecules by detaching electrons from them.
There are different types of ionizing radiation, including alpha particles, beta particles, gamma rays, and X-rays. Alpha particles are positively charged and consist of 2 protons and 2 neutrons from the atom’s nucleus. They are emitted from the decay of heavy radioactive elements and do not travel far from the source atom. Beta particles are small, fast-moving particles with a negative electrical charge that are emitted from an atom’s nucleus during radioactive decay. They are more penetrating than alpha particles but less damaging to living tissue. Gamma rays and X-rays are weightless packets of energy called photons. Gamma rays are often emitted along with alpha or beta particles during radioactive decay and can easily penetrate barriers. X-rays, on the other hand, are generally lower in energy and less penetrating than gamma rays.
Exposure to ionizing radiation can damage tissue cells by dislodging orbital electrons, leading to the generation of highly reactive ion pairs. This can result in DNA damage and an increased risk of future malignant change. The extent of cell damage depends on factors such as the type of radiation, time duration of exposure, distance from the source, and extent of shielding.
The absorbed dose of radiation is directly proportional to time, so it is important to minimize the amount of time spent in the vicinity of a radioactive source. A lethal dose of radiation without medical management is 4.5 sieverts (Sv) to kill 50% of the population at 60 days. With medical management, the lethal dose is 5-6 Sv. The immediate effects of ionizing radiation can range from radiation burns to radiation sickness, which is divided into three main syndromes: hematopoietic, gastrointestinal, and neurovascular. Long-term effects can include hematopoietic cancers and solid tumor formation.
In terms of management, support is mainly supportive and includes IV fluids, antiemetics, analgesia, nutritional support, antibiotics, blood component substitution, and reduction of brain edema.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 17
Correct
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A 60 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his wife as he has become increasingly lethargic and confused over the past 5 days. You observe that the patient had a pituitary adenoma removed through transsphenoidal resection about 2 months ago and is currently on a medication regimen of desmopressin 100 micrograms 3 times daily. You suspect that his symptoms may be attributed to his medication. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Hyponatraemia
Explanation:Desmopressin, a common treatment for cranial diabetes insipidus (DI) following pituitary surgery, can often lead to hyponatremia as a side effect. Therefore, it is important for patients to have their electrolyte levels regularly monitored. Symptoms of hyponatremia may include nausea, vomiting, headache, confusion, lethargy, fatigue, restlessness, irritability, muscle weakness or spasms, seizures, and drowsiness (which can progress to coma in severe cases).
Further Reading:
Diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition characterized by either a decrease in the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (cranial DI) or insensitivity to antidiuretic hormone (nephrogenic DI). Antidiuretic hormone, also known as arginine vasopressin, is produced in the hypothalamus and released from the posterior pituitary. The typical biochemical disturbances seen in DI include elevated plasma osmolality, low urine osmolality, polyuria, and hypernatraemia.
Cranial DI can be caused by various factors such as head injury, CNS infections, pituitary tumors, and pituitary surgery. Nephrogenic DI, on the other hand, can be genetic or result from electrolyte disturbances or the use of certain drugs. Symptoms of DI include polyuria, polydipsia, nocturia, signs of dehydration, and in children, irritability, failure to thrive, and fatigue.
To diagnose DI, a 24-hour urine collection is done to confirm polyuria, and U&Es will typically show hypernatraemia. High plasma osmolality with low urine osmolality is also observed. Imaging studies such as MRI of the pituitary, hypothalamus, and surrounding tissues may be done, as well as a fluid deprivation test to evaluate the response to desmopressin.
Management of cranial DI involves supplementation with desmopressin, a synthetic form of arginine vasopressin. However, hyponatraemia is a common side effect that needs to be monitored. In nephrogenic DI, desmopressin supplementation is usually not effective, and management focuses on ensuring adequate fluid intake to offset water loss and monitoring electrolyte levels. Causative drugs need to be stopped, and there is a risk of developing complications such as hydroureteronephrosis and an overdistended bladder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 18
Correct
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You are caring for an elderly patient with chronic kidney disease who has been ordered intravenous fluids containing potassium chloride. You are closely observing the patient for the development of hyperkalemia. What is the initial ECG change typically observed in patients with hyperkalemia?
