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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman came to the clinic with a complaint of intermittent swelling of her tongue and face that has been occurring for the past ten weeks. The episodes last for 36 hours and then resolve on their own. She has tried taking oral antihistamines but they did not help. Her medical history is significant for hypertension which was diagnosed and treated with appropriate medications six months ago. There is no other relevant medical or family history. What medication is most likely causing her symptoms?
Your Answer: Simvastatin
Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Explanation:ACE Inhibitors and Angioedema
ACE inhibitors are medications that can lead to the development of angioedema, a condition characterized by swelling in various parts of the body. This is because ACE inhibitors block the action of the ACE enzyme, which is responsible for breaking down bradykinin. When bradykinin accumulates in the body, it causes blood vessels to dilate and become more permeable, leading to the accumulation of fluid in the interstitium. This can result in rapid swelling, particularly in areas with less connective tissue, such as the face.
Interestingly, ACE inhibitor-induced angioedema appears to be more common in African-American individuals. If angioedema occurs, the medication should be discontinued immediately and an alternative treatment should be sought. One option is an angiotensin II receptor antagonist, which works similarly to ACE inhibitors but doesn’t affect bradykinin levels. It is important to monitor patients closely for signs of angioedema when prescribing ACE inhibitors, particularly in those with a history of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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You are conducting a medication review for a 65-year-old man who has a history of cerebrovascular disease (having suffered a stroke 2 years ago), depression, and knee osteoarthritis. He is currently taking the following medications:
- Clopidogrel 75 mg once daily
- Simvastatin 20 mg once daily
- Amlodipine 5mg once daily
- Ramipril 10 mg once daily
- Diclofenac 50 mg as needed
- Sertraline 50 mg once daily
What changes would you recommend to his medication regimen?Your Answer: Switch sertraline to citalopram
Correct Answer: Switch diclofenac for an alternative NSAID
Explanation:The use of diclofenac is now prohibited for individuals with any type of cardiovascular ailment.
Diclofenac and Cardiovascular Risk
The MHRA has updated its guidance on diclofenac, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), due to a Europe-wide review of cardiovascular safety. While it has been known for some time that NSAIDs may increase the risk of cardiovascular events, the evidence base has become clearer. Diclofenac is associated with a significantly higher risk of cardiovascular events compared to other NSAIDs. Therefore, diclofenac is contraindicated in patients with ischaemic heart disease, peripheral arterial disease, cerebrovascular disease, and congestive heart failure (New York Heart Association classification II-IV). Patients should switch from diclofenac to other NSAIDs, such as naproxen or ibuprofen, except for topical diclofenac. Studies have shown that naproxen and low-dose ibuprofen have the best cardiovascular risk profiles of the NSAIDs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 3
Correct
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A 53-year-old woman presents to the clinic with increasing shortness of breath. She enjoys walking her dog but has noticed a decrease in exercise tolerance. She reports experiencing fast, irregular palpitations at various times throughout the day.
During the examination, you observe flushed cheeks, a blood pressure reading of 140/95, and a raised JVP. You suspect the presence of a diastolic murmur. In a subsequent communication from the cardiologist, they describe a loud first heart sound, an opening snap, and a mid-diastolic rumble that is best heard at the apex.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Mitral stenosis
Explanation:Mitral Stenosis and Palpitations
The clinical presentation is indicative of mitral stenosis, with palpitations likely due to paroxysmal AF caused by an enlarged left atrium. The elevated JVP is a result of back pressure due to associated pulmonary hypertension. Left atrial myxoma, which is much rarer than mitral stenosis, is characterized by a tumour plop instead of an opening snap. Echocardiography is a crucial component of the diagnostic workup, allowing for the estimation of pressure across the valve, as well as left atrial size and right-sided pressures. AF prophylaxis and valve replacement are potential treatment options.
Spacing:
The clinical presentation is indicative of mitral stenosis, with palpitations likely due to paroxysmal AF caused by an enlarged left atrium. The elevated JVP is a result of back pressure due to associated pulmonary hypertension.
Left atrial myxoma, which is much rarer than mitral stenosis, is characterized by a tumour plop instead of an opening snap.
Echocardiography is a crucial component of the diagnostic workup, allowing for the estimation of pressure across the valve, as well as left atrial size and right-sided pressures.
AF prophylaxis and valve replacement are potential treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 4
Correct
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A patient with a history of heart failure experiences mild physical activity limitations. While at rest, she is comfortable, but everyday tasks like walking to nearby stores cause fatigue, palpitations, or dyspnea. Which New York Heart Association class accurately characterizes the extent of her condition?
