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  • Question 1 - A patient who started taking simvastatin half a year ago is experiencing muscle...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who started taking simvastatin half a year ago is experiencing muscle aches all over. What is not considered a risk factor for myopathy caused by statins?

      Your Answer: Low body mass index

      Correct Answer: Large fall in LDL-cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      42
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old woman, who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman, who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin and digoxin, tells you that she has been feeling low lately and has been self medicating with St John's wort which she bought from a health store.

      Which of the following interactions can be anticipated between St John's Wort and her current medication?

      Your Answer: INR is likely to be increased

      Correct Answer: INR is likely to be reduced

      Explanation:

      St John’s Wort and Medication Interactions

      St John’s wort is a popular natural remedy for depressive symptoms. However, it is important to note that it is a liver enzyme inducer, which can lead to interactions with other medications. For example, St John’s wort may reduce the efficacy of warfarin, a blood thinner, requiring an increased dose to maintain the desired level of anticoagulation. It may also reduce the efficacy of digoxin, a medication used to treat heart failure. Therefore, it is important to discuss the use of St John’s wort with a healthcare provider before taking it in combination with other medications. By doing so, potential interactions can be identified and managed appropriately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      60.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You are reviewing a patient with hypertension who is 65 years old. As...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a patient with hypertension who is 65 years old. As part of the review, you assess his 10 year cardiovascular disease risk and this is significant at 32%.

      This prompts discussion about the role of lipid lowering treatment in the primary prevention of cardiovascular disease. Following discussion, you both agree to start him on atorvastatin 20 mg daily. You can see his recent blood tests (FBC, U&Es, LFTs, TFTs and fasting glucose) are all normal.

      In terms of follow up blood testing, which of the following should be performed after starting the atorvastatin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Full blood count every three months for the first 12 months after initiation

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Liver Function in Statin Therapy

      Before starting statin therapy, it is important to measure liver function. If liver transaminases are three times the upper limit of normal, statins should not be initiated. However, if the liver enzymes are elevated but less than three times the upper limit of normal, statin therapy can still be used.

      Once statin therapy is initiated, liver function tests should be repeated within the first three months of treatment and then at 12 months. Additionally, liver function tests should be measured if a dose increase is made or if signs or symptoms of liver toxicity occur.

      It is crucial to monitor liver function in patients receiving statin therapy to ensure their safety and prevent potential liver damage. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure that patients receive the appropriate treatment while minimizing the risk of liver toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 56-year-old man presents with a racing heart. He states that this started...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents with a racing heart. He states that this started while he was mowing the lawn but subsided after he drank a glass of cold lemonade. However, his symptoms have returned. On physical examination, his pulse is regular and measures 150 bpm. An ECG reveals a narrow complex tachycardia with P waves linked to each QRS complex.
      What is the probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrioventricular (AV) nodal re-entrant tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating AV Nodal Re-entrant Tachycardia from Other Arrhythmias: An ECG Analysis

      AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia is a type of arrhythmia that causes recurrent palpitations lasting for minutes to hours. Patients may also experience chest pain, shortness of breath, and syncope. The heart rate is usually between 150-250 bpm, and the rhythm is regular with narrow QRS complexes. Vagal manoeuvres can terminate the episode. However, it is essential to differentiate AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia from other arrhythmias, such as atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, torsades de pointes, and ventricular tachycardia. An ECG analysis can help in this regard.

      Atrial fibrillation is characterised by irregular ventricular complexes with an absence of P waves. In contrast, atrial flutter shows a saw-tooth pattern with the absence of P waves. Torsades de pointes is a rare form of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia that causes a gradual change in the amplitude and twisting of the QRS complexes around the isoelectric line. It is associated with a prolonged QT interval. Ventricular tachycardia, on the other hand, is characterised by broad complexes on ECG.

      In conclusion, an ECG analysis is crucial in differentiating AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia from other arrhythmias. It helps in providing accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment to the patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 70-year-old woman is prescribed amlodipine 5mg once daily for hypertension. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman is prescribed amlodipine 5mg once daily for hypertension. She has no significant medical history and her routine blood tests (including fasting glucose) and ECG were unremarkable.

      What is the recommended target blood pressure for her while on amlodipine treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The recommended blood pressure target for individuals under 80 years old during a clinic reading is 140/90 mmHg. However, the Quality and Outcomes Framework (QOF) indicator for GPs practicing in England specifies a slightly higher target of below 150/90 mmHg.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
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  • Question 6 - A 76-year-old woman presents for review. She underwent ambulatory blood pressure monitoring which...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old woman presents for review. She underwent ambulatory blood pressure monitoring which revealed an average reading of 142/90 mmHg. Apart from hypothyroidism, there is no significant medical history. Her 10-year cardiovascular risk score is 23%. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start amlodipine

      Explanation:

      For patients under 80 years old, the target blood pressure during clinic readings is 140/90 mmHg. However, the average reading is currently above this threshold, indicating the need for treatment with a calcium channel blocker.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 68-year-old woman has weight loss and heat intolerance.

    Investigations:

    Free T4 32.9 pmol/L (9.8-23.1)

    TSH...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman has weight loss and heat intolerance.

      Investigations:

      Free T4 32.9 pmol/L (9.8-23.1)

      TSH <0.02 mU/L (0.35-5.50)

      Free T3 11.1 pmol/L (3.5-6.5)

      She is taking medication for atrial fibrillation, ischaemic heart disease and type 2 diabetes.

      Which drug is most likely to be responsible for these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone and Thyroid Function

      Amiodarone is a medication commonly used to treat heart rhythm disorders. However, it can also cause abnormalities in thyroid function tests. This can result in both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism. Hypothyroidism may occur due to interference with the conversion of thyroxine (T4) to tri-iodothyronine (T3). On the other hand, hyperthyroidism may be caused by thyroiditis or the donation of iodine, as amiodarone contains a large amount of iodine.

      Aside from thyroid issues, amiodarone can also lead to other side effects such as pulmonary fibrosis and photosensitivity reactions. It is important to monitor thyroid function tests regularly when taking amiodarone and to report any symptoms of thyroid dysfunction to a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 8 - A 79-year-old man presents with ongoing angina attacks despite being on atenolol 100...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man presents with ongoing angina attacks despite being on atenolol 100 mg od for his known ischaemic heart disease. On examination, his cardiovascular system appears normal with a pulse of 72 bpm and a blood pressure of 158/96 mmHg. What would be the most suitable course of action for further management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add nifedipine MR 30 mg od

      Explanation:

      When beta-blocker monotherapy is insufficient in controlling angina, NICE guidelines suggest incorporating a calcium channel blocker. However, verapamil is not recommended while taking a beta-blocker, and diltiazem should be used with caution due to the possibility of bradycardia. The initial dosage for isosorbide mononitrate is twice daily at 10 mg.

      Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

      Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the only true statement about high blood pressure from the given...

    Incorrect

    • What is the only true statement about high blood pressure from the given list?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treatment of hypertension reduces the risk of coronary heart disease by approximately 20%.

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypertension: Prevalence, Types, and Treatment

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that affects both men and women, with its prevalence increasing with age. Essential hypertension, which has no identifiable cause, is the most common type of hypertension, affecting 95% of hypertensive patients. However, indications for further evaluation include resistant hypertension and early, late, or rapid onset of high blood pressure.

      Reducing blood pressure by an average of 12/6 mm Hg can significantly reduce the risk of stroke and coronary heart disease. Salt restriction, alcohol reduction, smoking cessation, aerobic exercise, and weight loss can also help reduce blood pressure by 3-5 mmHg, comparable to some drug treatments.

      In severe cases, hypertension can lead to target organ damage, resulting in a hypertensive emergency. Malignant hypertension, which is diagnosed when papilloedema is present, can cause symptoms such as severe headache, visual disturbance, dyspnoea, chest pain, nausea, and neurological deficit.

      Understanding hypertension and its types is crucial in managing and treating this condition. By implementing lifestyle changes and seeking medical attention when necessary, individuals can reduce their risk of hypertension-related complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
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  • Question 10 - A 75-year-old patient comes in for her regular heart failure check-up. Upon reviewing...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old patient comes in for her regular heart failure check-up. Upon reviewing her echocardiogram, it is found that she has a reduced ejection fraction of 40% and no significant valve disease. Her blood pressure is measured at 160/90 mmHg during the visit. There is no indication of fluid overload, and her weight has remained stable. The patient is currently taking bisoprolol and furosemide.

      After reviewing her blood work, it is discovered that her potassium levels are slightly elevated at 5.3 mmol/L. What would be the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Seek specialist advice before starting an ACE inhibitor owing to the raised potassium

      Explanation:

      Before initiating an ACE inhibitor in patients with heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, it is recommended to seek specialist advice if the potassium level is above 5 mmol/L. The current NICE CKS guidance suggests starting bisoprolol and ramipril for such patients. However, if the potassium level is high, it is advisable to repeat the urea and electrolytes in 2-3 weeks and seek specialist advice before starting an ACE inhibitor. As the patient is asymptomatic, increasing the dose of furosemide would not be beneficial. There is no need for same-day medical assessment as the patient is currently stable. Although bendroflumethiazide may be suitable for hypertension, NICE CKS recommends ACEi for heart failure treatment.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 11 - A 75-year-old man is found to be in atrial fibrillation during a routine...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man is found to be in atrial fibrillation during a routine check-up. He reports having noticed some irregularity in his pulse for a few weeks. What is the appropriate management for him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ß-blockers are recommended as first-line treatment

      Explanation:

      Rate Control vs Rhythm Control in Atrial Fibrillation: Recent Trials and Treatment Guidelines

      Recent trials have confirmed that for most patients with atrial fibrillation, rate control is superior to rhythm control in terms of survival benefit. However, DC cardioversion may be considered for new onset and younger patients. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines recommend first-line therapy with ß-blockers or rate-limiting calcium antagonists, or digoxin if these are not tolerated. Verapamil should not be used in combination with a ß-blocker. These guidelines provide a framework for the management of atrial fibrillation and can help clinicians make informed treatment decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 12 - A 45-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department following a fall. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department following a fall. He recalled rushing for the train before feeling dizzy. His father recently died suddenly because of a heart problem. On examination, he has a ‘jerky’ pulse, a thrusting apex beat with double impulse and a late ejection systolic murmur which diminishes on squatting.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a genetic heart condition that is the leading cause of sudden cardiac death in young people. It is characterized by an enlarged left ventricle, which can cause obstruction of blood flow. A jerky pulse and an intensifying systolic murmur during activities that decrease blood volume in the left ventricle are common examination findings. Aortic stenosis, Brugada syndrome, mitral regurgitation, and mitral valve prolapse are other heart conditions that have different symptoms and examination findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old Caucasian man has been diagnosed with mild hypertension following ambulatory blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old Caucasian man has been diagnosed with mild hypertension following ambulatory blood pressure monitoring. Despite reducing caffeine, increasing exercise and losing 4 kg, his BP has not reduced. Investigations reveal:
      • Hb 131 g/L (135 - 180)
      • WCC 5.4 ×109/L (4 - 10)
      • PLT 200 ×109/L (150 - 400)
      • Sodium 140 mmol/L (134 - 143)
      • Potassium 4.8 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      • Creatinine 100 µmol/L (60 - 120)
      Renal ultrasound scan shows two normal sized kidneys. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for his BP?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Antihypertensive Therapy Guidelines

      Guidelines for Antihypertensive therapy recommend different treatments based on age and ethnicity. For individuals under 55 years old, an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor is the first line of treatment. If an ACE inhibitor is not tolerated, a low-cost angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) can be offered. However, ACE inhibitors and ARBs should not be combined to treat hypertension.

      For individuals over 55 years old, or of African or Caribbean origin of any age, a calcium-channel blocker (CCB) is recommended. If a CCB is not suitable, a thiazide-like diuretic can be offered. It is important to note that ACE inhibitors and ARBs should not be routinely prescribed to pregnant women.

      Overall, it is important to establish whether or not a patient is diabetic before determining the appropriate Antihypertensive therapy. Following these guidelines can help effectively manage hypertension and reduce the risk of associated complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 14 - An 80-year-old gentleman presents with an infective exacerbation of his bronchiectasis. Following clinical...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old gentleman presents with an infective exacerbation of his bronchiectasis. Following clinical assessment you decide to treat him with a course of antibiotics. He has a past medical history of atrial fibrillation for which he takes lifelong warfarin. His notes state he is penicillin allergic and the patient confirms a history of a true allergy.

      You decide to prescribe a course of doxycycline, 200 mg on day 1 then 100 mg daily to complete a 14 day course.

      You can see his INR is very well managed and is consistently between 2.0 and 3.0 and he has been taking 3 mg and 4 mg on alternate days for the last six months without the need for any dose changes.

      What is the most appropriate management of his warfarin therapy during the treatment of this acute exacerbation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Check his INR three to five days after starting the doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Managing Warfarin Patients on Antibiotics

      When a patient on warfarin requires antibiotics, it is a common clinical scenario that requires careful management. While there is no need to stop warfarin or switch to aspirin, it is important to monitor the patient’s INR levels closely. Typically, extra INR monitoring should be performed three to five days after starting the antibiotics to check for any potential impact on the INR. If necessary, a dosing change for warfarin may be needed.

      According to the British Committee for Standards in Haematology Guidelines for oral anticoagulation with warfarin (2011), it is important to follow specific recommendations for INR testing when a potential drug interaction occurs. By carefully monitoring INR levels and adjusting warfarin dosing as needed, healthcare providers can help ensure the safety and efficacy of treatment for patients on warfarin who require antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 15 - An 80 year old male underwent an ECG due to palpitations and was...

