00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 4-year-old girl presents with stridor and a barking cough. Her mother reports...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old girl presents with stridor and a barking cough. Her mother reports that she has had a slight cold for a few days and her voice had been hoarse. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 38.1°C, heart rate 135, respiratory rate 30, oxygen saturation 97% on room air. Her chest examination is unremarkable, but you observe the presence of stridor at rest.

      What is the SINGLE most probable causative organism?

      Your Answer: Parainfluenza virus

      Explanation:

      Croup, also known as laryngo-tracheo-bronchitis, is typically caused by the parainfluenza virus. Other viruses such as rhinovirus, influenza, and respiratory syncytial viruses can also be responsible. Before the onset of stridor, there is often a mild cold-like illness that lasts for 1-2 days. Symptoms usually reach their peak within 1-3 days, with the cough often being more troublesome at night. A milder cough may persist for another 7-10 days.

      A distinctive feature of croup is a barking cough, but it does not indicate the severity of the condition. To reduce airway swelling, dexamethasone and prednisolone are commonly prescribed. If a child is experiencing vomiting, nebulized budesonide can be used as an alternative. However, it is important to note that steroids do not shorten the duration of the illness. In severe cases, nebulized adrenaline can be administered.

      Hospitalization for croup is uncommon and typically reserved for children who are experiencing worsening respiratory distress or showing signs of drowsiness or agitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old woman comes in seeking contraceptive advice. She forgot to take her...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in seeking contraceptive advice. She forgot to take her last Microgynon 30 pill and it has been 48 hours since her last dose. She has been taking the rest of the pills in the packet consistently. She had unprotected sex last night and wants to know the best course of action.
      What is the MOST suitable advice to provide her?

      Your Answer: She should take the most recent missed pill, the remaining pills should be continued at the usual time, but no emergency contraception is required

      Explanation:

      If you have missed one pill, which means it has been 48-72 hours since you took the last pill in your current packet or you started the first pill in a new packet 24-48 hours late, you need to take the missed pill as soon as you remember. Make sure to continue taking the remaining pills at your usual time. Emergency contraception is generally not necessary in this situation, but it may be worth considering if you have missed pills earlier in the packet or during the last week of the previous packet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 40-year-old woman comes in with bitemporal hemianopia resulting from a meningioma.
    Where...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman comes in with bitemporal hemianopia resulting from a meningioma.
      Where in the visual pathway has this lesion occurred?

      Your Answer: Optic chiasm

      Explanation:

      The optic chiasm is situated just below the hypothalamus and is in close proximity to the pituitary gland. When the pituitary gland enlarges, it can impact the functioning of the optic nerve at this location. Specifically, the fibres from the nasal half of the retina cross over at the optic chiasm to form the optic tracts. Compression at the optic chiasm primarily affects these fibres, resulting in a visual defect that affects peripheral vision in both eyes, known as bitemporal hemianopia. There are several causes of optic chiasm lesions, with the most common being a pituitary tumor. Other causes include craniopharyngioma, meningioma, optic glioma, and internal carotid artery aneurysm. The diagram below provides a summary of the different visual field defects that can occur at various points in the visual pathway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Your consultant requests that you organize a teaching session on thyroid dysfunction and...

    Correct

    • Your consultant requests that you organize a teaching session on thyroid dysfunction and the interpretation of thyroid function tests. Which of the subsequent biochemical patterns is indicative of primary hypothyroidism?

      Your Answer: High thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) & low thyroxine (T4)

      Explanation:

      The levels of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) and thyroxine (T4) are both below the normal range.

      Further Reading:

      The thyroid gland is an endocrine organ located in the anterior neck. It consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. The gland produces hormones called thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate energy use, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. The production of T4 and T3 is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the pituitary gland, which is in turn stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.

      Thyroid disorders can occur when there is an imbalance in the production or regulation of thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, while hyperthyroidism is characterized by an excess. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. It is more common in women and is often associated with goiter. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, atrophic thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency. On the other hand, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves’ disease, which is also an autoimmune disorder. Other causes include toxic multinodular goiter and subacute thyroiditis.

      The symptoms and signs of thyroid disorders can vary depending on whether the thyroid gland is underactive or overactive. In hypothyroidism, common symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, and dry skin. In hyperthyroidism, common symptoms include weight loss, restlessness, heat intolerance, and increased sweating. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can also affect other systems in the body, such as the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems.

      Complications of thyroid disorders can include dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, coronary heart disease, heart failure, subfertility and infertility, impaired special senses, and myxedema coma in severe cases of hypothyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, complications can include Graves’ orbitopathy, compression of the esophagus or trachea by goiter, thyrotoxic periodic paralysis, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, mood disorders, and increased obstetric complications.

      Myxedema coma is a rare and life-threatening complication of severe hypothyroidism. It can be triggered by factors such as infection or physiological insult and presents with lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old patient presents with nausea and vomiting and decreased urine output. He...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient presents with nausea and vomiting and decreased urine output. He has only produced a small amount of urine in the last day, and he has noticeable swelling in his ankles. His blood tests show a sudden increase in his creatinine levels in the last 48 hours, leading to a diagnosis of acute kidney injury (AKI).
      What is an example of an intrinsic renal cause of AKI?

      Your Answer: Acute tubular necrosis

      Explanation:

      Acute kidney injury (AKI), previously known as acute renal failure, is a sudden decline in kidney function. This results in the accumulation of urea and other waste products in the body and disrupts the balance of fluids and electrolytes. AKI can occur in individuals with previously normal kidney function or those with pre-existing kidney disease, known as acute-on-chronic kidney disease. It is a relatively common condition, with approximately 15% of adults admitted to hospitals in the UK developing AKI.

      The causes of AKI can be categorized into pre-renal, intrinsic renal, and post-renal factors. The majority of AKI cases that develop outside of healthcare settings are due to pre-renal causes, accounting for 90% of cases. These causes typically involve low blood pressure associated with conditions like sepsis and fluid depletion. Medications, particularly ACE inhibitors and NSAIDs, are also frequently implicated.

      Pre-renal:
      – Volume depletion (e.g., severe bleeding, excessive vomiting or diarrhea, burns)
      – Oedematous states (e.g., heart failure, liver cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome)
      – Low blood pressure (e.g., cardiogenic shock, sepsis, anaphylaxis)
      – Cardiovascular conditions (e.g., severe heart failure, arrhythmias)
      – Renal hypoperfusion: NSAIDs, COX-2 inhibitors, ACE inhibitors or ARBs, abdominal aortic aneurysm
      – Renal artery stenosis
      – Hepatorenal syndrome

      Intrinsic renal:
      – Glomerular diseases (e.g., glomerulonephritis, thrombosis, hemolytic-uremic syndrome)
      – Tubular injury: acute tubular necrosis (ATN) following prolonged lack of blood supply
      – Acute interstitial nephritis due to drugs (e.g., NSAIDs), infection, or autoimmune diseases
      – Vascular diseases (e.g., vasculitis, polyarteritis nodosa, thrombotic microangiopathy, cholesterol emboli, renal vein thrombosis, malignant hypertension)
      – Eclampsia

      Post-renal:
      – Kidney stones
      – Blood clot
      – Papillary necrosis
      – Urethral stricture
      – Prostatic hypertrophy or malignancy
      – Bladder tumor
      – Radiation fibrosis
      – Pelvic malignancy
      – Retroperitoneal

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You evaluate a 45-year-old male patient with a swollen and red right calf....

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 45-year-old male patient with a swollen and red right calf. His D-dimer levels are elevated, and you schedule an ultrasound scan which confirms the presence of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in his right calf. He has a history of a previous DVT and his INR today is 2.5.
      What is the MOST suitable course of action for management in this case?

      Your Answer: His target INR should be raised to 3.5

      Explanation:

      When managing a first episode of acute venous thromboembolism (VTE), it is recommended to start warfarin in combination with a parenteral anticoagulant, such as unfractionated heparin, low-molecular-weight heparin, or fondaparinux. The parental anticoagulant should be continued for a minimum of 5 days and ideally until the international normalized ratio (INR) is above 2 for at least 24 hours.

      To prevent the extension of the blood clot and recurrence in calf deep vein thrombosis (DVT), at least 6 weeks of anticoagulant therapy is necessary. For proximal DVT, a minimum of 3 months of anticoagulant therapy is required.

      For first episodes of VTE, the ideal target INR is 2.5. However, in cases where patients experience recurrent VTE while being anticoagulated within the therapeutic range, the target INR should be increased to 3.5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old individual presents to the emergency department after a SCUBA dive. The...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old individual presents to the emergency department after a SCUBA dive. The patient complains of weakness and numbness in both legs. The symptoms initially began as pins and needles below the belly button on the left side, followed by weakness in the left leg shortly after surfacing from the dive. Within a few hours, the same symptoms developed on the right side, and now the patient is unable to walk due to extreme weakness. The patient has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications. On examination, there is reduced sensation from 2 cm below the belly button, affecting both lower limbs entirely, and the patient has 0-1/5 MRC grade power in all lower limb movements bilaterally.

      The patient's vital signs are as follows:

      Heart rate: 84 bpm
      Blood pressure: 126/82 mmHg
      Respiratory rate: 16 bpm
      Oxygen saturation: 98% on room air
      Temperature: 36.7°C

      What is the most appropriate immediate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: High flow oxygen 15 L/min via non rebreather

      Explanation:

      Decompression sickness often presents with symptoms such as paraplegia, tetraplegia, or hemiplegia. In the emergency department, the most crucial intervention is providing high flow oxygen at a rate of 15 L/min through a non-rebreather mask. This should be administered to all patients, regardless of their oxygen saturations. The definitive treatment for decompression sickness involves recompression therapy in a hyperbaric oxygen chamber, which should be arranged promptly.

      Further Reading:

      Decompression illness (DCI) is a term that encompasses both decompression sickness (DCS) and arterial gas embolism (AGE). When diving underwater, the increasing pressure causes gases to become more soluble and reduces the size of gas bubbles. As a diver ascends, nitrogen can come out of solution and form gas bubbles, leading to decompression sickness or the bends. Boyle’s and Henry’s gas laws help explain the changes in gases during changing pressure.

      Henry’s law states that the amount of gas that dissolves in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure of the gas. Divers often use atmospheres (ATM) as a measure of pressure, with 1 ATM being the pressure at sea level. Boyle’s law states that the volume of gas is inversely proportional to the pressure. As pressure increases, volume decreases.

      Decompression sickness occurs when nitrogen comes out of solution as a diver ascends. The evolved gas can physically damage tissue by stretching or tearing it as bubbles expand, or by provoking an inflammatory response. Joints and spinal nervous tissue are commonly affected. Symptoms of primary damage usually appear immediately or soon after a dive, while secondary damage may present hours or days later.

      Arterial gas embolism occurs when nitrogen bubbles escape into the arterial circulation and cause distal ischemia. The consequences depend on where the embolism lodges, ranging from tissue ischemia to stroke if it lodges in the cerebral arterial circulation. Mechanisms for distal embolism include pulmonary barotrauma, right to left shunt, and pulmonary filter overload.

      Clinical features of decompression illness vary, but symptoms often appear within six hours of a dive. These can include joint pain, neurological symptoms, chest pain or breathing difficulties, rash, vestibular problems, and constitutional symptoms. Factors that increase the risk of DCI include diving at greater depth, longer duration, multiple dives close together, problems with ascent, closed rebreather circuits, flying shortly after diving, exercise shortly after diving, dehydration, and alcohol use.

      Diagnosis of DCI is clinical, and investigations depend on the presentation. All patients should receive high flow oxygen, and a low threshold for ordering a chest X-ray should be maintained. Hydration is important, and IV fluids may be necessary. Definitive treatment is recompression therapy in a hyperbaric oxygen chamber, which should be arranged as soon as possible. Entonox should not be given, as it will increase the pressure effect in air spaces.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You evaluate a patient who has developed Nelson's syndrome after undergoing a bilateral...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a patient who has developed Nelson's syndrome after undergoing a bilateral adrenalectomy 15 years ago.
      Which ONE statement is NOT TRUE regarding this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: ACTH levels will be low

      Explanation:

      Nelson’s syndrome is a rare condition that occurs many years after a bilateral adrenalectomy for Cushing’s syndrome. It is believed to develop due to the loss of the normal negative feedback control that suppresses high cortisol levels. As a result, the hypothalamus starts producing CRH again, which stimulates the growth of a pituitary adenoma that produces adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).

      Only 15-20% of patients who undergo bilateral adrenalectomy will develop this condition, and it is now rarely seen as the procedure is no longer commonly performed.

      The symptoms and signs of Nelson’s syndrome are related to the growth of the pituitary adenoma and the increased production of ACTH and melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) from the adenoma. These may include headaches, visual field defects (up to 50% of cases), increased skin pigmentation, and the possibility of hypopituitarism.

      ACTH levels will be significantly elevated (usually >500 ng/L). Thyroxine, TSH, gonadotrophin, and sex hormone levels may be low. Prolactin levels may be high, but not as high as with a prolactin-producing tumor. MRI or CT scanning can be helpful in identifying the presence of an expanding pituitary mass.

      The treatment of choice for Nelson’s syndrome is trans-sphenoidal surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old man presents with a history of excessive urination and increased thirst....

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents with a history of excessive urination and increased thirst. A diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus is suspected.
      Select from the options below the SINGLE result that is most indicative of a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus.

      Your Answer: An HbA1c of 50 mmol/mol

      Explanation:

      According to the 2011 recommendations from the World Health Organization (WHO), HbA1c can now be used as a diagnostic test for diabetes. However, this is only applicable if stringent quality assurance tests are in place and the assays are standardized to criteria aligned with international reference values. Additionally, accurate measurement of HbA1c is only possible if there are no conditions present that could hinder its accuracy.

      To diagnose diabetes using HbA1c, a value of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended as the cut-off point. It’s important to note that a value lower than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude the possibility of diabetes, as glucose tests are still necessary for a definitive diagnosis.

      When using glucose tests, the following criteria are considered diagnostic for diabetes mellitus:
      – A random venous plasma glucose concentration greater than 11.1 mmol/l
      – A fasting plasma glucose concentration greater than 7.0 mmol/l
      – A two-hour plasma glucose concentration greater than 11.1 mmol/l, two hours after consuming 75g of anhydrous glucose in an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)

      However, there are certain circumstances where HbA1c is not appropriate for diagnosing diabetes mellitus. These include:
      – ALL children and young people
      – Patients of any age suspected of having Type 1 diabetes
      – Patients with symptoms of diabetes for less than two months
      – Patients at high risk of diabetes who are acutely ill, such as those requiring hospital admission
      – Patients taking medication that may cause a rapid rise in glucose levels, such as steroids or antipsychotics
      – Patients with acute pancreatic damage, including those who have undergone pancreatic surgery
      – Pregnant individuals
      – Presence of genetic, hematologic, and illness-related factors that can influence HbA1c and its measurement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You are examining the hip X-rays of a 78-year-old woman who slipped while...

    Correct

    • You are examining the hip X-rays of a 78-year-old woman who slipped while getting out of bed. What can be helpful in identifying a femoral neck fracture on the anteroposterior X-ray?

      Your Answer: Shenton's line

      Explanation:

      Shenton’s line is a useful tool for identifying hip fractures on radiographs. It is a curved line that is drawn along the bottom edge of the upper pubic bone and the inner lower edge of the femur neck. This line should be smooth and uninterrupted. If there are any breaks or irregularities in the line, it could indicate a fracture, dysplasia, or dislocation.

      Further Reading:

      Fractured neck of femur is a common injury, especially in elderly patients who have experienced a low impact fall. Risk factors for this type of fracture include falls, osteoporosis, and other bone disorders such as metastatic cancers, hyperparathyroidism, and osteomalacia.

      There are different classification systems for hip fractures, but the most important differentiation is between intracapsular and extracapsular fractures. The blood supply to the femoral neck and head is primarily from ascending cervical branches that arise from an arterial anastomosis between the medial and lateral circumflex branches of the femoral arteries. Fractures in the intracapsular region can damage the blood supply and lead to avascular necrosis (AVN), with the risk increasing with displacement. The Garden classification can be used to classify intracapsular neck of femur fractures and determine the risk of AVN. Those at highest risk will typically require hip replacement or arthroplasty.

      Fractures below or distal to the capsule are termed extracapsular and can be further described as intertrochanteric or subtrochanteric depending on their location. The blood supply to the femoral neck and head is usually maintained with these fractures, making them amenable to surgery that preserves the femoral head and neck, such as dynamic hip screw fixation.

      Diagnosing hip fractures can be done through radiographs, with Shenton’s line and assessing the trabecular pattern of the proximal femur being helpful techniques. X-rays should be obtained in both the AP and lateral views, and if an occult fracture is suspected, an MRI or CT scan may be necessary.

      In terms of standards of care, it is important to assess the patient’s pain score within 15 minutes of arrival in the emergency department and provide appropriate analgesia within the recommended timeframes. Patients with moderate or severe pain should have their pain reassessed within 30 minutes of receiving analgesia. X-rays should be obtained within 120 minutes of arrival, and patients should be admitted within 4 hours of arrival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - You assess a patient who has a confirmed diagnosis of Parkinson's disease. She...

    Correct

    • You assess a patient who has a confirmed diagnosis of Parkinson's disease. She has been living with the disease for several years and is currently in the advanced stages of the condition.
      Which of the following clinical manifestations is typically observed only in the later stages of Parkinson's disease?

      Your Answer: Cognitive impairment

      Explanation:

      Patients with Parkinson’s disease (PD) typically exhibit the following clinical features:

      – Hypokinesia (reduced movement)
      – Bradykinesia (slow movement)
      – Rest tremor (usually occurring at a rate of 4-6 cycles per second)
      – Rigidity (increased muscle tone and ‘cogwheel rigidity’)

      Other commonly observed clinical features include:

      – Gait disturbance (characterized by a shuffling gait and loss of arm swing)
      – Loss of facial expression
      – Monotonous, slurred speech
      – Micrographia (small, cramped handwriting)
      – Increased salivation and dribbling
      – Difficulty with fine movements

      Initially, these signs are typically seen on one side of the body at the time of diagnosis, but they progressively worsen and may eventually affect both sides. In later stages of the disease, additional clinical features may become evident, including:

      – Postural instability
      – Cognitive impairment
      – Orthostatic hypotension

      Although PD primarily affects movement, patients often experience psychiatric issues such as depression and dementia. Autonomic disturbances and pain can also occur, leading to significant disability and reduced quality of life for the affected individual. Additionally, family members and caregivers may also be indirectly affected by the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - After reviewing the management of a pediatric patient who recently presented to the...

    Correct

    • After reviewing the management of a pediatric patient who recently presented to the emergency department with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), your consultant has scheduled a teaching session to assess the trainee's understanding of DKA management. You are tasked with determining the target minimum rate of blood glucose reduction in a pediatric patient receiving fluid and insulin therapy.

      Your Answer: 3 mmol/L/hr

      Explanation:

      Patients who are being treated with insulin infusion for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) should expect their plasma glucose levels to decrease by at least 3 mmol/L per hour. The purpose of the insulin infusion is to correct both hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis. It is important to regularly review and check the insulin infusion to ensure it is working effectively. If any of the following are observed, the infusion rate should be adjusted accordingly: capillary ketones are not decreasing by at least 0.5 mmol/L per hour, venous bicarbonate is not increasing by at least 3 mmol/L per hour, or plasma glucose is not decreasing by at least 3 mmol/L per hour.

      Further Reading:

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs due to a lack of insulin in the body. It is most commonly seen in individuals with type 1 diabetes but can also occur in type 2 diabetes. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, acidosis, and ketonaemia.

      The pathophysiology of DKA involves insulin deficiency, which leads to increased glucose production and decreased glucose uptake by cells. This results in hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis, leading to dehydration. Insulin deficiency also leads to increased lipolysis and the production of ketone bodies, which are acidic. The body attempts to buffer the pH change through metabolic and respiratory compensation, resulting in metabolic acidosis.

      DKA can be precipitated by factors such as infection, physiological stress, non-compliance with insulin therapy, acute medical conditions, and certain medications. The clinical features of DKA include polydipsia, polyuria, signs of dehydration, ketotic breath smell, tachypnea, confusion, headache, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, and abdominal pain.

      The diagnosis of DKA is based on the presence of ketonaemia or ketonuria, blood glucose levels above 11 mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and a blood pH below 7.3 or bicarbonate levels below 15 mmol/L. Initial investigations include blood gas analysis, urine dipstick for glucose and ketones, blood glucose measurement, and electrolyte levels.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, electrolyte correction, insulin therapy, and treatment of any underlying cause. Fluid replacement is typically done with isotonic saline, and potassium may need to be added depending on the patient’s levels. Insulin therapy is initiated with an intravenous infusion, and the rate is adjusted based on blood glucose levels. Monitoring of blood glucose, ketones, bicarbonate, and electrolytes is essential, and the insulin infusion is discontinued once ketones are below 0.3 mmol/L, pH is above 7.3, and bicarbonate is above 18 mmol/L.

      Complications of DKA and its treatment include gastric stasis, thromboembolism, electrolyte disturbances, cerebral edema, hypoglycemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome, and acute kidney injury. Prompt medical intervention is crucial in managing DKA to prevent potentially fatal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You are managing a 72-year-old male patient who has been intubated as a...

    Correct

    • You are managing a 72-year-old male patient who has been intubated as a result of developing acute severe respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). What measure is utilized to categorize the severity of ARDS?

      Your Answer: PaO2/FiO2 ratio

      Explanation:

      The PaO2/FiO2 ratio is a measurement used to determine the severity of Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS). It is calculated by dividing the arterial oxygen partial pressure (PaO2) by the fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2). However, it is important to note that this calculation should only be done when the patient is receiving a minimum positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) of 5 cm water. The resulting ratio is then used to classify the severity of ARDS, with specific thresholds provided below.