Your Answer: NYHA Class II
Explanation:NYHA Classification for Chronic Heart Failure
Chronic heart failure is a condition that affects the heart’s ability to pump blood effectively. The New York Heart Association (NYHA) classification is a widely used system to categorize the severity of heart failure. The NYHA classification has four classes, each with a different level of symptoms and limitations.
NYHA Class I refers to patients who have no symptoms and no limitations in their physical activity. They can perform ordinary physical exercise without experiencing fatigue, dyspnea, or palpitations.
NYHA Class II patients have mild symptoms and slight limitations in their physical activity. They are comfortable at rest, but ordinary activity can cause fatigue, palpitations, or dyspnea.
NYHA Class III patients have moderate symptoms and marked limitations in their physical activity. They are comfortable at rest, but less than ordinary activity can result in symptoms.
NYHA Class IV patients have severe symptoms and are unable to carry out any physical activity without discomfort. Symptoms of heart failure are present even at rest, and any physical activity increases discomfort.
In summary, the NYHA classification is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to assess the severity of chronic heart failure and determine appropriate treatment plans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old woman who has been on long-term digoxin therapy for atrial fibrillation presents to the clinic with complaints of palpitations, yellow vision, and nausea. She recently completed a course of antibiotics for a respiratory tract infection. On examination, her blood pressure is 140/80, and her pulse is slow and irregular, hovering around 42. There is no evidence of cardiac failure. Which of the following antibiotics is most commonly linked to this presentation?
Your Answer: Erythromycin
Correct Answer: Trimethoprim
Explanation:Digoxin Toxicity and its Management
Digoxin toxicity is a condition that can cause a number of symptoms, including yellow vision and nausea. It can also lead to various arrhythmias, such as heart block, supraventricular and ventricular tachycardia. This toxicity can be associated with certain medications, including erythromycin, tetracyclines, quinidine, calcium channel blockers, captopril, and amiodarone.
In addition to medication interactions, it is important to monitor renal function as deteriorating creatinine clearance can also contribute to toxicity. Management of digoxin toxicity involves measuring digoxin levels, avoiding or reducing the dose, and in severe cases, admission for cardiac monitoring and consideration of digoxin antibody therapy.
To summarize, digoxin toxicity is a serious condition that requires careful monitoring and management to prevent complications. By being aware of the medications that can interact with digoxin and monitoring renal function, healthcare providers can help prevent and manage this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 6
Correct
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An 80-year-old gentleman attends surgery for review of his heart failure.
He was recently diagnosed when he was admitted to hospital with shortness of breath. Echocardiography has revealed impaired left ventricular function. He also has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia.
His current medications are: aspirin 75 mg daily, furosemide 40 mg daily, metformin 850 mg TDS, ramipril 10 mg daily, and simvastatin 40 mg daily.
He tells you that the ramipril was initiated when the diagnosis of heart failure was made and has been titrated up to 10 mg daily over the recent weeks. His symptoms are currently stable.
Clinical examination reveals no peripheral oedema, his chest sounds clear and clinically he is in sinus rhythm at 76 beats per minute. His BP is 126/80 mHg.
Providing there are no contraindications, which of the following is the most appropriate treatment to add to his therapy?Your Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Treatment Recommendations for Heart Failure Patients
Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors and beta blockers are recommended for patients with heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction, regardless of their NYHA functional class. The ACE inhibitors should be considered first, followed by beta blockers once the patient’s condition is stable, unless contraindicated. However, the updated NICE guidance suggests using clinical judgment to decide which drug to start first. Combination treatment with an ACE-inhibitor and beta blocker is the preferred first-line treatment for these patients. Beta blockers have been shown to improve survival in heart failure patients, and three drugs are licensed for this use in the UK. Patients who are newly diagnosed with impaired left ventricular systolic function and are already taking a beta blocker should be considered for a switch to one shown to be beneficial in heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 7
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman has a diastolic murmur best heard in the upper-left 2nd intercostal space.
What single condition would be part of the differential diagnosis?
Your Answer: Aortic regurgitation
Explanation:Differentiating Heart Murmurs: Characteristics and Causes
Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during the cardiac cycle. They can be caused by a variety of conditions, including valve abnormalities, septal defects, and physiological factors. Here are some characteristics and causes of common heart murmurs:
Aortic Regurgitation: This produces a low-intensity early diastolic decrescendo murmur, best heard in the aortic area. The backflow of blood across the aortic valve causes the murmur.
Aortic Stenosis: This produces a mid-systolic ejection murmur in the aortic area. It radiates into the neck over the two carotid arteries. The most common cause is calcified aortic valves due to ageing, followed by congenital bicuspid aortic valves.
Mitral Regurgitation: This murmur is best heard at the apex. In the presence of incompetent mitral valve, the pressure in the left ventricle becomes greater than that in the left atrium at the start of isovolumic contraction, which corresponds to the closing of the mitral valve (S1).