    Incorrect

    • An 80 year old male underwent an ECG due to palpitations and was found to have AF with a heart rate of 76 bpm. Upon further evaluation, you determine that he has permanent AF and a history of hypertension. If there are no contraindications, what would be the most suitable initial step to take at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Direct oral anticoagulant

      Explanation:

      According to the patient’s CHADSVASC2 score, which is 4, they have a high risk of stroke due to factors such as congestive cardiac failure, hypertension, age over 75, and being female. As per NICE guidelines, all patients with a CHADSVASC score of 2 or more should be offered anticoagulation, while taking into account their bleeding risk using the ORBIT score. Direct oral anticoagulants are now preferred over warfarin as the first-line treatment. For men with a score of 1, anticoagulation should be considered. Beta-blockers or a rate-limiting calcium channel blocker should be offered first-line for rate control, while digoxin should only be used for sedentary patients.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 16 - A 65-year-old male is being evaluated for hypertension associated with type 2 diabetes.

    Currently,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male is being evaluated for hypertension associated with type 2 diabetes.

      Currently, he is taking aspirin 75 mg daily, amlodipine 10 mg daily, and atorvastatin 20 mg daily. However, his blood pressure remains consistently around 160/92 mmHg.

      What antihypertensive medication would you recommend adding to improve this patient's hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Hypertension Management in Type 2 Diabetes

      This patient with type 2 diabetes has poorly controlled hypertension, but is currently tolerating his medication well. The recommended antihypertensive for diabetes is an ACE inhibitor, which can be combined with a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine. Beta-blockers should be avoided for routine hypertension treatment in diabetic patients. Methyldopa is used for hypertension during pregnancy, while moxonidine is used when other medications have failed. If blood pressure control is still inadequate, a thiazide diuretic can be added to the current regimen of ramipril and amlodipine. Proper management of hypertension is crucial in diabetic patients to prevent complications and improve overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old male is being reviewed after being admitted six weeks ago with...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male is being reviewed after being admitted six weeks ago with an inferior myocardial infarction (MI) and treated with thrombolysis. He has been prescribed atenolol 50 mg daily, aspirin, and rosuvastatin 10 mg daily upon discharge. He has quit smoking after his MI and is now asking which foods he should avoid.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kippers

      Explanation:

      Diet Recommendations Following a Heart Attack

      Following a heart attack, it is important for patients to make dietary changes to reduce the risk of another cardiac event. One of the key recommendations is to avoid foods high in saturated fat, such as cheese, milk, and fried foods. Instead, patients should switch to a diet rich in high-fiber, starch-based foods, and aim to consume five portions of fresh fruits and vegetables daily, as well as oily fish.

      However, it is important to note that NICE guidance on Acute Coronary Syndromes (NG185) advises against the use of omega-3 capsules and supplements to prevent another heart attack. While oily fish is still recommended as a source of omega-3, patients should not rely on supplements as a substitute for a healthy diet. By making these dietary changes, patients can improve their heart health and reduce the risk of future cardiac events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 18 - In this case where a 50-year-old man was diagnosed with hypertension and started...

    Incorrect

    • In this case where a 50-year-old man was diagnosed with hypertension and started on Ramipril 2.5mg, with subsequent blood tests showing a 20% reduction in eGFR but stable renal function and serum electrolytes, what would be the recommended course of action according to NICE guidelines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop Ramipril and replace with calcium channel blocker

      Explanation:

      Managing Abnormal Results when Initiating or Increasing ACE-I Dose

      When initiating or increasing the dose of an ACE-I, it is important to monitor for any abnormal results. According to NICE, a slight increase in serum creatinine and potassium is expected. However, if the eGFR reduction is 25% or less (or serum creatinine increase of less than 30%), no modification to the treatment regime is needed, as long as no further reductions occur.

      If the eGFR decrease is 25% or more, it is important to consider other potential causes such as volume depletion, other nephrotoxic drugs, or vasodilators. If none of these are applicable, it may be necessary to stop the ACE-I or reduce the dose to a previously tolerated level. It is recommended to recheck levels in 5-7 days to ensure that the treatment is effective and safe for the patient. By closely monitoring and managing abnormal results, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients receive the best possible care when taking ACE-Is.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 19 - You see a 50-year-old type one diabetic patient who has come to see...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 50-year-old type one diabetic patient who has come to see you regarding his erectile dysfunction. He reports a gradual decline in his ability to achieve and maintain erections over the past 6 months. After reviewing his medications and discussing treatment options, you suggest he try a phosphodiesterase (PDE-5) inhibitor and prescribe him sildenafil.

      What advice should you give this patient regarding taking a PDE-5 inhibitor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sexual stimulation is required to facilitate an erection

      Explanation:

      PDE-5 inhibitors do not cause an erection on their own, but rather require sexual stimulation to assist in achieving an erection. They are typically the first choice for treating erectile dysfunction, as long as there are no contraindications.

      The primary cause of ED is often vasculogenic, such as cardiovascular disease, which means that the same lifestyle and risk factors that apply to CVD also apply to ED. Treatment for ED typically involves a combination of lifestyle changes and medication. It is important to advise patients to lose weight, quit smoking, reduce alcohol consumption, and increase exercise. Lifestyle changes and risk factor modification should be implemented before or alongside treatment.

      Generic sildenafil is available on the NHS without restrictions. Additionally, other PDE-5 inhibitors may be prescribed on the NHS for certain medical conditions, such as diabetes.

      For most men, as-needed treatment with a PDE-5 inhibitor is appropriate. The frequency of treatment will depend on the individual.

      Sildenafil should be taken one hour before sexual activity and requires sexual stimulation to facilitate an erection.

      Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old woman who has previously had breast cancer visits her nearby GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman who has previously had breast cancer visits her nearby GP clinic complaining of swelling in her left calf for the past two days. Which scoring system should be utilized to evaluate her likelihood of having a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wells score

      Explanation:

      Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines in 2020, recommending the use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. They also recommend the use of DOACs in patients with active cancer, as opposed to low-molecular weight heparin as was previously recommended. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis.

      If a patient is suspected of having a DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be performed to assess the likelihood of the condition. If a DVT is ‘likely’ (2 points or more), a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be carried out within 4 hours. If the result is positive, then a diagnosis of DVT is made and anticoagulant treatment should start. If the result is negative, a D-dimer test should be arranged. If a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan cannot be carried out within 4 hours, a D-dimer test should be performed and interim therapeutic anticoagulation administered whilst waiting for the proximal leg vein ultrasound scan (which should be performed within 24 hours).

      The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy. The big change in the 2020 guidelines was the increased use of DOACs. Apixaban or rivaroxaban (both DOACs) should be offered first-line following the diagnosis of a DVT. Instead of using low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH) until the diagnosis is confirmed, NICE now advocate using a DOAC once a diagnosis is suspected, with this continued if the diagnosis is confirmed. If neither apixaban or rivaroxaban are suitable, then either LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban OR LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA, i.e. warfarin) can be used.

      All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months. Continuing anticoagulation after this period is partly determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked. If the VTE was provoked, the treatment is typically stopped after the initial 3 months (3 to 6 months for people with active cancer). If the VTE was

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 21 - A 65-year-old man comes in for a blood pressure check. His at-home readings...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes in for a blood pressure check. His at-home readings have consistently been high at 155/94 mmHg. He reports feeling fine. He is currently on the maximum dose of amlodipine. An echocardiogram done recently showed moderate to severe aortic stenosis.

      What is the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add indapamide and review urea and electrolytes and blood pressure in 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      It is not recommended to prescribe ACE inhibitors to patients with moderate-severe aortic stenosis, making ramipril an inappropriate choice. Similarly, angiotensin-II receptor blockers like losartan are also contraindicated. Furosemide is not indicated for hypertension treatment. According to NICE CKS guidance, a combination of thiazide-like diuretics and calcium channel blockers is recommended, making indapamide a suitable alternative to ramipril and losartan. Digoxin has no role in hypertension treatment in this case.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 22 - A 64-year-old man who underwent mechanical mitral valve replacement four years ago is...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old man who underwent mechanical mitral valve replacement four years ago is being evaluated. What is the probable long-term antithrombotic treatment he is receiving?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Warfarin

      Explanation:

      Antithrombotic therapy for prosthetic heart valves differs depending on the type of valve. Bioprosthetic valves typically only require aspirin, while mechanical valves require both warfarin and aspirin. However, according to the 2017 European Society of Cardiology guidelines, aspirin is only given in addition if there is another indication, such as ischaemic heart disease. Direct acting oral anticoagulants are not used for patients with a mechanical heart valve.

      Prosthetic Heart Valves: Options and Considerations

      Prosthetic heart valves are commonly used to replace damaged or diseased valves in the heart. The two main options for replacement are biological (bioprosthetic) or mechanical valves. Bioprosthetic valves are usually derived from bovine or porcine sources and are preferred for older patients. However, they have a major disadvantage of structural deterioration and calcification over time. On the other hand, mechanical valves have a low failure rate but require long-term anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Warfarin is still the preferred anticoagulant for patients with mechanical heart valves, and the target INR varies depending on the valve location. Aspirin is only given in addition if there is an additional indication, such as ischaemic heart disease.

      It is important to consider the patient’s age, medical history, and lifestyle when choosing a prosthetic heart valve. While bioprosthetic valves may not require long-term anticoagulation, they may need to be replaced sooner than mechanical valves. Mechanical valves, on the other hand, may require lifelong anticoagulation, which can be challenging for some patients. Additionally, following the 2008 NICE guidelines, antibiotics are no longer recommended for common procedures such as dental work for prophylaxis of endocarditis. Therefore, it is crucial to weigh the benefits and risks of each option and make an informed decision with the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 23 - You are evaluating an 80-year-old patient who has recently been diagnosed with heart...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating an 80-year-old patient who has recently been diagnosed with heart failure. Her left ventricular ejection fraction is 55%. She has been experiencing orthopnoea and ankle swelling. The cardiology team has referred her to you for medication initiation.

      During the assessment, her vital signs are blood pressure 120/80 mmHg and heart rate 82/min.

      What should be the initial consideration in her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      Furosemide is the appropriate choice for managing symptoms in individuals with heart failure with preserved ejection fraction using loop diuretics. Spironolactone is not recommended for this purpose. In cases of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction, mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists should be considered along with an ACE inhibitor (or ARB) and beta-blocker if symptoms persist.

      Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 24 - A 65-year-old female presents to the rapid access transient ischaemic attack clinic with...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female presents to the rapid access transient ischaemic attack clinic with a history of transient loss of vision in the right eye over the past three weeks. Upon examination, a carotid ultrasound reveals a 48% stenosis of her right carotid artery and an ECG shows sinus rhythm. The patient was initiated on aspirin 300 mg od by her GP after the first episode. What is the optimal course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clopidogrel

      Explanation:

      According to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, patients diagnosed with ischaemic stroke or TIA without paroxysmal or permanent atrial fibrillation should be prescribed antiplatelet therapy for long-term vascular prevention. The standard treatment is clopidogrel 75 mg daily, which is licensed for use in ischaemic stroke and can be used off-label for TIA. If clopidogrel and aspirin are contraindicated or cannot be tolerated, modified-release dipyridamole 200 mg twice daily may be used. Aspirin 75 mg daily can be used if both clopidogrel and modified-release dipyridamole are contraindicated or cannot be tolerated. If clopidogrel cannot be tolerated, aspirin 75 mg daily with modified-release dipyridamole 200 mg twice daily may be used. The 2012 Royal College of Physicians National clinical guidelines for stroke now recommend using clopidogrel following a TIA, which aligns with current stroke guidance.

      A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax), diplopia, and homonymous hemianopia.

      NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy, giving aspirin 300 mg immediately unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If aspirin is contraindicated, management should be discussed urgently with the specialist team. Specialist review is necessary if the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis. Urgent assessment within 24 hours by a specialist stroke physician is required if the patient has had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment should be made as soon as possible within 7 days if the patient has had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. The person should be advised not to drive until they have been seen by a specialist.

      Neuroimaging should be done on the same day as specialist assessment if possible. MRI is preferred to determine the territory of ischaemia or to detect haemorrhage or alternative pathologies. Carotid imaging is necessary as atherosclerosis in the carotid artery may be a source of emboli in some patients. All patients should have an urgent carotid doppler unless they are not a candidate for carotid endarterectomy.

      Antithrombotic therapy is recommended, with clopidogrel being the first-line treatment. Aspirin + dipyridamole should be given to patients who cannot tolerate clopidogrel. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the patient has suffered a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory and is not severely disabled. It should only be recommended if carotid stenosis is greater

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 25 - A 63-year-old man is taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation.
    Select the single ideal target...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man is taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation.
      Select the single ideal target INR from the options.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2.5

      Explanation:

      Recommended INR Levels for Anticoagulation Therapy

      Anticoagulation therapy is used to prevent blood clots in individuals with certain medical conditions. The target level for the majority of indications is an INR (international normalized ratio) of 2.5. However, for individuals who are already receiving warfarin and have recurrent deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism, a higher INR of 3.5 is recommended. Additionally, for patients with mechanical prosthetic heart valves, the recommended INR level ranges from 3.0 to 3.5 depending on the type of valve. It is important to closely monitor INR levels and adjust the dosage of anticoagulation therapy as needed to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 26 - A 55-year-old woman suffers from angina and fibromyalgia. She finds ibuprofen more effective...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman suffers from angina and fibromyalgia. She finds ibuprofen more effective than simple analgesics for her fibromyalgia pain.
      Select from the list the single true statement regarding the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) in patients with cardiovascular disease.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low-dose ibuprofen and naproxen appear to be associated with a lower cardiovascular risk compared with diclofenac

      Explanation:

      Risks Associated with Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs)

      Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) have the potential to increase the risk of thrombotic cardiovascular disease, even with short-term use. This risk applies to all NSAID users, regardless of their baseline risk, and is particularly high in patients with risk factors for cardiovascular events. Observational data suggests that high doses of diclofenac and ibuprofen pose the greatest risk, while naproxen and lower doses of ibuprofen do not have significant cardiovascular risk.