      Further Reading:

      ARDS is a severe form of lung injury that occurs in patients with a predisposing risk factor. It is characterized by the onset of respiratory symptoms within 7 days of a known clinical insult, bilateral opacities on chest X-ray, and respiratory failure that cannot be fully explained by cardiac failure or fluid overload. Hypoxemia is also present, as indicated by a specific threshold of the PaO2/FiO2 ratio measured with a minimum requirement of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) ≥5 cm H2O. The severity of ARDS is classified based on the PaO2/FiO2 ratio, with mild, moderate, and severe categories.

      Lung protective ventilation is a set of measures aimed at reducing lung damage that may occur as a result of mechanical ventilation. Mechanical ventilation can cause lung damage through various mechanisms, including high air pressure exerted on lung tissues (barotrauma), over distending the lung (volutrauma), repeated opening and closing of lung units (atelectrauma), and the release of inflammatory mediators that can induce lung injury (biotrauma). These mechanisms collectively contribute to ventilator-induced lung injury (VILI).

      The key components of lung protective ventilation include using low tidal volumes (5-8 ml/kg), maintaining inspiratory pressures (plateau pressure) below 30 cm of water, and allowing for permissible hypercapnia. However, there are some contraindications to lung protective ventilation, such as an unacceptable level of hypercapnia, acidosis, and hypoxemia. These factors need to be carefully considered when implementing lung protective ventilation strategies in patients with ARDS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 6-year-old girl has recently been diagnosed with whooping cough. Her parents would...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl has recently been diagnosed with whooping cough. Her parents would like to ask you some questions.

      Which SINGLE statement about whooping cough is true?

      Your Answer: Encephalopathy is a recognised complication

      Explanation:

      Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a respiratory infection caused by the bacteria Bordetella pertussis. It is transmitted through respiratory droplets and has an incubation period of approximately 7-21 days. This highly contagious disease can be transmitted to about 90% of close household contacts.

      The clinical course of whooping cough can be divided into two stages. The first stage, known as the catarrhal stage, resembles a mild respiratory infection with symptoms such as low-grade fever and a runny nose. Although a cough may be present, it is usually mild and not as severe as in the next stage. The catarrhal stage typically lasts for about a week.

      The second stage, called the paroxysmal stage, is when the characteristic paroxysmal cough develops as the catarrhal symptoms begin to subside. During this stage, coughing occurs in spasms, often preceded by an inspiratory whoop and followed by a series of rapid expiratory coughs. Other symptoms may include vomiting, subconjunctival hemorrhages, and petechiae. Patients generally feel well between spasms, and there are usually no abnormal chest findings. This stage can last up to 3 months, with a gradual recovery during this period. The later stages are sometimes referred to as the convalescent stage.

      Complications of whooping cough can include secondary pneumonia, rib fractures, pneumothorax, herniae, syncopal episodes, encephalopathy, and seizures.

      To diagnose whooping cough, nasopharyngeal swabs can be cultured in a medium called Bordet-Gengou agar, which contains blood, potato extract, glycerol, and an antibiotic to isolate Bordetella pertussis.

      Although antibiotics do not alter the clinical course of the infection, they can reduce the period of infectiousness and help prevent further spread.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 5 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her...

    Correct

    • A 5 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her parents. They are worried because the child has had a high fever for the past 24 hours and has developed noisy breathing and a change in her voice in the past few hours. They inform you that the child has been refusing to drink fluids orally due to a sore throat for the past few hours as well. The parents mention that the child has never had a serious illness before. You observe that the child has not received any vaccinations as the parents have concerns about potential vaccine-related diseases later in life. During the assessment, the child is sitting upright, leaning forward on her arms, and drooling. You can hear audible stridor. The child's vital signs are as follows:

      Temperature: 38.9ºC
      Pulse: 155 bpm
      Respiration rate: 40 bpm
      Oxygen saturation: 96% on room air

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Epiglottitis

      Explanation:

      Epiglottitis symptoms typically appear suddenly, usually within a day. This patient’s symptoms align with those of epiglottitis and his vaccination status puts him at a higher risk. Common clinical features of epiglottitis include a rapid onset of symptoms, high fever, a sore throat, a change in voice (often described as a muffled or hot potato voice), painful swallowing, a specific positioning called tripod positioning, excessive drooling, and stridor.

      Further Reading:

      Epiglottitis is a rare but serious condition characterized by inflammation and swelling of the epiglottis, which can lead to a complete blockage of the airway. It is more commonly seen in children between the ages of 2-6, but can also occur in adults, particularly those in their 40s and 50s. Streptococcus infections are now the most common cause of epiglottitis in the UK, although other bacterial agents, viruses, fungi, and iatrogenic causes can also be responsible.

      The clinical features of epiglottitis include a rapid onset of symptoms, high fever, sore throat, painful swallowing, muffled voice, stridor and difficulty breathing, drooling of saliva, irritability, and a characteristic tripod positioning with the arms forming the front two legs of the tripod. It is important for healthcare professionals to avoid examining the throat or performing any potentially upsetting procedures until the airway has been assessed and secured.

      Diagnosis of epiglottitis is typically made through fibre-optic laryngoscopy, which is considered the gold standard investigation. Lateral neck X-rays may also show a characteristic thumb sign, indicating an enlarged and swollen epiglottis. Throat swabs and blood cultures may be taken once the airway is secured to identify the causative organism.

      Management of epiglottitis involves assessing and securing the airway as the top priority. Intravenous or oral antibiotics are typically prescribed, and supplemental oxygen may be given if intubation or tracheostomy is planned. In severe cases where the airway is significantly compromised, intubation or tracheostomy may be necessary. Steroids may also be used, although the evidence for their benefit is limited.

      Overall, epiglottitis is a potentially life-threatening condition that requires urgent medical attention. Prompt diagnosis, appropriate management, and securing the airway are crucial in ensuring a positive outcome for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 45-year-old man presents with acute severe asthma. You initiate management for the...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents with acute severe asthma. You initiate management for the patient, guided by the most recent BTS guidelines.

      According to the BTS guidelines, which of the following is NOT a suitable treatment?

      Your Answer: 1 hourly ipratropium bromide nebulisers

      Explanation:

      The BTS guidelines for managing acute asthma in adults provide the following recommendations:

      Oxygen:
      – It is important to give supplementary oxygen to all patients with acute severe asthma who have low levels of oxygen in their blood (hypoxemia). The goal is to maintain a blood oxygen saturation level (SpO2) between 94-98%. Even if pulse oximetry is not available, oxygen should still be administered.

      β2 agonists therapy:
      – High-dose inhaled β2 agonists should be used as the first-line treatment for patients with acute asthma. It is important to administer these medications as early as possible.
      – Intravenous β2 agonists should be reserved for patients who cannot reliably use inhaled therapy.
      – For patients with life-threatening asthma symptoms, nebulized β2 agonists driven by oxygen are recommended.
      – In cases of severe asthma that does not respond well to an initial dose of β2 agonist, continuous nebulization with an appropriate nebulizer may be considered.

      Ipratropium bromide:
      – Nebulized ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg every 4-6 hours) should be added to β2 agonist treatment for patients with acute severe or life-threatening asthma, or those who do not respond well to initial β2 agonist therapy.

      Steroid therapy:
      – Steroids should be given in adequate doses for all cases of acute asthma attacks.
      – Prednisolone should be continued at a dose of 40-50 mg daily for at least five days or until the patient recovers.

      Other therapies:
      – Nebulized magnesium is not recommended for the treatment of acute asthma in adults.
      – A single dose of intravenous magnesium sulfate may be considered for patients with acute severe asthma (peak expiratory flow rate <50% of the best or predicted value) who do not respond well to inhaled bronchodilator therapy. However, this should only be done after consulting with senior medical staff.
      – Routine prescription of antibiotics is not necessary for patients with acute asthma.

      For more information, please refer to the BTS/SIGN Guideline on the Management of Asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old woman is involved in a car accident. Her observations are taken...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is involved in a car accident. Her observations are taken one hour after arriving at the Emergency Department. Her pulse rate is 88 bpm, BP is 130/50 mmHg, respiratory rate 16 breaths/minute, and her urine output over the past hour has been 40 ml. She has some bruising evident on her arm and is slightly nervous. The patient weighs approximately 65 kg.
      How would you classify her haemorrhage according to the ATLS haemorrhagic shock classification?

      Your Answer: Class I

      Explanation:

      This patient’s physiological parameters are mostly within normal range, but there is an increased pulse pressure and slight anxiety, suggesting a class I haemorrhage. It is crucial to be able to identify the degree of blood loss based on vital signs and mental status changes. The Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) classification for haemorrhagic shock correlates the amount of blood loss with expected physiological responses in a healthy 70 kg individual. In a 70 kg male patient, the total circulating blood volume is approximately five litres, which accounts for about 7% of their total body weight.

      The ATLS haemorrhagic shock classification is as follows:

      CLASS I:
      – Blood loss: Up to 750 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): Up to 15%
      – Pulse rate: Less than 100 bpm
      – Systolic BP: Normal
      – Pulse pressure: Normal (or increased)
      – Respiratory rate: 14-20 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: Greater than 30 ml/hr
      – CNS/mental status: Slightly anxious

      CLASS II:
      – Blood loss: 750-1500 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): 15-30%
      – Pulse rate: 100-120 bpm
      – Systolic BP: Normal
      – Pulse pressure: Decreased
      – Respiratory rate: 20-30 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: 20-30 ml/hr
      – CNS/mental status: Mildly anxious

      CLASS III:
      – Blood loss: 1500-2000 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): 30-40%
      – Pulse rate: 120-140 bpm
      – Systolic BP: Decreased
      – Pulse pressure: Decreased
      – Respiratory rate: 30-40 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: 5-15 ml/hr
      – CNS/mental status: Anxious, confused

      CLASS IV:
      – Blood loss: More than 2000 mL
      – Blood loss (% blood volume): More than 40%
      – Pulse rate: Greater than 140 bpm
      – Systolic BP: Decreased
      – Pulse pressure: Decreased
      – Respiratory rate: More than 40 breaths per minute
      – Urine output: Negligible
      – CNS/mental status: Confused, lethargic

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - You assess a patient with a past medical history of chronic pain. The...

    Correct

    • You assess a patient with a past medical history of chronic pain. The patient's pain has significantly worsened. The pain team administers a 10 mg dose of oral morphine, but regrettably, it does not provide adequate pain control.
      What adjustment should be made to the patient's next dose of oral morphine?

      Your Answer: Increase dose to 15 mg

      Explanation:

      When adjusting the dosage of oral morphine, if the initial dose does not provide relief, it is recommended to increase the dose by 50%. The goal of dosage titration is to identify the minimum amount of morphine required to effectively manage pain. Additionally, it is important to consider the use of supplementary analgesics like NSAIDs and paracetamol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pain & Sedation
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 5 year old boy is brought into the emergency department by worried...

    Correct

    • A 5 year old boy is brought into the emergency department by worried parents. The child's parents inform you that the patient has had a cough and a runny nose for about 2-3 days, but in the past 24 hours, he has developed a fever and started coughing up large quantities of green mucus. You suspect bacterial tracheitis. What is the most probable causative agent?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Croup, also known as laryngotracheobronchitis, is a respiratory infection that primarily affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough and can cause stridor (a high-pitched sound during breathing) and respiratory distress due to swelling of the larynx and excessive secretions. The majority of cases are caused by parainfluenza viruses 1 and 3. Croup is most common in children between 6 months and 3 years of age and tends to occur more frequently in the autumn.

      The clinical features of croup include a barking cough that is worse at night, preceded by symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection such as cough, runny nose, and congestion. Stridor, respiratory distress, and fever may also be present. The severity of croup can be graded using the NICE system, which categorizes it as mild, moderate, severe, or impending respiratory failure based on the presence of symptoms such as cough, stridor, sternal/intercostal recession, agitation, lethargy, and decreased level of consciousness. The Westley croup score is another commonly used tool to assess the severity of croup based on the presence of stridor, retractions, air entry, oxygen saturation levels, and level of consciousness.

      In cases of severe croup with significant airway obstruction and impending respiratory failure, symptoms may include a minimal barking cough, harder-to-hear stridor, chest wall recession, fatigue, pallor or cyanosis, decreased level of consciousness, and tachycardia. A respiratory rate over 70 breaths per minute is also indicative of severe respiratory distress.

      Children with moderate or severe croup, as well as those with certain risk factors such as chronic lung disease, congenital heart disease, neuromuscular disorders, immunodeficiency, age under 3 months, inadequate fluid intake, concerns about care at home, or high fever or a toxic appearance, should be admitted to the hospital. The mainstay of treatment for croup is corticosteroids, which are typically given orally. If the child is too unwell to take oral medication, inhaled budesonide or intramuscular dexamethasone may be used as alternatives. Severe cases may require high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline.

      When considering the differential diagnosis for acute stridor and breathing difficulty, non-infective causes such as inhaled foreign bodies

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 68-year-old man presents with symptoms related to an electrolyte imbalance. It is...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with symptoms related to an electrolyte imbalance. It is believed that the electrolyte imbalance has occurred as a result of a thiazide diuretic he has been prescribed by the nephrology team.

      Which of the following electrolyte imbalances is most likely to be caused by thiazide diuretics?

      Your Answer: Hypocalcaemia

      Correct Answer: Hyponatraemia

      Explanation:

      Thiazide diuretics, a commonly prescribed medication, can lead to two main electrolyte imbalances in patients. One of these is hyponatremia, which occurs in around 13.7% of individuals taking thiazide diuretics. The other is hypokalemia, which is observed in approximately 8.5% of patients on this medication. These electrolyte disturbances are frequently encountered in primary care settings. For more information on this topic, please refer to the article titled Thiazide diuretic prescription and electrolyte abnormalities in primary care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A child with a history of stomach pain and loose stools is diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A child with a history of stomach pain and loose stools is diagnosed with a tapeworm infection after finding eggs in their stool.
      What is the most suitable treatment for this infection?

      Your Answer: Praziquantel

      Explanation:

      Two types of tapeworms, Taenia solium and Taenia saginata, can infest humans. Infestation occurs when people consume meat from intermediate hosts that contain the parasite’s tissue stages. Tapeworms compete for nutrients and infestation is often without symptoms. However, in more severe cases, individuals may experience epigastric pain, diarrhea, and vomiting. Diagnosis involves identifying characteristic eggs in the patient’s stool.

      Taenia solium infestation can also lead to a condition called cysticercosis. This occurs when larval cysts infiltrate and spread throughout the lung, liver, eye, or brain. Cysticercosis presents with neurological symptoms, seizures, and impaired vision. Confirmation of cysticercosis involves the presence of antibodies and imaging tests such as chest X-rays and CT brain scans.

      The treatment for tapeworm infestation is highly effective and involves the use of medications like niclosamide or praziquantel. However, it is important to seek specialist advice when managing Taenia infections in the central nervous system, as severe inflammatory reactions can occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 4-week-old baby girl is brought in by her parents with projectile vomiting....

    Correct

    • A 4-week-old baby girl is brought in by her parents with projectile vomiting. She is vomiting approximately every 45 minutes after each feed but remains hungry. On examination, she appears dehydrated, and you can palpate a small mass in the upper abdomen.

      What is the first test to be done in this case?

      Your Answer: Abdominal ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is a condition characterized by the thickening and enlargement of the smooth muscle in the antrum of the stomach, leading to the narrowing of the pyloric canal. This narrowing can easily cause obstruction. It is a relatively common condition, occurring in about 1 in 500 live births, and is more frequently seen in males than females, with a ratio of 4 to 1. It is most commonly observed in first-born male children, although it can rarely occur in adults as well.

      The main symptom of infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is vomiting, which typically begins between 2 to 8 weeks of age. The vomit is usually non-bilious and forcefully expelled. It tends to occur around 30 to 60 minutes after feeding, leaving the baby hungry despite the vomiting. In some cases, there may be blood in the vomit. Other clinical features include persistent hunger, dehydration, weight loss, and constipation. An enlarged pylorus, often described as olive-shaped, can be felt in the right upper quadrant or epigastric in approximately 95% of cases. This is most noticeable at the beginning of a feed.

      The typical acid-base disturbance seen in this condition is hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis. This occurs due to the loss of hydrogen and chloride ions in the vomit, as well as decreased secretion of pancreatic bicarbonate. The increased bicarbonate ions in the distal tubule of the kidney lead to the production of alkaline urine. Hyponatremia and hypokalemia are also commonly present.

      Ultrasound scanning is the preferred diagnostic tool for infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, as it is reliable and easy to perform. It has replaced barium studies as the investigation of choice.

      Initial management involves fluid resuscitation, which should be tailored to the weight and degree of dehydration. Any electrolyte imbalances should also be corrected.

      The definitive treatment for this condition is surgical intervention, with the Ramstedt pyloromyotomy being the procedure of choice. Laparoscopic pyloromyotomy is also an effective alternative if suitable facilities are available. The prognosis for infants with this condition is excellent, as long as there is no delay in diagnosis and treatment initiation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatal Emergencies
      51.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 42-year-old woman presents with a skin condition that has occurred secondary to...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with a skin condition that has occurred secondary to a systemic illness that she suffers from.
      Which skin condition is NOT correctly paired with its associated systemic illness?

      Your Answer: Vitiligo and Cushing’s disease

      Explanation:

      Many systemic illnesses have distinct dermatological associations. Some of these are listed below:

      Addison’s disease is characterized by pigmentation and vitiligo.

      Cushing’s disease is associated with pigmentation, striae, hirsutism, and acne.

      Diabetes mellitus can cause necrobiosis lipoidica, which presents as shiny, yellowish plaques on the shin. It can also lead to xanthoma, a condition characterized by yellowish lipid deposits in the skin, and granuloma annulare, which manifests as palpable ring lesions on the hands, face, or feet.

      Hyperlipidemia is linked to xanthoma and xanthomata, which are yellowish plaques on the eyelids.

      Crohn’s disease is associated with erythema nodosum.

      Ulcerative colitis can cause pyoderma gangrenosum and erythema nodosum.

      Liver disease often presents with pruritus, spider naevi, and erythema.

      Malignancy can lead to mycosis fungoides, a type of lymphoma that affects the skin. It is also associated with acanthosis nigricans, which is often seen in gastrointestinal malignancies.

      Hypothyroidism is linked to alopecia, while thyrotoxicosis can cause both alopecia and pretibial myxedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      41.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 45-year-old man develops corneal microdeposits as a side effect of a gastrointestinal...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man develops corneal microdeposits as a side effect of a gastrointestinal drug that he has been prescribed.
      Which of the following drugs is MOST likely to be causing this?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Corneal microdeposits are found in almost all individuals (over 90%) who have been taking amiodarone for more than six months, particularly at doses higher than 400 mg/day. These deposits generally do not cause any symptoms, although approximately 10% of patients may experience a perception of a ‘bluish halo’ around objects they see.

      Amiodarone can also have other effects on the eye, but these are much less common, occurring in only 1-2% of patients. These effects include optic neuropathy, nonarteritic anterior ischemic optic neuropathy (N-AION), optic disc swelling, and visual field defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 32-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance due to 'severe palpitations.' His heart rate is 180 bpm, and his rhythm strip is suggestive of supraventricular tachycardia. You plan to administer adenosine.
      Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of adenosine?

      Your Answer: History of heart transplant

      Correct Answer: Recent severe asthma exacerbation

      Explanation:

      Adenosine is a type of purine nucleoside that is primarily utilized in the diagnosis and treatment of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia. Its main mechanism of action involves stimulating A1-adenosine receptors and opening acetylcholine-sensitive potassium channels. This leads to hyperpolarization of the cell membrane in the atrioventricular (AV) node and slows down conduction in the AV node by inhibiting calcium channels.

      When administering adenosine, it is given rapidly through an intravenous bolus, followed by a saline flush. The initial dose for adults is 6 mg, and if necessary, additional doses of 12 mg or 18 mg can be given at 1-2 minute intervals until the desired effect is observed. It is important to note that the latest ALS guidelines recommend 18 mg for the third dose, while the BNF/NICE guidelines suggest 12 mg.

      One of the advantages of adenosine is its very short half-life, which is less than 10 seconds. This means that its effects are rapid, typically occurring within 10 seconds. However, the duration of action is also short, lasting only 10-20 seconds. Due to its short half-life, any side effects experienced are usually brief. These side effects may include a sense of impending doom, facial flushing, dyspnea, chest discomfort, and a metallic taste.

      There are certain contraindications to the use of adenosine. These include 2nd or 3rd degree AV block, sick sinus syndrome, long QT syndrome, severe hypotension, decompensated heart failure, chronic obstructive lung disease, and asthma. It is important to exercise caution when administering adenosine to patients with a heart transplant, as they are particularly sensitive to its effects. In these cases, a reduced initial dose of 3 mg is recommended, followed by 6 mg and then 12 mg.

      It is worth noting that the effects of adenosine can be potentiated by dipyridamole, a medication commonly used in combination with adenosine. Therefore, the dose of adenosine should be adjusted and reduced in patients who are also taking dipyridamole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - You have a debrief session with your mentor after a case involving a...

    Correct

    • You have a debrief session with your mentor after a case involving a patient who experienced systemic toxicity from local anesthesia. Towards the end of the conversation, your mentor emphasizes the importance of reporting such episodes. In the UK, which of the following organizations should be notified about incidents of local anesthetic systemic toxicity?

      Your Answer: National Patient Safety Agency

      Explanation:

      Instances of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) should be promptly reported to the National Patient Safety Agency (NPSA). Additionally, it is advisable to report any adverse drug reactions to the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) through their yellow card scheme. Please refer to the follow-up section in the notes for further details.