Physiological Murmur: This is a low-intensity murmur that mainly occurs in children. It can occur in adults particularly if there is anaemia or a fever. It is caused by increased blood flow through the aortic valves.
Ventricular Septal Defect: This produces a pansystolic murmur that starts at S1 and extends up to S2. In a VSD the murmur is usually best heard over the left lower sternal border (tricuspid area) with radiation to the right lower sternal border. This is the area overlying the VSD.
Understanding the characteristics and causes of different heart murmurs can aid in their diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You receive blood test results for a patient who has been taking atorvastatin 10 mg for secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease. The patient's lipid profile before starting the medication was as follows: cholesterol 6.2 mmol/L, triglycerides 1.8 mmol/L, HDL cholesterol 1.2 mmol/L, LDL cholesterol 4.5 mmol/L, non HDL cholesterol 5.0 mmol/L, and total cholesterol/HDL ratio 5.2 mmol/L. The liver profile was also normal. After three months of treatment, the lipid profile results are as follows: cholesterol 4.8 mmol/L, triglycerides 1.5 mmol/L, HDL cholesterol 1.5 mmol/L, LDL cholesterol 2.8 mmol/L, non HDL cholesterol 3.3 mmol/L, and total cholesterol/HDL ratio 3.2 mmol/L. What is your recommended course of action based on these results?
Your Answer: Consider adding in ezetimibe
Correct Answer: Consider increasing the dose of atorvastatin
Explanation:It is important to verify the patient’s adherence to the medication and ensure that they are taking it at the appropriate time (in the evening). Additionally, lifestyle advice should be revisited. Upon further examination of the case, it may be determined that a dose titration is not necessary, but it should be taken into consideration.
Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 9
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman has a mid-systolic ejection murmur in the third left intercostals space. It radiates into the left arm and shoulder.
Select from the list the single associated symptom that this woman is most likely to have.Your Answer: Angina
Explanation:Understanding Symptoms of Aortic Stenosis
Aortic stenosis is a condition where the aortic valve becomes narrowed, leading to restricted blood flow from the heart. One of the most common symptoms of aortic stenosis is a murmur heard in the aortic area. This is often due to calcification of the valve. However, symptoms usually only appear when the stenosis becomes severe.
Patients with aortic stenosis may experience dyspnea on exertion, which is difficulty breathing during physical activity. More concerning symptoms include angina, syncope, or symptoms of heart failure. Angina is caused by left ventricular hypertrophy, while syncope is thought to be due to a failure to increase cardiac output during times of peripheral vasodilation and subsequent hypotension. It’s important to note that drugs that cause peripheral vasodilation, such as nitrates or ACE inhibitors, can increase the risk of syncope.
Dysphagia is a rare complication of left atrial hypertrophy due to mitral valve disease. Palpitations and transient ischemic attacks are not symptoms that are typically associated with aortic stenosis. The most common source of emboli with transient ischemic attacks is the carotids. Vertigo is not caused by aortic stenosis.
In summary, understanding the symptoms of aortic stenosis is crucial for early detection and treatment. If you experience any concerning symptoms, it’s important to speak with your healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman has weight loss and heat intolerance.
Investigations:
Free T4 32.9 pmol/L (9.8-23.1)
TSH <0.02 mU/L (0.35-5.50)
Free T3 11.1 pmol/L (3.5-6.5)
She is taking medication for atrial fibrillation, ischaemic heart disease and type 2 diabetes.
Which drug is most likely to be responsible for these results?Your Answer: Amiodarone
Correct Answer: Digoxin
Explanation:Amiodarone and Thyroid Function
Amiodarone is a medication commonly used to treat heart rhythm disorders. However, it can also cause abnormalities in thyroid function tests. This can result in both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism. Hypothyroidism may occur due to interference with the conversion of thyroxine (T4) to tri-iodothyronine (T3). On the other hand, hyperthyroidism may be caused by thyroiditis or the donation of iodine, as amiodarone contains a large amount of iodine.
Aside from thyroid issues, amiodarone can also lead to other side effects such as pulmonary fibrosis and photosensitivity reactions. It is important to monitor thyroid function tests regularly when taking amiodarone and to report any symptoms of thyroid dysfunction to a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 38 year old, asymptomatic man is incidentally found to have a clinic blood pressure reading of 148/92 mmHg. His GP requests ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) to confirm a diagnosis of hypertension. The average ABPM is found to be 144/90 mmHg. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medication. Urine dip is negative. His BMI is 35 kg/m². Appropriate further management in this case would be to:
Your Answer: Start an ACE inhibitor
Correct Answer: Refer to secondary care
Explanation:For individuals under the age of 40 who have stage 1 hypertension and no signs of target organ damage, NICE suggests referring them to rule out secondary causes of hypertension. It is recommended to conduct a thorough evaluation of potential target organ damage in this age group as risk assessments may not accurately predict the lifetime risk of cardiovascular events.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 12
Correct
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Sophie is a 82-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes and hypertension. She visits her GP after experiencing a 10-minute episode where she couldn't move her left arm. Her arm function has since returned to normal and her neurological examination is unremarkable.