Your Answer: Tall Tented T-waves
Explanation:The earliest ECG change typically observed in hyperkalemia is the presence of tall tented T-waves.
Further Reading:
Vasoactive drugs can be classified into three categories: inotropes, vasopressors, and unclassified. Inotropes are drugs that alter the force of muscular contraction, particularly in the heart. They primarily stimulate adrenergic receptors and increase myocardial contractility. Commonly used inotropes include adrenaline, dobutamine, dopamine, isoprenaline, and ephedrine.
Vasopressors, on the other hand, increase systemic vascular resistance (SVR) by stimulating alpha-1 receptors, causing vasoconstriction. This leads to an increase in blood pressure. Commonly used vasopressors include norepinephrine, metaraminol, phenylephrine, and vasopressin.
Electrolytes, such as potassium, are essential for proper bodily function. Solutions containing potassium are often given to patients to prevent or treat hypokalemia (low potassium levels). However, administering too much potassium can lead to hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), which can cause dangerous arrhythmias. It is important to monitor potassium levels and administer it at a controlled rate to avoid complications.
Hyperkalemia can be caused by various factors, including excessive potassium intake, decreased renal excretion, endocrine disorders, certain medications, metabolic acidosis, tissue destruction, and massive blood transfusion. It can present with cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal, and neuromuscular symptoms. ECG changes, such as tall tented T-waves, prolonged PR interval, flat P-waves, widened QRS complex, and sine wave, are also characteristic of hyperkalemia.
In summary, vasoactive drugs can be categorized as inotropes, vasopressors, or unclassified. Inotropes increase myocardial contractility, while vasopressors increase systemic vascular resistance. Electrolytes, particularly potassium, are important for bodily function, but administering too much can lead to hyperkalemia. Monitoring potassium levels and ECG changes is crucial in managing hyperkalemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Elderly Care / Frailty
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Question 19
Correct
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A 2 year old male is brought to the emergency department by concerned parents. The child started experiencing episodes of diarrhea and vomiting 2 days ago which have continued today. They are worried as the patient has become lethargic throughout the day and hasn't urinated for several hours. After initial assessment, you decide to administer a 10 ml/kg bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride fluid to treat suspected shock. After giving the fluid bolus, you repeat the patient's observations as shown below:
Initial observation observation after fluid bolus
Pulse 160 148
Respiration rate 52 42
Capillary refill time 5s 4s
Temperature 37.8ºC 37.8ºC
You notice the patient still has cool extremities and mottled skin. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Administer further 10 ml/kg 0.9% sodium chloride fluid bolus
Explanation:Gastroenteritis is a common condition in children, particularly those under the age of 5. It is characterized by the sudden onset of diarrhea, with or without vomiting. The most common cause of gastroenteritis in infants and young children is rotavirus, although other viruses, bacteria, and parasites can also be responsible. Prior to the introduction of the rotavirus vaccine in 2013, rotavirus was the leading cause of gastroenteritis in children under 5 in the UK. However, the vaccine has led to a significant decrease in cases, with a drop of over 70% in subsequent years.
Norovirus is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in adults, but it also accounts for a significant number of cases in children. In England & Wales, there are approximately 8,000 cases of norovirus each year, with 15-20% of these cases occurring in children under 9.
When assessing a child with gastroenteritis, it is important to consider whether there may be another more serious underlying cause for their symptoms. Dehydration assessment is also crucial, as some children may require intravenous fluids. The NICE traffic light system can be used to identify the risk of serious illness in children under 5.
In terms of investigations, stool microbiological testing may be indicated in certain cases, such as when the patient has been abroad, if diarrhea lasts for more than 7 days, or if there is uncertainty over the diagnosis. U&Es may be necessary if intravenous fluid therapy is required or if there are symptoms and/or signs suggestive of hypernatremia. Blood cultures may be indicated if sepsis is suspected or if antibiotic therapy is planned.
Fluid management is a key aspect of treating children with gastroenteritis. In children without clinical dehydration, normal oral fluid intake should be encouraged, and oral rehydration solution (ORS) supplements may be considered. For children with dehydration, ORS solution is the preferred method of rehydration, unless intravenous fluid therapy is necessary. Intravenous fluids may be required for children with shock or those who are unable to tolerate ORS solution.
