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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 10 week old male infant is presented to the GP by his mother with concerns about an undescended testis on the right side since birth. The mother was advised to seek medical attention if the issue persisted after 6 to 8 weeks of age. Upon examination, the GP confirms the presence of a unilateral undescended testis on the right side, with a normal appearing penis. What would be the next step in management?
Your Answer: Arrange ultrasound scan
Correct Answer: Review at 3 months of age
Explanation:If the testicle remains undescended after 3 months, it is recommended to refer the child to a paediatric surgeon for review before they reach 6 months of age, as per the NICE guidelines for undescended testes.
Undescended Testis: Causes, Complications, and Management
Undescended testis is a condition that affects around 2-3% of male infants born at term, but it is more common in preterm babies. Bilateral undescended testes occur in about 25% of cases. This condition can lead to complications such as infertility, torsion, testicular cancer, and psychological issues.
To manage unilateral undescended testis, NICE CKS recommends considering referral from around 3 months of age, with the baby ideally seeing a urological surgeon before 6 months of age. Orchidopexy, a surgical procedure, is typically performed at around 1 year of age, although surgical practices may vary.
For bilateral undescended testes, it is crucial to have the child reviewed by a senior paediatrician within 24 hours as they may require urgent endocrine or genetic investigation. Proper management of undescended testis is essential to prevent complications and ensure the child’s overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 38-year-old male librarian presents with sudden loss of hearing in both ears. There is no ear pain, history of recent upper respiratory tract infection or history of trauma. He has no past medical history of note and does not take any regular prescribed or over-the-counter medications. Tuning fork testing suggests right side sensorineural hearing loss. Examination of the auditory canals and tympanic membranes is unremarkable, as is neurological examination. He is referred to the acute ear, nose and throat (ENT) clinic. Audiometry reveals a 40 db hearing loss in the right ear at multiple frequencies.
Which of the following represents the most appropriate initial management plan?Your Answer: Arrange an urgent magnetic resonance (MR) of the brain
Explanation:Management of Sudden Sensorineural Hearing Loss
Sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL) is a medical emergency that requires urgent evaluation and management. Patients with unexplained sudden hearing loss should be referred to an ENT specialist and offered an MRI scan. A CT scan may also be indicated to rule out stroke, although it is unlikely to cause unilateral hearing loss.
Antiviral medication such as acyclovir is not recommended unless there is evidence of viral infection. Antibiotics are also not indicated unless there is evidence of bacterial infection.
The mainstay of treatment for SSNHL is oral prednisolone, which should be started as soon as possible and continued for 14 days. While the cause of SSNHL is often unknown, it is important to consider a wide range of differential diagnoses, including trauma, drugs, space-occupying lesions, autoimmune inner ear disease, and many other conditions. Prompt evaluation and treatment can improve the chances of recovery and prevent further hearing loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old asthmatic presents to the Emergency Department with acute shortness of breath, unable to speak in complete sentences, tachypnoeic and with a tachycardia of 122 bpm. Severe inspiratory wheeze is noted on examination. The patient is given nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium bromide, and IV hydrocortisone is administered. After 45 minutes of IV salbutamol infusion, there is no improvement in tachypnea and oxygen saturation has dropped to 80% at high flow oxygen. An ABG is taken, showing a pH of 7.50, pO2 of 10.3 kPa, pCO2 of 5.6 kPa, and HCO3− of 28.4 mmol/l. What is the next most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Administer oral magnesium
Correct Answer: Request an anaesthetic assessment for the Intensive Care Unit (ICU)
Explanation:Why an Anaesthetic Assessment is Needed for a Severe Asthma Attack in ICU
When a patient is experiencing a severe asthma attack, it is important to take the appropriate steps to provide the best care possible. In this scenario, the patient has already received nebulisers, an iv salbutamol infusion, and hydrocortisone, but their condition has not improved. The next best step is to request an anaesthetic assessment for ICU, as rapid intubation may be required and the patient may need ventilation support.