      It is recommended to avoid NSAIDs in patients with cardiovascular disease, and if necessary, to use the lowest effective dose for the shortest possible time. NSAIDs may also counteract the antiplatelet effects of aspirin and increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeds. Therefore, it is advised to avoid concomitant use and consider prescribing gastroprotection with a proton pump inhibitor if necessary.

      For more information on the risks associated with NSAIDs, please refer to the following link: http://cks.nice.org.uk/nsaids-prescribing-issues#!scenario

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 3-year history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 3-year history of increasing dyspnoea with strenuous exercise. She has also had occasional chest pain on exertion.
      On examination, she has an ejection systolic murmur. Following an examination and electrocardiogram (ECG) in primary care, she is referred for a cardiology review and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is diagnosed.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate screening method for her sister?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Echocardiography

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy: Methods and Limitations

      Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) is a genetic heart condition that can lead to sudden death, especially in young athletes. Diagnosis of HCM is based on the demonstration of unexplained myocardial hypertrophy, which can be detected using two-dimensional echocardiography. However, the criteria for diagnosis vary depending on the patient’s size and family history. Genetic screening is not always reliable, as mutations are only found in 60% of patients. An abnormal electrocardiogram (ECG) is common but nonspecific, while exercise testing and ventilation-perfusion scans have limited diagnostic value. It is important to consider the limitations of these methods when evaluating patients with suspected HCM.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 28 - You assess a 63-year-old man who has recently been released from a hospital...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 63-year-old man who has recently been released from a hospital in Hungary after experiencing a heart attack. He presents a copy of an echocardiogram report indicating that his left ventricular ejection fraction is 38%. During the examination, you note that his pulse is regular at 78 beats per minute, his blood pressure is 124/72 mmHg, and his chest is clear. He is currently taking aspirin, simvastatin, and lisinopril. What would be the most appropriate course of action regarding his medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      The use of carvedilol and bisoprolol has been proven to decrease mortality in stable heart failure patients, while there is no evidence to support the use of other beta-blockers. NICE guidelines suggest that all individuals with heart failure should be prescribed both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker.

      Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 29 - A 38-year-old man presents to clinic for a routine check-up. He is concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man presents to clinic for a routine check-up. He is concerned about his risk for heart disease as his father had a heart attack at the age of 50. He reports a non-smoking history, a blood pressure of 128/82 mmHg, and a body mass index of 25 kg/m.

      His recent blood work reveals the following results:

      - Sodium: 142 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 3.8 mmol/L
      - Urea: 5.2 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 78 mol/L
      - Total cholesterol: 6.8 mmol/L
      - HDL cholesterol: 1.3 mmol/L
      - LDL cholesterol: 4.5 mmol/L
      - Triglycerides: 1.2 mmol/L
      - Fasting glucose: 5.1 mmol/L

      Based on these results, his QRISK2 score is calculated to be 3.5%. What is the most appropriate plan of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer him to a specialist lipids clinic

      Explanation:

      The 2014 NICE lipid modification guidelines provide recommendations for familial hyperlipidaemia. Individuals with a total cholesterol concentration above 7.5 mmol/litre and a family history of premature coronary heart disease should be investigated for familial hypercholesterolaemia as described in NICE clinical guideline 71. Those with a total cholesterol concentration exceeding 9.0 mmol/litre or a nonHDL cholesterol concentration above 7.5 mmol/litre should receive specialist assessment, even if they do not have a first-degree family history of premature coronary heart disease.

      Management of Hyperlipidaemia: NICE Guidelines

      Hyperlipidaemia, or high levels of lipids in the blood, is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease (CVD). In 2014, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on lipid modification, which caused controversy due to the recommendation of statins for a significant proportion of the population over the age of 60. The guidelines suggest a systematic strategy to identify people over 40 years who are at high risk of CVD, using the QRISK2 CVD risk assessment tool. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and patients with very high cholesterol levels should be investigated for familial hyperlipidaemia. The new guidelines recommend offering a statin to people with a QRISK2 10-year risk of 10% or greater, with atorvastatin 20 mg offered first-line. Special situations, such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease, are also addressed. Lifestyle modifications, including a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, alcohol intake, and smoking cessation, are important in managing hyperlipidaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 30 - A 64-year-old man visits his primary care physician for a blood pressure check-up....

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old man visits his primary care physician for a blood pressure check-up. He has a medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and ischemic heart disease.

      The patient is currently taking the following medications:
      - Ramipril 10 mg once daily
      - Amlodipine 10 mg once daily
      - Bendroflumethiazide 2.5mg once daily
      - Atorvastatin 80 mg once daily
      - Aspirin 75 mg once daily

      The most recent change to his blood pressure medication was the addition of bendroflumethiazide 6 months ago, which has reduced his average home systolic readings by approximately 15 mmHg. The average of home blood pressure monitoring over the past two weeks is now 160/82 mmHg.

      A blood test is conducted, and the results show:
      - K+ 4.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)

      After ruling out secondary causes of hypertension, what is the next course of action in managing his blood pressure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add atenolol 25 mg orally once daily

      Explanation:

      The patient has poorly controlled hypertension despite taking an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and a standard-dose thiazide diuretic. As their potassium levels are above 4.5mmol/l, it is recommended to add an alpha- or beta-blocker to their medication regimen. According to the 2019 NICE guidelines, this stage is considered treatment resistance hypertension, and the GP should also assess for adherence to medication and postural drop. If blood pressure remains high, referral to a specialist or adding a fourth drug may be necessary. Bendroflumethiazide should not be stopped as it has been effective in lowering blood pressure. Atenolol is a suitable beta-blocker to start with, and a reasonable starting dose is 25 mg, which can be adjusted based on the patient’s response. Spironolactone should only be considered if potassium levels are below 4.5mmol/l.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 31 - A 28-year-old male has been diagnosed with Brugada syndrome following two episodes of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male has been diagnosed with Brugada syndrome following two episodes of cardiogenic syncope. During the syncope episodes, ECG monitoring revealed that he had a sustained ventricular arrhythmia. He has opted for an elective ICD insertion and seeks your guidance on driving. He is employed as a software programmer in a business park located approximately 10 miles outside the town center, and he typically commutes to and from work by car. What are the DVLA regulations concerning driving after an ICD implantation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No driving for 6 months

      Explanation:

      The DVLA has stringent rules in place for individuals with ICDs. They are prohibited from driving a group 1 vehicle for a period of 6 months following the insertion of an ICD or after experiencing an ICD shock. Furthermore, they are permanently disqualified from obtaining a group 2 HGV license.

      DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.

      Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.

      Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 32 - A 55-year-old man visits your clinic to request a refill of his sildenafil...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man visits your clinic to request a refill of his sildenafil prescription, which he has been taking for several years. Upon reviewing his medical history, you discover that he suffered a heart attack four months ago. What course of action should you take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Do not prescribe as contraindicated

      Explanation:

      Sildenafil use is not recommended for patients who have had a recent myocardial infarction or unstable angina, as stated in both the BNF and NICE guidelines. As the patient in this question had a myocardial infarction just 4 months ago, prescribing sildenafil is contraindicated. Therefore, the answer to this question is do not prescribe.

      Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 33 - A 67-year-old man presents with a recent diagnosis of angina pectoris. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents with a recent diagnosis of angina pectoris. He is currently on aspirin, simvastatin, atenolol, and nifedipine, but is still experiencing frequent use of his GTN spray. What would be the most suitable course of action for further management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add isosorbide mononitrate MR and refer to cardiology for consideration of PCI or CABG

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, if a patient needs a third anti-anginal medication, they should be referred for evaluation of a more permanent solution such as PCI or CABG. Although ACE inhibitors may be beneficial for certain patients with stable angina, they would not alleviate his angina symptoms.

      Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

      Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 34 - A 68-year-old man presents for follow-up of his atrial fibrillation. He recently underwent...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents for follow-up of his atrial fibrillation. He recently underwent catheter ablation for atrial fibrillation and it was successful.

      The patient has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes. His most recent blood pressure reading was 150/92 mmHg.

      What is the optimal approach for managing his anticoagulation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue anticoagulation long-term

      Explanation:

      Patients who have undergone catheter ablation for atrial fibrillation must continue with long-term anticoagulation based on their CHA2DS2-VASc score. According to the guidelines of the American College of Cardiology, the decision to discontinue anticoagulation after two months of catheter ablation should be based on the patient’s stroke risk profile, not on the outcome of the procedure. There is no published evidence that it is safe to stop anticoagulation after ablation if the CHA2DS2-Vasc score is equal to or greater than 1. Therefore, in the given scenario, since the CHA2DS2-VASc score indicates moderate to high risk (3 points), anticoagulation should be continued.

      Although monitoring heart rhythm is crucial due to the risk of recurrence, anticoagulation should still be continued even if the patient remains in sinus rhythm. Blood pressure readings do not provide any indication to stop anticoagulation.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a heart condition that requires prompt management. The management of AF depends on the patient’s haemodynamic stability and the duration of the AF. For haemodynamically unstable patients, electrical cardioversion is recommended. For haemodynamically stable patients, rate control is the first-line treatment strategy, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are commonly used to control the heart rate. Rhythm control is another treatment option that involves the use of medications such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone. Catheter ablation is recommended for patients who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication. The procedure involves the use of radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that cause AF. Anticoagulation is necessary before and during the procedure to reduce the risk of stroke. The success rate of catheter ablation varies, with around 50% of patients experiencing an early recurrence of AF within three months. However, after three years, around 55% of patients who have undergone a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 35 - Which lipid profile result would warrant the strongest recommendation for referral to a...

    Incorrect

    • Which lipid profile result would warrant the strongest recommendation for referral to a specialist lipid clinic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: LDL cholesterol of 5 mmol/L

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Specialist Lipid Clinics in Managing Adverse Lipid Profiles

      Specialist lipid clinics are crucial in managing adverse lipid profiles, particularly those with a familial origin. Elevated levels of lipid profile components can significantly increase the risk of cardiovascular disease, necessitating more aggressive treatment to mitigate this risk. Hypertriglyceridaemia, in particular, is a risk factor for pancreatitis.

      To determine when referral to a lipid clinic is necessary, certain levels of total cholesterol, LDL cholesterol, and non-HDL cholesterol must be met. These figures are outlined in the learning point and serve as a guide for healthcare professionals in identifying patients who require specialist lipid care. With the help of lipid clinics, patients can receive tailored treatment plans to manage their lipid profiles and reduce their risk of cardiovascular disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 36 - A 47-year-old man has recently been prescribed apixaban by his haematologist after experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man has recently been prescribed apixaban by his haematologist after experiencing a pulmonary embolism. He is currently taking other medications for his co-existing conditions. Can you identify which of his medications may potentially interact with apixaban?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      If anticoagulation is being used for deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism, the British National Formulary recommends avoiding the simultaneous use of apixaban and carbamazepine. This is because carbamazepine may lower the plasma concentration of apixaban. No interactions have been identified between apixaban and the other options listed.

      Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) are medications used to prevent stroke in non-valvular atrial fibrillation (AF), as well as for the prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism (VTE). To be prescribed DOACs for stroke prevention, patients must have certain risk factors, such as a prior stroke or transient ischaemic attack, age 75 or older, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or heart failure. There are four DOACs available, each with a different mechanism of action and method of excretion. Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor, while rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban are direct factor Xa inhibitors. The majority of DOACs are excreted either through the kidneys or the liver, with the exception of apixaban and edoxaban, which are excreted through the feces. Reversal agents are available for dabigatran and rivaroxaban, but not for apixaban or edoxaban.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 37 - A 50-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type II diabetes mellitus...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type II diabetes mellitus presents with intermittent chest pain which tends to occur when out walking. He describes the pain as radiating to his neck, jaw, and left arm. He feels dizzy and short of breath. The symptoms tend to last for around five minutes after he stops walking and then resolve.
      What feature is most indicative of angina in a patient complaining of chest pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radiation to the throat and jaw

      Explanation:

      Understanding Angina Symptoms: What to Look Out For

      Angina is a type of chest pain that occurs when the heart muscle doesn’t receive enough oxygen-rich blood. Here are some common symptoms associated with angina:

      Radiation to the throat and jaw: Chest pain that radiates to the throat and jaw is typical of angina.

      Prolonged pain: Anginal pain is typically exertional and quickly relieved by rest or glyceryl trinitrate (GTN spray) within around five minutes. It is not typically prolonged.

      Associated dizziness: Pain associated with palpitations or dizziness is less likely to be angina than other attributable causes.

      Associated shortness of breath: Shortness of breath can occur in both cardiac and pulmonary causes of chest pain and so is not specific to angina.

      Pain associated with taking a breath in: Pain associated with breathing is likely to be associated with pulmonary or musculoskeletal causes of chest pain, rather than angina.