What is the most accurate diagnosis for Sophie based on the given information?Your Answer: Neurological dysfunction caused by a transient episode of brain ischaemia
Explanation:The definition of a TIA has been updated to focus on the affected tissue rather than the duration of symptoms. It is now defined as a temporary episode of neurological dysfunction resulting from restricted blood flow to the brain, spinal cord, or retina, without causing acute tissue damage. An ischaemic stroke, on the other hand, is characterized by neurological dysfunction caused by cerebral infarction, while multiple sclerosis is defined by neurological dysfunction caused by demyelination. Finally, a functional neurological disorder is characterized by transient symptoms of psychological origin.
A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax), diplopia, and homonymous hemianopia.
NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy, giving aspirin 300 mg immediately unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If aspirin is contraindicated, management should be discussed urgently with the specialist team. Specialist review is necessary if the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis. Urgent assessment within 24 hours by a specialist stroke physician is required if the patient has had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment should be made as soon as possible within 7 days if the patient has had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. The person should be advised not to drive until they have been seen by a specialist.
Neuroimaging should be done on the same day as specialist assessment if possible. MRI is preferred to determine the territory of ischaemia or to detect haemorrhage or alternative pathologies. Carotid imaging is necessary as atherosclerosis in the carotid artery may be a source of emboli in some patients. All patients should have an urgent carotid doppler unless they are not a candidate for carotid endarterectomy.
Antithrombotic therapy is recommended, with clopidogrel being the first-line treatment. Aspirin + dipyridamole should be given to patients who cannot tolerate clopidogrel. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the patient has suffered a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory and is not severely disabled. It should only be recommended if carotid stenosis is greater
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 13
Correct
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A 70-year-old man with heart failure complains of increasing shortness of breath. During examination, his peripheral oedema has worsened since his last visit (pitting to mid shins, previously to ankles). He has bibasal crackles on auscultation of his lungs; his blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg but his heart rate and oxygen saturations are within normal limits. His current medication includes an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, loop diuretic and beta-blocker.
What is the most appropriate management to alleviate symptoms and decrease mortality?Your Answer: Add spironolactone
Explanation:Treatment Options for a Patient with Worsening Heart Failure
When a patient with worsening heart failure is already on the recommended combination of an ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, and loop diuretic, adding low-dose spironolactone can further reduce cardiovascular mortality. However, it is important to monitor renal function and potassium levels. Stopping beta-blockers suddenly can cause rebound ischaemic events and arrhythmias, so reducing the dose may be a better option if spironolactone therapy doesn’t improve symptoms. Adding digoxin can help reduce breathlessness, but it has no effect on mortality. If the patient has an atherosclerotic cause of heart failure, adding high-intensity statins like simvastatin may be appropriate for secondary prevention. Stopping ACE inhibitors is not recommended as they have a positive prognostic benefit in chronic heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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You are asked to do a new baby check on a 4-day-old boy born at home after an uneventful pregnancy. The labour was normal and the baby has been fine until today, when he was noted to be slightly blue around the lips on feeding, recovering quickly. On examination there is a systolic murmur and you are unable to feel pulses in the legs.
Select the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect
Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:Common Congenital Heart Defects in Newborns
Congenital heart defects are abnormalities in the structure of the heart that are present at birth. Here are some common congenital heart defects in newborns:
Coarctation of the aorta: This defect is a narrowing of the aorta, usually just distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery, close to the ductus arteriosus. It usually presents between day 2 and day 6 with symptoms of heart failure as the ductus arteriosus closes. The patient may have weak femoral pulses and a systolic murmur in the left infraclavicular area.
Fallot’s tetralogy: This defect consists of a large ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular outflow obstruction, and right ventricular hypertrophy. It leads to a right to left shunt and low oxygen saturation, which can cause cyanosis. Most cases are diagnosed antenatally or on investigation of a heart murmur.
Ductus arteriosus: The ductus arteriosus connects the pulmonary artery to the proximal descending aorta. It is a normal structure in fetal life but should close after birth. Failure of the ductus arteriosus to close can lead to overloading of the lungs because a left to right shunt occurs. Heart failure may be a consequence. A continuous (“machinery”) murmur is best heard at the left infraclavicular area or upper left sternal border.