While there are other options such as CPAP and NIPPV, these should only be used in a controlled environment with anaesthetic backup. Administering oral magnesium is also not recommended, and iv aminophylline should only be considered after an anaesthetic review. By requesting an anaesthetic assessment for ICU, the patient can receive the best possible care for their severe asthma attack.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 42-year-old woman who visits her GP complaining of a burning pain on the outer part of her left knee. The pain is felt during movement and she has not observed any swelling of the knee. There is no history of injury and no locking of the knee joint. Samantha is a long-distance runner and is preparing for a marathon. During examination, there is tenderness on palpation of the lateral aspect of the joint line. She has a good range of motion of her knee joint. However, a snapping sensation is noticed on the lateral aspect of the knee when her joint is repeatedly flexed and extended. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Meniscal tear
Correct Answer: Iliotibial band syndrome
Explanation:Lateral knee pain in runners is often caused by iliotibial band syndrome. This condition can result in a sharp or burning sensation around the knee joint line. Meniscal tears, on the other hand, can cause joint locking, pain, and swelling. Patellofemoral syndrome may lead to knee cap pain that worsens with stair climbing and prolonged use. Meanwhile, rheumatoid arthritis usually affects the small joints in the hands and feet initially, causing stiffness, pain, and swelling in other joints as well.
Understanding Iliotibial Band Syndrome
Iliotibial band syndrome is a prevalent condition that causes lateral knee pain in runners. It affects approximately 10% of people who engage in regular running. The condition is characterized by tenderness 2-3 cm above the lateral joint line.
To manage iliotibial band syndrome, activity modification and iliotibial band stretches are recommended. These measures can help alleviate the pain and discomfort associated with the condition. However, if the symptoms persist, it is advisable to seek physiotherapy referral for further assessment and treatment.
In summary, iliotibial band syndrome is a common condition that affects runners. It is important to recognize the symptoms and seek appropriate management to prevent further complications. With the right treatment, individuals can continue to engage in running and other physical activities without experiencing pain and discomfort.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male is admitted with an intracranial bleed and is under the care of the neurosurgeons. After undergoing magnetic resonance angiography, he undergoes clipping of a cerebral arterial aneurysm and is stable the following morning. The surgical team records the following blood chemistry results on successive postoperative days:
Day 1:
- Plasma Sodium: 130 mmol/L
- Potassium: 3.5 mmol/L
- Urea: 4.2 mmol/L
- Creatinine: 95 µmol/L
Day 2:
- Plasma Sodium: 127 mmol/L
- Potassium: 3.4 mmol/L
- Urea: 4.2 mmol/L
- Creatinine: 90 µmol/L
Day 3:
- Plasma Sodium: 124 mmol/L
- Potassium: 3.4 mmol/L
- Urea: 4.4 mmol/L
- Creatinine: 76 µmol/L
Day 4:
- Plasma Sodium: 120 mmol/L
- Potassium: 3.5 mmol/L
- Urea: 5.0 mmol/L
- Creatinine: 70 µmol/L
Normal Ranges:
- Plasma sodium: 137-144 mmol/L
- Potassium: 3.5-4.9 mmol/L
- Urea: 2.5-7.5 mmol/L
- Creatinine: 60-110 µmol/L
On day four, the patient is put on a fluid restriction of 1 litre per day. Investigations at that time show:
- Plasma osmolality: 262 mOsmol/L (278-305)
- Urine osmolality: 700 mOsmol/L (350-1000)
- Urine sodium: 70 mmol/L -
What is the most likely diagnosis to explain these findings?Your Answer: Cranial diabetes insipidus
Correct Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH)
Explanation:The causes of hyponatremia are varied and can include several underlying conditions. One common cause is the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH), which is characterized by elevated urine sodium, low plasma osmolality, and an osmolality towards the upper limit of normal. Diabetes insipidus, on the other hand, leads to excessive fluid loss with hypernatremia.
Fluid overload is another possibility, but it is unlikely in patients who have commenced fluid restriction. Hypoadrenalism may also cause hyponatremia, but it is not likely in the context of this patient’s presentation. Other causes of SIADH include pneumonia, meningitis, and bronchial carcinoma.