      It’s important to note that these symptoms can also be indicative of other health issues, so it’s always best to consult with a healthcare professional if you experience any chest pain or discomfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 38 - A 26-year-old female comes to her GP complaining of feeling tired and experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female comes to her GP complaining of feeling tired and experiencing episodes of dizziness. During the examination, the GP observes an absent pulse in the patient's left radial artery. The following blood test results are obtained:

      - Sodium (Na+): 136 mmol/l
      - Potassium (K+): 4.1 mmol/l
      - Urea: 2.3 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 77 µmol/l
      - Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR): 66 mm/hr

      Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Takayasu's arteritis

      Explanation:

      Takayasu’s arteritis is a type of vasculitis that affects the large blood vessels, often leading to blockages in the aorta. This condition is more commonly seen in young women and Asian individuals. Symptoms may include malaise, headaches, unequal blood pressure in the arms, carotid bruits, absent or weak peripheral pulses, and claudication in the limbs during physical activity. Aortic regurgitation may also occur in around 20% of cases. Renal artery stenosis is a common association with this condition. To diagnose Takayasu’s arteritis, vascular imaging of the arterial tree is necessary, which can be done through magnetic resonance angiography or CT angiography. Treatment typically involves the use of steroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 39 - A 67 year old male with a known history of heart failure visits...

    Incorrect

    • A 67 year old male with a known history of heart failure visits his primary care physician for his yearly examination. During the check-up, his blood pressure is measured at 170/100 mmHg. He is currently taking furosemide and aspirin. Which medication would be the most suitable to include?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enalapril

      Explanation:

      Patients with heart failure have demonstrated improved prognosis with the use of both enalapril and bisoprolol.

      Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 40 - A 53-year-old female visits her GP after experiencing a brief episode of right-sided...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old female visits her GP after experiencing a brief episode of right-sided weakness lasting 10-15 minutes. During examination, the GP discovers that the patient has atrial fibrillation. If the patient continues to have chronic atrial fibrillation, what is the most appropriate type of anticoagulation to use?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Direct oral anticoagulant

      Explanation:

      When it comes to reducing the risk of stroke in patients with AF, DOACs should be the first option. In the case of this patient, her CHA2DS2-VASc score is 3, with 2 points for the transient ischaemic attack and 1 point for being female. Therefore, it is recommended that she be given anticoagulation treatment with DOACs, which are now preferred over warfarin.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 41 - You are evaluating a 72-year-old woman with hypertension, type 2 diabetes and osteoarthritis....

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 72-year-old woman with hypertension, type 2 diabetes and osteoarthritis. She is currently taking 10 mg of ramipril once a day, 10 mg of amlodipine once a day, indapamide 2.5 mg once a day, 500mg of Metformin twice a day, co-codamol PRN and atorvastatin 20 mg at night.

      During her visit to the clinic, her blood pressure (BP) is consistently elevated and today it is 160/98 mmHg. As per the NICE guidelines, you want to initiate another medication to help lower her BP. Her K+ level is 4.2 mmol/l.

      What would be the most suitable additional medication to prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from poorly controlled hypertension despite being on three medications, including an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and a thiazide diuretic. If the patient’s potassium levels are below 4.5mmol/l, the next step would be to add spironolactone to their treatment plan. However, if their potassium levels are above 4.5mmol/l, a higher dose of thiazide-like diuretic treatment should be considered. It is important to note that bendroflumethiazide is not suitable in this case as the patient is already taking indapamide, and chlortalidone is also a thiazide-like diuretic and should not be added. Additionally, candesartan, an angiotensin receptor blocker, should not be used in combination with an ACE inhibitor.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 42 - A 62-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner for a medication consultation. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner for a medication consultation. She has recently suffered a non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction. She has no other significant conditions and prior to this event was not taking medication or known to have cardiovascular disease. Her blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg and her fasting cholesterol is 5.2 mmol/l.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment to reduce the risk of further events?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramipril, atenolol, aspirin and clopidogrel and atorvastatin

      Explanation:

      Recommended Drug Treatment for Secondary Prevention of Myocardial Infarction

      The recommended drug treatment for secondary prevention of myocardial infarction (MI) includes a combination of medications. These medications include a β-blocker, an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, a statin, and dual antiplatelet treatment. Previously, statin treatment was only offered to patients with a cholesterol level of > 5 mmol/l. However, it has been shown that all patients with coronary heart disease benefit from a reduction in total cholesterol and LDL.

      β-blockers are estimated to prevent deaths by 12/1000 treated/year, while ACE inhibitors reduce deaths by 5/1000 treated in the first month post-MI. Trials have also shown reduced long-term mortality for all patients. Aspirin should be given indefinitely, and clopidogrel should be given for up to 12 months.

      In summary, the recommended drug treatment for secondary prevention of myocardial infarction includes a combination of medications that have been shown to reduce mortality rates. It is important for patients to continue taking these medications as prescribed by their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 43 - A 65-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman has a blood pressure of 150/96 mmHg on ambulatory...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman has a blood pressure of 150/96 mmHg on ambulatory blood pressure testing.

      She has no heart murmurs and her chest is clear. Past medical history includes asthma and chronic lymphoedema of the legs.

      As per the latest NICE guidance on hypertension (NG136), what would be the most suitable approach to manage her blood pressure in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise lifestyle changes and repeat in one year

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidance on Antihypertensive Treatment for People Over 55 and Black People of African or Caribbean Family Origin

      According to the latest NICE guidance, people aged over 55 years and black people of African or Caribbean family origin of any age should be offered step 1 antihypertensive treatment with a CCB. If a CCB is not suitable due to oedema or intolerance, or if there is evidence of heart failure or a high risk of heart failure, a thiazide-like diuretic should be offered instead.

      This guidance aims to provide effective treatment options for hypertension in these specific populations, taking into account individual circumstances and potential side effects. It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these recommendations to ensure the best possible outcomes for their patients.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 44 - A 67-year-old lady with mitral valve disease and atrial fibrillation is on warfarin...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old lady with mitral valve disease and atrial fibrillation is on warfarin therapy. Recently, her INR levels have decreased, leading to an increase in the warfarin dosage. What new treatments could be responsible for this change?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: St John's wort

      Explanation:

      Drug Interactions with Warfarin

      Drugs that are metabolized in the liver can induce hepatic microsomal enzymes, which can affect the metabolism of other drugs. In the case of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication, certain drugs can either enhance or reduce its effectiveness.

      St. John’s wort is an enzyme inducer and can increase the metabolism of warfarin, making it less effective. On the other hand, allopurinol can interact with warfarin to enhance its anticoagulant effect. Similarly, amiodarone inhibits the metabolism of coumarins, which can lead to an enhanced anticoagulant effect.

      Clarithromycin, a drug that inhibits CYP3A isozyme, can enhance the anticoagulant effect of coumarins, including warfarin. This is because warfarin is metabolized by the same CYP3A isozyme as clarithromycin. Finally, sertraline may also interact with warfarin to enhance its anticoagulant effect.

      In summary, it is important to be aware of potential drug interactions when taking warfarin, as they can either enhance or reduce its effectiveness. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications they are taking to avoid any potential adverse effects.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 45 - A 58-year-old African gentleman is seen by his GP at a first visit...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old African gentleman is seen by his GP at a first visit registration medical.

      He is completely asymptomatic but his blood pressure measures 150/95 mmHg, then 148/90 mmHg and 155/98 mmHg on two further visits a few weeks apart. He is not taking any medication currently.

      What is the next best treatment option for this gentleman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Organise a 24 hour ambulatory blood pressure monitoring

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Blood Pressure Monitoring

      The latest NICE guidelines recommend ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) or home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) before starting therapy, except for patients with severe hypertension (BP 180/120 mmHg). If the clinic blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg or higher, ABPM should be offered to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. When using ABPM to confirm hypertension, it is important to take at least two measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours (e.g., between 08:00 and 22:00). To confirm a diagnosis of hypertension, the average value of at least 14 measurements taken during the person’s usual waking hours should be used. These guidelines aim to improve the accuracy of hypertension diagnosis and ensure appropriate treatment.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 46 - A 75-year-old man visits his GP for a follow-up appointment 6 weeks after...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man visits his GP for a follow-up appointment 6 weeks after undergoing catheter ablation due to unresponsive atrial fibrillation despite antiarrhythmic treatment. He has a medical history of asthma, which he manages with a salbutamol reliever and beclomethasone preventer inhaler, and type II diabetes, which he controls through his diet. The patient is currently receiving anticoagulation therapy in accordance with guidelines. There are no other significant medical histories.

      What should be the next course of action in his management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue anticoagulation long-term

      Explanation:

      Patients who have undergone catheter ablation for atrial fibrillation still need to continue long-term anticoagulation based on their CHA2DS2-VASc score. In the case of this patient, who has a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 2 due to age and past medical history of diabetes, it is appropriate to continue anticoagulation.

      Amiodarone is typically used for rhythm control of atrial fibrillation, but it is not indicated in this patient who has undergone catheter ablation and has no obvious recurrence of AF.

      Beta-blockers and diltiazem are used for rate control of atrial fibrillation, but medication for AF is not indicated in this patient.

      Anticoagulation can be stopped after 4 weeks post catheter ablation only if the CHA2DS2-VASc score is 0.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a heart condition that requires prompt management. The management of AF depends on the patient’s haemodynamic stability and the duration of the AF. For haemodynamically unstable patients, electrical cardioversion is recommended. For haemodynamically stable patients, rate control is the first-line treatment strategy, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are commonly used to control the heart rate. Rhythm control is another treatment option that involves the use of medications such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone. Catheter ablation is recommended for patients who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication. The procedure involves the use of radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that cause AF. Anticoagulation is necessary before and during the procedure to reduce the risk of stroke. The success rate of catheter ablation varies, with around 50% of patients experiencing an early recurrence of AF within three months. However, after three years, around 55% of patients who have undergone a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 47 - You review a 54-year-old man who has recently been discharged from the hospital...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 54-year-old man who has recently been discharged from the hospital after receiving thrombolysis for an acute inferior myocardial infarction (MI). He was relatively well post-infarct, and he is here to review his post- discharge medication.

      Other past medical history of note includes type 2 diabetes. Current treatment includes metformin 1g BD, aspirin 75 mg, atorvastatin 10 mg daily and ramipril 10 mg. On examination his BP is 155/92 mmHg, pulse is 75 and regular. His BMI is 29 kg/m2. There are bibasal crackles on auscultation of the chest.

      Investigations reveal:

      Hb 125 g/dL (135-180)

      WCC 5.2 ×109/L (4-10)

      PLT 231 ×109/L (150-400)

      Na 139 mmol/L (134-143)

      K 4.5 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)

      Cr 145 µmol/L (60-120)

      HbA1c 55 mmol/mol (20-46)

      7.2% (<5.5)

      Which of the following is true with respect to the management of his post-MI medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A thiazide diuretic is the most appropriate option for controlling his BP

      Explanation:

      Treatment Recommendations for Patients with Acute MI

      All patients who have experienced an acute MI should be offered a combination of medications, including an ACE inhibitor, beta blocker, aspirin, and statin. Calcium channel antagonists are not typically recommended unless a beta blocker is not tolerated.

      While the DIGAMI study initially suggested that transitioning to insulin therapy may be beneficial for patients with type 2 diabetes, subsequent research has shown a trend towards increased mortality with this treatment. Therefore, it is not routinely recommended.

      Thiazide and nicorandil have not shown convincing post-MI outcome data and may worsen insulin resistance. On the other hand, bisoprolol, a selective beta blocker, has demonstrated positive outcomes in patients with heart failure and hypertension, making it a sensible addition to post-MI therapy.

      In summary, a combination of ACE inhibitor, beta blocker, aspirin, and statin is recommended for all patients with acute MI, with caution advised when considering insulin therapy and thiazide or nicorandil use. Bisoprolol may be a beneficial addition for those with hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 48 - Which of the following is the least acknowledged in individuals who are prescribed...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the least acknowledged in individuals who are prescribed amiodarone medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gynaecomastia

      Explanation:

      Gynaecomastia can be caused by drugs such as spironolactone, which is the most frequent cause, as well as cimetidine and digoxin.

      Adverse Effects and Drug Interactions of Amiodarone

      Amiodarone is a medication used to treat irregular heartbeats. However, its use can lead to several adverse effects. One of the most common adverse effects is thyroid dysfunction, which can manifest as either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism. Other adverse effects include corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis or pneumonitis, liver fibrosis or hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a slate-grey appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, bradycardia, and lengthening of the QT interval.

      It is also important to note that amiodarone can interact with other medications. For example, it can decrease the metabolism of warfarin, leading to an increased INR. Additionally, it can increase digoxin levels. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor patients closely for adverse effects and drug interactions when using amiodarone. Proper management and monitoring can help minimize the risks associated with this medication.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 49 - A 65-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of erectile dysfunction. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of erectile dysfunction. He has a history of angina and takes isosorbide mononitrate. What is the most suitable initial treatment option in this scenario? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alprostadil

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Erectile Dysfunction: Alprostadil, Tadalafil, Penile Prosthesis, and Psychosexual Counselling

      Erectile dysfunction affects a significant percentage of men, with prevalence increasing with age. The condition shares the same risk factors as cardiovascular disease. The usual first-line treatment with a phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE5) inhibitor is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates, as concurrent use can lead to severe hypotension or even death. Therefore, alternative treatment options are available.

      Alprostadil is an effective treatment for erectile dysfunction, either topically or in the form of an intracavernosal injection. It is the most appropriate treatment to offer where PDE5 inhibitors are ineffective or for people who find PDE5 inhibitors ineffective.

      Tadalafil, a PDE5 inhibitor, is a first-line treatment for erectile dysfunction. It lasts longer than sildenafil, which can help improve spontaneity. However, it is contraindicated in patients taking nitrates, and a second-line treatment, such as alprostadil, should be used.

      A penile prosthesis is a rare third-line option if both PDE5 inhibitors and alprostadil are either ineffective or inappropriate. It involves the insertion of a fluid-filled reservoir under the abdominal wall, with a pump and a release valve in the scrotum, that are used to inflate two implanted cylinders in the penis.