Transient tachypnoea of the newborn: This condition is seen shortly after delivery and consists of a period of rapid breathing. It is likely due to retained lung fluid and usually resolves over 24-48 hours. However, it is important to observe for signs of clinical deterioration.
Ventricular septal defects: These defects vary in size and haemodynamic consequences. The presence of a defect may not be obvious at birth. Classically there is a harsh systolic murmur that is best heard at the left sternal edge. With large defects, pulmonary hypertension may develop resulting in a right to left shunt (Eisenmenger’s syndrome). Patients with the latter may have no murmur.
In conclusion, early detection and management of congenital heart defects in newborns are crucial for better outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 15
Correct
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A 55-year-old man with type 2 diabetes presents with widespread myalgia and limb weakness that has developed over the past few weeks. His simvastatin dose was recently increased from 40 mg to 80 mg per day. A colleague advised him to stop taking the statin and have blood tests taken due to the severity of his symptoms. Upon review, the patient reports some improvement in his symptoms but they have not completely resolved. Blood tests show normal renal, liver, and thyroid function but a creatine kinase level eight times the upper limit of normal. What is the most appropriate course of action in this case?
Your Answer: He should stay off the statin for now, have creatine kinase levels measured fortnightly, and be advised to monitor his symptoms closely until the creatine kinase levels return to normal and the symptoms resolve
Explanation:Management of Statin-Induced Elevated Creatine Kinase Levels
When a patient taking statins presents with elevated creatine kinase levels, it is important to consider other potential causes such as underlying muscle disorders or hypothyroidism. If the creatine kinase level is more than five times the upper limit of normal, the statin should be stopped immediately and renal function should be checked. Creatine kinase levels should be monitored every two weeks.
If symptoms resolve and creatine kinase levels return to normal, the statin can be reintroduced at the lowest dose with close monitoring. If creatine kinase levels are less than five times the upper limit of normal and the patient experiences muscular symptoms, the statin can be continued but closely monitored. If symptoms are severe or creatine kinase levels increase, the statin should be stopped.
If the patient is asymptomatic despite elevated creatine kinase levels, the statin can be continued with the patient advised to report any muscular symptoms immediately. Creatine kinase levels should be monitored to ensure they do not increase. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage statin-induced elevated creatine kinase levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You assess a 63-year-old man who has recently been released from a hospital in Hungary after experiencing a heart attack. He presents a copy of an echocardiogram report indicating that his left ventricular ejection fraction is 38%. During the examination, you note that his pulse is regular at 78 beats per minute, his blood pressure is 124/72 mmHg, and his chest is clear. He is currently taking aspirin, simvastatin, and lisinopril. What would be the most appropriate course of action regarding his medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add bisoprolol
Explanation:The use of carvedilol and bisoprolol has been proven to decrease mortality in stable heart failure patients, while there is no evidence to support the use of other beta-blockers. NICE guidelines suggest that all individuals with heart failure should be prescribed both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker.
Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old bus driver presents for his yearly hypertension evaluation. What are the regulations of DVLA regarding hypertension for Group 2 operators?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cannot drive if resting BP consistently 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more
Explanation:DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving
The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.
Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.
Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 75-year-old patient who has just been diagnosed with heart failure after an echocardiogram revealed a left ventricular ejection fraction of 35%. He has been experiencing mild shortness of breath during physical activity and has no other known medical conditions. He is not currently taking any medications.
What is the most suitable recommendation to provide?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Yearly influenza and one off pneumococcal vaccines
Explanation:It is recommended that patients diagnosed with heart failure receive an annual influenza vaccine and a single pneumococcal vaccine.
The Department of Health recommends that people over the age of 65 and those with certain medical conditions receive an annual influenza vaccination. These medical conditions include chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, chronic neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, and pregnancy. Additionally, health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled may also be considered for vaccination at the discretion of their GP.
The pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine is recommended for all adults over the age of 65 and those with certain medical conditions. These medical conditions include asplenia or splenic dysfunction, chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, cochlear implants, and patients with cerebrospinal fluid leaks. Asthma is only included if it requires the use of oral steroids at a dose sufficient to act as a significant immunosuppressant. Controlled hypertension is not an indication for vaccination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You see a 65-year-old man in a 'hypertension review' appointment. You have been struggling to control his blood pressure. He is now taking valsartan 320 mg (his initial ACE inhibitor, Perindopril, was stopped due to persistent coughing), amlodipine 10 mg and chlorthalidone 12.5 mg. He is also taking aspirin and simvastatin for primary prevention. His blood pressure today is 158/91. His recent renal function (done for annual hypertension) showed a sodium of 138, a potassium of 4.7, a urea of 4.2 and a creatinine of 80. His eGFR is 67. He is otherwise well in himself.