      Further Reading:

      Local anaesthetics, such as lidocaine, bupivacaine, and prilocaine, are commonly used in the emergency department for topical or local infiltration to establish a field block. Lidocaine is often the first choice for field block prior to central line insertion. These anaesthetics work by blocking sodium channels, preventing the propagation of action potentials.

      However, local anaesthetics can enter the systemic circulation and cause toxic side effects if administered in high doses. Clinicians must be aware of the signs and symptoms of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) and know how to respond. Early signs of LAST include numbness around the mouth or tongue, metallic taste, dizziness, visual and auditory disturbances, disorientation, and drowsiness. If not addressed, LAST can progress to more severe symptoms such as seizures, coma, respiratory depression, and cardiovascular dysfunction.

      The management of LAST is largely supportive. Immediate steps include stopping the administration of local anaesthetic, calling for help, providing 100% oxygen and securing the airway, establishing IV access, and controlling seizures with benzodiazepines or other medications. Cardiovascular status should be continuously assessed, and conventional therapies may be used to treat hypotension or arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion (intralipid) may also be considered as a treatment option.

      If the patient goes into cardiac arrest, CPR should be initiated following ALS arrest algorithms, but lidocaine should not be used as an anti-arrhythmic therapy. Prolonged resuscitation may be necessary, and intravenous lipid emulsion should be administered. After the acute episode, the patient should be transferred to a clinical area with appropriate equipment and staff for further monitoring and care.

      It is important to report cases of local anaesthetic toxicity to the appropriate authorities, such as the National Patient Safety Agency in the UK or the Irish Medicines Board in the Republic of Ireland. Additionally, regular clinical review should be conducted to exclude pancreatitis, as intravenous lipid emulsion can interfere with amylase or lipase assays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 68 year old is brought to the emergency department by his son....

    Correct

    • A 68 year old is brought to the emergency department by his son. The patient complained of feeling sick. On checking the patient's medication the son believes he may have taken an excessive amount of digoxin tablets over the past few days. You are worried about digoxin toxicity. What ECG characteristics are linked to digoxin toxicity?

      Your Answer: Downsloping ST depression

      Explanation:

      One way to assess for digoxin toxicity is by examining the patient’s electrocardiogram (ECG) for specific characteristics. In the case of digoxin toxicity, ECG findings may include downsloping ST depression, prolonged QT interval, tall tented T-waves, and possibly delta waves. However, a short PR interval (< 120ms) is not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Further Reading: Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, digoxin toxicity can occur, and plasma concentration alone does not determine if a patient has developed toxicity. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include feeling generally unwell, lethargy, nausea and vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. ECG changes seen in digoxin toxicity include downsloping ST depression with a characteristic Salvador Dali sagging appearance, flattened, inverted, or biphasic T waves, shortened QT interval, mild PR interval prolongation, and prominent U waves. There are several precipitating factors for digoxin toxicity, including hypokalaemia, increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, verapamil, and diltiazem. Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of digoxin specific antibody fragments, also known as Digibind or digifab. Arrhythmias should be treated, and electrolyte disturbances should be corrected with close monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to note that digoxin toxicity can be precipitated by hypokalaemia, and toxicity can then lead to hyperkalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      37.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old woman comes in with complaints of painful urination and frequent urination....

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in with complaints of painful urination and frequent urination. A urine dipstick test is conducted, which shows the presence of blood, protein, white blood cells, and nitrites. Based on these findings, you diagnose her with a urinary tract infection and prescribe antibiotics.
      Which antibiotic has the highest resistance rate against E.coli in the UK?

      Your Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      Nitrofurantoin is currently the preferred antibiotic for treating uncomplicated urinary tract infections in non-pregnant women. However, antibiotic resistance is becoming a significant concern in the management of urinary tract infections and pyelonephritis in the UK. In England, the resistance of E. coli (the main bacteria causing these infections) to certain antibiotics is as follows:

      Trimethoprim: 30.3% (varies between areas from 27.1% to 33.4%)
      Co-amoxiclav: 19.8% (varies between areas from 10.8% to 30.7%)
      Ciprofloxacin: 10.6% (varies between areas from 7.8% to 13.7%)
      Cefalexin: 9.9% (varies between areas from 8.1% to 11.4%)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of gradual onset sharp...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of gradual onset sharp chest pain over the past 24 hours. The patient reports that the pain worsens with deep inspiration and feels more comfortable when sitting leaning forward. When asked about pain radiation, the patient confirms that the pain extends to the left side of the neck and points to the ridge of the trapezius. Physical examination reveals clear lung fields, regular rhythm with quiet heart sounds, and no murmurs. The patient's vital signs are as follows:

      Blood pressure: 108/66 mmHg
      Pulse rate: 94 bpm
      Respiratory rate: 18 rpm
      Temperature: 37.3ºC
      Oxygen saturations: 97% on room air

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute pericarditis

      Explanation:

      Radiation to the trapezius ridge is a distinct symptom of acute pericarditis. The patient in question exhibits characteristics that align with a diagnosis of pericarditis. Pericarditis is a common condition affecting the pericardium, and it is often considered as a potential cause for chest pain. It is worth noting that the specific radiation of pain to the trapezius ridge is highly indicative of pericarditis, as it occurs when the phrenic nerve, which also innervates the trapezius muscle, becomes irritated while passing through the pericardium.

      Further Reading:

      Pericarditis is an inflammation of the pericardium, which is the protective sac around the heart. It can be acute, lasting less than 6 weeks, and may present with chest pain, cough, dyspnea, flu-like symptoms, and a pericardial rub. The most common causes of pericarditis include viral infections, tuberculosis, bacterial infections, uremia, trauma, and autoimmune diseases. However, in many cases, the cause remains unknown. Diagnosis is based on clinical features, such as chest pain, pericardial friction rub, and electrocardiographic changes. Treatment involves symptom relief with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), and patients should avoid strenuous activity until symptoms improve. Complicated cases may require treatment for the underlying cause, and large pericardial effusions may need urgent drainage. In cases of purulent effusions, antibiotic therapy is necessary, and steroid therapy may be considered for pericarditis related to autoimmune disorders or if NSAIDs alone are ineffective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 45-year-old man receives a blood transfusion for anemia secondary to gastrointestinal bleeding....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man receives a blood transfusion for anemia secondary to gastrointestinal bleeding. During the transfusion, he complains of experiencing alternating sensations of heat and cold during the second unit, and his temperature is measured at 38.1ºC. His temperature before the transfusion was measured at 37ºC. He feels fine otherwise and does not have any other symptoms.
      Which of the following transfusion reactions is most likely to have taken place?

      Your Answer: Febrile transfusion reaction

      Explanation:

      Blood transfusion is a crucial medical treatment that can save lives, but it also comes with various risks and potential problems. These include immunological complications, administration errors, infections, and immune dilution. While there have been improvements in safety procedures and a reduction in transfusion use, errors and adverse reactions still occur. One common adverse reaction is febrile transfusion reactions, which present as an unexpected rise in temperature during or after transfusion. This can be caused by cytokine accumulation or recipient antibodies reacting to donor antigens. Treatment for febrile transfusion reactions is supportive, and other potential causes should be ruled out.

      Another serious complication is acute haemolytic reaction, which is often caused by ABO incompatibility due to administration errors. This reaction requires the transfusion to be stopped and IV fluids to be administered. Delayed haemolytic reactions can occur several days after a transfusion and may require monitoring and treatment for anaemia and renal function. Allergic reactions, TRALI (Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury), TACO (Transfusion Associated Circulatory Overload), and GVHD (Graft-vs-Host Disease) are other potential complications that require specific management approaches.

      In summary, blood transfusion carries risks and potential complications, but efforts have been made to improve safety procedures. It is important to be aware of these complications and to promptly address any adverse reactions that may occur during or after a transfusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      71
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - You evaluate a 70 year old male who complains of chest tightness during...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 70 year old male who complains of chest tightness during physical activity. The patient reports a gradual increase in shortness of breath during exertion over the past half year. During the examination, you observe a murmur and suspect aortic stenosis. Which of the following characteristics is commonly seen in symptomatic individuals with aortic stenosis?

      Your Answer: Slow rising pulse

      Explanation:

      Severe aortic stenosis is characterized by several distinct features. These include a narrow pulse pressure, which refers to the difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressure readings. Additionally, individuals with severe aortic stenosis may exhibit a slow rising pulse, meaning that the pulse wave takes longer to reach its peak. Another common feature is a delayed ejection systolic murmur, which is a heart sound that occurs during the ejection phase of the cardiac cycle. The second heart sound (S2) may also be soft or absent in individuals with severe aortic stenosis. Another potential finding is the presence of an S4 heart sound, which occurs during the filling phase of the cardiac cycle. A thrill, which is a palpable vibration, may also be felt in severe cases. The duration of the murmur, as well as the presence of left ventricular hypertrophy or failure, are additional features that may be observed in individuals with severe aortic stenosis.

      Further Reading:

      Valvular heart disease refers to conditions that affect the valves of the heart. In the case of aortic valve disease, there are two main conditions: aortic regurgitation and aortic stenosis.

      Aortic regurgitation is characterized by an early diastolic murmur, a collapsing pulse (also known as a water hammer pulse), and a wide pulse pressure. In severe cases, there may be a mid-diastolic Austin-Flint murmur due to partial closure of the anterior mitral valve cusps caused by the regurgitation streams. The first and second heart sounds (S1 and S2) may be soft, and S2 may even be absent. Additionally, there may be a hyperdynamic apical pulse. Causes of aortic regurgitation include rheumatic fever, infective endocarditis, connective tissue diseases like rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus, and a bicuspid aortic valve. Aortic root diseases such as aortic dissection, spondyloarthropathies like ankylosing spondylitis, hypertension, syphilis, and genetic conditions like Marfan’s syndrome and Ehler-Danlos syndrome can also lead to aortic regurgitation.

      Aortic stenosis, on the other hand, is characterized by a narrow pulse pressure, a slow rising pulse, and a delayed ESM (ejection systolic murmur). The second heart sound (S2) may be soft or absent, and there may be an S4 (atrial gallop) that occurs just before S1. A thrill may also be felt. The duration of the murmur is an important factor in determining the severity of aortic stenosis. Causes of aortic stenosis include degenerative calcification (most common in older patients), a bicuspid aortic valve (most common in younger patients), William’s syndrome (supravalvular aortic stenosis), post-rheumatic disease, and subvalvular conditions like hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM).

      Management of aortic valve disease depends on the severity of symptoms. Asymptomatic patients are generally observed, while symptomatic patients may require valve replacement. Surgery may also be considered for asymptomatic patients with a valvular gradient greater than 40 mmHg and features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction. Balloon valvuloplasty is limited to patients with critical aortic stenosis who are not fit for valve replacement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 40-year-old construction worker comes in with a few weeks of lower back...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old construction worker comes in with a few weeks of lower back pain. He is currently experiencing discomfort and wants to know which pain medication would be most effective. You give him a self-help guide and discuss his treatment choices.
      According to the latest NICE guidelines, what is the recommended initial pharmacological treatment for lower back pain? Choose ONE option.

      Your Answer: Paracetamol

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      The current guidelines from NICE provide recommendations for managing low back pain. It is suggested to consider using oral non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen, while taking into account the potential risks of gastrointestinal, liver, and cardio-renal toxicity, as well as the person’s individual risk factors and age. When prescribing oral NSAIDs, it is important to conduct appropriate clinical assessments, monitor risk factors regularly, and consider the use of gastroprotective treatment. It is advised to prescribe the lowest effective dose of oral NSAIDs for the shortest duration possible. In cases where NSAIDs are contraindicated, not tolerated, or ineffective, weak opioids (with or without paracetamol) may be considered for managing acute low back pain. However, NICE does not recommend the use of paracetamol alone, opioids for chronic low back pain, serotonin reuptake inhibitors, serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants for non-neuropathic pain, anticonvulsants, or benzodiazepines for muscle spasm associated with acute low back pain. For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidance on low back pain and sciatica in individuals over 16 years old, as well as the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on low back pain without radiculopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - You refer a patient with a history of recurrent supraventricular arrhythmias to the...

    Correct

    • You refer a patient with a history of recurrent supraventricular arrhythmias to the cardiology on-call team. While discussing the patient with the cardiology registrar on the phone, she explains that she is currently busy, but suggests that you start verapamil now and that she will review the patient as soon as she can. You review the patient's medication chart to determine if this is an appropriate course of action.

      Which of the following drugs should not be co-prescribed with verapamil?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Verapamil is a type of calcium-channel blocker that is commonly used to treat irregular heart rhythms and chest pain. It is important to note that verapamil should not be taken at the same time as beta-blockers like atenolol and bisoprolol. This is because when these medications are combined, they can have a negative impact on the heart’s ability to contract and the heart rate, leading to a significant drop in blood pressure, slow heart rate, impaired conduction between the upper and lower chambers of the heart, heart failure (due to decreased ability of the heart to pump effectively), and even a pause in the heart’s normal rhythm. For more information, you can refer to the section on verapamil interactions in the British National Formulary (BNF).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A new Emergency Department nurse is required to verify her immunity to hepatitis...

    Correct

    • A new Emergency Department nurse is required to verify her immunity to hepatitis B before starting her position. She has received a hepatitis B vaccination series in the past but cannot remember the specific dates.
      What ONE blood test result would indicate that she has developed immunity as a result of her hepatitis B vaccination?

      Your Answer: HBsAg negative, anti-HBs positive

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) is a protein found on the surface of the hepatitis B virus. It can be detected in high levels in the blood during both acute and chronic hepatitis B virus infections. The presence of HBsAg indicates that the person is capable of spreading the infection to others. Normally, the body produces antibodies to HBsAg as part of the immune response to the infection. HBsAg is also used to create the hepatitis B vaccine.

      Hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBs) indicates that a person has recovered from the hepatitis B virus infection and is now immune to it. This antibody can also develop in individuals who have been successfully vaccinated against hepatitis B.

      Total hepatitis B core antibody (anti-HBc) appears when symptoms of acute hepatitis B begin and remains present for life. The presence of anti-HBc indicates that a person has either had a previous or ongoing infection with the hepatitis B virus, although the exact time frame cannot be determined. This antibody is not present in individuals who have received the hepatitis B vaccine.

      IgM antibody to hepatitis B core antigen (IgM anti-HBc) indicates a recent infection or acute hepatitis B. If this antibody is present, it suggests that the infection occurred within the past six months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 35-year-old woman comes in with her husband. She is extremely concerned about...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in with her husband. She is extremely concerned about his frequent headaches and recent changes in his behavior. He complains of experiencing intense pain behind his left eye in the late evenings for the past two weeks. The pain typically lasts for about half an hour, and his wife mentions that he occasionally bangs his head against the wall due to the severity of the pain. Additionally, his left eye becomes watery during these episodes. A thorough neurological examination reveals no abnormalities.
      What is the most probable diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is commonly seen in young men in their 20s. The male to female ratio for this condition is 6:1. Smoking is also known to increase the risk of developing cluster headaches. These headaches occur in clusters, usually lasting for a few weeks every year or two. The pain experienced is severe and typically affects one side of the head, often around or behind the eye. It tends to occur at the same time each day and can cause the patient to become agitated, sometimes resorting to hitting their head against a wall or the floor in an attempt to distract from the pain.

      In addition to the intense pain, cluster headaches are also associated with autonomic involvement. This can manifest as various symptoms on the same side as the headache, including conjunctival injection (redness of the eye), rhinorrhea (runny nose), lacrimation (tearing of the eye), miosis (constriction of the pupil), and ptosis (drooping of the eyelid).

      On the other hand, migraine with typical aura presents with temporary visual disturbances, such as hemianopia (loss of vision in half of the visual field) or scintillating scotoma (a visual aura that appears as a shimmering or flashing area of distorted vision). Migraine without aura, on the other hand, needs to meet specific criteria set by the International Headache Society. These criteria include having at least five headache attacks lasting between 4 to 72 hours, with the headache having at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate to severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity.

      During a migraine headache, the patient may also experience symptoms such as nausea and/or vomiting, as well as sensitivity to light (photophobia) and sound (phonophobia). It is important to note that these symptoms should not be attributed to another underlying disorder.

      If a patient over the age of 50 presents with a new-onset headache, it raises the possibility of giant cell arteritis (temporal arteritis). Other symptoms and signs that may be associated with this condition include jaw claudication (pain in the jaw when chewing), systemic upset, scalp tenderness, and an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).

      Medication overuse headache is a condition that is suspected when a patient is using multiple medications, often at low doses, without experiencing any relief from their headaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 70-year-old woman with a history of chronic heart failure presents to the...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman with a history of chronic heart failure presents to the Emergency Department with an unrelated medical condition. Upon reviewing her medications, you discover that she is taking furosemide as part of her management.

      Which ONE of the following drugs should be avoided?

      Your Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      When furosemide and SSRI drugs are prescribed together, there is a higher chance of developing hyponatraemia, which is a condition characterized by low levels of sodium in the blood. Additionally, there is an increased risk of hypokalaemia, which can potentially lead to a dangerous heart rhythm disorder called torsades de pointes. It is important to note that co-prescribing furosemide with citalopram should be avoided due to these risks. For more information, you can refer to the section on furosemide interactions in the BNF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with severe and continuous nausea...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with severe and continuous nausea and vomiting. She is currently 8 weeks pregnant. She is struggling to retain any food and has experienced slight weight loss over the past two weeks. Her vital signs are as follows: heart rate 103 beats per minute, respiratory rate 14 breaths per minute, blood pressure 113/70 mmHg. Her abdomen is soft and not tender, and a urine dipstick test shows 3+ ketones.
      What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hyperemesis gravidarum

      Explanation:

      Vomiting is a common occurrence during the early stages of pregnancy, typically happening between 7 and 12 weeks. However, there is a more severe condition called hyperemesis gravidarum, which involves uncontrollable and intense nausea and vomiting. This condition can lead to imbalances in fluids and electrolytes, significant ketonuria, malnutrition, and weight loss. It is relatively rare, affecting less than 1% of pregnancies.

      For mild cases of nausea and vomiting in early pregnancy, dietary adjustments and non-pharmacological measures like consuming ginger or using P6 wrist acupressure can often provide relief.

      In severe cases where heavy ketonuria and severe dehydration are present, hospital admission is usually necessary for intravenous fluid rehydration. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary (CKS) on nausea and vomiting in pregnancy recommends using oral promethazine, oral cyclizine, or oral prochlorperazine as the first-line treatment if an antiemetic is needed. After 24 hours, the situation should be reassessed to determine if the initial treatment is effective. If not, a second-line drug like metoclopramide or ondansetron should be considered.

      It’s important to note that metoclopramide should not be used in patients under the age of 20 due to the increased risk of extrapyramidal side effects. Additionally, proton pump inhibitors (e.g., omeprazole) and histamine H2-receptor antagonists (e.g., ranitidine) can be beneficial for women experiencing significant dyspepsia alongside their nausea and vomiting.

      For more information, you can refer to the NICE CKS on nausea and vomiting in pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 35-year-old woman is given a medication for a medical condition during her...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is given a medication for a medical condition during her pregnancy. As a result, the newborn experiences multiple significant birth defects, such as neural tube, craniofacial, and limb abnormalities.

      Which of the following medications is the most probable culprit for these anomalies?

      Your Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      Sodium valproate is considered the most high-risk anti-epileptic drug during pregnancy. A recent review found that up to 40% of children born to women who took sodium valproate while pregnant experienced some form of adverse effect. These effects include a 1.5% risk of neural tube defects and an increased risk of cardiac, craniofacial, and limb defects. Additionally, there is a significant risk of neurodevelopmental problems in childhood.

      Here is a list outlining the commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:

      ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril): If given in the second and third trimester, these drugs can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence.

      Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin): These drugs can cause ototoxicity and deafness in the fetus.

      Aspirin: High doses of aspirin can lead to first-trimester abortions, delayed onset labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose a significant risk.

      Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam): When given late in pregnancy, these drugs can cause respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome.

      Calcium-channel blockers: If given in the first trimester, these drugs can cause phalangeal abnormalities. If given in the second and third trimester, they can lead to fetal growth retardation.

      Carbamazepine: This drug can cause hemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.

      Chloramphenicol: Use of this drug can result in gray baby syndrome.

      Corticosteroids: If given in the first trimester, corticosteroids may cause orofacial clefts in the fetus.

      Danazol: If given in the first trimester, this drug can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals.

      Finasteride: Pregnant women should avoid handling finasteride as crushed or broken tablets can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development.

      Haloperidol: If given in the first trimester, this drug may cause limb malformations. If given in the third trimester, there is an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate.

      Heparin: Maternal bleeding and thrombocytopenia are potential adverse outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 32-year-old man with a known history of diabetes presents with fatigue, frequent...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man with a known history of diabetes presents with fatigue, frequent urination, and blurred vision. His blood glucose levels are elevated at 250 mg/dL. He currently takes insulin injections and metformin for his diabetes. You organize for a urine sample to be taken and find that his ketone levels are markedly elevated, and he also has biochemical abnormalities evident.
      Which of the following biochemical abnormalities is LEAST likely to be present?

      Your Answer: Hypoglycaemia

      Explanation:

      The clinical manifestations of theophylline toxicity are more closely associated with acute poisoning rather than chronic overexposure. The primary clinical features of theophylline toxicity include headache, dizziness, nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain, tachycardia and dysrhythmias, seizures, mild metabolic acidosis, hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia, hypophosphataemia, hypo- or hypercalcaemia, and hyperglycaemia. Seizures are more prevalent in cases of acute overdose compared to chronic overexposure. In contrast, chronic theophylline overdose typically presents with minimal gastrointestinal symptoms. Cardiac dysrhythmias are more frequently observed in individuals who have experienced chronic overdose rather than acute overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 68 year old man presents to the emergency department due to increasing...