      Psychosexual counselling is recommended for treatment of psychogenic erectile dysfunction or in those men with severe psychological distress. It is not recommended for routine treatment, but studies have shown that psychotherapy is just as effective as vacuum devices and penile prosthesis.

      In summary, treatment options for erectile dysfunction include alprostadil, tadalafil, penile prosthesis, and psychosexual counselling, depending on the individual’s needs and contraindications.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 50 - A 60-year-old man has been diagnosed with heart failure and his cardiologist recommends...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man has been diagnosed with heart failure and his cardiologist recommends starting a beta-blocker along with other medications. He is currently stable hemodynamically. What is the most suitable beta-blocker to use in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Beta-Blockers for Heart Failure: Medications and Contraindications

      Heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to reduce mortality. Beta-blockers are a class of medications that have been shown to be effective in treating heart failure. Despite some relative contraindications, beta-blockers can be safely initiated in general practice. However, there are still absolute contraindications that should be considered before prescribing beta-blockers, such as asthma, second or third-degree heart block, sick sinus syndrome (without pacemaker), and sinus bradycardia (<50 bpm). Bisoprolol, carvedilol, and nebivolol are all licensed for the treatment of heart failure in the United Kingdom. Among these medications, bisoprolol is the recommended choice and should be started at a low dose of 1.25 mg daily and gradually increased to the maximum tolerated dose (up to 10 mg). Other beta-blockers such as labetalol, atenolol, propranolol, and sotalol have different indications and are not licensed for the treatment of heart failure. Labetalol is mainly used for hypertension in pregnancy, while atenolol is used for arrhythmias, angina, and hypertension. Propranolol is indicated for tachycardia linked to thyrotoxicosis, anxiety, migraine prophylaxis, and benign essential tremor. Sotalol is commonly used to treat atrial and ventricular arrhythmias, particularly atrial fibrillation. In summary, beta-blockers are an important class of medications for the treatment of heart failure. However, careful consideration of contraindications and appropriate medication selection is crucial for optimal patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 51 - A 25-year-old woman presents with recurrent syncope following aerobics classes. On examination, a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with recurrent syncope following aerobics classes. On examination, a systolic murmur is heard that worsens with the Valsalva manoeuvre and improves on squatting. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HCM) is a condition where the left ventricle of the heart becomes enlarged, often affecting the interventricular septum and causing a blockage in the left ventricular outflow tract. Patients with HCM typically experience shortness of breath, but may also have angina or fainting spells. Physical examination may reveal a prominent presystolic S4 gallop, a harsh systolic ejection murmur, and a left ventricular apical impulse. The Valsalva manoeuvre and standing up from a squatting position can increase the intensity of the murmur. An echocardiogram is the preferred diagnostic test for HCM. Syncope occurs in 15-25% of HCM patients, and recurrent syncope in young patients may indicate an increased risk of sudden death. Aortic stenosis, on the other hand, typically affects older patients and causes exertional syncope. The ejection systolic murmur associated with aortic stenosis is loudest at the upper right sternal border and radiates to the carotids. It increases with squatting and decreases with standing and isometric muscular contraction. Atrial fibrillation can also cause syncope, but if it is associated with HCM, the underlying cause is still HCM. Vasovagal syncope is usually triggered by prolonged standing or exposure to hot, crowded environments. The term syncope excludes other conditions that cause altered consciousness, such as seizures or shock.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 52 - A man attends the surgery for an 'MOT' having just had his 55th...

    Incorrect

    • A man attends the surgery for an 'MOT' having just had his 55th birthday. He is keen to reduce his risk of cardiovascular disease and asks about being started on a 'statin'.

      He has no significant past medical history and takes no medication. His father had a 'heart attack' aged seventy, but his father was obese and a heavy smoker. There is no other family history of note. There is no suggestion of a familial lipid condition.

      What is the most appropriate management approach at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Optimise adherence to diet and lifestyle measures

      Explanation:

      Primary Prevention of Cardiovascular Disease

      This patient has no history of cardiovascular disease (CVD), and therefore, the primary prevention approach is necessary. The first step is to use a CVD risk assessment tool such as QRISK2 to evaluate the patient’s cardiovascular risk. If the patient has a 10% or greater 10-year risk of developing CVD, measuring their lipid profile and offering atorvastatin 20 mg daily would be appropriate. Additionally, providing advice to optimize diet and lifestyle measures is necessary. However, if the patient’s risk is less than 10%, then diet and lifestyle advice/optimization in isolation would be appropriate. At this point, there is no specific indication for lipid clinic input. The use of QRISK2 in this scenario is the best approach as it guides the management, including whether pharmacological treatment with a statin is necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 53 - A 56-year-old man collapses after complaining of palpitations and is admitted to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man collapses after complaining of palpitations and is admitted to the Emergency Department (ED). He is found to be in ventricular tachycardia and is successfully cardioverted. Further investigations reveal an underlying long QT syndrome, and an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) is inserted. The man works as an HGV driver. What advice should be given regarding his ability to drive HGV vehicles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Permanent bar

      Explanation:

      Regardless of the circumstances, the loss of HGV licence is indicated by ICD.

      DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.

      Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.

      Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 54 - An 82-year-old woman who has been on long-term digoxin therapy for atrial fibrillation...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old woman who has been on long-term digoxin therapy for atrial fibrillation presents to the clinic with complaints of palpitations, yellow vision, and nausea. She recently completed a course of antibiotics for a respiratory tract infection. On examination, her blood pressure is 140/80, and her pulse is slow and irregular, hovering around 42. There is no evidence of cardiac failure. Which of the following antibiotics is most commonly linked to this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      Digoxin Toxicity and its Management

      Digoxin toxicity is a condition that can cause a number of symptoms, including yellow vision and nausea. It can also lead to various arrhythmias, such as heart block, supraventricular and ventricular tachycardia. This toxicity can be associated with certain medications, including erythromycin, tetracyclines, quinidine, calcium channel blockers, captopril, and amiodarone.

      In addition to medication interactions, it is important to monitor renal function as deteriorating creatinine clearance can also contribute to toxicity. Management of digoxin toxicity involves measuring digoxin levels, avoiding or reducing the dose, and in severe cases, admission for cardiac monitoring and consideration of digoxin antibody therapy.

      To summarize, digoxin toxicity is a serious condition that requires careful monitoring and management to prevent complications. By being aware of the medications that can interact with digoxin and monitoring renal function, healthcare providers can help prevent and manage this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 55 - You see a 65-year-old gentleman who you have recently diagnosed with heart failure...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 65-year-old gentleman who you have recently diagnosed with heart failure and an ejection fraction of 35%. You have titrated him up to the maximum dose of ACE-I and his renal function, sodium and potassium have all remained within normal limits for the past three months.

      According to NICE, how often should he now have his treatment monitored?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No further monitoring required

      Explanation:

      Monitoring ACE-I Treatment

      According to NICE guidelines, it is recommended to monitor ACE-I treatment every 6 months once the maximum tolerated dose has been reached. This ensures that the treatment is still effective and that any potential side effects are identified and managed promptly. Additionally, it is important to review the treatment if the person becomes acutely unwell. This allows for adjustments to be made to the treatment plan as needed. Regular monitoring and review of ACE-I treatment can help improve patient outcomes and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 56 - For which patient is it necessary to utilize a cardiovascular risk assessment tool...

    Incorrect

    • For which patient is it necessary to utilize a cardiovascular risk assessment tool (such as QRISK) in order to ascertain their likelihood of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 45-year-old man with type 1 diabetes with a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol and no nephropathy or microalbuminuria

      Explanation:

      High Risk Patients for Cardiovascular Disease

      Certain patients are automatically considered at high risk for cardiovascular disease (CVD) and do not require the use of a CVD risk assessment tool such as QRISK2. These high-risk patients include those with pre-existing CVD, those aged 85 and above, those with an eGFR <60 ml/min/1.73m2 and/or albuminuria, those with familial hypercholesterolaemia or other inherited lipid disorders, and those with type 1 diabetes who are over 40 years old, have a history of diabetes for at least 10 years, have established nephropathy, or have other CVD risk factors. However, for patients with a BMI of 38, a CVD risk assessment tool should be used. It is important to note that for patients with a BMI higher than 40 kg/m2, their risk may be underestimated by standard CVD risk assessment tools. By identifying high-risk patients, healthcare providers can take appropriate measures to prevent and manage CVD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 57 - A 65-year-old man has a QRISK2 score of 14% and decides to start...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has a QRISK2 score of 14% and decides to start taking atorvastatin 20 mg after discussing the benefits and risks with his doctor. His cholesterol levels are as follows:

      Total cholesterol: 5.6 mmol/l
      HDL cholesterol: 1.0 mmol/l
      LDL cholesterol: 3.4 mmol/l
      Triglyceride: 1.7 mmol/l

      When should he schedule a follow-up cholesterol test to assess the effectiveness of the statin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Management of Hyperlipidaemia: NICE Guidelines

      Hyperlipidaemia, or high levels of lipids in the blood, is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease (CVD). In 2014, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on lipid modification, which caused controversy due to the recommendation of statins for a significant proportion of the population over the age of 60. The guidelines suggest a systematic strategy to identify people over 40 years who are at high risk of CVD, using the QRISK2 CVD risk assessment tool. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and patients with very high cholesterol levels should be investigated for familial hyperlipidaemia. The new guidelines recommend offering a statin to people with a QRISK2 10-year risk of 10% or greater, with atorvastatin 20 mg offered first-line. Special situations, such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease, are also addressed. Lifestyle modifications, including a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, alcohol intake, and smoking cessation, are important in managing hyperlipidaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 58 - A 63-year-old male is being seen at the heart failure clinic by a...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old male is being seen at the heart failure clinic by a nurse. Despite being treated with furosemide, bisoprolol, enalapril, and spironolactone, he experiences breathlessness with minimal exertion. Upon examination, there is minimal ankle edema and clear chest auscultation. Recent test results show sinus rhythm with a rate of 84 bpm on ECG, cardiomegaly with clear lung fields on chest x-ray, and an ejection fraction of 35% on echo. Isosorbide dinitrate with hydralazine was attempted but had to be discontinued due to side effects. What additional medication would be most effective in alleviating his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 59 - A 65-year-old man presented, having had an episode of right-sided weakness that lasted...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presented, having had an episode of right-sided weakness that lasted 10 minutes a fortnight earlier and fully resolved.

      Examination reveals that he is in atrial fibrillation.

      Assuming he remains in atrial fibrillation which of the following is the most appropriate management regime?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No antithrombotic treatment indicated

      Explanation:

      Thromboprophylaxis for High Risk Stroke Patients

      This patient is at high risk for future stroke and requires anticoagulation with warfarin. To assess the risk of bleeding and stroke, it is important to calculate the HASBLED and CHADS-VASc scores. The CHADS-VASc score takes into account factors such as congestive heart failure, hypertension, age, diabetes, stroke history, vascular disease, and sex. If the score is 1 or higher, oral anticoagulation should be considered. If the score is 0, no anticoagulation is needed. If the score is 1 but the only point is for female gender, it is treated as a score of 0. In this case, the patient’s CHADS-VASc score is 2, indicating a need for anticoagulation. The target range for INR is 2-3, with a target INR of 2.5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 60 - Which of the following is not a common side effect of amiodarone therapy?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a common side effect of amiodarone therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Adverse Effects and Drug Interactions of Amiodarone

      Amiodarone is a medication used to treat irregular heartbeats. However, its use can lead to several adverse effects. One of the most common adverse effects is thyroid dysfunction, which can manifest as either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism. Other adverse effects include corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis or pneumonitis, liver fibrosis or hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a slate-grey appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, bradycardia, and lengthening of the QT interval.

      It is also important to note that amiodarone can interact with other medications. For example, it can decrease the metabolism of warfarin, leading to an increased INR. Additionally, it can increase digoxin levels. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor patients closely for adverse effects and drug interactions when using amiodarone. Proper management and monitoring can help minimize the risks associated with this medication.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 61 - A 65-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for his annual asthma review....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for his annual asthma review. He has no daytime symptoms and occasionally uses his ventolin inhaler at night when suffering from a viral infection. His only other medical history is of urinary incontinence, for which he has been fully investigated, and three episodes of gout in the last five years.
      On examination, his respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute, his heart rate 64 bpm and his blood pressure is 168/82 mmHg. Subsequent home blood pressure readings confirm isolated systolic hypertension.
      Which of the following is the single most suitable medication for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      Management of Isolated Systolic Hypertension: Drug Options and Considerations

      Isolated systolic hypertension, characterized by elevated systolic blood pressure and normal diastolic blood pressure, is managed similarly to systolic plus diastolic hypertension. Amlodipine, a dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker, is the preferred first-line drug for treating isolated systolic hypertension in patients over 55 years old.

      Before starting any medication, a new diagnosis of hypertension should be confirmed through ambulatory blood pressure monitoring or home blood pressure monitoring. Additionally, an assessment for evidence of end-organ damage and 10-year cardiovascular risk should be conducted, along with a discussion about modifiable risk factors such as diet, exercise, sodium intake, alcohol consumption, caffeine, and smoking.

      Indapamide, a thiazide diuretic, is typically used as a second or third step in the treatment protocol. However, it may exacerbate gout and worsen urinary problems.

      Beta-blockers, such as atenolol, were previously recommended as second-line treatment for hypertension. However, they can cause hyperglycemia and are now at step 4 of the management plan. Beta-blockers are also contraindicated in asthma, making them unsuitable for some patients.

      Doxazosin, which is at step 4 of the hypertension management plan, may cause urinary incontinence and is not appropriate for all patients.