Which of the following options would be appropriate for him?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Try ramipril
Explanation:Managing Resistant Hypertension
Resistant hypertension can be a challenging condition to manage, often requiring up to four different Antihypertensive agents. If a person is already taking three Antihypertensive drugs and their blood pressure is still not controlled, increasing chlorthalidone to a maximum of 50 mg may be considered, provided that blood potassium levels are higher than 4.5mmol/L. However, caution should be exercised when using co-amilofruse, a potassium-sparing diuretic, in conjunction with valsartan, especially if the patient has a recent history of having a potassium level of 4.5 or higher.
If a patient has previously developed a cough with an ACE inhibitor, switching to a different ACE inhibitor is unlikely to make any difference. In such cases, bisoprolol may be added if further diuretic treatment is not tolerated, is contraindicated, or is ineffective. It is important to seek specialist advice if secondary causes for hypertension are likely or if a patient’s blood pressure is not controlled on the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four Antihypertensive drugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which lipid profile result would warrant the strongest recommendation for referral to a specialist lipid clinic?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: LDL cholesterol of 5 mmol/L
Explanation:The Importance of Specialist Lipid Clinics in Managing Adverse Lipid Profiles
Specialist lipid clinics are crucial in managing adverse lipid profiles, particularly those with a familial origin. Elevated levels of lipid profile components can significantly increase the risk of cardiovascular disease, necessitating more aggressive treatment to mitigate this risk. Hypertriglyceridaemia, in particular, is a risk factor for pancreatitis.
To determine when referral to a lipid clinic is necessary, certain levels of total cholesterol, LDL cholesterol, and non-HDL cholesterol must be met. These figures are outlined in the learning point and serve as a guide for healthcare professionals in identifying patients who require specialist lipid care. With the help of lipid clinics, patients can receive tailored treatment plans to manage their lipid profiles and reduce their risk of cardiovascular disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents with a racing heart. He states that this started while he was mowing the lawn but subsided after he drank a glass of cold lemonade. However, his symptoms have returned. On physical examination, his pulse is regular and measures 150 bpm. An ECG reveals a narrow complex tachycardia with P waves linked to each QRS complex.
What is the probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atrioventricular (AV) nodal re-entrant tachycardia
Explanation:Differentiating AV Nodal Re-entrant Tachycardia from Other Arrhythmias: An ECG Analysis
AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia is a type of arrhythmia that causes recurrent palpitations lasting for minutes to hours. Patients may also experience chest pain, shortness of breath, and syncope. The heart rate is usually between 150-250 bpm, and the rhythm is regular with narrow QRS complexes. Vagal manoeuvres can terminate the episode. However, it is essential to differentiate AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia from other arrhythmias, such as atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, torsades de pointes, and ventricular tachycardia. An ECG analysis can help in this regard.
Atrial fibrillation is characterised by irregular ventricular complexes with an absence of P waves. In contrast, atrial flutter shows a saw-tooth pattern with the absence of P waves. Torsades de pointes is a rare form of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia that causes a gradual change in the amplitude and twisting of the QRS complexes around the isoelectric line. It is associated with a prolonged QT interval. Ventricular tachycardia, on the other hand, is characterised by broad complexes on ECG.
In conclusion, an ECG analysis is crucial in differentiating AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia from other arrhythmias. It helps in providing accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment to the patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What is the most useful investigation to differentiate between the types of cardiomyopathy from the given list?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Echocardiogram
Explanation:Understanding the Four Types of Cardiomyopathy
Cardiomyopathy is a group of heart muscle disorders that affect the structure and function of the heart. There are four major types of cardiomyopathy: dilated, hypertrophic, restrictive, and arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy. Each type is characterized by specific features such as ventricular dilation, hypertrophy, restrictive filling, and fibro-fatty changes in the right ventricular myocardium.
While dilated and hypertrophic cardiomyopathies are the most common types, a familial cause has been identified in a significant percentage of patients with these conditions. On the other hand, restrictive cardiomyopathy is usually not familial.
To diagnose cardiomyopathy, a full cardiological assessment is necessary. Transthoracic Doppler echocardiography can confirm the diagnosis of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, distinguish between restrictive cardiomyopathy and constrictive pericarditis, and assess the severity of ventricular dysfunction in dilated cardiomyopathies. Coronary angiography can help exclude coronary artery disease as the cause of dilated cardiomyopathy.
A normal ECG is uncommon in any form of cardiomyopathy, and cardiomegaly on a chest X-ray may be present in all types. Brain natriuretic peptide is a marker of ventricular dysfunction but cannot differentiate between cardiomyopathies.