Antibiotics are generally not required for gastroenteritis in children, as most cases are viral or self-limiting. However, there are some exceptions, such as suspected or confirmed sepsis, Extraintestinal spread of bacterial infection, or specific infections like Clostridium difficile-associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis or giardiasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 62 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her husband who is concerned that the patient has been experiencing abdominal pain and also appears slightly confused. He informs you that the patient is a heavy drinker and you observe that the patient was diagnosed with liver cirrhosis 8 months ago. The patient has difficulty focusing during the Abbreviated Mental Test Score (AMTS) but scores 7/10. Upon examination, you notice mild ascites. You suspect the patient has moderate (grade 2) hepatic encephalopathy secondary to liver cirrhosis. The patient's initial blood tests are as follows:
Bilirubin 45 µmol/l
ALP 210 u/l
ALT 300 u/l
γGT 160 u/l
Albumin 27 g/l
INR 1.9
What is this patient's Child Pugh score?Your Answer: 6
Correct Answer: 13
Explanation:This patient’s Child Pugh score is 9. The Child Pugh score is a scoring system used to assess the severity of liver disease and the prognosis of patients with cirrhosis. It takes into account five variables: bilirubin levels, albumin levels, INR (international normalized ratio), ascites, and hepatic encephalopathy. Each variable is assigned a score from 1 to 3, with 3 indicating the most severe impairment.
In this case, the patient’s bilirubin level is 45 µmol/l, which corresponds to a score of 2. The albumin level is 27 g/l, which also corresponds to a score of 3. The INR is 1.9, which corresponds to a score of 2. The presence of moderate ascites indicates a score of 3. Finally, the patient has moderate hepatic encephalopathy, which corresponds to a score of 3.
Adding up the scores for each variable, we get a total score of 13. This indicates that the patient has moderate to severe liver disease and a poorer prognosis.
Further Reading:
Cirrhosis is a condition where the liver undergoes structural changes, resulting in dysfunction of its normal functions. It can be classified as either compensated or decompensated. Compensated cirrhosis refers to a stage where the liver can still function effectively with minimal symptoms, while decompensated cirrhosis is when the liver damage is severe and clinical complications are present.Cirrhosis develops over a period of several years due to repeated insults to the liver. Risk factors for cirrhosis include alcohol misuse, hepatitis B and C infection, obesity, type 2 diabetes, autoimmune liver disease, genetic conditions, certain medications, and other rare conditions.
The prognosis of cirrhosis can be assessed using the Child-Pugh score, which predicts mortality based on parameters such as bilirubin levels, albumin levels, INR, ascites, and encephalopathy. The score ranges from A to C, with higher scores indicating a poorer prognosis.
Complications of cirrhosis include portal hypertension, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, variceal hemorrhage, increased infection risk, hepatocellular carcinoma, and cardiovascular complications.
Diagnosis of cirrhosis is typically done through liver function tests, blood tests, viral hepatitis screening, and imaging techniques such as transient elastography or acoustic radiation force impulse imaging. Liver biopsy may also be performed in some cases.
Management of cirrhosis involves treating the underlying cause, controlling risk factors, and monitoring for complications. Complications such as ascites, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, oesophageal varices, and hepatic encephalopathy require specific management strategies.
Overall, cirrhosis is a progressive condition that requires ongoing monitoring and management to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman with a previous history of depression is admitted to the emergency department following an overdose of amitriptyline tablets. The patient displays notable signs of toxicity, prompting the administration of intravenous sodium bicarbonate. What is the objective of this treatment?
Your Answer: Serum pH 7.35 to 7.45
Correct Answer: Serum pH 7.45 to 7.55
Explanation:Sodium bicarbonate is used to treat severe TCA toxicity by reducing the risk of seizures and arrhythmia. The goal is to increase the serum pH to a range of 7.45 to 7.55 through alkalinisation.
Further Reading:
Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with drugs like amitriptyline and dosulepin being particularly dangerous. TCAs work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system. In cases of toxicity, TCAs block various receptors, including alpha-adrenergic, histaminic, muscarinic, and serotonin receptors. This can lead to symptoms such as hypotension, altered mental state, signs of anticholinergic toxicity, and serotonin receptor effects.