      Valsartan, an angiotensin 2 receptor blocker, is a first-line option for patients under 55 years old, along with an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. It may be added at step 2 if necessary for patients over 55 years old.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 62 - A 65-year-old man with a history of hypertension and dyslipidaemia visits the clinic....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of hypertension and dyslipidaemia visits the clinic. His wife is worried about his increasing forgetfulness. He frequently loses things around the house and struggles to find his way back home when he goes to the shops alone. What characteristic would strongly suggest vascular dementia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stepwise deterioration in symptoms with a clearly measurable difference between steps and no reversal

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vascular Dementia

      Vascular dementia is a type of cognitive decline that includes multi-infarct dementia and other forms of intellectual deterioration in individuals at high risk of atherosclerosis. Unlike Alzheimer’s, it is characterized by a stepwise progression, although it may also present as a steadily progressive dementia. A history of risk factors such as transient ischemic attacks (TIAs), stroke, hypertension, smoking, and hypercholesterolemia can raise suspicion of vascular dementia.

      Aggression without significant short-term memory loss is more commonly associated with frontal lobe dementia, while Parkinsonian features are typical of Lewy body dementia. Understanding the different types of dementia and their associated symptoms can help individuals and their loved ones better manage the condition and seek appropriate medical care.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 63 - A 48-year-old man presents to the hypertension clinic with a recent diagnosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man presents to the hypertension clinic with a recent diagnosis of high blood pressure. He has been on ramipril for three months, but despite titration up to 10 mg od, his blood pressure remains elevated at 156/92 mmHg.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for further management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add amlodipine OR indapamide

      Explanation:

      To improve control of hypertension in patients who are already taking an ACE inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker, the 2019 NICE guidelines recommend adding either a calcium channel blocker (such as amlodipine) or a thiazide-like diuretic (such as indapamide). This is a change from previous guidelines, which only recommended adding a calcium channel blocker in this situation.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 64 - A 35-year-old woman with familial hypercholesterolaemia presents for a check-up. She is considering...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with familial hypercholesterolaemia presents for a check-up. She is considering starting a family and seeks guidance on medication, as she is currently taking 80 mg of atorvastatin. What would be the most suitable recommendation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop atorvastatin before trying to conceive

      Explanation:

      To avoid the possibility of congenital defects, it is recommended that women discontinue the use of statins at least 3 months prior to conception.

      Familial Hypercholesterolaemia: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 500 people. It is an autosomal dominant disorder that results in high levels of LDL-cholesterol, which can lead to early cardiovascular disease if left untreated. FH is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes the LDL-receptor protein.

      To diagnose FH, NICE recommends suspecting it as a possible diagnosis in adults with a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease. For children of affected parents, testing should be arranged by age 10 if one parent is affected and by age 5 if both parents are affected.

      The Simon Broome criteria are used for clinical diagnosis, which includes a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.9 mmol/l in adults or a total cholesterol level greater than 6.7 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.0 mmol/l in children. Definite FH is diagnosed if there is tendon xanthoma in patients or first or second-degree relatives or DNA-based evidence of FH. Possible FH is diagnosed if there is a family history of myocardial infarction below age 50 years in second-degree relatives, below age 60 in first-degree relatives, or a family history of raised cholesterol levels.

      Management of FH involves referral to a specialist lipid clinic and the use of high-dose statins as first-line treatment. CVD risk estimation using standard tables is not appropriate in FH as they do not accurately reflect the risk of CVD. First-degree relatives have a 50% chance of having the disorder and should be offered screening, including children who should be screened by the age of 10 years if there is one affected parent. Statins should be discontinued in women 3 months before conception due to the risk of congenital defects.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 65 - A 70-year-old man is diagnosed with chronic stable angina at his Cardiology Clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man is diagnosed with chronic stable angina at his Cardiology Clinic appointment. He has normal left ventricular function on echocardiogram. He presents to his General Practitioner to discuss treatment options. He has no significant medical history or regular medication but is an ex-smoker who quit 20 years ago. On examination, his blood pressure is 120/76 mmHg and his heart rate is 70 bpm.
      Which of the following medications is the single most appropriate first therapy for symptom control?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atenolol

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological Management of Chronic Angina Pectoris

      Beta-blockers are the primary pharmacological treatment for chronic angina pectoris. They are effective in reducing the frequency and duration of anginal episodes, improving exercise tolerance, and preventing some arrhythmias. Beta-blockers work by inhibiting the effects of catecholamines on the beta-adrenergic receptor, which reduces heart rate and improves coronary perfusion. Simvastatin and angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors are important for secondary prevention in patients with atherosclerosis, but they do not control angina symptoms. Long-acting nitrates and rate-limiting calcium channel blockers are used for symptom control if beta-blockers are contraindicated or ineffective. However, they are typically added later in treatment.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 66 - A 65-year old man has had syncopal attacks and exertional chest pain which...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year old man has had syncopal attacks and exertional chest pain which settles spontaneously with rest. He presents to his General Practitioner, not wanting to bother the Emergency Department. On auscultation, there is a loud ejection systolic murmur. Following an electrocardiogram (ECG) he is urgently referred to cardiology and aortic stenosis is diagnosed.
      Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following comorbid conditions is most associated with a poor prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left ventricular failure

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prognostic Factors in Aortic Stenosis

      Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, which can lead to limited blood flow and various symptoms such as dyspnea, angina, and syncope. While patients may be asymptomatic for years, the prognosis for symptomatic aortic stenosis is poor, with a 2-year survival rate of only 50%. Sudden deaths can occur due to heart failure or other complications.

      Valvular calcification and fibrosis are the primary causes of aortic stenosis, and the presence of calcification doesn’t have a direct impact on prognosis. However, mixed aortic valve disease, which includes aortic regurgitation, can increase mortality rates, particularly in severe cases.

      Left ventricular failure is a significant prognostic factor in aortic stenosis, indicating late-stage hypertrophy and fibrosis. Patients with left ventricular failure have a poor prognosis both before and after surgery. Hypertension can also impact left ventricular remodelling and accelerate the progression of aortic stenosis, but it is not as significant a prognostic factor as left ventricular failure.

      Electrocardiogram (ECG) changes, such as left ventricular hypertrophy, are common in patients with aortic stenosis but are not directly correlated with mortality risk. Understanding these prognostic factors can help healthcare providers better manage and treat patients with aortic stenosis.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 67 - In what scenario would it be suitable to conduct 24-hour ambulatory blood pressure...

    Incorrect

    • In what scenario would it be suitable to conduct 24-hour ambulatory blood pressure monitoring?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In patients with resistant hypertension despite medication

      Explanation:

      When to Consider 24-Hour Ambulatory Blood Pressure Recording

      Patients with persistently raised blood pressure readings or borderline hypertension, resistant hypertension, suspected white-coat hypertension, variable blood pressure, suspected pregnancy-associated hypertension, or suspected hypotension should be considered for 24-hour ambulatory blood pressure recording. However, this method should not be used in suspected pre-eclampsia or palpitations. Suspected orthostatic hypotension should be investigated with tilt-table tests, while palpitations should be investigated with a 24-hour ECG.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 68 - A 55-year-old caucasian man presents to his GP with the results of 7...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old caucasian man presents to his GP with the results of 7 days of home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) he was advised to complete following a random clinic blood pressure of 144/92 mmHg. His HBPM is 138/88 mmHg. Baseline investigations show no evidence of end-organ damage. He is a current smoker. His QRISK3 score is calculated to be 11.2%. He has no known medication allergies. Lifestyle and smoking cessation advice is provided. What is the most appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atorvastatin and ramipril

      Explanation:

      The current prescription of Atorvastatin alone is not sufficient for this patient. In addition to lipid-lowering therapy, he should also be offered an antihypertensive agent. However, it is important to note that due to his age and ethnicity, he should first be offered an ACE and/or angiotensin-II receptor antagonist. If he doesn’t have type 2 diabetes and is aged 55 years or over, or if he is of black African or African-Caribbean family origin and doesn’t have type 2 diabetes (of any age), calcium-channel blockers may be considered as the first-line antihypertensive agent. It is not appropriate to suggest that no treatment is required.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 69 - A 45-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is struggling to manage his hypertension....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is struggling to manage his hypertension. Despite being on atenolol, amlodipine, and ramipril, his blood pressure consistently reads above 170/100 mmHg. During examination, he was found to have grade II hypertensive retinopathy. His test results show sodium levels at 144 mmol/L (137-144), potassium at 3.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), urea at 5.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), creatinine at 100 mol/L (60-110), glucose at 7.9 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), and HbA1c at 53 mmol/mol (20-46) or 7% (3.8-6.4). Additionally, his ECG revealed left ventricular hypertrophy. What potential diagnosis should be considered as a cause of his resistant hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal artery stenosis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Primary Hyperaldosteronism

      This patient is experiencing resistant hypertension and has a low potassium concentration despite being on an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEi), which should have increased their potassium levels. These symptoms are highly suggestive of primary hyperaldosteronism, which can be caused by either an adrenal adenoma (Conn syndrome) or bilateral adrenal hyperplasia.

      To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, doctors typically look for an elevated aldosterone:renin ratio, which is usually above 1000. This condition can be challenging to diagnose, but it is essential to do so as it can lead to severe complications if left untreated. By identifying the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms, doctors can develop an effective treatment plan to manage their hypertension and potassium levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 70 - An 80-year-old man with a history of hypertension and ischaemic heart disease comes...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man with a history of hypertension and ischaemic heart disease comes for a check-up. He had a heart attack two decades ago but has been stable since then. His current medications include bisoprolol, ramipril, atorvastatin, and clopidogrel. He has been experiencing dizziness lately, and an ECG reveals that he has atrial fibrillation. What is the appropriate antithrombotic medication for him now?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Switch to an oral anticoagulant

      Explanation:

      Patients who have AF and stable CVD are typically prescribed anticoagulants while antiplatelets are discontinued. This is because such patients are at risk of stroke, as indicated by their CHADS-VASC score, which takes into account factors such as age, hypertension, and cardiovascular disease. Therefore, the patient in question needs to be treated accordingly. In this case, the patient should discontinue their antiplatelet medication and switch to oral anticoagulant monotherapy.

      Managing Combination Antiplatelet and Anticoagulant Therapy

      With the rise of comorbidity, it is becoming more common for patients to require both antiplatelet and anticoagulant therapy. However, this combination increases the risk of bleeding and may not be necessary in all cases. While there are no guidelines to cover every scenario, a recent review in the BMJ offers expert opinion on how to manage this situation.

      For patients with stable cardiovascular disease who require an anticoagulant, it is recommended that they also receive an antiplatelet. However, if the patient has an indication for anticoagulant therapy, such as atrial fibrillation, it is best to prescribe anticoagulant monotherapy without the addition of antiplatelets.

      In patients who have experienced an acute coronary syndrome or undergone percutaneous coronary intervention, there is a stronger indication for antiplatelet therapy. Typically, patients are given triple therapy (two antiplatelets and one anticoagulant) for four weeks to six months after the event, followed by dual therapy (one antiplatelet and one anticoagulant) for the remaining 12 months. However, the stroke risk in atrial fibrillation varies according to risk factors, so there may be variation in treatment from patient to patient.

      If a patient on antiplatelets develops venous thromboembolism (VTE), they will likely be prescribed anticoagulants for three to six months. An ORBIT score should be calculated to determine the risk of bleeding. Patients with a low risk of bleeding may continue taking antiplatelets, while those with an intermediate or high risk of bleeding should consider stopping them.

      Overall, managing combination antiplatelet and anticoagulant therapy requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual circumstances and risk factors.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 71 - You assess a 65-year-old man who has just begun taking a beta-blocker for...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 65-year-old man who has just begun taking a beta-blocker for heart failure. What is the most probable side effect that can be attributed to his new medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sleep disturbances

      Explanation:

      Insomnia may be caused by beta-blockers.

      Beta-blockers are a class of drugs that are primarily used to manage cardiovascular disorders. They have a wide range of indications, including angina, post-myocardial infarction, heart failure, arrhythmias, hypertension, thyrotoxicosis, migraine prophylaxis, and anxiety. Beta-blockers were previously avoided in heart failure, but recent evidence suggests that certain beta-blockers can improve both symptoms and mortality. They have also replaced digoxin as the rate-control drug of choice in atrial fibrillation. However, their role in reducing stroke and myocardial infarction has diminished in recent years due to a lack of evidence.

      Examples of beta-blockers include atenolol and propranolol, which was one of the first beta-blockers to be developed. Propranolol is lipid-soluble, which means it can cross the blood-brain barrier.

      Like all drugs, beta-blockers have side-effects. These can include bronchospasm, cold peripheries, fatigue, sleep disturbances (including nightmares), and erectile dysfunction. There are also some contraindications to using beta-blockers, such as uncontrolled heart failure, asthma, sick sinus syndrome, and concurrent use with verapamil, which can precipitate severe bradycardia.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 72 - A 70-year-old man with a history of hypertension only complains of worsening breathlessness...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of hypertension only complains of worsening breathlessness and swollen ankles for the past 3 months. You plan to conduct a BNP test. What could cause a falsely low BNP result in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Being on ramipril for his blood pressure

      Explanation:

      Serum levels of B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) and N-terminal pro-BNP (NT-proBNP) can be measured to assess the likelihood of heart failure in patients. NT-proBNP is the inactive prohormone of BNP and is released from the left ventricle in response to ventricular strain. It acts to increase renal excretion of water and sodium, and relax vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilation.

      BNP measurements are recommended for patients with suspected heart failure who have not had a previous myocardial infarction. Elevated BNP levels (>400) indicate a poor prognosis and require an urgent referral for echocardiography and specialist assessment. However, normal BNP levels do not confirm the absence of heart failure, as levels may be elevated due to other conditions such as left ventricular hypertrophy, pulmonary hypertension, or renal impairment.