    Correct

    • A 68 year old man presents to the emergency department due to increasing confusion and drowsiness over the past few days. The patient's wife tells you the patient has had a cough for the past week and apart from lisinopril takes no other regular medication. On examination you note cool extremities, diffuse non-pitting oedema and reduced tendon reflexes. Observations are shown below:

      Blood pressure 100/64 mmHg
      Pulse 44 bpm
      Respiration rate 10 bpm
      Temperature 34.3ºC

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Myxoedema coma

      Explanation:

      Patients who have myxoedema coma usually show symptoms such as lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, worsening mental state, seizures, and/or coma. This patient has hypothyroidism and takes thyroxine regularly, which aligns with the signs and symptoms of myxoedema coma. It is worth noting that infections often act as a trigger, and this patient has developed a cough in the last week.

      Further Reading:

      The thyroid gland is an endocrine organ located in the anterior neck. It consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. The gland produces hormones called thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate energy use, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. The production of T4 and T3 is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the pituitary gland, which is in turn stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.

      Thyroid disorders can occur when there is an imbalance in the production or regulation of thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, while hyperthyroidism is characterized by an excess. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. It is more common in women and is often associated with goiter. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, atrophic thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency. On the other hand, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves’ disease, which is also an autoimmune disorder. Other causes include toxic multinodular goiter and subacute thyroiditis.

      The symptoms and signs of thyroid disorders can vary depending on whether the thyroid gland is underactive or overactive. In hypothyroidism, common symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, and dry skin. In hyperthyroidism, common symptoms include weight loss, restlessness, heat intolerance, and increased sweating. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can also affect other systems in the body, such as the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems.

      Complications of thyroid disorders can include dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, coronary heart disease, heart failure, subfertility and infertility, impaired special senses, and myxedema coma in severe cases of hypothyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, complications can include Graves’ orbitopathy, compression of the esophagus or trachea by goiter, thyrotoxic periodic paralysis, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, mood disorders, and increased obstetric complications.

      Myxedema coma is a rare and life-threatening complication of severe hypothyroidism. It can be triggered by factors such as infection or physiological insult and presents with lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 35-year-old woman comes in with a painful left elbow. She is left-handed...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in with a painful left elbow. She is left-handed and participates in various sports. During the examination, you observe tenderness over her medial epicondyle, and her pain intensifies with resisted pronation at the wrist.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tennis elbow

      Correct Answer: Golfer’s elbow

      Explanation:

      Golfer’s elbow, also known as medial epicondylitis, is a condition characterized by inflammation and pain in the flexor tendons that attach to the medial epicondyle. It is commonly caused by repetitive strain, with golf being a frequent culprit. Similarly, tennis elbow, or lateral epicondylitis, occurs when the same strain and inflammation affect the tendons at the lateral epicondyle. In both cases, pain can be worsened by resisted wrist extension. Treatment involves avoiding activities that trigger symptoms and using non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for flare-ups. In more severe cases, steroid injections may be necessary.

      Ulnar neuritis presents with symptoms such as hand clumsiness, muscle weakness, and wasting in the muscles supplied by the ulnar nerve. Patients may also experience numbness or tingling in the little finger and medial half of the ring finger. This condition is caused by narrowing of the ulnar groove and can be associated with risk factors like osteoarthritis, trauma, and rheumatoid arthritis. Nerve conduction studies may be recommended, and surgical decompression may be necessary.

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis occurs when there is inflammation of the tendon sheaths for the thumb extensor and abductor muscles. This leads to pain over the radial styloid, which worsens with forced adduction and flexion of the thumb. Treatment options include anti-inflammatory medications, thumb splints, and steroid injections.

      Bursitis can develop from repeated pressure on the olecranon, resulting in swelling and discomfort in that area. Aspiration of fluid may be performed to rule out conditions like gout or sepsis. If these conditions are ruled out, bursitis often resolves on its own.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 70-year-old woman experiences a sudden rupture of her Achilles tendon after completing...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman experiences a sudden rupture of her Achilles tendon after completing a round of antibiotics.
      Which of the following antibiotics is MOST likely to have caused this rupture?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Fluoroquinolones are a rare but acknowledged cause of tendinopathy and spontaneous tendon rupture. It is estimated that tendon disorders related to fluoroquinolones occur in approximately 15 to 20 out of every 100,000 patients. These issues are most commonly observed in individuals who are over the age of 60.

      The Achilles tendon is the most frequently affected, although cases involving other tendons such as the quadriceps, peroneus brevis, extensor pollicis longus, the long head of biceps brachii, and rotator cuff tendons have also been reported. The exact underlying mechanism is not fully understood, but it is believed that fluoroquinolone drugs may hinder collagen function and/or disrupt blood supply to the tendon.

      There are other risk factors associated with spontaneous tendon rupture, including corticosteroid therapy, hypercholesterolemia, gout, rheumatoid arthritis, long-term dialysis, and renal transplantation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 60-year-old man comes in with decreased vision and floaters in his right...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man comes in with decreased vision and floaters in his right eye. Upon fundoscopy, you observe a section of sensory retina protruding towards the center of the eye. A diagnosis of retinal detachment is confirmed.
      Which of the following statements about retinal detachment is correct?

      Your Answer: A retina which remains fixed at six months post-surgical repair is unlikely to become detached again

      Explanation:

      Retinal detachment is a condition where the retina separates from the retinal pigment epithelium, resulting in a fluid-filled space between them. This case presents a classic description of retinal detachment. Several risk factors increase the likelihood of developing this condition, including myopia, being male, having a family history of retinal detachment, previous episodes of retinal detachment, blunt ocular trauma, previous cataract surgery, diabetes mellitus (especially if proliferative retinopathy is present), glaucoma, and cataracts.

      The clinical features commonly associated with retinal detachment include flashes of light, particularly at the edges of vision (known as photopsia), a dense shadow in the peripheral vision that spreads towards the center, a sensation of a curtain drawing across the eye, and central visual loss. Fundoscopy, a procedure to examine the back of the eye, reveals a sheet of sensory retina billowing towards the center of the eye. Additionally, a positive Amsler grid test, where straight lines appear curved or wavy, may indicate retinal detachment.

      Other possible causes of floaters include posterior vitreous detachment, retinal tears, vitreous hemorrhage, and migraine with aura. However, in this case, the retinal appearance described is consistent with retinal detachment.

      It is crucial to arrange an urgent same-day ophthalmology referral for this patient. Fortunately, approximately 90% of retinal detachments can be successfully repaired with one operation, and an additional 6% can be salvaged with subsequent procedures. If the retina remains fixed six months after surgery, the likelihood of it becoming detached again is low.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 65-year-old woman with a history of smoking and a confirmed diagnosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with a history of smoking and a confirmed diagnosis of peripheral vascular disease comes in with symptoms suggestive of acute limb ischemia. After conducting a series of tests, there is suspicion that an embolus is the underlying cause.
      Which of the following characteristics is MOST INDICATIVE of an embolus as the underlying cause rather than a thrombus?

      Your Answer: Paralysis of the affected limb

      Correct Answer: Visible skin changes of the feet

      Explanation:

      Acute limb ischaemia refers to a sudden reduction in blood flow to a limb, which puts the limb at risk of tissue death. This condition is most commonly caused by either a sudden blockage of a previously partially blocked artery by a blood clot or by an embolus that travels from another part of the body. Acute limb ischaemia is considered a medical emergency, and if not promptly treated with surgery to restore blood flow, it can lead to extensive tissue damage within six hours.

      The classic signs of acute limb ischaemia are often described using the 6 Ps:
      – Pain that is constant and persistent
      – Absence of pulses in the ankle
      – Pallor, cyanosis, or mottling of the skin
      – Loss of power or paralysis in the affected limb
      – Paraesthesia or reduced sensation, leading to numbness
      – Feeling cold in the affected limb

      It is important to be able to distinguish between ischaemia caused by a blood clot and ischaemia caused by an embolus. The following highlights the main differences:
      Embolus Thrombus
      – Onset is sudden, occurring within seconds to minutes – Onset is gradual, taking hours to days
      – Ischaemia is usually severe due to the lack of collateral circulation – Ischaemia is less severe due to the presence of collateral circulation
      – There is typically no history of claudication, and pulses may still be present in the other leg – There is often a history of claudication, and pulses may also be absent in the other leg
      – Skin changes, such as marbling, may be visible in the feet. This can appear as a fine reticular blanching or mottling in the early stages, progressing to coarse, fixed mottling
      – Skin changes are usually absent in cases of thrombus-induced ischaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 60-year-old individual presents with an arthropathy affecting their right knee. A diagnosis...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old individual presents with an arthropathy affecting their right knee. A diagnosis of pseudogout is made based on the findings of a joint aspirate that has been sent for laboratory analysis.
      What type of crystals are deposited in the joints in pseudogout?

      Your Answer: Calcium pyrophosphate crystals

      Explanation:

      Gout and pseudogout are both characterized by the presence of crystal deposits in the joints that are affected. Gout occurs when urate crystals are deposited, while pseudogout occurs when calcium pyrophosphate crystals are deposited. Under a microscope, these crystals can be distinguished by their appearance. Urate crystals are needle-shaped and negatively birefringent, while calcium pyrophosphate crystals are brick-shaped and positively birefringent.

      Gout can affect any joint in the body, but it most commonly manifests in the hallux metatarsophalangeal joint, which is the joint at the base of the big toe. This joint is affected in approximately 50% of gout cases. On the other hand, pseudogout primarily affects the larger joints, such as the knee.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 35-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of dizziness. She is currently...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of dizziness. She is currently unable to leave her bed and is lying still. The dizziness symptoms are present at all times and not worsened by head position. She has vomited multiple times this morning. She had a respiratory infection last week that was treated with antibiotics and has now resolved. She had a similar episode 3 months ago, which lasted about five days and then resolved. On examination, she has an unsteady gait, normal hearing, and prominent horizontal nystagmus to the left side. The Hallpike maneuver was negative.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vestibular neuronitis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between the various causes of vertigo can be challenging, but there are several clues in the question that can help determine the most likely cause. The sudden onset of severe fixed vertigo, not related to position, following a sinus infection suggests vestibular neuronitis rather than labyrinthitis. Vestibular neuronitis is typically characterized by severe vertigo without hearing loss or tinnitus.

      Here are the key clinical features of the different causes of vertigo mentioned in the question:

      Vestibular neuronitis:
      – Infection of the 8th cranial nerve, which can be viral or bacterial
      – Often preceded by a sinus infection or upper respiratory tract infection
      – Severe vertigo
      – Vertigo is not related to position
      – No hearing loss or tinnitus
      – Nausea and vomiting are common
      – Nystagmus (involuntary eye movement) away from the side of the lesion
      – Episodes may recur over an 18-month period

      Labyrinthitis:
      – Usually caused by a viral infection
      – Can affect the entire inner ear and 8th cranial nerve
      – Severe vertigo
      – Vertigo can be related to position
      – May be accompanied by sensorineural hearing loss and tinnitus
      – Nausea and vomiting are common
      – Nystagmus away from the side of the lesion

      Benign positional vertigo:
      – Often idiopathic (no known cause)
      – Can be secondary to trauma or other inner ear disorders
      – Triggered by head movement, rolling over, or looking upward
      – Brief episodes lasting less than 5 minutes
      – No hearing loss or tinnitus
      – Nausea is common, vomiting is rare
      – Positive Hallpike maneuver (a diagnostic test)

      Meniere’s disease:
      – Idiopathic (no known cause)
      – Sensorineural hearing loss
      – Hearing loss usually gradually progressive and affects one ear
      – Associated with tinnitus
      – Vertigo attacks typically last 2-3 hours
      – Attacks of vertigo last less than 24 hours
      – Sensation of fullness or pressure in the ear(s)
      – Nausea and vomiting are common
      – Nystagmus away from the side of the lesion
      – More common in individuals with migraines

      Acoustic neuroma:
      – Benign tumor of the 8th cranial nerve in the brain
      – Gradually worsening unilateral sensorineural hearing loss
      – Facial numbness and tingling

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 32-year-old patient with asthma is transferred to the resuscitation area of your...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old patient with asthma is transferred to the resuscitation area of your Emergency Department due to a worsening of their symptoms. Your consultant administers an initial dose of IV aminophylline, and the patient's symptoms start to improve. Your consultant requests that you monitor the patient's theophylline levels after a suitable period of time.
      What is the recommended therapeutic range for theophylline in plasma?

      Your Answer: 10-20 mg/litre

      Explanation:

      In order to achieve satisfactory bronchodilation, most individuals require a plasma theophylline concentration of 10-20 mg/litre (55-110 micromol/litre). However, it is possible for a lower concentration to still be effective. Adverse effects can occur within the range of 10-20 mg/litre, and their frequency and severity increase when concentrations exceed 20 mg/litre.

      To measure plasma theophylline concentration, a blood sample should be taken five days after starting oral treatment and at least three days after any dose adjustment. For modified-release preparations, the blood sample should typically be taken 4-6 hours after an oral dose (specific sampling times may vary, so it is advisable to consult local guidelines). If aminophylline is administered intravenously, a blood sample should be taken 4-6 hours after initiating treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 22-year-old man is brought in by ambulance having taken an overdose of...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old man is brought in by ambulance having taken an overdose of his father's diazepam tablets.

      What is the SINGLE most appropriate initial drug treatment in this situation?

      Your Answer: Flumazenil IV 200 μg

      Explanation:

      Flumazenil is a specific antagonist for benzodiazepines that can be beneficial in certain situations. It acts quickly, taking less than 1 minute to take effect, but its effects are short-lived and only last for less than 1 hour. The recommended dosage is 200 μg every 1-2 minutes, with a maximum dose of 3mg per hour.

      It is important to avoid using Flumazenil if the patient is dependent on benzodiazepines or is taking tricyclic antidepressants. This is because it can trigger a withdrawal syndrome in these individuals, potentially leading to seizures or cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 72-year-old man is brought to the resuscitation area of your Emergency Department...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man is brought to the resuscitation area of your Emergency Department by ambulance. He has become increasingly unwell over the past few days with vomiting and diarrhea. His wife tells you that he was started on a medication by his GP six months ago for pain and stiffness around his shoulders, upper arms, and hips. She describes this medication as being '6 small blue tablets.' He has been unable to take these tablets for the past few days. On examination, he is pale and sweaty and appears confused. His observations are as follows: temperature 37.2°C, HR 130 bpm, BP 90/50, RR 22, SaO2 97% on 2 L oxygen, GCS 13. He has intravenous access in situ, and his BM stick glucose is 2.5.
      Which of the following medications are the 'small blue tablets' most likely to be?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      This patient has presented with an Addisonian crisis, which is a rare but potentially catastrophic condition if not diagnosed promptly. The most likely underlying rheumatological diagnosis in this case is polymyalgia rheumatica, and it is likely that the GP started the patient on prednisolone medication.

      Addison’s disease occurs when the adrenal glands underproduce steroid hormones, affecting the production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and sex steroids. The main causes of Addison’s disease include autoimmune adrenalitis (accounting for 80% of cases), bilateral adrenalectomy, Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome (hemorrhage into the adrenal glands), and tuberculosis.

      An Addisonian crisis is most commonly triggered by the deliberate or accidental withdrawal of steroid therapy in patients with Addison’s disease. Other factors that can precipitate a crisis include infection, trauma, myocardial infarction, cerebral infarction, asthma, hypothermia, and alcohol abuse.

      The clinical features of Addison’s disease include weakness, lethargy, hypotension (especially orthostatic hypotension), nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reduced axillary and pubic hair, depression, and hyperpigmentation (particularly in palmar creases, buccal mucosa, and exposed areas). In an Addisonian crisis, the main features are usually hypoglycemia and shock, characterized by tachycardia, peripheral vasoconstriction, hypotension, altered consciousness, and coma.

      Biochemically, Addison’s disease is characterized by increased ACTH levels (as a compensatory response to stimulate the adrenal glands), elevated serum renin levels, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypercalcemia, hypoglycemia, and metabolic acidosis. Diagnostic investigations may include the Synacthen test, plasma ACTH level, plasma renin level, and adrenocortical antibodies.

      Management of Addison’s disease should be overseen by an Endocrinologist. Typically, patients require hydrocortisone, fludrocortisone, and dehydroepiandrosterone. Some patients may also need thyroxine if there is hypothalamic-pituitary disease present. Treatment is lifelong, and patients should carry a steroid card and a MedicAlert bracelet, being aware of the possibility of an Addisonian crisis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 15 year old arrives at the emergency department complaining of a sore...

    Incorrect

    • A 15 year old arrives at the emergency department complaining of a sore throat, swollen glands, and feeling tired for the past 9 days. Glandular fever is suspected. What test should be ordered to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Blood for EBV serology

      Correct Answer: Monospot test

      Explanation:

      The monospot test is the preferred method for testing for infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever) when looking for heterophile antibodies. The timing and choice of investigations for glandular fever depend on factors such as the patient’s age, immune system status, and duration of symptoms. The monospot test is a latex agglutination test that uses equine erythrocytes as the primary substrate to detect specific heterophile antibodies produced by the human immune system in response to EBV infection. It is simpler and faster to use compared to the Paul Bunnell test, which uses sheep red cells. The monospot test is recommended by NICE due to its advantages. However, it has lower sensitivity and negative predictive value in young children, which is why EBV serology is preferred for those under 12 years old.

      Further Reading:

      Glandular fever, also known as infectious mononucleosis or mono, is a clinical syndrome characterized by symptoms such as sore throat, fever, and swollen lymph nodes. It is primarily caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), with other viruses and infections accounting for the remaining cases. Glandular fever is transmitted through infected saliva and primarily affects adolescents and young adults. The incubation period is 4-8 weeks.

      The majority of EBV infections are asymptomatic, with over 95% of adults worldwide having evidence of prior infection. Clinical features of glandular fever include fever, sore throat, exudative tonsillitis, lymphadenopathy, and prodromal symptoms such as fatigue and headache. Splenomegaly (enlarged spleen) and hepatomegaly (enlarged liver) may also be present, and a non-pruritic macular rash can sometimes occur.

      Glandular fever can lead to complications such as splenic rupture, which increases the risk of rupture in the spleen. Approximately 50% of splenic ruptures associated with glandular fever are spontaneous, while the other 50% follow trauma. Diagnosis of glandular fever involves various investigations, including viral serology for EBV, monospot test, and liver function tests. Additional serology tests may be conducted if EBV testing is negative.

      Management of glandular fever involves supportive care and symptomatic relief with simple analgesia. Antiviral medication has not been shown to be beneficial. It is important to identify patients at risk of serious complications, such as airway obstruction, splenic rupture, and dehydration, and provide appropriate management. Patients can be advised to return to normal activities as soon as possible, avoiding heavy lifting and contact sports for the first month to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Rare but serious complications associated with glandular fever include hepatitis, upper airway obstruction, cardiac complications, renal complications, neurological complications, haematological complications, chronic fatigue, and an increased risk of lymphoproliferative cancers and multiple sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - You are requested to evaluate a 7-year-old girl who is feeling sick in...

    Correct

    • You are requested to evaluate a 7-year-old girl who is feeling sick in the Pediatric Emergency Department. Upon reviewing her urea & electrolytes, you observe that her potassium level is elevated at 6.7 mmol/l. She is experiencing occasional palpitations.
      As per the APLS guidelines, which medication should be administered promptly when an arrhythmia is present in a child with notable hyperkalemia?

      Your Answer: Calcium chloride

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalemia is a condition where the level of potassium in the blood is higher than normal, specifically greater than 5.5 mmol/l. It can be categorized as mild, moderate, or severe depending on the potassium level. Mild hyperkalemia is when the potassium level is between 5.5-5.9 mmol/l, moderate hyperkalemia is between 6.0-6.4 mmol/l, and severe hyperkalemia is above 6.5 mmol/l. The most common cause of hyperkalemia is renal failure, which can be acute or chronic. Other causes include acidosis, adrenal insufficiency, cell lysis, and excessive potassium intake.

      In the treatment of hyperkalemia, calcium plays a crucial role. It works by counteracting the harmful effects of high potassium levels on the heart by stabilizing the cardiac cell membrane. Calcium acts quickly, with its effects seen within 15 minutes, but its effects are relatively short-lived. It is considered a first-line treatment for arrhythmias and significant ECG abnormalities caused by hyperkalemia. However, it is rare to see arrhythmias occur at potassium levels below 7.5 mmol/l.

      It’s important to note that calcium does not lower the serum level of potassium. Therefore, when administering calcium, other therapies that actually help lower potassium levels, such as insulin and salbutamol, should also be used. Insulin and salbutamol are effective in reducing serum potassium levels.

      When choosing between calcium chloride and calcium gluconate, calcium chloride is preferred when hyperkalemia is accompanied by hemodynamic compromise. This is because calcium chloride contains three times more elemental calcium than an equal volume of calcium gluconate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 14-year-old girl was cycling down a hill when a car backed up...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl was cycling down a hill when a car backed up in front of her, resulting in a collision. She visits the emergency department, reporting upper abdominal pain caused by the handlebars. You determine that a FAST scan is necessary. What is the main objective of performing a FAST scan for blunt abdominal trauma?

      Your Answer: Detect the presence of intraperitoneal fluid

      Explanation:

      The primary goal of performing a FAST scan in cases of blunt abdominal trauma is to identify the existence of intraperitoneal fluid. According to the Royal College of Emergency Medicine (RCEM), the purpose of using ultrasound in the initial evaluation of abdominal trauma is specifically to confirm the presence of fluid within the peritoneal cavity, with the assumption that it is blood. However, it is important to note that ultrasound is not reliable for diagnosing injuries to solid organs or hollow viscus.