TCAs primarily cause cardiac toxicity by blocking sodium and potassium channels. This can result in a slowing of the action potential, prolongation of the QRS complex, and bradycardia. However, the blockade of muscarinic receptors also leads to tachycardia in TCA overdose. QT prolongation and Torsades de Pointes can occur due to potassium channel blockade. TCAs can also have a toxic effect on the myocardium, causing decreased cardiac contractility and hypotension.
Early symptoms of TCA overdose are related to their anticholinergic properties and may include dry mouth, pyrexia, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, blurred vision, flushed skin, tremor, and confusion. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes commonly seen in TCA overdose include sinus tachycardia, widening of the QRS complex, prolongation of the QT interval, and an R/S ratio >0.7 in lead aVR.
Management of TCA overdose involves ensuring a patent airway, administering activated charcoal if ingestion occurred within 1 hour and the airway is intact, and considering gastric lavage for life-threatening cases within 1 hour of ingestion. Serial ECGs and blood gas analysis are important for monitoring. Intravenous fluids and correction of hypoxia are the first-line therapies. IV sodium bicarbonate is used to treat haemodynamic instability caused by TCA overdose, and benzodiazepines are the treatment of choice for seizure control. Other treatments that may be considered include glucagon, magnesium sulfate, and intravenous lipid emulsion.
There are certain things to avoid in TCA overdose, such as anti-arrhythmics like quinidine and flecainide, as they can prolonged depolarization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 22
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents with symptoms of sleep disturbance (waking up early in the morning) and difficulty falling asleep, mood changes throughout the day, fatigue, and absence of menstrual periods.
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Depression
Explanation:In this scenario, there are similarities between hypothyroidism and perimenopause in terms of their features. However, the most frequent cause of experiencing these symptoms together is depression. Therefore, it is necessary to delve deeper into this woman’s mood to rule out depression and provide appropriate management.
To exclude hypothyroidism as a potential cause, a TSH blood test should be conducted. Additionally, it is important to inquire about other symptoms that may align with early menopause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 23
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman presents with severe and persistent back pain a few days after spinal surgery. She has a temperature of 38.4°C and is highly sensitive over the area where the surgery was performed. On examination, she has weakness of left knee extension and foot dorsiflexion.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Discitis
Explanation:Discitis is an infection that affects the space between the intervertebral discs in the spine. This condition can have serious consequences, including the formation of abscesses and sepsis. The most common cause of discitis is usually Staphylococcus aureus, but other organisms like Streptococcus viridans and Pseudomonas aeruginosa may be responsible in certain cases, especially in immunocompromised individuals and intravenous drug users. Gram-negative organisms like Escherichia coli and Mycobacterium tuberculosis can also cause discitis, particularly in cases of Pott’s disease.
There are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing discitis. These include having undergone spinal surgery (which occurs in about 1-2% of patients post-operatively), having an immunodeficiency, being an intravenous drug user, being under the age of eight, having diabetes mellitus, or having a malignancy.
The typical symptoms of discitis include back or neck pain (which occurs in over 90% of cases), pain that often wakes the patient from sleep, fever (present in 60-70% of cases), and neurological deficits (which can occur in up to 50% of cases). In children, a refusal to walk may also be a symptom.
When diagnosing discitis, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the preferred imaging modality due to its high sensitivity and specificity. It is important to image the entire spine, as discitis often affects multiple levels. Plain radiographs are not very sensitive to the early changes of discitis and may appear normal for 2-4 weeks. Computed tomography (CT) scanning is also not very sensitive in detecting discitis.
Treatment for discitis involves hospital admission for intravenous antibiotics. Before starting the antibiotics, it is recommended to send three sets of blood cultures and a full set of blood tests, including a C-reactive protein (CRP) test, to the laboratory.
A typical antibiotic regimen for discitis would include intravenous flucloxacillin 2 g every 6 hours as the first-line treatment if there is no penicillin allergy. Intravenous vancomycin may be used if the infection was acquired in the hospital, if there is a high risk of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection, or if there is a documented penicillin allergy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old patient with advanced metastatic bowel cancer is experiencing symptoms of bowel obstruction and is currently suffering from nausea and vomiting. The patient has been informed that they have only a few days left to live. Upon examination, the patient's abdomen is tender and distended. Over the past 24 hours, the patient has been taking hyoscine butylbromide in an attempt to alleviate their symptoms, but there has been no improvement.