      NICE guidelines suggest that BNP measurements are not necessary for patients with suspected heart failure who have had a previous myocardial infarction, as urgent referral and assessment are required regardless of BNP levels. BNP levels may also be affected by medications such as ACE inhibitors and beta-blockers, as well as obesity.

      Overall, BNP measurements can be a useful tool in assessing the likelihood of heart failure, but should be interpreted in conjunction with other clinical findings and patient history.

      B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a hormone that is primarily produced by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Although heart failure is the most common cause of elevated BNP levels, any condition that causes left ventricular dysfunction, such as myocardial ischemia or valvular disease, may also raise levels. In patients with chronic kidney disease, reduced excretion may also lead to elevated BNP levels. Conversely, treatment with ACE inhibitors, angiotensin-2 receptor blockers, and diuretics can lower BNP levels.

      BNP has several effects, including vasodilation, diuresis, natriuresis, and suppression of both sympathetic tone and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Clinically, BNP is useful in diagnosing patients with acute dyspnea. A low concentration of BNP (<100 pg/mL) makes a diagnosis of heart failure unlikely, but elevated levels should prompt further investigation to confirm the diagnosis. Currently, NICE recommends BNP as a helpful test to rule out a diagnosis of heart failure. In patients with chronic heart failure, initial evidence suggests that BNP is an extremely useful marker of prognosis and can guide treatment. However, BNP is not currently recommended for population screening for cardiac dysfunction.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 73 - A 68-year-old man is worried about his blood pressure and has used his...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man is worried about his blood pressure and has used his wife's home blood pressure monitor. He found his blood pressure to be 154/96 mmHg. During his clinic visit, his blood pressure was measured twice, with readings of 156/98 mmHg and 154/98 mmHg. He has no significant medical history. To assess his overall health, you schedule him for a fasting glucose and lipid profile test. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange ambulatory blood pressure monitoring

      Explanation:

      Prior to initiating treatment, NICE suggests verifying the diagnosis through ambulatory blood pressure monitoring.

      NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.

      To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.

      If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.

      ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.

      Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 74 - A 65-year-old man presents with symptoms of intermittent claudication and is referred to...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with symptoms of intermittent claudication and is referred to the local vascular unit. Peripheral arterial disease is diagnosed and his blood pressure is measured at 130/80 mmHg with a fasting cholesterol level of 3.9 mmol/l. According to the latest NICE guidelines, what medication should be prescribed for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clopidogrel + statin

      Explanation:

      Managing Peripheral Arterial Disease

      Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is closely associated with smoking, and patients who still smoke should be provided with assistance to quit. Comorbidities such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and obesity should also be treated. All patients with established cardiovascular disease, including PAD, should be taking a statin, with atorvastatin 80 mg currently recommended. In 2010, NICE recommended clopidogrel as the first-line treatment for PAD patients over aspirin.

      Exercise training has been shown to have significant benefits, and NICE recommends a supervised exercise program for all PAD patients before other interventions. Severe PAD or critical limb ischaemia may be treated with endovascular or surgical revascularization, with endovascular techniques typically used for short segment stenosis, aortic iliac disease, and high-risk patients. Surgical techniques are typically used for long segment lesions, multifocal lesions, lesions of the common femoral artery, and purely infrapopliteal disease. Amputation should be reserved for patients with critical limb ischaemia who are not suitable for other interventions such as angioplasty or bypass surgery.

      Drugs licensed for use in PAD include naftidrofuryl oxalate, a vasodilator sometimes used for patients with a poor quality of life, and cilostazol, a phosphodiesterase III inhibitor with both antiplatelet and vasodilator effects, which is not recommended by NICE.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 75 - A worried mother brings her two-week-old baby to the clinic due to poor...

    Incorrect

    • A worried mother brings her two-week-old baby to the clinic due to poor feeding. The baby was born at 37 weeks gestation without any complications. No central cyanosis is observed, but the baby has a slightly elevated heart rate, rapid breathing, and high blood pressure in the upper extremities. Oxygen saturation levels are at 99% on air. Upon chest auscultation, a systolic murmur is heard loudest at the left sternal edge. Additionally, the baby has weak bilateral femoral pulses. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Explanation:

      Coarctation of the Aorta: A Narrowing of the Descending Aorta

      Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital condition that affects the descending aorta, causing it to narrow. This condition is more common in males, despite its association with Turner’s syndrome. In infancy, coarctation of the aorta can lead to heart failure, while in adults, it can cause hypertension. Other features of this condition include radio-femoral delay, a mid systolic murmur that is maximal over the back, and an apical click from the aortic valve. Notching of the inferior border of the ribs, which is caused by collateral vessels, is not seen in young children. Coarctation of the aorta is often associated with other conditions, such as bicuspid aortic valve, berry aneurysms, and neurofibromatosis.

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  • Question 76 - A 60-year-old woman with suspected heart failure undergoes open-access Doppler echocardiography and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman with suspected heart failure undergoes open-access Doppler echocardiography and is diagnosed with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction. She has experienced increased shortness of breath since the diagnosis and now requires four pillows to sleep comfortably. Which medication is most likely to provide the quickest relief of symptoms for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      Medications for Heart Failure: Understanding the Recommendations

      Heart failure is a serious condition that requires careful management. When it comes to medication, it’s important to understand which drugs are recommended and when they should be prescribed. Here’s a breakdown of some common medications and their appropriate use in heart failure treatment:

      Furosemide: This loop diuretic is recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) for patients with symptoms of fluid overload. The dose should be adjusted based on symptoms and reviewed regularly.

      Spironolactone: While this aldosterone antagonist can be considered for all patients, NICE advises that it should only be added if symptoms persist despite optimal treatment with an ACE inhibitor and beta-blocker. Referral to a specialist may be necessary.

      Carvedilol: This beta-blocker is indicated for heart failure, but it won’t provide rapid symptom relief. It may even worsen symptoms if given while there are still signs of fluid overload.

      Digoxin: This drug has a limited role in heart failure management and should not be routinely prescribed. It may be helpful for patients in normal sinus rhythm.

      Ramipril: An ACE inhibitor should be prescribed routinely, but it should not be initiated in patients with suspected valve disease until a specialist has assessed the condition. An angiotensin-II receptor antagonist is an alternative if the ACE inhibitor is not tolerated.

      Understanding the appropriate use of these medications can help improve outcomes for patients with heart failure.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 77 - A 35-year-old man is referred by the practice nurse following a routine health...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is referred by the practice nurse following a routine health check. He is a smoker with a strong family history of premature death from ischaemic heart disease. His fasting cholesterol concentration is 7.2 mmol/l and his estimated 10-year risk of a coronary heart disease event is >30%.
      Select from the list the single most suitable management option in this patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Statin

      Explanation:

      NICE recommends primary prevention for individuals under 84 years old who have a risk of over 10% of developing cardiovascular disease, which can be estimated using the QRISK2 assessment tool. To address modifiable risk factors, interventions such as dietary advice, smoking cessation support, alcohol moderation, and weight reduction should be offered. For lipid management, both non-pharmacological and pharmacological interventions should be utilized, with atorvastatin 20 mg being the recommended prescription for primary prevention. Lipids should be checked after 3 months, with the aim of reducing non-HDL cholesterol by over 40%. However, excessive drug usage in the elderly should be considered carefully by doctors, as cardiovascular risks exceeding 5-10% may be found in elderly men based on age and gender alone. NICE advises against routinely prescribing fibrates, bile acid sequestrants, nicotinic acid, omega-3 fatty acid compounds, or a combination of a statin and another lipid-modifying drug. First-line treatment for primary hyperlipidaemia is a statin, with other options such as bile acid sequestrants being considered if statins are contraindicated or not tolerated. For primary prevention of CVD, high-intensity statin treatment should be offered to individuals under 84 years old with an estimated 10-year risk of 10% or more using the QRISK assessment tool. Diet modification alone is not recommended for individuals with a risk score over 30%. Ezetimibe can be considered for individuals with primary hypercholesterolaemia if a statin is contraindicated or not tolerated, but it is not the first choice of drug in this scenario.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 78 - A previously healthy 70-year-old woman attends with her daughter, who noted that her...

    Incorrect

    • A previously healthy 70-year-old woman attends with her daughter, who noted that her mother has had a poor appetite, lost at least 4.5 kg and has lacked energy three months. The patient has not had cough or fever, but she tires easily.

      On examination she is rather subdued, is apyrexial and has a pulse of 100 per minute irregular and blood pressure is 156/88 mmHg. Examination of the fundi reveals grade II hypertensive changes. Her JVP is elevated by 8 cm but the neck is otherwise normal.

      Examination of the heart and lungs reveals crackles at both lung bases. The abdomen is normal. She has generalised weakness that is most marked in the hip flexors but otherwise neurologic examination is normal.

      Investigations reveal:
      Haemoglobin 110 g/L (115-165)
      White cell count 7.3 ×109/L (4-11)
      Urea 8.8 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Which of the following would be most useful in establishing the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum thyroid-stimulating hormone

      Explanation:

      Thyrotoxicosis as a Cause of Heart Failure

      This patient presents with symptoms of heart failure, including fast atrial fibrillation, weight loss, and proximal myopathy. Although hyperthyroidism is typically associated with an increased appetite, apathy and loss of appetite can occur, especially in older patients. The presence of these symptoms suggests thyrotoxicosis, which would be confirmed by a suppressed thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level.

      The absence of a thyroid goitre doesn’t rule out Graves’ disease or a toxic nodule as the underlying cause. Echocardiography can confirm the diagnosis of heart failure but cannot determine the underlying cause. Therefore, it is important to consider thyrotoxicosis as a potential cause of heart failure in this patient.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 79 - A 45-year-old man visits his GP clinic seeking sildenafil (Viagra) as he is...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man visits his GP clinic seeking sildenafil (Viagra) as he is nervous every time he is intimate with his new partner. He can still achieve his own erections and has morning erections. His recent NHS health screening blood tests were all normal, and he has normal blood pressure. The GP examines his medication history and advises him against using sildenafil. Which of the following medications listed below is not recommended to be used with sildenafil?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate (ISMN)

      Explanation:

      When considering treatment options for this patient, it is important to note that PDE 5 inhibitors such as sildenafil are contraindicated when used in conjunction with nitrates and nicorandil. This is due to the potential for severe hypotension. Therefore, alternative treatment options should be explored and discussed with the patient.

      Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 80 - Which of the following combination of symptoms is most consistent with digoxin toxicity?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following combination of symptoms is most consistent with digoxin toxicity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nausea + yellow / green vision

      Explanation:

      Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and can cause toxicity even when the concentration is within the therapeutic range.

      Toxicity may present with symptoms such as lethargy, nausea, vomiting, confusion, and yellow-green vision. Arrhythmias and gynaecomastia may also occur. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor as it increases the inhibitory effects of digoxin. Other factors include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, and various electrolyte imbalances. Certain drugs, such as amiodarone and verapamil, can also contribute to toxicity.

      If toxicity is suspected, digoxin concentrations should be measured within 8 to 12 hours of the last dose. However, plasma concentration alone doesn’t determine toxicity. Management includes the use of Digibind, correcting arrhythmias, and monitoring potassium levels.

      In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, monitoring, and potential toxicity of digoxin is crucial for its safe and effective use in clinical practice.

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  • Question 81 - A 40-year-old man comes to the clinic for a hypertension review, as recommended...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man comes to the clinic for a hypertension review, as recommended by the practice nurse. Despite taking ramipril 10 mg, amlodipine 5 mg, and atenolol 50 mg, his blood pressure remains elevated at 150/90 mmHg. Upon checking his U&E, his sodium level is 140, potassium level is 3.4, and creatinine level is 110. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phaeochromocytoma

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Hyperaldosteronism

      Such difficult-to-control hypertension and hypokalaemia, despite maximal ACE inhibition, may indicate hyperaldosteronism. The preferred diagnostic investigation is a renin/aldosterone ratio off Antihypertensive medication, with a washout period of four to six weeks. MRI scanning can also help identify an aldosterone-producing tumour. In contrast, phaeochromocytoma typically presents with paroxysms of hypertension, accompanied by headache, anxiety, and sweating. Renal artery stenosis is expected to be associated with an abnormal creatinine in patients using ACE inhibitors. By identifying the underlying cause of hypertension, appropriate treatment can be initiated, leading to better outcomes for patients.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 82 - A 60-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner to discuss whether he requires...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner to discuss whether he requires a statin. His brother has encouraged him to book the appointment because ‘everyone in the family takes a statin’, due to familial hypercholesterolaemia. He has no significant medical history and rarely consults with a doctor. His total cholesterol is 8.2 mmol/l.
      What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carry out blood tests for liver, renal and thyroid function, HbA1c and lipid panel

      Explanation:

      Management of Suspected Familial Hypercholesterolaemia

      Suspected familial hypercholesterolaemia requires a thorough diagnostic and management approach. The first step is to carry out blood tests for liver, renal, and thyroid function, HbA1c, and lipid panel. Additionally, a full cardiovascular assessment and exclusion of secondary causes of hypercholesterolaemia should be conducted before referral.

      QRisk2 scoring is not appropriate in suspected familial hypercholesterolaemia due to the high risk of premature heart disease associated with the condition. Atorvastatin 20 mg is a good choice for primary prevention, but further tests are necessary to establish its suitability for the patient. Atorvastatin 80 mg is often given as secondary prevention, but there is no evidence that this is necessary for the patient from the information provided.