In summary, understanding the different types of cardiomyopathy and their diagnostic tools is crucial in managing and treating this group of heart muscle disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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You are assessing a 70-year old man with a history of heart failure. He is still exhibiting signs of fluid overload, prompting you to raise his furosemide dosage from 20 mg to 40 mg. What additional monitoring should be recommended?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal function, serum electrolytes and blood pressure within 1-2 weeks
Explanation:Monitoring Recommendations for Loop Diuretics
To ensure the safe and effective use of loop diuretics, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends monitoring renal function, serum electrolytes, and blood pressure within 1-2 weeks after each dose increase. It is also important to check these parameters before starting treatment and after treatment initiation.
For patients with known chronic kidney disease (CKD), those aged 60 years or older, or those taking an ACE-I, ARB, or aldosterone antagonist, earlier monitoring (5-7 days) may be necessary. By closely monitoring these parameters, healthcare professionals can identify any potential adverse effects and adjust treatment accordingly to optimize patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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You are assessing a 67-year-old woman with longstanding varicose veins. A couple of weeks ago, she experienced pain and redness around one of them, which resolved after using ibuprofen gel for a few weeks. Upon examination, her legs appear normal except for the varicose veins, and she has normal distal pulses. Based on current NICE guidelines, what is the most suitable next step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Routine referral to vascular services
Explanation:Patients with varicose veins and a history of superficial thrombophlebitis should be referred for routine referral to vascular services according to NICE guidance. This condition is usually self-limiting but has a high likelihood of recurrence without treatment. Dermatology is not involved in this condition, and ABPI is usually used in the context of peripheral arterial disease or compression bandaging. Class 2 compression stockings are used in the treatment of varicose veins without complications in primary care.
Understanding Varicose Veins
Varicose veins are enlarged and twisted veins that occur when the valves in the veins become weak or damaged, causing blood to flow backward and pool in the veins. They are most commonly found in the legs and can be caused by various factors such as age, gender, pregnancy, obesity, and genetics. While many people seek treatment for cosmetic reasons, others may experience symptoms such as aching, throbbing, and itching. In severe cases, varicose veins can lead to skin changes, bleeding, superficial thrombophlebitis, and venous ulceration.
To diagnose varicose veins, a venous duplex ultrasound is typically performed to detect retrograde venous flow. Treatment options vary depending on the severity of the condition. Conservative treatments such as leg elevation, weight loss, regular exercise, and compression stockings may be recommended for mild cases. However, patients with significant or troublesome symptoms, skin changes, or a history of bleeding or ulcers may require referral to a specialist for further evaluation and treatment. Possible treatments include endothermal ablation, foam sclerotherapy, or surgery.
In summary, varicose veins are a common condition that can cause discomfort and cosmetic concerns. While many cases do not require intervention, it is important to seek medical attention if symptoms or complications arise. With proper diagnosis and treatment, patients can manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A man attends the surgery for an 'MOT' having just had his 55th birthday. He is keen to reduce his risk of cardiovascular disease and asks about being started on a 'statin'.
He has no significant past medical history and takes no medication. His father had a 'heart attack' aged seventy, but his father was obese and a heavy smoker. There is no other family history of note. There is no suggestion of a familial lipid condition.
What is the most appropriate management approach at this point?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Optimise adherence to diet and lifestyle measures
Explanation:Primary Prevention of Cardiovascular Disease
This patient has no history of cardiovascular disease (CVD), and therefore, the primary prevention approach is necessary. The first step is to use a CVD risk assessment tool such as QRISK2 to evaluate the patient’s cardiovascular risk. If the patient has a 10% or greater 10-year risk of developing CVD, measuring their lipid profile and offering atorvastatin 20 mg daily would be appropriate. Additionally, providing advice to optimize diet and lifestyle measures is necessary. However, if the patient’s risk is less than 10%, then diet and lifestyle advice/optimization in isolation would be appropriate. At this point, there is no specific indication for lipid clinic input. The use of QRISK2 in this scenario is the best approach as it guides the management, including whether pharmacological treatment with a statin is necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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An active 58-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner for a consultation. She has a history of asthma and atrial fibrillation (AF) and has been assessed by her Cardiologist, who has diagnosed her with permanent AF. The Cardiologist recommends rate control. Her resting heart rate is 120 bpm.
Which of the following is the correct statement about rate control in these circumstances?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Verapamil can be used for first-line rate control in asthmatic patients with AF
Explanation:Managing Atrial Fibrillation: Choosing the Right Medication
Patients with atrial fibrillation (AF) are at risk of stroke and require proper management. The initial approach to managing AF involves either rhythm or rate control, depending on the patient’s age, comorbidity, and the duration of AF.
According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence guidelines, rate-limiting calcium antagonists or β-blockers are recommended as first-line treatment for many patients requiring rate-control medication. However, β-blockers are contraindicated in patients with asthma.