What is the most appropriate course of treatment to manage the patient's nausea and vomiting in this situation?Your Answer: Prochlorperazine
Correct Answer: Octreotide
Explanation:NICE recommends the use of octreotide for individuals in the final stages of life who are experiencing obstructive bowel disorders and have nausea or vomiting that does not improve within 24 hours of starting treatment with hyoscine butylbromide.
When managing nausea and vomiting in individuals nearing the end of life, it is important to assess the likely causes, such as certain medications, recent chemotherapy or radiotherapy, psychological factors, biochemical imbalances, raised intracranial pressure, gastrointestinal motility disorders, ileus, or bowel obstruction.
It is crucial to have discussions with the person who is dying and their loved ones about the available options for treating nausea and vomiting. Non-pharmacological methods should be considered as well.
When selecting medications to manage these symptoms, factors to consider include the likely cause and its reversibility, potential side effects (including sedation), other symptoms the person may be experiencing, the desired balance of effects when managing other symptoms, and compatibility and drug interactions with other medications the person is taking.
For individuals with obstructive bowel disorders who have nausea or vomiting, hyoscine butylbromide is recommended as the first-line pharmacological treatment. If symptoms do not improve within 24 hours of starting this treatment, octreotide should be considered.
For more information, please refer to the NICE guidance on the care of dying adults in the last days of life. https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/ng31
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative & End Of Life Care
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Question 25
Correct
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A 5-year-old girl is brought into the Emergency Department with stomach pain and throwing up. Her mom tells you that she has been losing weight lately and seems to be drinking a lot and peeing a lot. During the examination, she appears tired and you notice that she is dehydrated. She is breathing deeply and quickly. Her blood sugar levels are found to be extremely high when her blood is tested.
What is the MOST likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis
Explanation:Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a life-threatening condition that occurs when there is a lack of insulin, leading to an inability to process glucose. This results in high blood sugar levels and excessive thirst. As the body tries to eliminate the excess glucose through urine, dehydration becomes inevitable. Without insulin, the body starts using fat as its main energy source, which leads to the production of ketones and a buildup of acid in the blood.
The main characteristics of DKA are high blood sugar levels (above 11 mmol/l), the presence of ketones in the blood or urine, and acidosis (low bicarbonate levels and/or low venous pH). Symptoms of DKA include nausea, vomiting, excessive thirst, frequent urination, abdominal pain, signs of dehydration, a distinct smell of ketones on the breath, rapid and deep breathing, confusion or reduced consciousness, and cardiovascular symptoms like rapid heartbeat, low blood pressure, and shock.
To diagnose DKA, various tests should be performed, including blood glucose measurement, urine dipstick test (which shows high levels of glucose and ketones), blood ketone assay (more accurate than urine dipstick), complete blood count, and electrolyte levels. Arterial or venous blood gas analysis can confirm the presence of metabolic acidosis.
The management of DKA involves careful fluid administration and insulin replacement. Fluid boluses should only be given if there are signs of shock and should be administered slowly in 10 ml/kg increments. Once shock is resolved, rehydration should be done over 48 hours. The first 20 ml/kg of fluid given for resuscitation should not be subtracted from the total fluid volume calculated for the 48-hour replacement. In cases of hypotensive shock, consultation with a pediatric intensive care specialist may be necessary.
Insulin replacement should begin 1-2 hours after starting intravenous fluid therapy. A soluble insulin infusion should be used at a dosage of 0.05-0.1 units/kg/hour. The goal is to bring blood glucose levels close to normal. Regular monitoring of electrolytes and blood glucose levels is important to prevent imbalances and rapid changes in serum osmolarity. Identifying and treating the underlying cause of DKA is also crucial.
When calculating fluid requirements for children and young people with DKA, assume a 5% fluid deficit for mild-to-moderate cases (blood pH of 7.1 or above) and a 10% fluid deficit in severe DKA (indicated by a blood pH below 7.1). The total replacement fluid to be given over 48 hours is calculated as follows: Hourly rate = (deficit/48 hours) + maintenance per hour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 32 year old female presents to the emergency department with a painful burning skin rash. She has been feeling unwell for the past 2 to 3 days, experiencing a mild fever, headache, cough, and lethargy before the rash appeared. The patient recently started taking sulfasalazine one week ago for the treatment of ulcerative colitis.