      Further Reading:

      Abdominal trauma can be classified into two categories: blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma occurs when compressive or deceleration forces are applied to the abdomen, often resulting from road traffic accidents or direct blows during sports. The spleen and liver are the organs most commonly injured in blunt abdominal trauma. On the other hand, penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and enter the abdominal cavity, such as stabbings, gunshot wounds, or industrial accidents. The bowel and liver are the organs most commonly affected in penetrating injuries.

      When it comes to imaging in blunt abdominal trauma, there are three main modalities that are commonly used: focused assessment with sonography in trauma (FAST), diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL), and computed tomography (CT). FAST is a non-invasive and quick method used to detect free intraperitoneal fluid, aiding in the decision on whether a laparotomy is needed. DPL is also used to detect intraperitoneal blood and can be used in both unstable blunt abdominal trauma and penetrating abdominal trauma. However, it is more invasive and time-consuming compared to FAST and has largely been replaced by it. CT, on the other hand, is the gold standard for diagnosing intra-abdominal pathology and is used in stable abdominal trauma patients. It offers high sensitivity and specificity but requires a stable and cooperative patient. It also involves radiation and may have delays in availability.

      In the case of penetrating trauma, it is important to assess these injuries with the help of a surgical team. Penetrating objects should not be removed in the emergency department as they may be tamponading underlying vessels. Ideally, these injuries should be explored in the operating theater.

      In summary, abdominal trauma can be classified into blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma is caused by compressive or deceleration forces and commonly affects the spleen and liver. Penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and commonly affect the bowel and liver. Imaging modalities such as FAST, DPL, and CT are used to assess and diagnose abdominal trauma, with CT being the gold standard. Penetrating injuries should be assessed by a surgical team and should ideally be explored in the operating theater.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 32-year-old woman with a known history of HIV presents with multiple new...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman with a known history of HIV presents with multiple new small lumps around her anus and genitalia. During examination, two clusters of small lumps are observed. The lumps range in size from 1 to 5 mm, with two being pedunculated. They have a firm texture and exhibit colors ranging from grey to brown.
      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Verruca acuminata

      Explanation:

      Verruca acuminata, also known as Condylomata acuminata, are genital warts. These warts are typically transmitted through sexual activity and are primarily caused by different subtypes of the human papillomavirus (HPV). They usually appear in clusters, can be pedunculated, and vary in size between 1-5 mm. Immunosuppression increases the risk, and some studies suggest that 25% of affected patients will acquire a second sexually transmitted infection.

      Condylomata lata, on the other hand, are warty-plaque like lesions found on the genitals and perianal area during secondary syphilis.

      Verruca vulgaris, commonly known as common warts, present as raised warts with a roughened surface. They are most frequently observed on the hands.

      Verruca planae, which are smooth and flattened flesh-colored warts, can occur in large numbers. They are commonly seen on the face, hands, neck, wrists, and knees.

      Lastly, Verruca plantaris, also known as plantar warts or verrucas, manifest as hard and painful lumps, often with black specks in the center. These warts are typically found only on pressure points on the soles of the feet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      40.1
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A 28 year old woman presents to the emergency department following an assault...

    Correct

    • A 28 year old woman presents to the emergency department following an assault by her spouse. The patient reports being punched in the face and experiencing severe pain while attempting to open her mouth. Upon examination of the oral cavity, a hematoma is observed on the buccal mucosa when lifting the patient's tongue, along with a 1 cm laceration on the adjacent gum mucosa.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fracture of the mandible

      Explanation:

      A common indication of a mandibular fracture is the presence of a haematoma in the sublingual space after trauma. If there are lacerations in the gum mucosa, it is highly likely that the mandible is fractured and it is an open fracture.

      Further Reading:

      Mandibular fractures are a common type of facial fracture that often present to the emergency department. The mandible, or lower jaw, is formed by the fusion of two hemimandibles and articulates with the temporomandibular joints. Fractures of the mandible are typically caused by direct lateral force and often involve multiple fracture sites, including the body, condylar head and neck, and ramus.

      When assessing for mandibular fractures, clinicians should use a look, feel, move method similar to musculoskeletal examination. However, it is important to note that TMJ effusion, muscle spasm, and pain can make moving the mandible difficult. Key signs of mandibular fracture include malocclusion, trismus (limited mouth opening), pain with the mouth closed, broken teeth, step deformity, hematoma in the sublingual space, lacerations to the gum mucosa, and bleeding from the ear.

      The Manchester Mandibular Fracture Decision Rule uses the absence of five exam findings (malocclusion, trismus, broken teeth, pain with closed mouth, and step deformity) to exclude mandibular fracture. This rule has been found to be 100% sensitive and 39% specific in detecting mandibular fractures. Imaging is an important tool in diagnosing mandibular fractures, with an OPG X-ray considered the best initial imaging for TMJ dislocation and mandibular fracture. CT may be used if the OPG is technically difficult or if a CT is being performed for other reasons, such as a head injury.

      It is important to note that head injury often accompanies mandibular fractures, so a thorough head injury assessment should be performed. Additionally, about a quarter of patients with mandibular fractures will also have a fracture of at least one other facial bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 45-year-old man comes in with a 4-day history of sudden pain in...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man comes in with a 4-day history of sudden pain in his left scrotum and a high body temperature. During the examination, the epididymis is swollen and tender, and the skin covering the scrotum is red and warm to the touch. Lifting the scrotum provides relief from the pain.

      What is the most probable organism responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Epididymo-orchitis refers to the inflammation of the epididymis and/or testicle. It typically presents with sudden pain, swelling, and inflammation in the affected area. This condition can also occur chronically, which means that the pain and inflammation last for more than six months.

      The causes of epididymo-orchitis vary depending on the age of the patient. In men under 35 years old, the infection is usually sexually transmitted and caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae. In men over 35 years old, the infection is usually non-sexually transmitted and occurs as a result of enteric organisms that cause urinary tract infections, with Escherichia coli being the most common. However, there can be some overlap between these groups, so it is important to obtain a thorough sexual history in all age groups.

      Mumps should also be considered as a potential cause of epididymo-orchitis in the 15 to 30 age group, as mumps orchitis occurs in around 40% of post-pubertal boys with mumps.

      While most cases of epididymo-orchitis are infective, non-infectious causes can also occur. These include genito-urinary surgery, vasectomy, urinary catheterization, Behcet’s disease, sarcoidosis, and drug-induced cases such as those caused by amiodarone.

      Patients with epididymo-orchitis typically present with unilateral scrotal pain and swelling that develops relatively quickly. The affected testis will be tender to touch, and there is usually a palpable swelling of the epididymis that starts at the lower pole of the testis and spreads towards the upper pole. The testis itself may also be involved, and there may be redness and/or swelling of the scrotum on the affected side. Patients may experience fever and urethral discharge as well.

      The most important differential diagnosis to consider is testicular torsion, which requires immediate medical attention within 6 hours of onset to save the testicle. Testicular torsion is more likely in men under the age of 20, especially if the pain is very severe and sudden. It typically presents around four hours after onset. In this case, the patient’s age, longer history of symptoms, and the presence of fever are more indicative of epididymo-orchitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 45-year-old man presents with a history of feeling generally unwell and having...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents with a history of feeling generally unwell and having experienced fevers at home. He has a history of lung cancer for which he is currently undergoing radiation therapy. His observations are as follows: HR 92 bpm, BP 130/80, SaO2 98% on air, temperature 38.9°C. A diagnosis of neutropenic sepsis is suspected.
      Which of the following antibiotics are recommended by the current NICE guidelines for the initial empiric treatment of neutropenic sepsis?

      Your Answer: Tazocin alone

      Explanation:

      Neutropenic sepsis is a serious condition that can occur when a person has low levels of neutrophils, which are a type of white blood cell. This condition can be life-threatening and is often caused by factors such as chemotherapy, immunosuppressive drugs, infections, bone marrow disorders, and nutritional deficiencies.

      To diagnose neutropenic sepsis, doctors look for a neutrophil count of 0.5 x 109 per litre or lower in patients undergoing cancer treatment. Additionally, patients must have a temperature higher than 38°C or show other signs and symptoms of significant sepsis.

      According to the current guidelines from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), the recommended initial antibiotic treatment for suspected neutropenic sepsis is monotherapy with piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin 4.5 g IV). It is important to note that aminoglycosides should not be used as monotherapy or in combination therapy unless there are specific patient-related or local microbiological reasons to do so.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncological Emergencies
      6.9
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 45-year-old woman is brought in by her husband due to issues with...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman is brought in by her husband due to issues with her memory. She was fine until a few hours ago but started experiencing symptoms right after engaging in sexual activity. She is currently restless and disoriented, frequently asking the same questions repeatedly. Her neurological exam is normal, and there are no indications of drug use or intoxication.
      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Fugue state

      Correct Answer: Transient global amnesia

      Explanation:

      Transient global amnesia (TGA) is a neurological condition where individuals experience a temporary loss of short-term memory. This disorder is commonly observed in individuals over the age of 50 and is often associated with migraines.

      The onset of TGA is typically sudden and can occur after engaging in strenuous exercise, sexual activity, or exposure to cold temperatures. These episodes usually last for a few hours and almost always resolve within 24 hours. One distinctive characteristic of TGA is perseveration, where patients repetitively ask the same question. Interestingly, once the episode has passed, individuals are unable to recall it.

      Unlike a transient ischemic attack, TGA does not result in any focal neurological deficits, and the patient’s physical examination will appear normal.

      On the other hand, a fugue state also involves temporary memory loss but presents differently. It is characterized by a loss of personal identity, past memories, and personality traits. Individuals experiencing a fugue state may even adopt entirely new identities and often engage in unplanned travel away from familiar surroundings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - A 35-year-old man is given a medication during the 2nd-trimester of his partner's...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is given a medication during the 2nd-trimester of his partner's pregnancy. As a result, the baby is born with a neural tube defect.
      Which of the following medications is the most probable cause of these abnormalities?

      Your Answer: Tetracycline

      Correct Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      The use of trimethoprim during the first trimester of pregnancy is linked to a higher risk of neural tube defects due to its interference with folate. If it is not possible to use an alternative antibiotic, it is recommended that pregnant women taking trimethoprim also take high-dose folic acid. However, the use of trimethoprim during the second and third trimesters of pregnancy is considered safe.

      Here is a list outlining the commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:

      ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril): If given in the second and third trimesters, they can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence.

      Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin): They can cause ototoxicity and deafness.

      Aspirin: High doses can lead to first-trimester abortions, delayed onset labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.

      Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam): When given late in pregnancy, they can cause respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome.

      Calcium-channel blockers: If given in the first trimester, they can cause phalangeal abnormalities. If given in the second and third trimesters, they can lead to fetal growth retardation.

      Carbamazepine: It can cause haemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.

      Chloramphenicol: It can cause grey baby syndrome.

      Corticosteroids: If given in the first trimester, they may cause orofacial clefts.

      Danazol: If given in the first trimester, it can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals.

      Finasteride: Pregnant women should avoid handling finasteride as crushed or broken tablets can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development.

      Haloperidol: If given in the first trimester, it may cause limb malformations. If given in the third trimester, there is an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate.

      Heparin: It can cause maternal bleeding and thrombocytopenia.

      Isoniazid: It can lead to maternal liver damage and neuropathy and seizures in the neonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A 25-year-old individual complains of persistent and bothersome urticaria after being exposed to...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old individual complains of persistent and bothersome urticaria after being exposed to latex. Despite taking an antihistamine, the itch remains severe and greatly affects their well-being.
      What is the most suitable treatment to prescribe alongside the antihistamine for this patient?

      Your Answer: Chlorpheniramine

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Urticaria is a skin condition characterized by red, raised, and itchy rashes that can appear in specific areas or all over the body. It is a common issue, affecting around 15% of individuals at some point in their lives. Urticaria can be either acute or chronic, with the acute form being more prevalent.

      According to the current guidelines from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), individuals seeking treatment for urticaria should be offered a non-sedating antihistamine from the second-generation category. Examples of second-generation antihistamines include cetirizine, loratadine, fexofenadine, desloratadine, and levocetirizine.

      It is no longer recommended to use conventional first-generation antihistamines like promethazine and chlorpheniramine for urticaria. These medications have short-lasting effects, can cause sedation and anticholinergic side effects, and may interfere with sleep, learning, and performance. They can also interact negatively with alcohol and other medications. Additionally, there have been reports of lethal overdoses with first-generation antihistamines. Terfenadine and astemizole should also be avoided as they can have harmful effects on the heart when combined with certain drugs like erythromycin and ketoconazole.

      In cases where symptoms are severe, a short course of oral corticosteroids such as prednisolone (40 mg for up to seven days) may be prescribed alongside the second-generation antihistamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 70-year-old nursing home resident is brought to the Emergency Department because she...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old nursing home resident is brought to the Emergency Department because she has rapidly declined in the past 24 hours. She appears extremely ill and has a temperature of 39.3°C. She has a history of stroke, is typically confined to bed, and struggles with communication. During the examination, she exhibits rapid heart rate, rapid breathing, and coarse crackles in the right middle and lower areas.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aspiration pneumonia

      Explanation:

      This patient presents with clinical features that are indicative of a right middle/lower lobe pneumonia. Considering her past medical history of a stroke and the specific location of the chest signs, it is highly probable that she is suffering from aspiration pneumonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A 65 year old is brought into the emergency department by a coworker...

    Correct

    • A 65 year old is brought into the emergency department by a coworker who is concerned about the patient being disoriented. The coworker says he overheard the patient talking to someone in the break room but when he looked over to join the conversation, there was no one there. Despite there being no one present, the patient continued to have a dialogue with thin air. The coworker informs you that he has noticed the patient being a bit confused at times before, but the confusion usually resolves within a day or two. During the examination, you observe a shuffling gait and resting tremor. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dementia with Lewy bodies

      Explanation:

      Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB) is characterized by several key features, including spontaneous fluctuations in cognitive abilities, visual hallucinations, and Parkinsonism. Visual hallucinations are particularly prevalent in DLB and Parkinson’s disease dementia, which are considered to be part of the same spectrum. While visual hallucinations can occur in other forms of dementia, they are less frequently observed.

      Further Reading:

      Dementia is a progressive and irreversible clinical syndrome characterized by cognitive and behavioral symptoms. These symptoms include memory loss, impaired reasoning and communication, personality changes, and reduced ability to carry out daily activities. The decline in cognition affects multiple domains of intellectual functioning and is not solely due to normal aging.

      To diagnose dementia, a person must have impairment in at least two cognitive domains that significantly impact their daily activities. This impairment cannot be explained by delirium or other major psychiatric disorders. Early-onset dementia refers to dementia that develops before the age of 65.

      The most common cause of dementia is Alzheimer’s disease, accounting for 50-75% of cases. Other causes include vascular dementia, dementia with Lewy bodies, and frontotemporal dementia. Less common causes include Parkinson’s disease dementia, Huntington’s disease, prion disease, and metabolic and endocrine disorders.

      There are several risk factors for dementia, including age, mild cognitive impairment, genetic predisposition, excess alcohol intake, head injury, depression, learning difficulties, diabetes, obesity, hypertension, smoking, Parkinson’s disease, low social engagement, low physical activity, low educational attainment, hearing impairment, and air pollution.

      Assessment of dementia involves taking a history from the patient and ideally a family member or close friend. The person’s current level of cognition and functional capabilities should be compared to their baseline level. Physical examination, blood tests, and cognitive assessment tools can also aid in the diagnosis.

      Differential diagnosis for dementia includes normal age-related memory changes, mild cognitive impairment, depression, delirium, vitamin deficiencies, hypothyroidism, adverse drug effects, normal pressure hydrocephalus, and sensory deficits.

      Management of dementia involves a multi-disciplinary approach that includes non-pharmacological and pharmacological measures. Non-pharmacological interventions may include driving assessment, modifiable risk factor management, and non-pharmacological therapies to promote cognition and independence. Drug treatments for dementia should be initiated by specialists and may include acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, memantine, and antipsychotics in certain cases.

      In summary, dementia is a progressive and irreversible syndrome characterized by cognitive and behavioral symptoms. It has various causes and risk factors, and its management involves a multi-disciplinary approach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - A 45-year-old woman has been involved in a car accident. She needs a...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman has been involved in a car accident. She needs a blood transfusion as part of her treatment and experiences a transfusion reaction.
      What is the most frequent type of transfusion reaction?

      Your Answer: Febrile transfusion reaction

      Explanation:

      Febrile transfusion reactions, also known as non-haemolytic transfusion reactions, occur when there is an unexpected increase in body temperature (≥ 38ºC or ≥ 1ºC above the baseline, if the baseline is ≥ 37ºC) during or shortly after a blood transfusion. This temperature rise is usually the only symptom, although sometimes it may be accompanied by chills.

      Febrile transfusion reactions are the most common type of transfusion reaction, happening in approximately 1 out of every 8 transfusions.

      The main cause of febrile transfusion reactions is believed to be the accumulation of cytokines during the storage of blood components, particularly in platelet units. Cytokines are substances released by white blood cells, and the risk of symptoms can be reduced by removing these cells before storage.

      In addition to cytokine accumulation, febrile transfusion reactions can also be triggered by recipient antibodies that have been produced as a result of previous transfusions or pregnancies. These antibodies react to specific antigens, such as human leukocyte antigen (HLA), found on the donor’s lymphocytes, granulocytes, or platelets.

      Treatment for febrile transfusion reactions is mainly supportive. Other potential causes of fever should be ruled out, and antipyretic medications like paracetamol can be used to reduce the fever. If another cause is suspected, the transfusion should be temporarily stopped, but it can be resumed at a slower rate once other potential causes of fever have been ruled out.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - You analyze the results of renal function tests conducted on a patient who...

    Incorrect

    • You analyze the results of renal function tests conducted on a patient who is currently using a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). What impact would you anticipate NSAID treatment to have on renal measurements?

      Your Answer: Increased renal plasma flow, decreased filtration fraction, decreased GFR

      Correct Answer: Decreased renal plasma flow, no change in filtration fraction, decreased GFR

      Explanation:

      NSAIDs have been found to have a relatively high occurrence of renal adverse drug reactions (ADRs). These ADRs primarily occur due to changes in renal haemodynamics caused by alterations in prostaglandin levels.

      Normally, prostaglandins play a role in dilating the afferent arteriole of the glomerulus. This dilation helps maintain normal glomerular perfusion and glomerular filtration rate (GFR).

      However, NSAIDs work by reducing prostaglandin levels. This reduction leads to unopposed vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole, resulting in decreased renal plasma flow. Consequently, this decrease in renal plasma flow leads to a decrease in GFR. It is important to note that NSAIDs do not have any impact on the filtration fraction itself.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A 25-year-old traveler comes to the clinic complaining of a fever, cough, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old traveler comes to the clinic complaining of a fever, cough, and headache that have persisted for the last week. He recently returned from a backpacking adventure in India. Additionally, he started experiencing diarrhea a few days ago, and a stool sample was sent for testing, which revealed the presence of Salmonella typhi. Which antibacterial medication would be the most suitable to prescribe for this patient?

      Your Answer: Clarithromycin

      Correct Answer: Cefotaxime

      Explanation:

      According to the latest guidelines from NICE and the BNF, the recommended initial treatment for typhoid fever is cefotaxime. It is important to note that infections originating from the Middle-East, South Asia, and South-East Asia may have multiple antibiotic resistance, so it is advisable to test for sensitivity. In cases where the microorganism is found to be sensitive, ciprofloxacin can be considered as a suitable alternative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - A 67-year-old woman experiences a stroke. Her primary symptoms include weakness in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman experiences a stroke. Her primary symptoms include weakness in her right limbs, particularly affecting her face and arm more than her leg, as well as sensory loss on the right side. Additionally, she has receptive dysphasia.
      Which blood vessel is most likely to be impacted?

      Your Answer: Anterior cerebral artery

      Correct Answer: Middle cerebral artery

      Explanation:

      The symptoms and signs of strokes can vary depending on which blood vessel is affected. Here is a summary of the main symptoms based on the territory affected:

      Anterior cerebral artery: This can cause weakness on the opposite side of the body, with the leg and shoulder being more affected than the arm, hand, and face. There may also be minimal loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body. Other symptoms can include difficulty speaking (dysarthria), language problems (aphasia), apraxia (difficulty with limb movements), urinary incontinence, and changes in behavior and personality.

      Middle cerebral artery: This can lead to weakness on the opposite side of the body, with the face and arm being more affected than the leg. There may also be a loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body. Depending on the dominant hemisphere of the brain, there may be difficulties with expressive or receptive language (dysphasia). In the non-dominant hemisphere, there may be neglect of the opposite side of the body.

      Posterior cerebral artery: This can cause a loss of vision on the opposite side of both eyes (homonymous hemianopia). There may also be defects in a specific quadrant of the visual field. In some cases, there may be a syndrome affecting the thalamus on the opposite side of the body.

      It’s important to note that these are just general summaries and individual cases may vary. If you suspect a stroke, it’s crucial to seek immediate medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - A 65-year-old woman with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is diagnosed with...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is diagnosed with Korsakoff's psychosis. You have been requested to assess the patient and report your observations.
      Which of the following symptoms is typically observed in individuals with Korsakoff's psychosis?

      Your Answer: Disordered time appreciation

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that is commonly associated with alcohol abuse and other causes of thiamine deficiency. It is characterized by a classic triad of symptoms, which include acute confusion, ophthalmoplegia (paralysis or weakness of the eye muscles), and ataxia (loss of coordination and balance). Additional possible features of this condition may include papilloedema (swelling of the optic disc), hearing loss, apathy, dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), memory impairment, and hypothermia. In the majority of cases, peripheral neuropathy (nerve damage) is also observed, typically affecting the legs.