Rate-limiting calcium channel blockers such as verapamil and diltiazem are alternative options. Digoxin is only recommended for very sedentary patients as a first-line medication, as it doesn’t control heart rate during exertion. However, it can be used in combination with a first-line drug if rate control is poor. The target for rate control should be a resting heart rate of less than 110 bpm, and lower if the patient remains symptomatic.
Choosing the right medication for managing AF is crucial in reducing the risk of stroke and improving the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old has just been diagnosed with hypertension and you have commenced treatment with an ACE inhibitor (ACE-I).
As per NICE guidelines, what are the monitoring obligations after initiating an ACE-I?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No monitoring required
Explanation:Monitoring Recommendations for ACE-I Treatment
After initiating ACE-I treatment, it is recommended by NICE to monitor renal function and serum electrolytes within 1-2 weeks. However, if the patient is at a higher risk of hyperkalaemia or deteriorating renal function, such as those with Peripheral Vascular Disease, diabetes, or the elderly, it is suggested to check within 1 week. Blood pressure should be checked 4 weeks after each dose titration. After the initial monitoring, renal function and serum electrolytes only need to be checked annually unless there are abnormal blood test results or clinical judgement indicates a need for more frequent testing. By following these monitoring recommendations, healthcare professionals can ensure the safety and efficacy of ACE-I treatment for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A worried mother brings her two-week-old baby to the clinic due to poor feeding. The baby was born at 37 weeks gestation without any complications. No central cyanosis is observed, but the baby has a slightly elevated heart rate, rapid breathing, and high blood pressure in the upper extremities. Oxygen saturation levels are at 99% on air. Upon chest auscultation, a systolic murmur is heard loudest at the left sternal edge. Additionally, the baby has weak bilateral femoral pulses. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:Coarctation of the Aorta: A Narrowing of the Descending Aorta
Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital condition that affects the descending aorta, causing it to narrow. This condition is more common in males, despite its association with Turner’s syndrome. In infancy, coarctation of the aorta can lead to heart failure, while in adults, it can cause hypertension. Other features of this condition include radio-femoral delay, a mid systolic murmur that is maximal over the back, and an apical click from the aortic valve. Notching of the inferior border of the ribs, which is caused by collateral vessels, is not seen in young children. Coarctation of the aorta is often associated with other conditions, such as bicuspid aortic valve, berry aneurysms, and neurofibromatosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You are assessing a 67-year-old woman who is on amlodipine 10 mg and ramipril 2.5 mg for her hypertension. Her current clinic BP reading is 139/87 mmHg.
What recommendations would you make regarding her medication regimen?Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:To maintain good control of hypertension in patients under 80 years of age, the target clinic blood pressure should be below 140/90 mmHg. In this case, the patient’s blood pressure is within the target range, indicating that their current medication regimen is effective and should not be altered. However, if their blood pressure was above 140/90 mmHg, increasing the ramipril dosage to 5mg could be considered before adding a third medication, as the amlodipine is already at its maximum dose.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male on long-term warfarin for atrial fibrillation visits the anticoagulation clinic. Despite maintaining a stable INR for the past 3 years on the same dose of warfarin, his INR is found to be 5.4. What is the most probable cause of this sudden change?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cranberry juice
Explanation:St John’s Wort induces the P450 enzyme system, which results in a decrease in the INR instead of an increase.
Understanding Warfarin: Mechanism of Action, Indications, Monitoring, Factors, and Side-Effects
Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that has been widely used for many years to manage venous thromboembolism and reduce stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, it has been largely replaced by direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) due to their ease of use and lack of need for monitoring. Warfarin works by inhibiting epoxide reductase, which prevents the reduction of vitamin K to its active hydroquinone form. This, in turn, affects the carboxylation of clotting factor II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C.
Warfarin is indicated for patients with mechanical heart valves, with the target INR depending on the valve type and location. Mitral valves generally require a higher INR than aortic valves. It is also used as a second-line treatment after DOACs for venous thromboembolism and atrial fibrillation, with target INRs of 2.5 and 3.5 for recurrent cases. Patients taking warfarin are monitored using the INR, which may take several days to achieve a stable level. Loading regimens and computer software are often used to adjust the dose.
Factors that may potentiate warfarin include liver disease, P450 enzyme inhibitors, cranberry juice, drugs that displace warfarin from plasma albumin, and NSAIDs that inhibit platelet function. Warfarin may cause side-effects such as haemorrhage, teratogenic effects, skin necrosis, temporary procoagulant state, thrombosis, and purple toes.
In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, indications, monitoring, factors, and side-effects of warfarin is crucial for its safe and effective use in patients. While it has been largely replaced by DOACs, warfarin remains an important treatment option for certain patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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