Upon examination, the patient exhibits dark centred macules and blisters primarily on the face, neck, and upper body. The conjunctiva of her eyes appear red, and there are ulcers on her tongue. What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Explanation:The initial stage of SJS is characterized by a rash on the skin, specifically on the macular area. As the condition progresses, the rash transforms into blisters, known as bullae, which eventually detach from the skin.
Further Reading:
Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS) and toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) are severe mucocutaneous immune reactions characterized by blistering skin rash and erosions/ulceration of mucous membranes. SJS has less than 10% total body surface area (TBSA) involvement, SJS/TEN overlap has 10% to 30% TBSA involvement, and TEN has more than 30% TBSA involvement. The exact cause of SJS and TEN is not well understood, but it is believed to be a T-cell–mediated cytotoxic reaction triggered by drugs, infections, or vaccinations. Drugs are responsible for 50% of SJS cases and up to 95% of TEN cases, with antibiotics and anticonvulsants being the most common culprits.
The clinical features of SJS and TEN include a prodrome of malaise, fever, headache, and cough, followed by the appearance of small pink-red macules with darker centers. These macules can coalesce and develop into larger blisters (bullae) that eventually break and cause the epidermis to slough off. Painful mucosal erosions can also occur, affecting various parts of the body and leading to complications such as renal failure, hepatitis, pneumonia, and urethritis. Nikolsky’s sign, which refers to the easy sloughing off of the epidermal layer with pressure, is a characteristic feature of SJS and TEN.
The diagnosis of SJS, SJS/TEN overlap, and TEN can be confirmed through a skin biopsy, which typically shows desquamation at the epidermal-papillary dermal junction and the presence of necrotic epithelium and lymphocytes. Management of SJS and TEN involves supportive care, withdrawal of the causative agent if drug-related, monitoring for metabolic derangement and infection, maintaining the airway, treating respiratory function and pneumonia, fluid resuscitation, wound care, analgesia, and nutritional support. Ophthalmology consultation is also recommended. Intravenous immunoglobulin, ciclosporin, corticosteroids, and plasmapheresis may be used in treatment, but there is limited evidence supporting their effectiveness.
The prognosis of SJS and TEN can be assessed using the SCORTEN score, which comprises of 7 clinical and biological parameters, with the predicted probability of mortality ranging from 3.2% to 90.0%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 27
Correct
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A patient with a previous complaint of upper abdominal pain and frequent bowel movements is diagnosed with a tapeworm infection. The infection was acquired after consuming a pork dish that was contaminated with the parasite.
Which of the following organisms is the most probable cause of this infestation?Your Answer: Taenia solium
Explanation:Two types of tapeworms, Taenia solium and Taenia saginata, can infest humans. Infestation occurs when people consume meat from intermediate hosts that contain the parasite’s tissue stages. Tapeworms compete for nutrients and infestation is often without symptoms. However, in more severe cases, individuals may experience epigastric pain, diarrhea, and vomiting. Diagnosis involves identifying characteristic eggs in the patient’s stool.
Taenia solium infestation can also lead to a condition called cysticercosis. This occurs when larval cysts infiltrate and spread throughout the lung, liver, eye, or brain. Cysticercosis presents with neurological symptoms, seizures, and impaired vision. Confirmation of cysticercosis involves the presence of antibodies and imaging tests such as chest X-rays and CT brain scans.
The treatment for tapeworm infestation is highly effective and involves the use of medications like niclosamide or praziquantel. However, it is important to seek specialist advice when managing Taenia infections in the central nervous system, as severe inflammatory reactions can occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 28
Correct
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While handling a difficult case, you come across a situation where you believe you may have to violate patient confidentiality. You discuss the scenario with your supervisor.
Which ONE of the following is NOT an illustration of a circumstance where patient confidentiality can be breached?Your Answer: Informing the police of a patient’s prior cannabis usage
Explanation:Instances where confidentiality may be breached include situations where there is a legal obligation, such as informing the Health Protection Agency (HPA) about a notifiable disease. Another example is in legal cases where a judge requests information. Additionally, confidentiality may be breached when there is a risk to the public, such as potential terrorism or serious criminal activity. It may also be breached when there is a risk to others, such as when a patient expresses homicidal intent towards a specific individual. Cases relevant to statutory regulatory bodies, like informing the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA) about a patient who continues to drive despite a restriction, may also require breaching confidentiality.