      The condition is marked by the presence of acute capillary haemorrhages, astrocytosis (abnormal increase in astrocytes, a type of brain cell), and neuronal death in the upper brainstem and diencephalon. These abnormalities can be visualized using MRI scanning, while CT scanning is not very useful for diagnosis.

      If left untreated, most patients with Wernicke’s encephalopathy will go on to develop a Korsakoff psychosis. This condition is characterized by retrograde amnesia (difficulty remembering past events), an inability to memorize new information, disordered time appreciation, and confabulation (fabrication of false memories).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - A 42-year-old man presents with a high temperature, difficulty breathing, diarrhea and vomiting,...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presents with a high temperature, difficulty breathing, diarrhea and vomiting, fatigue, and fainting. He has recently returned from a wellness retreat in France. The patient is referred to the medical team on duty and admitted to the hospital. They suspect a potential diagnosis of Legionnaires' disease.
      What is the definitive test used to confirm a case of Legionnaires' disease?

      Your Answer: Isolation and culture from a sputum sample

      Explanation:

      The guidelines from the British Thoracic Society (BTS) recommend conducting investigations for Legionella infection in the following cases: severe community-acquired pneumonia, patients with specific risk factors, and during outbreaks of community-acquired pneumonia. To confirm a case, the Public Health England (PHE) requires one of the following: isolation and culture of Legionella species from clinical specimens (typically sputum), seroconversion with a four-fold increase in titre of indirect immunofluorescent antibody test (IFAT) using a validated technique, or confirmation of Legionella pneumophila urinary antigen using validated reagents or kits. The gold standard for confirmation is the isolation and culture of Legionella species, while cases of Pontiac fever are usually culture-negative. The HPA considers a case presumptive if there is a clinical diagnosis of pneumonia with a single high titre of 128 using IFAT, or a single titre of 64 in an outbreak. A positive result by direct immunofluorescence on a clinical specimen using validated monoclonal antibodies is also considered a presumptive case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - You are summoned to assist with a 72-year-old patient who is in the...

    Correct

    • You are summoned to assist with a 72-year-old patient who is in the resuscitation bay and has experienced two defibrillation attempts following cardiac arrest. Unfortunately, there is no supply of amiodarone available, so your consultant instructs you to prepare lidocaine for administration after the next shock. What is the initial dosage of lidocaine to be given during cardiac arrest?

      Your Answer: 1 mg/kg

      Explanation:

      During cardiac arrest, Lidocaine is administered through a slow IV injection at an initial dose of 1 mg/kg when deemed suitable.

      Further Reading:

      In the management of respiratory and cardiac arrest, several drugs are commonly used to help restore normal function and improve outcomes. Adrenaline is a non-selective agonist of adrenergic receptors and is administered intravenously at a dose of 1 mg every 3-5 minutes. It works by causing vasoconstriction, increasing systemic vascular resistance (SVR), and improving cardiac output by increasing the force of heart contraction. Adrenaline also has bronchodilatory effects.

      Amiodarone is another drug used in cardiac arrest situations. It blocks voltage-gated potassium channels, which prolongs repolarization and reduces myocardial excitability. The initial dose of amiodarone is 300 mg intravenously after 3 shocks, followed by a dose of 150 mg after 5 shocks.

      Lidocaine is an alternative to amiodarone in cardiac arrest situations. It works by blocking sodium channels and decreasing heart rate. The recommended dose is 1 mg/kg by slow intravenous injection, with a repeat half of the initial dose after 5 minutes. The maximum total dose of lidocaine is 3 mg/kg.

      Magnesium sulfate is used to reverse myocardial hyperexcitability associated with hypomagnesemia. It is administered intravenously at a dose of 2 g over 10-15 minutes. An additional dose may be given if necessary, but the maximum total dose should not exceed 3 g.

      Atropine is an antagonist of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors and is used to counteract the slowing of heart rate caused by the parasympathetic nervous system. It is administered intravenously at a dose of 500 mcg every 3-5 minutes, with a maximum dose of 3 mg.

      Naloxone is a competitive antagonist for opioid receptors and is used in cases of respiratory arrest caused by opioid overdose. It has a short duration of action, so careful monitoring is necessary. The initial dose of naloxone is 400 micrograms, followed by 800 mcg after 1 minute. The dose can be gradually escalated up to 2 mg per dose if there is no response to the preceding dose.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to have knowledge of the pharmacology and dosing schedules of these drugs in order to effectively manage respiratory and cardiac arrest situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - A 72-year-old man presents with a severe exacerbation of his COPD. You have...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man presents with a severe exacerbation of his COPD. You have been asked to administer a loading dose of aminophylline. He weighs 70 kg.
      What is the appropriate loading dose for him?

      Your Answer: 300 mg over 15 minutes

      Explanation:

      The recommended daily oral dose for adults is 900 mg, which should be taken in 2-3 divided doses. For severe asthma or COPD, the initial intravenous dose is 5 mg/kg and should be administered over 10-20 minutes. This can be followed by a continuous infusion of 0.5 mg/kg/hour. In the case of a patient weighing 60 kg, the appropriate loading dose would be 300 mg. It is important to note that the therapeutic range for aminophylline is narrow, ranging from 10-20 microgram/ml. Therefore, it is beneficial to estimate the plasma concentration of aminophylline during long-term treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - A 45-year-old man is brought in to the Emergency Department by his wife....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man is brought in to the Emergency Department by his wife. He is experiencing multiple episodes of vertigo, each lasting almost all day, before resolving spontaneously. He usually vomits during the attacks and complains of a sensation of fullness in his ears. He also states that his hearing has been worse than usual recently, and he is also experiencing symptoms of tinnitus.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Meniere’s disease

      Explanation:

      Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear due to changes in fluid volume within the vestibular labyrinth. This leads to the progressive distension of the labyrinth, known as endolymphatic hydrops, which causes damage to the vestibular system and the cochlea. The classic symptoms associated with Meniere’s disease are vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus.

      The main clinical features of Meniere’s disease include episodes of vertigo that typically last for 2-3 hours. These episodes are usually shorter than 24 hours in duration. Hearing loss, which is often gradual and affects only one ear, is also a common symptom. Tinnitus, a ringing or buzzing sound in the ears, is frequently associated with Meniere’s disease. Other symptoms may include a sensation of fullness or pressure in the ears, as well as nausea and vomiting. Nystagmus, an involuntary eye movement, may occur away from the side of the lesion. Meniere’s disease is more prevalent in individuals who suffer from migraines.

      The management of Meniere’s disease aims to alleviate acute attacks, reduce their severity and frequency, and improve hearing while minimizing the impact of tinnitus. If Meniere’s disease is suspected, patients should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat specialist.

      During acute attacks, medications such as prochlorperazine, cinnarizine, and cyclizine can help reduce nausea and vertigo symptoms. If vomiting is present, buccal or intramuscular administration of these medications may be necessary. In severe cases, hospital admission may be required to prevent dehydration.

      For long-term prevention, lifestyle measures can be beneficial. Avoiding caffeine, chocolate, alcohol, and tobacco is recommended. Excessive fatigue should also be avoided. Following a low-salt diet may be helpful. Betahistine, a medication that initially starts at a dose of 16 mg three times a day, can be used for prophylaxis to reduce the frequency and severity of attacks. Diuretics may also be beneficial, but they are typically not recommended for primary care use.

      Overall, the management of Meniere’s disease involves a combination of lifestyle changes and medication to control symptoms and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      62
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - You are caring for a 72-year-old patient with a history of COPD who...

    Correct

    • You are caring for a 72-year-old patient with a history of COPD who has been admitted to the emergency department (ED) due to worsening shortness of breath and suspected sepsis. You are planning to perform an arterial blood gas (ABG) test by puncturing the radial artery. What solution should you use to cleanse the intended puncture site before obtaining the sample?

      Your Answer: 70% Alcohol

      Explanation:

      Before performing arterial blood gas sampling, it is necessary to disinfect the skin. This is typically done using alcohol, which should be applied and given enough time to dry completely before proceeding with the skin puncture. In the UK, it is common to use solutions that combine alcohol with Chlorhexidine, such as Chloraprep® (2).

      Further Reading:

      Arterial blood gases (ABG) are an important diagnostic tool used to assess a patient’s acid-base status and respiratory function. When obtaining an ABG sample, it is crucial to prioritize safety measures to minimize the risk of infection and harm to the patient. This includes performing hand hygiene before and after the procedure, wearing gloves and protective equipment, disinfecting the puncture site with alcohol, using safety needles when available, and properly disposing of equipment in sharps bins and contaminated waste bins.

      To reduce the risk of harm to the patient, it is important to test for collateral circulation using the modified Allen test for radial artery puncture. Additionally, it is essential to inquire about any occlusive vascular conditions or anticoagulation therapy that may affect the procedure. The puncture site should be checked for signs of infection, injury, or previous surgery. After the test, pressure should be applied to the puncture site or the patient should be advised to apply pressure for at least 5 minutes to prevent bleeding.

      Interpreting ABG results requires a systematic approach. The core set of results obtained from a blood gas analyser includes the partial pressures of oxygen and carbon dioxide, pH, bicarbonate concentration, and base excess. These values are used to assess the patient’s acid-base status.

      The pH value indicates whether the patient is in acidosis, alkalosis, or within the normal range. A pH less than 7.35 indicates acidosis, while a pH greater than 7.45 indicates alkalosis.

      The respiratory system is assessed by looking at the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2). An elevated pCO2 contributes to acidosis, while a low pCO2 contributes to alkalosis.

      The metabolic aspect is assessed by looking at the bicarbonate (HCO3-) level and the base excess. A high bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate alkalosis, while a low bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate acidosis.

      Analyzing the pCO2 and base excess values can help determine the primary disturbance and whether compensation is occurring. For example, a respiratory acidosis (elevated pCO2) may be accompanied by metabolic alkalosis (elevated base excess) as a compensatory response.

      The anion gap is another important parameter that can help determine the cause of acidosis. It is calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate from the sum of sodium and potassium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Resus
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - A 32-year-old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of increasing lip...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of increasing lip swelling that began 30 minutes ago. Upon reviewing his medical history, you discover a previous diagnosis of hereditary angioedema (HAE) and that his primary care physician recently prescribed him a new medication. The following vital signs have been documented:

      Blood pressure: 122/78 mmHg
      Pulse rate: 88 bpm
      Respiration rate: 15
      Temperature: 37.4 oC

      Which class of drugs is specifically contraindicated in this condition?

      Your Answer: ACE inhibitors

      Explanation:

      ACE inhibitors should not be used in individuals with HAE because they can enhance the effects of bradykinin. This can lead to drug-induced angioedema, which is a known side effect of ACE inhibitors. In individuals with HAE, ACE inhibitors can trigger attacks of angioedema.

      Further Reading:

      Angioedema and urticaria are related conditions that involve swelling in different layers of tissue. Angioedema refers to swelling in the deeper layers of tissue, such as the lips and eyelids, while urticaria, also known as hives, refers to swelling in the epidermal skin layers, resulting in raised red areas of skin with itching. These conditions often coexist and may have a common underlying cause.

      Angioedema can be classified into allergic and non-allergic types. Allergic angioedema is the most common type and is usually triggered by an allergic reaction, such as to certain medications like penicillins and NSAIDs. Non-allergic angioedema has multiple subtypes and can be caused by factors such as certain medications, including ACE inhibitors, or underlying conditions like hereditary angioedema (HAE) or acquired angioedema.

      HAE is an autosomal dominant disease characterized by a deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor. It typically presents in childhood and can be inherited or acquired as a result of certain disorders like lymphoma or systemic lupus erythematosus. Acquired angioedema may have similar clinical features to HAE but is caused by acquired deficiencies of C1 esterase inhibitor due to autoimmune or lymphoproliferative disorders.

      The management of urticaria and allergic angioedema focuses on ensuring the airway remains open and addressing any identifiable triggers. In mild cases without airway compromise, patients may be advised that symptoms will resolve without treatment. Non-sedating antihistamines can be used for up to 6 weeks to relieve symptoms. Severe cases of urticaria may require systemic corticosteroids in addition to antihistamines. In moderate to severe attacks of allergic angioedema, intramuscular epinephrine may be considered.

      The management of HAE involves treating the underlying deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor. This can be done through the administration of C1 esterase inhibitor, bradykinin receptor antagonists, or fresh frozen plasma transfusion, which contains C1 inhibitor.

      In summary, angioedema and urticaria are related conditions involving swelling in different layers of tissue. They can coexist and may have a common underlying cause. Management involves addressing triggers, using antihistamines, and in severe cases, systemic corticosteroids or other specific treatments for HAE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy
      70.5
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - A 32-year-old woman comes to the emergency department after falling while drunk. She...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to the emergency department after falling while drunk. She has a 6.5 cm cut on the back of her head and says she feels a tingling sensation in the area of the cut. Which of the following structures provides sensory innervation to the back of the head?

      Your Answer: C2 and C3 cervical nerves

      Explanation:

      The main sensory supply to the back of the scalp comes from the C2 and C3 cervical nerves. The scalp receives innervation from branches of both the trigeminal nerve and the cervical nerves, as depicted in the illustration in the notes. The C2 and C3 cervical nerves are primarily responsible for supplying sensation to the posterior scalp.

      Further Reading:

      The scalp is the area of the head that is bordered by the face in the front and the neck on the sides and back. It consists of several layers, including the skin, connective tissue, aponeurosis, loose connective tissue, and periosteum of the skull. These layers provide protection and support to the underlying structures of the head.

      The blood supply to the scalp primarily comes from branches of the external carotid artery and the ophthalmic artery, which is a branch of the internal carotid artery. These arteries provide oxygen and nutrients to the scalp tissues.

      The scalp also has a complex venous drainage system, which is divided into superficial and deep networks. The superficial veins correspond to the arterial branches and are responsible for draining blood from the scalp. The deep venous network is drained by the pterygoid venous plexus.

      In terms of innervation, the scalp receives sensory input from branches of the trigeminal nerve and the cervical nerves. These nerves transmit sensory information from the scalp to the brain, allowing us to perceive touch, pain, and temperature in this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A 68 year old female visits the emergency department with complaints of lower...

    Correct

    • A 68 year old female visits the emergency department with complaints of lower abdominal pain and a strong urge to urinate but an inability to do so. Upon examination, the patient's bladder is easily palpable and a diagnosis of acute urinary retention is made. To determine if any medications may be contributing to the condition, you inquire about the patient's drug history. Which of the following drug classes is NOT known to cause urinary retention?

      Your Answer: 5α-reductase inhibitors

      Explanation:

      Urinary retention can be caused by various drug classes. One such class is 5α-reductase inhibitors like finasteride, which are prescribed to alleviate obstructive symptoms caused by an enlarged prostate. Some commonly known drugs that can lead to urinary retention include alcohol, anticholinergics, decongestants (such as phenylephrine and pseudoephedrine), disopyramide, antihistamines (like diphenhydramine and phenergan), and amphetamines.

      Further Reading:

      Urinary retention is the inability to completely or partially empty the bladder. It is commonly seen in elderly males with prostate enlargement and acute retention. Symptoms of acute urinary retention include the inability to void, inability to empty the bladder, overflow incontinence, and suprapubic discomfort. Chronic urinary retention, on the other hand, is typically painless but can lead to complications such as hydronephrosis and renal impairment.

      There are various causes of urinary retention, including anatomical factors such as urethral stricture, bladder neck contracture, and prostate enlargement. Functional causes can include neurogenic bladder, neurological diseases like multiple sclerosis and Parkinson’s, and spinal cord injury. Certain drugs can also contribute to urinary retention, such as anticholinergics, opioids, and tricyclic antidepressants. In female patients, specific causes like organ prolapse, pelvic mass, and gravid uterus should be considered.

      The pathophysiology of acute urinary retention can involve factors like increased resistance to flow, detrusor muscle dysfunction, bladder overdistension, and drugs that affect bladder tone. The primary management intervention for acute urinary retention is the insertion of a urinary catheter. If a catheter cannot be passed through the urethra, a suprapubic catheter can be inserted. Post-catheterization residual volume should be measured, and renal function should be assessed through U&Es and urine culture. Further evaluation and follow-up with a urologist are typically arranged, and additional tests like ultrasound may be performed if necessary. It is important to note that PSA testing is often deferred for at least two weeks after catheter insertion and female patients with retention should also be referred to urology for investigation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - A patient in their late 40s has sustained an injury to their right...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their late 40s has sustained an injury to their right upper limb and is now experiencing peripheral neuropathy as a result. During the examination, it is observed that their hand is clawed, with the metacarpophalangeal joints hyperextended and the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the little and ring fingers flexed. Additionally, there is a slight weakness in wrist flexion, which is accompanied by abduction. The patient also reports sensory loss over the anterior and posterior surfaces of the medial one and a half fingers, as well as the corresponding area of the palm.

      Which nerve has been affected in this case?

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve at the wrist

      Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve at the elbow

      Explanation:

      The ulnar nerve originates from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, specifically from the C8-T1 nerve roots. It may also carry fibers from C7 on occasion. This nerve has both motor and sensory functions.

      In terms of motor function, the ulnar nerve innervates the muscles of the hand, excluding the thenar muscles and the lateral two lumbricals (which are supplied by the median nerve). It also innervates two muscles in the anterior forearm: the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus.

      Regarding sensory function, the ulnar nerve provides innervation to the anterior and posterior surfaces of the medial one and a half fingers, as well as the associated palm and dorsal hand area. There are three sensory branches responsible for the cutaneous innervation of the ulnar nerve. Two of these branches arise in the forearm and travel into the hand: the palmar cutaneous branch, which innervates the skin of the medial half of the palm, and the dorsal cutaneous branch, which innervates the dorsal skin of the medial one and a half fingers and the associated dorsal hand. The third branch arises in the hand and is called the superficial branch, which innervates the palmar surface of the medial one and a half fingers.

      When the ulnar nerve is damaged at the elbow, the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus muscles in the anterior forearm will be spared. However, if the ulnar nerve is injured at the wrist, these muscles will be affected. Additionally, when the ulnar nerve is damaged at the elbow, flexion of the wrist can still occur due to the intact median nerve, but it will be accompanied by abduction as the flexor carpi ulnaris adducts the hand. On the other hand, wrist flexion will be unaffected when the ulnar nerve is damaged at the wrist.

      The sensory function also differs depending on the site of damage. When the ulnar nerve is damaged at the elbow, all three cutaneous branches will be affected, resulting in complete sensory loss in the areas innervated by the ulnar nerve. However, if the damage occurs at the wrist, the two branches that arise in the forearm may be spared.

      Damage to the ulnar nerve at either the elbow or wrist leads to a characteristic claw hand appearance, characterized by hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion of the distal and proximal interphalangeal joint of the little and ring fingers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      40.8
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - A 72 year old male is brought into the emergency department by his...

    Correct

    • A 72 year old male is brought into the emergency department by his wife with increasing fatigue, weakness and confusion over the past week. You note the patient takes metformin for type 2 diabetes mellitus. The patient's observations and initial tests are shown below:

      Blood pressure 96/60 mmHg
      Pulse 114 bpm
      Respiration rate 22 bpm
      Oxygen saturations 96% on air
      Na+ 147 mmol/l
      K+ 5.6 mmol/l
      Urea 21 mmol/l
      Creatinine 132 µmol/l
      Glucose 32 mmol/l
      pH 7.33
      Bicarbonate 19 mmol/l
      Ketones 2 mmol/l

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state

      Explanation:

      Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state (HHS) is a condition characterized by extremely high blood sugar levels, dehydration, and increased osmolality without significant ketosis. In this patient, the symptoms are consistent with HHS as they have high blood sugar levels without significant ketoacidosis (pH is above 7.3 and ketones are less than 3 mmol/L). Additionally, they show signs of dehydration with low blood pressure and a fast heart rate. The osmolality is calculated to be equal to or greater than 320 mosmol/kg, indicating increased concentration of solutes in the blood.

      Further Reading:

      Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state (HHS) is a syndrome that occurs in people with type 2 diabetes and is characterized by extremely high blood glucose levels, dehydration, and hyperosmolarity without significant ketosis. It can develop over days or weeks and has a mortality rate of 5-20%, which is higher than that of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). HHS is often precipitated by factors such as infection, inadequate diabetic treatment, physiological stress, or certain medications.

      Clinical features of HHS include polyuria, polydipsia, nausea, signs of dehydration (hypotension, tachycardia, poor skin turgor), lethargy, confusion, and weakness. Initial investigations for HHS include measuring capillary blood glucose, venous blood gas, urinalysis, and an ECG to assess for any potential complications such as myocardial infarction. Osmolality should also be calculated to monitor the severity of the condition.

      The management of HHS aims to correct dehydration, hyperglycaemia, hyperosmolarity, and electrolyte disturbances, as well as identify and treat any underlying causes. Intravenous 0.9% sodium chloride solution is the principal fluid used to restore circulating volume and reverse dehydration. If the osmolality does not decline despite adequate fluid balance, a switch to 0.45% sodium chloride solution may be considered. Care must be taken in correcting plasma sodium and osmolality to avoid complications such as cerebral edema and osmotic demyelination syndrome.

      The rate of fall of plasma sodium should not exceed 10 mmol/L in 24 hours, and the fall in blood glucose should be no more than 5 mmol/L per hour. Low-dose intravenous insulin may be initiated if the blood glucose is not falling with fluids alone or if there is significant ketonaemia. Potassium replacement should be guided by the potassium level, and the patient should be encouraged to drink as soon as it is safe to do so.