Sick cell syndrome is also associated with hyponatremia and is due to the loss of cell membrane pump function in particularly ill subjects. It is important to identify the underlying cause of hyponatremia to provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 6
Correct
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A 68-year-old man was watching TV at home and had a fit which lasted for approximately ten minutes. His wife was with him at home and reports that there was no incontinence or limb jerking. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows left bundle branch block (LBBB). The patient denies any shortness of breath or chest pain before or after the event, and his vital signs are stable. A high-sensitivity troponin assay performed upon admission is negative. The patient is a non-smoker, suffers from well-controlled hypertension and has no significant family history. He is a retired plumber.
What is the next best investigation for this patient?Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) head
Explanation:Appropriate Diagnostic Tests for a Patient with New-Onset Seizure
When a patient experiences a new-onset seizure, it is important to determine if there is an underlying intracranial pathology such as a space-occupying lesion. A CT scan of the head is the most appropriate diagnostic test to guide any further neurosurgical treatment if needed.
An EEG would only be helpful during a seizure activity and confirm that a seizure was occurring. If the patient has repeated seizures, a 24-hour ambulatory EEG would be useful in the diagnosis.
A coronary angiogram would be appropriate if the main diagnosis being considered was a myocardial infarction, but in this case, the patient’s LBBB is not of new onset and is not the main concern.
A urine dipstick would not be helpful in the diagnosis of the patient’s condition as there are no signs of an ongoing urinary tract infection.
An echocardiogram would be necessary if the patient had chest symptoms or signs suggestive of cardiac tamponade, but in this case, the high-sensitivity troponin assay was negative.
In summary, a CT scan of the head is the most appropriate diagnostic test for a patient with a new-onset seizure, and other tests should be considered based on the patient’s specific symptoms and medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosurgery
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman recently had a UTI, which was found to be positive for Proteus mirabilis. What type of renal calculi is she now at a higher risk for developing?
Your Answer: Urate
Correct Answer: Magnesium ammonium phosphate
Explanation:Proteus mirabilis is a type of Gram-negative bacilli that can cause serious infections and is treated with broad-spectrum penicillins or cephalosporins. These organisms produce ureases, which can hydrolyze urea to ammonia and create an alkaline environment in urine. This can lead to the formation of magnesium ammonium phosphate stones, also known as struvite and staghorn calculi. However, Proteus mirabilis is not a risk factor for other types of kidney stones, such as urate, calcium oxalate, calcium phosphate, or cystine stones. These types of stones are caused by different factors, such as dehydration, hypercalcaemia, or genetic conditions. Treatment for each type of stone varies and may involve pain relief, medication, or surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman is referred to hospital for severe recurrent chest pain related to mealtimes. She had experienced these episodes over the past 3 years, particularly when food became stuck in her chest. The chest pain was not associated with physical activity or exertion. Additionally, she reported occasional nocturnal coughs and regurgitation. A chest X-ray taken during one of the chest pain episodes revealed a widened mediastinum. She did not have any other gastrointestinal issues or abdominal pain. Despite being prescribed proton pump inhibitors (PPIs), she did not experience any relief. What is the most effective test to confirm the diagnosis of the underlying condition?
Your Answer: Endoscopy with biopsy
Correct Answer: Oesophageal manometry study
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Achalasia: Oesophageal Manometry Study and Other Modalities
Achalasia is a motility disorder of the oesophagus that causes progressive dysphagia for liquids and solids, accompanied by severe chest pain. While it is usually idiopathic, it can also be secondary to Chagas’ disease or oesophageal cancer. The diagnosis of achalasia is confirmed through oesophageal manometry, which reveals an abnormally high lower oesophageal sphincter tone that fails to relax on swallowing.
Other diagnostic modalities include a barium swallow study, which may show a classic bird’s beak appearance, but is not confirmatory. A CT scan of the thorax may show a dilated oesophagus with food debris, but is also not enough for diagnosis. Upper GI endoscopy with biopsy is needed to rule out mechanical obstruction or pseudo-achalasia.