However, it is important to note that there are examples where confidentiality should not be breached. It is inappropriate to disclose a patient’s diagnosis to third parties without their consent, including the police, unless there is a serious threat to the public or an individual.
If you are considering breaching patient confidentiality, it is crucial to seek the patient’s consent first. If consent is refused, it is advisable to seek guidance from your local trust and your medical defense union.
For more information, you can refer to the General Medical Council (GMC) guidance on patient confidentiality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
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Question 29
Correct
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A 5 year old girl is brought into the emergency department after stepping on a sharp object while playing barefoot in the backyard. The wound needs to be stitched under anesthesia. While obtaining parental consent from the accompanying adult, you notice that the adult has a different last name than the child. When asked about their relationship to the child, the adult states that they are like a mother to the child. In which of the following situations could this person provide consent for the child?
Your Answer: Is currently married to the child’s mother
Explanation:From the moment a child is born, the mother is automatically granted parental responsibility. However, fathers must fulfill specific criteria in order to have the same rights. A father can provide consent on behalf of the child if he meets any of the following conditions: being married to the child’s mother, having been married to the child’s mother at the time of birth but subsequently divorced, being listed as the child’s father on the birth certificate, obtaining parental responsibility through a court order or a parental responsibility agreement with the mother, or legally adopting the child.
Further Reading:
Patients have the right to determine what happens to their own bodies, and for consent to be valid, certain criteria must be met. These criteria include the person being informed about the intervention, having the capacity to consent, and giving consent voluntarily and freely without any pressure or undue influence.
In order for a person to be deemed to have capacity to make a decision on a medical intervention, they must be able to understand the decision and the information provided, retain that information, weigh up the pros and cons, and communicate their decision.
Valid consent can only be provided by adults, either by the patient themselves, a person authorized under a Lasting Power of Attorney, or someone with the authority to make treatment decisions, such as a court-appointed deputy or a guardian with welfare powers.
In the UK, patients aged 16 and over are assumed to have the capacity to consent. If a patient is under 18 and appears to lack capacity, parental consent may be accepted. However, a young person of any age may consent to treatment if they are considered competent to make the decision, known as Gillick competence. Parental consent may also be given by those with parental responsibility.
The Fraser guidelines apply to the prescription of contraception to under 16’s without parental involvement. These guidelines allow doctors to provide contraceptive advice and treatment without parental consent if certain criteria are met, including the young person understanding the advice, being unable to be persuaded to inform their parents, and their best interests requiring them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment.
Competent adults have the right to refuse consent, even if it is deemed unwise or likely to result in harm. However, there are exceptions to this, such as compulsory treatment authorized by the mental health act or if the patient is under 18 and refusing treatment would put their health at serious risk.
In emergency situations where a patient is unable to give consent, treatment may be provided without consent if it is immediately necessary to save their life or prevent a serious deterioration of their condition. Any treatment decision made without consent must be in the patient’s best interests, and if a decision is time-critical and the patient is unlikely to regain capacity in time, a best interest decision should be made. The treatment provided should be the least restrictive on the patient’s future choices.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
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Question 30
Correct
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A 32-year-old man with a known history of diabetes presents with fatigue, frequent urination, and blurred vision. His blood glucose levels are elevated at 250 mg/dL. He currently takes insulin injections and metformin for his diabetes. You organize for a urine sample to be taken and find that his ketone levels are markedly elevated, and he also has biochemical abnormalities evident.
Which of the following biochemical abnormalities is LEAST likely to be present?Your Answer: Hypoglycaemia
Explanation:The clinical manifestations of theophylline toxicity are more closely associated with acute poisoning rather than chronic overexposure. The primary clinical features of theophylline toxicity include headache, dizziness, nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain, tachycardia and dysrhythmias, seizures, mild metabolic acidosis, hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia, hypophosphataemia, hypo- or hypercalcaemia, and hyperglycaemia. Seizures are more prevalent in cases of acute overdose compared to chronic overexposure. In contrast, chronic theophylline overdose typically presents with minimal gastrointestinal symptoms. Cardiac dysrhythmias are more frequently observed in individuals who have experienced chronic overdose rather than acute overdose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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