      Complications of treatment, such as fluid overload, cerebral edema, or central pontine myelinolysis, should be assessed for, and underlying precipitating factors should be identified and treated. Prophylactic anticoagulation is required in most patients, and all patients should be assumed to be at high risk of foot ulceration, necessitating appropriate foot protection and daily foot checks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - A 70-year-old diabetic woman presents with a history of a shadow passing across...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old diabetic woman presents with a history of a shadow passing across her left eye 'like a curtain being drawn'. For the two weeks before this occurring, she had experienced flashing lights and floaters in the periphery of her vision in the eye. The floaters were most prominent to the nasal side of her central vision in the left eye. She has a feeling of 'heaviness in the eye' but no eye pain. She normally wears glasses for myopia, and her visual acuity in the left has been reduced to counting fingers.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Retinal detachment

      Explanation:

      This patient has presented with a history consistent with retinal detachment preceded by posterior vitreous detachment.

      Posterior vitreous detachment occurs when the vitreous membrane separates from the retina. There are several risk factors for posterior vitreous detachment, including myopia, recent cataract surgery, diabetes mellitus, increasing age, and eye trauma.

      The main clinical features of posterior vitreous detachment include flashes of light (photopsia), increased numbers of floaters, a ring of floaters to the temporal side of central vision, and a feeling of heaviness in the eye. Another characteristic is Weiss’ ring, which is an irregular ring of translucent floating material in the vitreous.

      It is important to note that there is a small associated risk of retinal detachment in the 6-12 weeks following a posterior vitreous detachment. Retinal detachment can be distinguished from posterior vitreous detachment by the presence of a dense shadow in the periphery that spreads centrally, a curtain drawing across the eye, straight lines suddenly appearing curved (positive Amsler grid test), and central visual loss with decreased visual acuity.

      Given the patient’s presentation, an urgent referral to ophthalmology is necessary. In most cases of retinal detachment, surgical repair will be required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - You assess a 65-year-old woman with a history of progressively increasing shortness of...

    Correct

    • You assess a 65-year-old woman with a history of progressively increasing shortness of breath. As part of the patient's treatment plan, your supervisor requests that you carry out a pleural aspiration.
      Based on the BTS guidelines, what is one of the indications for performing a pleural aspiration?

      Your Answer: Unilateral exudative pleural effusion

      Explanation:

      A pleural effusion refers to an excess accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity, which is the space between the parietal and visceral pleura. Normally, this cavity contains a small amount of lubricating fluid, around 5-10 ml, that allows the pleurae to slide smoothly over each other. This fluid also creates surface tension, bringing the two membranes together and ensuring that as the thorax expands, the lungs expand and fill with air. However, when there is too much fluid in the pleural cavity, it hinders breathing by limiting lung expansion.

      Percutaneous pleural aspiration is commonly performed for two main reasons. Firstly, it is used to investigate pleural effusion, particularly when it is unilateral and exudative in nature. Secondly, it provides symptomatic relief for breathlessness caused by pleural effusion. However, the British Thoracic Society (BTS) guidelines recommend that pleural aspiration should not be carried out if there is suspicion of unilateral or bilateral transudative effusion, unless there are atypical features or failure of response to therapy. In urgent cases where respiratory distress is caused by pleural effusion, pleural aspiration can also be used to quickly decompress the pleural space.

      During the procedure, the patient is typically seated upright with a pillow supporting their arms and head. It is important for the patient not to lean too far forward, as this increases the risk of injury to the liver and spleen. The conventional site for aspiration is in the mid-scapular line, about 10 cm lateral to the spine, and one or two spaces below the upper level of the fluid. To avoid damaging the intercostal nerves and vessels that run just below the rib, the needle should be inserted just above the upper border of the chosen rib.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - A 35-year-old woman comes in with a painful, red right eye. She has...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in with a painful, red right eye. She has a history of ankylosing spondylitis (AS).

      What is the MOST frequently occurring eye complication associated with AS?

      Your Answer: Uveitis

      Explanation:

      Uveitis is the most prevalent eye complication that arises in individuals with ankylosing spondylitis (AS). Approximately one out of every three patients with AS will experience uveitis at some stage. The symptoms of uveitis include a red and painful eye, along with photophobia and blurred vision. Additionally, patients may notice the presence of floaters. The primary treatment for uveitis involves the use of corticosteroids, and it is crucial for patients to seek immediate attention from an ophthalmologist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - A concerned parent brings his 10-month-old son to the Emergency Department. He was...

    Incorrect

    • A concerned parent brings his 10-month-old son to the Emergency Department. He was previously healthy, but suddenly began vomiting this morning, and the father mentions that the last vomit was a vivid shade of green. The baby has been crying uncontrollably for periods of 15-20 minutes and then calming down in between. Upon examination, the child appears slightly pale, and there is no detectable bowel in the lower right quadrant.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pyloric stenosis

      Correct Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      Intussusception occurs when a section of the bowel folds into another section, causing a blockage. This can be due to a specific underlying issue, like a Meckel’s diverticulum, or it can happen without any specific cause. The condition is most commonly seen in boys between the ages of 5 and 10 months. Symptoms include sudden vomiting and episodes of abdominal pain that come and go. The vomit quickly becomes greenish-yellow in color. Dance’s sign, which is the absence of bowel in the lower right part of the abdomen, may be observed. Redcurrant jelly-like stools are a late indication of the condition. It is believed that more than 90% of cases are caused by a non-specific underlying issue, often viral infections like rotavirus, adenovirus, and human herpesvirus 6.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - A 42-year-old woman with a long history of anxiety presents having taken a...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman with a long history of anxiety presents having taken a deliberate overdose of the pills she takes for insomnia. She informs you that the pill she takes for this condition is zolpidem 10 mg. She consumed the pills approximately 2 hours ago. She is currently experiencing tachycardia, with her most recent heart rate reading being 120 beats per minute. She weighs 65 kg. You administer a dose of propranolol, but there is no improvement in her condition.
      Which of the following treatments could now be given to support her cardiovascular system?

      Your Answer: Magnesium sulphate

      Correct Answer: High dose insulin – euglycaemic therapy

      Explanation:

      Calcium-channel blocker overdose is a serious condition that can be life-threatening. The most dangerous types of calcium channel blockers in overdose are verapamil and diltiazem. These medications work by binding to the alpha-1 subunit of L-type calcium channels, which prevents the entry of calcium into cells. These channels are important for the functioning of cardiac myocytes, vascular smooth muscle cells, and islet beta-cells.

      When managing a patient with calcium-channel blocker overdose, it is crucial to follow the standard ABC approach for resuscitation. If there is a risk of life-threatening toxicity, early intubation and ventilation should be considered. Invasive blood pressure monitoring is also necessary if hypotension and shock are developing.

      The specific treatments for calcium-channel blocker overdose primarily focus on supporting the cardiovascular system. These treatments include:

      1. Fluid resuscitation: Administer up to 20 mL/kg of crystalloid solution.

      2. Calcium administration: This can temporarily increase blood pressure and heart rate. Options include 10% calcium gluconate (60 mL IV) or 10% calcium chloride (20 mL IV) via central venous access. Repeat boluses can be given up to three times, and a calcium infusion may be necessary to maintain serum calcium levels above 2.0 mEq/L.

      3. Atropine: Consider administering 0.6 mg every 2 minutes, up to a total of 1.8 mg. However, atropine is often ineffective in these cases.

      4. High dose insulin – euglycemic therapy (HIET): The use of HIET in managing cardiovascular toxicity has evolved. It used to be a last-resort measure, but early administration is now increasingly recommended. This involves giving a bolus of short-acting insulin (1 U/kg) and 50 mL of 50% glucose IV (unless there is marked hyperglycemia). Therapy should be continued with a short-acting insulin/dextrose infusion. Glucose levels should be monitored frequently, and potassium should be replaced if levels drop below 2.5 mmol/L.

      5. Vasoactive infusions: Catecholamines such as dopamine, adrenaline, and/or noradrenaline can be titrated to achieve the desired inotropic and chronotropic effects.

      6. Sodium bicarbonate: Consider using sodium bicarbonate in cases where a severe metabolic acidosis develops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - A 58-year-old woman presents with abrupt intense chest discomfort that extends to her...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman presents with abrupt intense chest discomfort that extends to her back. She is perspiring and experiencing nausea. During the examination, her blood pressure measures 176/96 in her right arm and 143/78 in her left arm. An early diastolic murmur is audible upon auscultation.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aortic dissection

      Explanation:

      Acute aortic dissection is characterized by the rapid formation of a false, blood-filled channel within the middle layer of the aorta. It is estimated to occur in 3 out of every 100,000 individuals per year.

      Patients with aortic dissection typically experience intense chest pain that spreads to the area between the shoulder blades. The pain is often described as tearing or ripping and may also extend to the neck. Sweating, paleness, and rapid heartbeat are commonly observed at the time of presentation. Other possible symptoms include focal neurological deficits, weak pulses, fainting, and reduced blood flow to organs.

      A significant difference in blood pressure between the arms, greater than 20 mmHg, is a highly sensitive indicator. If the dissection extends backward, it can involve the aortic valve, leading to the early diastolic murmur of aortic regurgitation.

      Risk factors for aortic dissection include hypertension, atherosclerosis, aortic coarctation, the use of sympathomimetic drugs like cocaine, Marfan syndrome, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, Turner’s syndrome, tertiary syphilis, and pre-existing aortic aneurysm.

      Aortic dissection can be classified according to the Stanford classification system:
      – Type A affects the ascending aorta and the arch, accounting for 60% of cases. These cases are typically managed surgically and may result in the blockage of coronary arteries and aortic regurgitation.
      – Type B begins distal to the left subclavian artery and accounts for approximately 40% of cases. These cases are usually managed with medication to control blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - A 2-year-old girl is brought in by her father with a reported high...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old girl is brought in by her father with a reported high temperature at home. The triage nurse measures her temperature again as part of her initial assessment.
      Which of the following is suggested by NICE as being an acceptable method of measuring body temperature in this age group?

      Your Answer: Infra-red tympanic thermometer

      Explanation:

      In infants who are less than 4 weeks old, it is recommended to measure their body temperature using an electronic thermometer placed in the armpit.

      For children between the ages of 4 weeks and 5 years, there are several methods that can be used to measure body temperature. These include using an electronic thermometer in the armpit, a chemical dot thermometer in the armpit, or an infra-red tympanic thermometer.

      It is important to note that measuring temperature orally or rectally should be avoided in this age group. Additionally, forehead chemical thermometers are not reliable and should not be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - A 21 year old male presents to the emergency department with a 3...

    Correct

    • A 21 year old male presents to the emergency department with a 3 day history of a sore throat and fever. The patient denies having a cough. On examination, the patient's temperature is 37.9°C, blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, and pulse rate is 90 bpm. There is visible white exudate on both tonsils, which are severely inflamed, and tenderness on palpation of the lymph nodes around the sternocleidomastoid muscles bilaterally.

      What is this patient's FeverPAIN score?

      Your Answer: 4

      Explanation:

      The FeverPAIN score is a clinical scoring system that helps determine the likelihood of a streptococcal infection and whether antibiotic treatment is necessary. It consists of several criteria that are assessed to assign a score.

      Firstly, if the patient has a fever higher than 38°C, they score 0 or 1 depending on the presence or absence of this symptom.

      Secondly, the presence of purulence, such as pharyngeal or tonsillar exudate, results in a score of 1.

      Thirdly, if the patient sought medical attention within 3 days or less, they score 1.

      Fourthly, if the patient has severely inflamed tonsils, they score 1.

      Lastly, if the patient does not have a cough or coryza (nasal congestion), they score 1.

      By adding up the scores from each criterion, the FeverPAIN score can help healthcare professionals determine the likelihood of a streptococcal infection and guide the decision on whether antibiotic treatment is necessary. In this particular case, the patient has a score of 4.

      Further Reading:

      Pharyngitis and tonsillitis are common conditions that cause inflammation in the throat. Pharyngitis refers to inflammation of the oropharynx, which is located behind the soft palate, while tonsillitis refers to inflammation of the tonsils. These conditions can be caused by a variety of pathogens, including viruses and bacteria. The most common viral causes include rhinovirus, coronavirus, parainfluenza virus, influenza types A and B, adenovirus, herpes simplex virus type 1, and Epstein Barr virus. The most common bacterial cause is Streptococcus pyogenes, also known as Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus (GABHS). Other bacterial causes include Group C and G beta-hemolytic streptococci and Fusobacterium necrophorum.

      Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus is the most concerning pathogen as it can lead to serious complications such as rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis. These complications can occur due to an autoimmune reaction triggered by antigen/antibody complex formation or from cell damage caused by bacterial exotoxins.

      When assessing a patient with a sore throat, the clinician should inquire about the duration and severity of the illness, as well as associated symptoms such as fever, malaise, headache, and joint pain. It is important to identify any red flags and determine if the patient is immunocompromised. Previous non-suppurative complications of Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus infection should also be considered, as there is an increased risk of further complications with subsequent infections.

      Red flags that may indicate a more serious condition include severe pain, neck stiffness, or difficulty swallowing. These symptoms may suggest epiglottitis or a retropharyngeal abscess, which require immediate attention.

      To determine the likelihood of a streptococcal infection and the need for antibiotic treatment, two scoring systems can be used: CENTOR and FeverPAIN. The CENTOR criteria include tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy or lymphadenitis, history of fever, and absence of cough. The FeverPAIN criteria include fever, purulence, rapid onset of symptoms, severely inflamed tonsils, and absence of cough or coryza. Based on the scores from these criteria, the likelihood of a streptococcal infection can be estimated, and appropriate management can be undertaken. can

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of palpitations. During an ECG,...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of palpitations. During an ECG, it is found that she has newly developed QT prolongation. She mentions that her doctor recently prescribed her a new medication and wonders if that could be the reason.
      Which of the following medications is most likely to cause QT interval prolongation?

      Your Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      Prolongation of the QT interval can lead to a dangerous ventricular arrhythmia called torsades de pointes, which can result in sudden cardiac death. There are several commonly used medications that are known to cause QT prolongation.

      Low levels of potassium (hypokalaemia) and magnesium (hypomagnesaemia) can increase the risk of QT prolongation. For example, diuretics can interact with QT-prolonging drugs by causing hypokalaemia.

      The QT interval varies with heart rate, and formulas are used to correct the QT interval for heart rate. Once corrected, it is referred to as the QTc interval. The QTc interval is typically reported on the ECG printout. A normal QTc interval is less than 440 ms.

      If the QTc interval is greater than 440 ms but less than 500 ms, it is considered borderline. Although there may be some variation in the literature, a QTc interval within these values is generally considered borderline prolonged. In such cases, it is important to consider reducing the dose of QT-prolonging drugs or switching to an alternative medication that does not prolong the QT interval.

      A prolonged QTc interval exceeding 500 ms is clinically significant and is likely to increase the risk of arrhythmia. Any medications that prolong the QT interval should be reviewed immediately.

      Here are some commonly encountered drugs that are known to prolong the QT interval:

      Antimicrobials:
      – Erythromycin
      – Clarithromycin
      – Moxifloxacin
      – Fluconazole
      – Ketoconazole

      Antiarrhythmics:
      – Dronedarone
      – Sotalol
      – Quinidine
      – Amiodarone
      – Flecainide

      Antipsychotics:
      – Risperidone
      – Fluphenazine
      – Haloperidol
      – Pimozide
      – Chlorpromazine
      – Quetiapine
      – Clozapine

      Antidepressants:
      – Citalopram/escitalopram
      – Amitriptyline
      – Clomipramine
      – Dosulepin
      – Doxepin
      – Imipramine
      – Lofepramine

      Antiemetics:
      – Domperidone
      – Droperidol
      – Ondansetron/Granisetron

      Others:
      – Methadone
      – Protein kinase inhibitors (e.g. sunitinib)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - A 60-year-old individual comes in with symptoms of nausea, confusion, and decreased urine...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old individual comes in with symptoms of nausea, confusion, and decreased urine output. After conducting renal function tests and other examinations, the doctor determines that the patient has acute kidney injury (AKI).
      What findings align with a diagnosis of AKI?

      Your Answer: A 2 fold rise in serum creatinine from baseline over the preceding month

      Correct Answer: A fall in urine output to less than 0.5 mL/kg/hour for more than 6 hours

      Explanation:

      Acute kidney injury (AKI), previously known as acute renal failure, is a sudden decline in kidney function that leads to the accumulation of waste products and disturbances in fluid and electrolyte balance. This can occur in individuals with previously normal kidney function or those with pre-existing kidney disease (acute-on-chronic kidney disease). AKI is relatively common, affecting approximately 15% of adults admitted to hospitals in the UK.

      The clinical presentation of AKI varies depending on the underlying cause and the severity of the condition. Typically, patients experience reduced urine output (oliguria or anuria) along with an increase in serum creatinine levels. AKI is diagnosed when at least one of the following criteria is met: a rise in serum creatinine of 26 μmol/L or more within 48 hours, a 50% or greater increase in serum creatinine (1.5 times the baseline) within the previous seven days, or a decrease in urine output to less than 0.5 mL/kg/hour for more than six hours.

      Common symptoms of AKI include reduced urine output, which is usually oliguria or anuria. However, polyuria can also occur due to impaired fluid reabsorption by damaged renal tubules or the osmotic effect of accumulated metabolites. Abrupt anuria may indicate an acute obstruction, severe glomerulonephritis, or renal artery occlusion, while a gradual decrease in urine output may suggest a urethral stricture or bladder outlet obstruction, such as benign prostatic hyperplasia. Other symptoms may include nausea, vomiting, dehydration, and confusion.

      Signs of AKI can include hypertension, a palpable bladder if urinary retention is present, dehydration with postural hypotension and no swelling, or fluid overload with elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP), pulmonary edema, and peripheral edema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - A 36 year old male comes to the emergency department complaining of increased...

    Incorrect

    • A 36 year old male comes to the emergency department complaining of increased thirst and frequent urination. During the assessment, you order blood and urine samples to measure osmolality. The results reveal an elevated plasma osmolality of 320 mOSm/Kg and a decreased urine osmolality of 198 mOSm/Kg. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH)

      Correct Answer: Diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      Diabetes insipidus (DI) is characterized by specific biochemical markers. One of these markers is a low urine osmolality, meaning that the concentration of solutes in the urine is lower than normal. In contrast, the serum osmolality, which measures the concentration of solutes in the blood, is high in individuals with DI. This combination of low urine osmolality and high serum osmolality is indicative of DI. Other common biochemical disturbances associated with DI include elevated plasma osmolality, polyuria (excessive urine production), and hypernatremia (high sodium levels in the blood). However, it is important to note that sodium levels can sometimes be within the normal range in individuals with DI. It is worth mentioning that conditions such as Addison’s disease, syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), and primary polydipsia are associated with low serum osmolality and hyponatremia. Additionally, the use of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) can also lead to hyponatremia as a side effect.

      Further Reading:

      Diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition characterized by either a decrease in the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (cranial DI) or insensitivity to antidiuretic hormone (nephrogenic DI). Antidiuretic hormone, also known as arginine vasopressin, is produced in the hypothalamus and released from the posterior pituitary. The typical biochemical disturbances seen in DI include elevated plasma osmolality, low urine osmolality, polyuria, and hypernatraemia.

      Cranial DI can be caused by various factors such as head injury, CNS infections, pituitary tumors, and pituitary surgery. Nephrogenic DI, on the other hand, can be genetic or result from electrolyte disturbances or the use of certain drugs. Symptoms of DI include polyuria, polydipsia, nocturia, signs of dehydration, and in children, irritability, failure to thrive, and fatigue.

      To diagnose DI, a 24-hour urine collection is done to confirm polyuria, and U&Es will typically show hypernatraemia. High plasma osmolality with low urine osmolality is also observed. Imaging studies such as MRI of the pituitary, hypothalamus, and surrounding tissues may be done, as well as a fluid deprivation test to evaluate the response to desmopressin.

      Management of cranial DI involves supplementation with desmopressin, a synthetic form of arginine vasopressin. However, hyponatraemia is a common side effect that needs to be monitored. In nephrogenic DI, desmopressin supplementation is usually not effective, and management focuses on ensuring adequate fluid intake to offset water loss and monitoring electrolyte levels. Causative drugs need to be stopped, and there is a risk of developing complications such as hydroureteronephrosis and an overdistended bladder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A 65-year-old patient presents with dysuria, fevers, rigors, and left-sided loin pain. On...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient presents with dysuria, fevers, rigors, and left-sided loin pain. On examination, there is tenderness over his left renal angle and he has a temperature of 38.6°C. You suspect the most likely diagnosis is pyelonephritis.
      Which of the following is not a reason to consider hospital admission in a patient with pyelonephritis?

      Your Answer: Failure to improve significantly within 12 hours of starting antibiotics

      Explanation:

      This patient is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with a diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis. Additionally, they are showing signs of sepsis, which indicates a more serious illness or condition. Therefore, it would be advisable to admit the patient for inpatient treatment.

      According to the recommendations from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), patients with pyelonephritis should be admitted if it is severe or if they exhibit any signs or symptoms that suggest a more serious condition, such as sepsis. Signs of sepsis include significant tachycardia, hypotension, or breathlessness, as well as marked signs of illness like impaired level of consciousness, profuse sweating, rigors, pallor, or significantly reduced mobility. A temperature greater than 38°C or less than 36°C is also indicative of sepsis.

      NICE also advises considering referral or seeking specialist advice for individuals with acute pyelonephritis if they are significantly dehydrated or unable to take oral fluids and medicines, if they are pregnant, if they have a higher risk of developing complications due to known or suspected abnormalities of the genitourinary tract or underlying diseases like diabetes mellitus or immunosuppression, or if they have recurrent episodes of urinary tract infections (UTIs).