Treatment for achalasia is mainly surgical, but botulinum toxin injection or pharmacotherapy may be tried in those unwilling to undergo surgery. Drugs used include calcium channel blockers, long-acting nitrates, and sildenafil. Oesophageal pH monitoring is useful in suspected gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), but is not diagnostic for achalasia.
In summary, oesophageal manometry is the best confirmatory test for suspected cases of achalasia, and other diagnostic modalities are used to rule out other conditions. Treatment options include surgery, botulinum toxin injection, and pharmacotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 35-year-old teacher is tested for compatibility to donate a kidney to his older brother, who has end-stage renal failure. To his joy, he is found to be a suitable match. The patient is then thoroughly counselled regarding the operative procedure, short- and long-term risks, and the implications of living with one healthy kidney. He is particularly interested to learn how his body will adapt to having only one kidney.
What will be decreased in the donor after the kidney transplant?Your Answer: Creatinine clearance
Explanation:Effects of Kidney Donation on Renal Function and Electrolytes
Kidney donation involves the removal of one healthy kidney, which can have various effects on the donor’s renal function and electrolyte levels. One notable change is a decrease in creatinine clearance due to the reduced number of glomeruli. However, creatinine production remains unaffected by the surgery and depends on factors such as muscle mass, diet, and activity.
Serum sodium levels should remain stable as long as the remaining kidney functions properly. Similarly, serum potassium levels should not change if the remaining kidney is healthy. However, plasma creatinine concentration may initially increase after kidney donation due to hyperfiltration, but it will eventually plateau and decrease over time.
Overall, kidney donation can have significant effects on the donor’s renal function and electrolyte levels, but with proper monitoring and care, most donors can lead healthy and normal lives with one kidney.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man has come in with jaundice and no pain. His doctor has noted a possible palpable gallbladder. Where is the fundus of the gallbladder most likely to be palpable based on these symptoms?
Your Answer: Mid-clavicular line and the transpyloric plane
Correct Answer: Lateral edge of right rectus abdominis muscle and the costal margin
Explanation:Anatomical Landmarks and their Surface Markings in the Abdomen
The human abdomen is a complex region with various structures and organs that are important for digestion and metabolism. In this article, we will discuss some of the anatomical landmarks and their surface markings in the abdomen.
Surface Marking: Lateral edge of right rectus abdominis muscle and the costal margin
Anatomical Landmark: Fundus of the gallbladderThe fundus of the gallbladder is located closest to the anterior abdominal wall. Its surface marking is the point where the lateral edge of the right rectus abdominis muscle meets the costal margin, which is also in the transpyloric plane. It is important to note that Courvoisier’s law exists in surgery, which states that a palpable, enlarged gallbladder accompanied by painless jaundice is unlikely to be caused by gallstone disease.
Surface Marking: Anterior axillary line and the transpyloric plane
Anatomical Landmark: Hilum of the spleenThe transpyloric plane is an imaginary line that runs axially approximately at the L1 vertebral body. The hilum of the spleen can be found at the intersection of the anterior axillary line and the transpyloric plane.
Surface Marking: Linea alba and the transpyloric plane
Anatomical Landmark: Origin of the superior mesenteric arteryThe origin of the superior mesenteric artery can be found at the intersection of the linea alba and the transpyloric plane.
Surface Marking: Mid-clavicular line and the transpyloric plane
Anatomical Landmark: Hepatic flexure of the colon on the right and splenic flexure of the colon on the leftAt the intersection of the mid-clavicular line and the transpyloric plane, the hepatic flexure of the colon can be found on the right and the splenic flexure of the colon on the left.
Surface Marking: Mid-clavicular line and a horizontal line through the umbilicus
Anatomical Landmark: Ascending colon on the right and descending colon on the leftAt the intersection of the mid-clavicular line and a horizontal line through the umbilicus, the ascending colon is found on the right and the descending colon on the left. If the liver or spleen are enlarged, their tips can also
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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