      For non-pregnant women and men, the recommended choice of antibacterial therapy is as follows: oral first-line options include cefalexin, ciprofloxacin, or co-amoxiclav (taking into account local microbial resistance data), and trimethoprim if sensitivity is known. Intravenous first-line options are amikacin, ceftriaxone, cefuroxime, ciprofloxacin, or gentamicin if the patient is severely unwell or unable to take oral treatment. Co-amoxiclav may be used if given in combination or if sensitivity is known. Antibacterials may be combined if there are concerns about susceptibility or sepsis. For intravenous second-line options, it is recommended to consult a local microbiologist.

      For pregnant women, the recommended choice of antibacterial therapy is cefalexin for oral first-line treatment. If the patient is severely unwell or unable to take oral treatment, cefuroxime is the recommended intravenous first-line option. If there are concerns about susceptibility or sepsis, it is advised to consult a local microbiologist for intravenous second-line

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - A middle-aged man is brought in by ambulance, having collapsed. There is currently...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged man is brought in by ambulance, having collapsed. There is currently a summer heatwave, and he has a suspected diagnosis of heat stroke.

      Which of the following statements regarding heat stroke is true?

      Your Answer: Diazepam can be helpful in patients with agitation and/or shivering

      Explanation:

      Heat stroke is a condition characterized by a systemic inflammatory response, where the core body temperature exceeds 40.6°C. It is accompanied by changes in mental state and varying levels of organ dysfunction. Heat stroke occurs when the body’s ability to regulate temperature is overwhelmed by a combination of excessive environmental heat, excessive heat production from metabolic processes (usually due to exertion), and inadequate heat loss.

      It is important to consider other clinical conditions that can cause an increased core temperature. Sepsis can present similarly and should be ruled out. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome should be excluded in patients taking phenothiazines or other antipsychotics. Serotonin syndrome should be excluded in patients taking serotonergic medications such as SSRIs. Malignant hyperthermia should be considered in patients with a recent history of general anesthesia. Screening for recreational drug use, particularly cocaine, amphetamines, and ecstasy, is also recommended.

      In patients with agitation and/or shivering, benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam) can be beneficial. They help reduce excessive heat production and agitation. In severe cases of agitation, paralysis may be necessary. Dantrolene is commonly used, although there is currently limited high-level evidence supporting its use. Neuroleptics, such as chlorpromazine, which were once commonly used, should be avoided due to potential adverse effects.

      Various cooling techniques are recommended, but there is currently insufficient evidence to determine the best approach. Simple measures like cold drinks, fanning, ice water packs, and spraying tepid water can be effective. Cold water immersion therapy may be helpful, but it requires patient stability and cooperation and may not be practical for critically ill patients. Advanced cooling techniques, such as cold IV fluids, surface cooling devices (SCD), intravascular cooling devices (ICD), and extracorporeal circuits, may be used for sicker patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - A 21 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her...

    Correct

    • A 21 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her parents and admits to ingesting 36 paracetamol tablets. You determine that the patient fulfills the requirements for receiving activated charcoal. What would be the appropriate dosage to administer?

      Your Answer: 50 g

      Explanation:

      The recommended dose of activated charcoal for adults and children aged 12 or over to prevent the absorption of poisons in the gastrointestinal tract is 50g.

      Further Reading:

      Paracetamol poisoning occurs when the liver is unable to metabolize paracetamol properly, leading to the production of a toxic metabolite called N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI). Normally, NAPQI is conjugated by glutathione into a non-toxic form. However, during an overdose, the liver’s conjugation systems become overwhelmed, resulting in increased production of NAPQI and depletion of glutathione stores. This leads to the formation of covalent bonds between NAPQI and cell proteins, causing cell death in the liver and kidneys.

      Symptoms of paracetamol poisoning may not appear for the first 24 hours or may include abdominal symptoms such as nausea and vomiting. After 24 hours, hepatic necrosis may develop, leading to elevated liver enzymes, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. Other complications can include encephalopathy, oliguria, hypoglycemia, renal failure, and lactic acidosis.

      The management of paracetamol overdose depends on the timing and amount of ingestion. Activated charcoal may be given if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingesting a significant amount of paracetamol. N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is used to increase hepatic glutathione production and is given to patients who meet specific criteria. Blood tests are taken to assess paracetamol levels, liver function, and other parameters. Referral to a medical or liver unit may be necessary, and psychiatric follow-up should be considered for deliberate overdoses.

      In cases of staggered ingestion, all patients should be treated with NAC without delay. Blood tests are also taken, and if certain criteria are met, NAC can be discontinued. Adverse reactions to NAC are common and may include anaphylactoid reactions, rash, hypotension, and nausea. Treatment for adverse reactions involves medications such as chlorpheniramine and salbutamol, and the infusion may be stopped if necessary.

      The prognosis for paracetamol poisoning can be poor, especially in cases of severe liver injury. Fulminant liver failure may occur, and liver transplant may be necessary. Poor prognostic indicators include low arterial pH, prolonged prothrombin time, high plasma creatinine, and hepatic encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - A 65-year-old patient with advanced metastatic lung cancer is experiencing discomfort in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient with advanced metastatic lung cancer is experiencing discomfort in his limbs and chest. He is started on regular maintenance treatment with potent opioids for his pain.
      According to NICE, what is the recommended initial rescue medication for breakthrough pain?

      Your Answer: Oral sustained-release morphine

      Correct Answer: Oral immediate-release morphine

      Explanation:

      When starting treatment with strong opioids for pain relief in palliative care, it is recommended to offer patients regular oral sustained-release or oral immediate-release morphine, depending on their preference. In addition, provide rescue doses of oral immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. For patients without renal or hepatic comorbidities, a typical total daily starting dose schedule of 20-30 mg of oral morphine is suggested, along with 5 mg of oral immediate-release morphine for rescue doses during the titration phase. It is important to adjust the dose until a good balance is achieved between pain control and side effects. If this balance is not reached after a few dose adjustments, it is advisable to seek specialist advice. Patients should be reviewed frequently, especially during the titration phase. For patients with moderate to severe renal or hepatic impairment, it is recommended to consult a specialist before prescribing strong opioids.

      For maintenance therapy, oral sustained-release morphine is recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with advanced and progressive disease who require strong opioids. Transdermal patch formulations should not be routinely offered as first-line maintenance treatment unless oral opioids are not suitable. If pain remains inadequately controlled despite optimizing first-line maintenance treatment, it is important to review the analgesic strategy and consider seeking specialist advice.

      When it comes to breakthrough pain, oral immediate-release morphine should be offered as the first-line rescue medication for patients on maintenance oral morphine treatment. Fast-acting fentanyl should not be offered as the first-line rescue medication. If pain continues to be inadequately controlled despite optimizing treatment, it may be necessary to seek specialist advice.

      In cases where oral opioids are not suitable and analgesic requirements are stable, transdermal patches with the lowest acquisition cost can be considered. However, it is important to consult a specialist for guidance if needed. Similarly, for patients in whom oral opioids are not suitable and analgesic requirements are unstable, subcutaneous opioids with the lowest acquisition cost can be considered, with specialist advice if necessary.

      For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary: Opioids for pain relief in palliative care. https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/cg140

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative & End Of Life Care
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - A 72-year-old man has been experiencing a worsening of his arthritis symptoms lately....

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man has been experiencing a worsening of his arthritis symptoms lately. His knees have been especially painful, and he has been using a hot water bottle in the evenings for relief. Upon examination, you observe pigmented areas with some redness on both of his knees.
      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Erythema ab igne

      Explanation:

      Erythema ab igne is a condition that is frequently observed in older individuals. It typically occurs when they spend extended periods of time near a fire or utilize a hot water bottle in an attempt to relieve pain symptoms. This condition arises due to the harmful effects of heat on the skin, resulting in the appearance of reddened and pigmented areas. Fortunately, erythema ab igne tends to resolve on its own without any specific treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - You are asked to evaluate a 7-year-old boy who has arrived at the...

    Correct

    • You are asked to evaluate a 7-year-old boy who has arrived at the emergency department with a widespread maculopapular rash. The patient and his family have recently returned from a trip to Mexico. The mother is uncertain about the vaccinations the patient has received, and you have no access to medical records as the family relocated to the US from Mexico 8 months ago and have not yet registered with a primary care physician. You suspect Measles. What guidance should you provide to the patient's mother regarding school attendance?

      Your Answer: Exclude for 5 days from onset of rash

      Explanation:

      Children who have been diagnosed with Rubella, also known as German measles, should be advised to stay away from school for a period of 5 days from the onset of the rash. It is important to be familiar with the guidelines for excluding children from school due to infectious diseases that present with a rash.

      Further Reading:

      Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection caused by the togavirus. It used to be more common before the introduction of the MMR vaccine, but now it is rare. Outbreaks of rubella are more common during the winter and spring seasons. The incubation period for rubella is 14-21 days, and individuals are infectious from 7 days before symptoms appear to 4-5 days after the onset of the rash.

      The features of rubella include a prodrome, which may include symptoms such as low-grade fever. The rash associated with rubella is maculopapular and initially appears on the face before spreading to the whole body. The rash usually fades by the 3-5 day. Lymphadenopathy, specifically suboccipital and postauricular, is also commonly seen in rubella cases.

      Complications of rubella can include arthritis, thrombocytopenia, encephalitis, and myocarditis. However, these complications are rare. Rubella can be particularly dangerous if contracted during pregnancy, as it can lead to congenital rubella syndrome. The risk of fetal damage is highest during the first 8-10 weeks of pregnancy, with a risk as high as 90%. Fetal damage is rare after 16 weeks. Congenital rubella syndrome can result in various complications such as sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease, growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, and cerebral palsy.

      Diagnosis of rubella can be made by testing for raised IgM antibodies in women who have recently been exposed to the virus. Serological or PCR testing is the gold standard investigation for rubella. A testing kit can be obtained from the Local Health Protection Unit (HPU).

      There is no specific treatment for rubella. Antipyretics can be used to manage fever. It is advised to exclude individuals with rubella from school for 5 days from the onset of the rash. Infection during pregnancy should prompt referral to obstetrics. Rubella is a notifiable disease, meaning that it requires notification of the local authority or UKHSA health protection team.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - A child with a known history of latex allergy arrives at the Emergency...

    Correct

    • A child with a known history of latex allergy arrives at the Emergency Department with a severe allergic reaction caused by accidental exposure.
      Which of the following fruits is this child MOST likely to have an allergy to as well?

      Your Answer: Banana

      Explanation:

      The connection between latex sensitivity and food allergy is commonly known as the latex-fruit syndrome. Foods that have been found to be allergenic in relation to latex are categorized into high, moderate, or low risk groups.

      High risk foods include banana, avocado, chestnut, and kiwi fruit.

      Moderate risk foods include apple, carrot, celery, melon, papaya, potato, and tomato.

      Citrus fruits and pears are considered to have a low risk of causing allergic reactions in individuals with latex sensitivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - A 45-year-old man comes in with a high temperature, shivering, aching head, cough,...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man comes in with a high temperature, shivering, aching head, cough, and difficulty breathing. He also complains of a sore throat and occasional nosebleeds. He works at a nearby zoo in the birdhouse. During the examination, a red rash is noticed on his face, along with significant crackling sounds in both lower lobes of his lungs and an enlarged spleen.
      What is the BEST antibiotic to prescribe for this patient?

      Your Answer: Clarithromycin

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Psittacosis is a type of infection that can be transmitted from animals to humans, known as a zoonotic infection. It is caused by a bacterium called Chlamydia psittaci. This infection is most commonly seen in people who own domestic birds, but it can also affect those who work in pet shops or zoos.

      The typical presentation of psittacosis includes symptoms similar to those of pneumonia that is acquired within the community. People may experience flu-like symptoms along with severe headaches and sensitivity to light. In about two-thirds of patients, an enlargement of the spleen, known as splenomegaly, can be observed.

      Infected individuals often develop a reddish rash with flat spots on their face, known as Horder’s spots. Additionally, they may experience skin conditions such as erythema nodosum or erythema multiforme.

      The recommended treatment for psittacosis is a course of tetracycline or doxycycline, which should be taken for a period of 2-3 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - A 3-year-old boy is brought in by his father with a red and...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old boy is brought in by his father with a red and painful right eye. On examination, you note the presence of conjunctival erythema. There is also mucopurulent discharge and lid crusting evident in the eye. You make a diagnosis of bacterial conjunctivitis.
      With reference to the current NICE guidance, which of the following should NOT be included in your management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Give written patient information and explain red flags for an urgent review

      Correct Answer: Topical antibiotics should be prescribed routinely

      Explanation:

      Here is a revised version of the guidance on the management of bacterial conjunctivitis:

      – It is important to inform the patient that most cases of bacterial conjunctivitis will resolve on their own within 5-7 days without any treatment.
      – However, if the condition is severe or if there is a need for rapid resolution, topical antibiotics may be prescribed. In some cases, a delayed treatment strategy may be appropriate, and the patient should be advised to start using topical antibiotics if their symptoms have not improved within 3 days.
      – There are several options for topical antibiotics, including Chloramphenicol 0.5% drops (to be applied every 2 hours for 2 days, then 4 times daily for 5 days) and Chloramphenicol 1% ointment (to be applied four times daily for 2 days, then twice daily for 5 days). Fusidic acid 1% eye drops can also be used as a second-line treatment, to be applied twice daily for 7 days.
      – It is important to note that there is no recommended exclusion period from school, nursery, or childminders for isolated cases of bacterial conjunctivitis. However, some institutions may have their own exclusion policies.
      – Provide the patient with written information and explain the red flags that indicate the need for an urgent review.
      – Arrange a follow-up appointment to confirm the diagnosis and ensure that the symptoms have resolved.
      – If the patient returns with ongoing symptoms, it may be necessary to send swabs for viral PCR (to test for adenovirus and Herpes simplex) and bacterial culture. Empirical topical antibiotics may also be prescribed if they have not been previously given.
      – Consider referring the patient to ophthalmology if the symptoms persist for more than 7 to 10 days after initiating treatment.

      For more information, you can refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on Infective Conjunctivitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - You are asked to evaluate a 62-year-old patient who has come in with...

    Correct

    • You are asked to evaluate a 62-year-old patient who has come in with complaints of chest discomfort. The nurse has handed you the ECG report, which states 'unspecified age septal infarction' in the comments section.

      Which leads would you anticipate observing ST elevation in an acute septal STEMI?

      Your Answer: V1, V2

      Explanation:

      The septum, which is a part of the heart, can be best identified by examining leads V1 and V2. The septum receives its blood supply from the proximal left anterior descending artery (LAD). The LAD is responsible for supplying blood to the anterior myocardium and also contributes to the blood supply of the lateral myocardium. If the LAD becomes blocked, it can result in ST elevation in all the chest leads.

      Further Reading:

      Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that involve the sudden reduction or blockage of blood flow to the heart. This can lead to a heart attack or unstable angina. ACS includes ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina (UA).

      The development of ACS is usually seen in patients who already have underlying coronary heart disease. This disease is characterized by the buildup of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries, which can gradually narrow the arteries and reduce blood flow to the heart. This can cause chest pain, known as angina, during physical exertion. In some cases, the fatty plaques can rupture, leading to a complete blockage of the artery and a heart attack.

      There are both non modifiable and modifiable risk factors for ACS. non modifiable risk factors include increasing age, male gender, and family history. Modifiable risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and obesity.

      The symptoms of ACS typically include chest pain, which is often described as a heavy or constricting sensation in the central or left side of the chest. The pain may also radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms can include shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea/vomiting. However, it’s important to note that some patients, especially diabetics or the elderly, may not experience chest pain.

      The diagnosis of ACS is typically made based on the patient’s history, electrocardiogram (ECG), and blood tests for cardiac enzymes, specifically troponin. The ECG can show changes consistent with a heart attack, such as ST segment elevation or depression, T wave inversion, or the presence of a new left bundle branch block. Elevated troponin levels confirm the diagnosis of a heart attack.

      The management of ACS depends on the specific condition and the patient’s risk factors. For STEMI, immediate coronary reperfusion therapy, either through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolysis, is recommended. In addition to aspirin, a second antiplatelet agent is usually given. For NSTEMI or unstable angina, the treatment approach may involve reperfusion therapy or medical management, depending on the patient’s risk of future cardiovascular events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension arrived at the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension arrived at the emergency department with a sudden and severe occipital headache accompanied by vomiting and neck stiffness. There is no reported head injury. Upon clinical examination, the patient has a temperature of 37ºC, a respiratory rate of 18 per minute, a pulse of 88 beats per minute, and a blood pressure of 160/100. The physician observes a lateral and inferior deviation of the left eye with a dilated pupil and drooping of the left upper eyelid.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bell’s palsy

      Correct Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is a subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH).

      When assessing patients who present with an SAH, they may exhibit focal neurological signs, which can indicate the potential location of the aneurysm. Common areas where aneurysms occur include the bifurcation of the middle cerebral artery, the junction of the anterior communicating cerebral artery, and the junction of the posterior communicating artery with the internal carotid artery. If there is complete or partial paralysis of the oculomotor nerve, it suggests the rupture of a posterior communicating artery aneurysm.

      While hypertension is a risk factor for SAH, a significant increase in blood pressure may occur as a reflex response following the haemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - A 25 year old female presents to the emergency department with a sore...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old female presents to the emergency department with a sore throat, fever, altered voice, and difficulty opening her mouth. Upon examination, you diagnose her with a peritonsillar abscess and decide to perform a needle aspiration. What is a well-known complication of this procedure?

      Your Answer: Accidental puncture of internal carotid artery

      Explanation:

      The internal carotid artery is situated approximately 2.5 cm behind and to the side of the tonsil. When performing an aspiration procedure for a peritonsillar abscess, there is a risk of puncturing this artery. In the UK, it is common for emergency department doctors to refer the task of draining a peritonsillar abscess to the on-call ENT team due to their lack of familiarity and experience with the procedure. However, the RCEM learning platform considers the management of uncomplicated peritonsillar abscess to be within the scope of emergency department practice, making it important for doctors to be knowledgeable about the procedure and its potential complications. It is worth noting that Lemierre’s syndrome, which is infective thrombophlebitis of the jugular vein, is a complication of deep neck infections and not directly related to the aspiration procedure.

      Further Reading:

      A peritonsillar abscess, also known as quinsy, is a collection of pus that forms between the palatine tonsil and the pharyngeal muscles. It is often a complication of acute tonsillitis and is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The exact cause of a peritonsillar abscess is not fully understood, but it is believed to occur when infection spreads beyond the tonsillar capsule or when small salivary glands in the supratonsillar space become blocked.

      The most common causative organisms for a peritonsillar abscess include Streptococcus pyogenes, Staphylococcus aureus, Haemophilus influenzae, and anaerobic organisms. Risk factors for developing a peritonsillar abscess include smoking, periodontal disease, male sex, and a previous episode of the condition.

      Clinical features of a peritonsillar abscess include severe throat pain, difficulty opening the mouth (trismus), fever, headache, drooling of saliva, bad breath, painful swallowing, altered voice, ear pain on the same side, neck stiffness, and swelling of the soft palate. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical presentation, but imaging scans such as CT or ultrasound may be used to assess for complications or determine the best site for drainage.

      Treatment for a peritonsillar abscess involves pain relief, intravenous antibiotics to cover for both aerobic and anaerobic organisms, intravenous fluids if swallowing is difficult, and drainage of the abscess either through needle aspiration or incision and drainage. Tonsillectomy may be recommended to prevent recurrence. Complications of a peritonsillar abscess can include sepsis, spread to deeper neck tissues leading to necrotizing fasciitis or retropharyngeal abscess, airway compromise, recurrence of the abscess, aspiration pneumonia, erosion into major blood vessels, and complications related to the causative organism. All patients with a peritonsillar abscess should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat specialist for further management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - A middle-aged patient with a long-standing history of alcohol abuse presents feeling extremely...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged patient with a long-standing history of alcohol abuse presents feeling extremely ill. He has been on a week-long drinking spree and has consumed very little food during that time. After conducting tests, you diagnose him with alcoholic ketoacidosis.
      What type of acid-base disorder would you anticipate in a patient with alcoholic ketoacidosis?

      Your Answer: Raised anion gap metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Respiratory alkalosis can be caused by hyperventilation, such as during periods of anxiety. It can also be a result of conditions like pulmonary embolism, CNS disorders (such as stroke or encephalitis), altitude, pregnancy, or the early stages of aspirin overdose.

      Respiratory acidosis is often associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or life-threatening asthma. Other causes include pulmonary edema, sedative drug overdose (such as opiates or benzodiazepines), neuromuscular disease, obesity, or certain medications.

      Metabolic alkalosis can occur due to vomiting, potassium depletion (often caused by diuretic usage), Cushing’s syndrome, or Conn’s syndrome.

      Metabolic acidosis with a raised anion gap can be caused by conditions like lactic acidosis (which can result from hypoxemia, shock, sepsis, or infarction) or ketoacidosis (commonly seen in diabetes, starvation, or alcohol excess). Other causes include renal failure or poisoning (such as late stages of aspirin overdose, methanol, or ethylene glycol).

      Metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap can be attributed to conditions like renal tubular acidosis, diarrhea, ammonium chloride ingestion, or adrenal insufficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      4.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory (9/10) 90%
Sexual Health (2/2) 100%
Ophthalmology (4/5) 80%
Endocrinology (5/6) 83%
Nephrology (2/4) 50%
Vascular (1/2) 50%
Environmental Emergencies (2/2) 100%
Elderly Care / Frailty (1/2) 50%
Neurology (3/6) 50%
Paediatric Emergencies (3/3) 100%
Trauma (3/3) 100%
Pain & Sedation (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology & Poisoning (9/12) 75%
Infectious Diseases (3/4) 75%
Neonatal Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (2/2) 100%
Cardiology (5/6) 83%
Basic Anaesthetics (2/2)