      Referral to a lipid clinic in secondary care is imperative for patients with suspected familial hypercholesterolaemia. This condition should be suspected in adults with a total cholesterol >7.5mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of a cardiovascular event before the age of 60 years old. Basic blood tests will provide important diagnostic and management information, ruling out secondary causes of hypercholesterolaemia and assessing the patient’s suitability for treatment with lipid-lowering drugs.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 83 - A 72-year-old woman was recently diagnosed with atrial fibrillation during a routine pulse...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman was recently diagnosed with atrial fibrillation during a routine pulse check. She has a medical history of fatty liver disease and well-managed hypertension, which is treated with amlodipine. Her weekly alcohol consumption is 14 units.

      Her blood test results are as follows:

      - Hb 110 g/L (115 - 160)
      - Creatinine 108 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - Estimated GFR (eGFR) 57 mL/min/1.73 m² (>90)
      - ALT 50 u/L (3 - 40)

      To evaluate her bleeding risk before initiating anticoagulation therapy, her ORBIT score is computed.

      What factors would increase this patient's ORBIT score?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The ORBIT score includes anaemia and renal impairment as factors that indicate a higher risk of bleeding in patients with atrial fibrillation who are receiving anticoagulation treatment. This scoring tool is now recommended by NICE guidelines for assessing bleeding risk. The ORBIT score consists of five parameters, including age (75+ years), anaemia (haemoglobin <130 g/L in males, <120 g/L in females), bleeding history, and renal impairment (eGFR <60 mL/min/1.73 m²). In this patient's case, her anaemia and renal function would meet the criteria for scoring. Age is not a relevant factor as she is under 75 years old. Alcohol intake is not a criterion used in the ORBIT score, and hypertension is not included in this scoring tool but would be considered in the CHA2DS2-VASc scoring tool for assessing stroke risk. Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation. When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding. For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 84 - Which of the following patients is most likely to have their actual risk...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following patients is most likely to have their actual risk of cardiovascular disease underestimated by QRISK2?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 54-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia who takes olanzapine

      Explanation:

      Patients with a serious mental health disorder and those taking antipsychotics may have their cardiovascular disease risk underestimated by QRISK2.

      Management of Hyperlipidaemia: NICE Guidelines

      Hyperlipidaemia, or high levels of lipids in the blood, is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease (CVD). In 2014, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on lipid modification, which caused controversy due to the recommendation of statins for a significant proportion of the population over the age of 60. The guidelines suggest a systematic strategy to identify people over 40 years who are at high risk of CVD, using the QRISK2 CVD risk assessment tool. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and patients with very high cholesterol levels should be investigated for familial hyperlipidaemia. The new guidelines recommend offering a statin to people with a QRISK2 10-year risk of 10% or greater, with atorvastatin 20 mg offered first-line. Special situations, such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease, are also addressed. Lifestyle modifications, including a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, alcohol intake, and smoking cessation, are important in managing hyperlipidaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 85 - Which of the following statements about the cause of venous thromboembolism (VTE) is...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about the cause of venous thromboembolism (VTE) is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tamoxifen therapy increases the risk of VTE

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Venous Thromboembolism

      Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a condition where blood clots form in the veins, which can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary embolism (PE). While some common predisposing factors include malignancy, pregnancy, and the period following an operation, there are many other factors that can increase the risk of VTE. These include underlying conditions such as heart failure, thrombophilia, and nephrotic syndrome, as well as medication use such as the combined oral contraceptive pill and antipsychotics. It is important to note that around 40% of patients diagnosed with a PE have no major risk factors. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of all potential risk factors and take appropriate measures to prevent VTE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 86 - A 67-year-old patient is being evaluated post-hospitalization for chest pain and has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old patient is being evaluated post-hospitalization for chest pain and has been prescribed standard release isosorbide mononitrate (ISMN) for ongoing angina. The medication instructions indicate taking it twice daily, but with an 8-hour interval between doses. What is the rationale behind this uneven dosing schedule?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prevent nitrate tolerance

      Explanation:

      To prevent nitrate tolerance, it is recommended to use asymmetric dosing regimens for standard-release ISMN when taken regularly for angina relief. This involves taking the medication twice daily, with an 8-hour gap in between to create a nitrate-free period. It is important to note that nitrates only provide relief for angina symptoms and do not improve cardiovascular outcomes. While asymmetric dosing doesn’t affect the efficacy of nitrates, it can prevent tolerance from developing. However, patients should still be aware of potential adverse effects such as dizziness and headaches, which can occur even with asymmetric dosing. Proper counseling on these side effects can help prevent falls and discomfort.

      Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

      Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 87 - A 55-year-old gentleman has uncontrolled hypertension. He is currently taking a calcium antagonist...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old gentleman has uncontrolled hypertension. He is currently taking a calcium antagonist and an ACE inhibitor.

      His U&Es are shown below. You would like to start a diuretic.
      Serum sodium 140 mmol/L (137-144)
      Serum potassium 4.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      Urea 5.0 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      Creatinine 60 µmol/L (60-110)

      According to the latest NICE guidance, which one would be your first choice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydrochlorothiazide

      Explanation:

      Navigating NICE Guidelines on Hypertension

      The management of hypertension is a crucial topic for general practitioners, and it is likely to be tested in various areas of the MRCGP exam, including the AKT. The most recent NICE guidelines on hypertension (NG136) recommend thiazide-like diuretics as the clear third-line choice, whereas they used to be an option first line in Afro-Caribbeans and the over 55s. However, it is important to note that this guidance has attracted criticism from some clinicians who argue that it is overcomplicated and insufficiently evidence-based, particularly regarding the use of ambulatory and home blood pressure monitoring.

      It is essential to have an awareness of this and maintain a balanced view, not just in hypertension but also in other areas of medicine. While NICE guidance is significant, there are other guidelines, and it is not without its criticism. It is unlikely that AKT questions will contradict NICE guidance, but it is crucial to bear in mind the bigger picture and remember that the college tests your knowledge of national guidance and consensus opinion, not just the latest NICE guidance.

      It is worth noting that if a patient is already taking bendroflumethiazide or hydrochlorothiazide, these agents should not be routinely changed. Indapamide and chlorthalidone are now recognized as the first-line agents over the latter two agents. All these medications are diuretics, and this man is already taking a calcium channel blocker and an ACE inhibitor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 88 - A 60-year-old patient of yours has a persistently high diastolic blood pressure above...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old patient of yours has a persistently high diastolic blood pressure above 90 mmHg.

      Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring is not currently available so you decide to check his home blood pressures.

      According to NICE what is the minimum number of blood pressure readings a patient should record at home?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Twice a day for 4 days

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Hypertension Monitoring

      The management of hypertension is a crucial aspect of general practice, and knowledge of the NICE guidelines is essential for GPs. According to the 2019 NICE guidance on Hypertension (NG136), updated in March 2022, blood pressure should be recorded twice daily for at least four days, ideally for seven days. Two consecutive measurements should be taken for each recording, at least one minute apart, with the person seated. The first day’s measurements should be discarded, and the average value of the remaining measurements used to confirm the diagnosis. Although home readings are acceptable if ambulatory equipment is unavailable, they should not be considered equal to ambulatory monitoring. This question tests your knowledge of the NICE guidelines for hypertension monitoring, which have remained consistent since the earlier guidance (CG127) issued in 2011.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 89 - A 50-year-old woman has been diagnosed with an unprovoked proximal deep vein thrombosis....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has been diagnosed with an unprovoked proximal deep vein thrombosis. What are the available treatment options for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Warfarin or Rivaroxaban or Dabigatran or Apixaban

      Explanation:

      Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) are medications used to prevent stroke in non-valvular atrial fibrillation (AF), as well as for the prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism (VTE). To be prescribed DOACs for stroke prevention, patients must have certain risk factors, such as a prior stroke or transient ischaemic attack, age 75 or older, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or heart failure. There are four DOACs available, each with a different mechanism of action and method of excretion. Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor, while rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban are direct factor Xa inhibitors. The majority of DOACs are excreted either through the kidneys or the liver, with the exception of apixaban and edoxaban, which are excreted through the feces. Reversal agents are available for dabigatran and rivaroxaban, but not for apixaban or edoxaban.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 90 - A 50-year-old man presents with complaints of dizziness and syncope. Upon examination, he...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents with complaints of dizziness and syncope. Upon examination, he has a slow-rising pulse and normal blood pressure, with a narrow pulse pressure. An ejection systolic murmur is heard in the aortic area, and an echocardiogram confirms a valvular abnormality. What is the most probable cause of this abnormality in a man of this age?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bicuspid aortic valve

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Aortic Stenosis: A Comparison of Possible Factors

      Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, which can lead to various symptoms and complications. One of the most common causes of aortic stenosis is a bicuspid aortic valve, which affects 1-2% of the population and is more prevalent in males. However, other factors can also contribute to the development of aortic stenosis, including hypertension and hypercholesterolemia. While hypertension is a risk factor for calcific aortic stenosis in both bicuspid and tricuspid valves, it is not the most common cause. On the other hand, hypercholesterolemia doesn’t directly cause aortic stenosis. Another condition that can present similarly to aortic stenosis is obstructive hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, which results from mid-systolic obstruction of flow through the left-ventricular outflow tract. Finally, valvular heart disease due to rheumatic fever is currently uncommon in the UK and is unlikely to be the cause of aortic stenosis in most cases. By understanding the different factors that can contribute to aortic stenosis, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and manage this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 91 - You are evaluating a 65-year-old new patient to the clinic who has a...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 65-year-old new patient to the clinic who has a history of established cardiovascular disease (CVD), having suffered a myocardial infarction 12 months ago.

      Previously, he declined taking a statin due to concerns about potential side effects, but he has since researched the topic and is now open to the idea.

      He currently takes aspirin 75 mg daily, ramipril 5 mg once daily, and bisoprolol 2.5 mg once daily. He has no other significant medical history. Recent blood tests indicate normal renal, liver, and thyroid function.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for management at this stage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer ezetimibe 10 mg daily

      Explanation:

      Statin Therapy for Those with Pre-existing CVD

      All individuals with a history of established cardiovascular disease (CVD) should be offered statin therapy, according to NICE guidelines. While diet and lifestyle modifications are important, they should not delay or withhold statin therapy.

      For those with pre-existing CVD (excluding chronic kidney disease), atorvastatin 80 mg daily is recommended. However, for individuals with chronic kidney disease and an eGFR of less than 60 mL/min/1.73m2, a lower dose of atorvastatin 20 mg daily is advised. Lower doses may also be considered for those at higher risk of side effects or due to individual preference.

      It is not necessary to use the QRISK2 risk assessment tool for those with pre-existing CVD, as they are automatically considered at high risk of CVD and should be treated accordingly. Overall, statin therapy is an important component of managing CVD and should be considered for all individuals with a history of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 92 - A 57-year-old man visits his GP for a blood pressure check. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man visits his GP for a blood pressure check. He has a medical history of hypothyroidism, asthma, and high cholesterol. He reports feeling well, and his QRISK score is calculated at 11%.

      The patient is currently taking levothyroxine, atorvastatin, lercanidipine, beclomethasone, and salbutamol. He has no known allergies.

      After taking three readings, his blood pressure averages at 146/92 mmHg.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Addition of losartan

      Explanation:

      The patient’s current therapy doesn’t affect the treatment decision, but an additional medication from either the ACE-inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker class is recommended to control their blood pressure. According to updated guidelines from 2019, a thiazide-like diuretic may also be used. As losartan is the only medication from these classes, it is the correct choice. Bisoprolol, doxazosin, and spironolactone are typically reserved for cases of resistant hypertension that do not respond to combinations of a calcium channel blocker, a thiazide-like diuretic, and an ACE-inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Since the patient is only on a single therapy, adding any of these options is not currently indicated. Choosing to make no changes to the medication is incorrect, as the patient’s blood pressure remains above the target range of 140/90 mmHg.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 93 - You have a scheduled telephone consultation with Mrs. O'Brien, a 55-year-old woman who...

    Incorrect

    • You have a scheduled telephone consultation with Mrs. O'Brien, a 55-year-old woman who has been undergoing BP monitoring with the health-care assistant. The health care assistant has arranged the appointment as her readings have been consistently around 150/90 mmHg. Upon reviewing her records, you see that she was prescribed amlodipine due to her Irish ethnicity, and she is taking 10 mg once a day. Her only other medication is atorvastatin 20 mg. The health care assistant has noted in the record that the patient confirms she takes her medications as directed.

      As per NICE guidelines, what is the next step in managing hypertension in Mrs. O'Brien, taking into account her ethnic background?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Angiotensin II receptor blocker

      Explanation:

      For patients of black African or African–Caribbean origin who are taking a calcium channel blocker for hypertension and require a second medication, it is recommended to consider an angiotensin receptor blocker instead of an ACE inhibitor. An alpha-blocker is typically not a first-line option, while spironolactone may be considered as a fourth-line option. However, the 2019 update to the NICE guidelines on hypertension recommends an ARB as the preferred choice for this patient population.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 94 - A 54-year-old man has scheduled a meeting to discuss his struggles with poor...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man has scheduled a meeting to discuss his struggles with poor concentration and feeling sleepy while working. He works as a truck driver and frequently has to operate heavy machinery. His spouse has noticed that he experiences brief pauses in breathing while sleeping at night and occasionally makes choking sounds.

      The patient is currently receiving treatment for hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia. His Epworth sleepiness scale score is 16.

      Considering his condition, what is the best course of action for the patient to take regarding operating heavy machinery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He is required to inform the DVLA and stop driving

      Explanation:

      If a person has mild, moderate, or severe obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) that causes excessive daytime sleepiness, they must inform the Driver Vehicle and Licensing Agency (DVLA). Excessive sleepiness refers to sleepiness that can negatively impact driving. The severity of OSA is determined by the number of apnoea/hypopnoea episodes per hour (apnoea-hypopnoea index [AHI]). Mild OSA is defined as an AHI of 5-14 per hour, moderate OSA is an AHI of 15-30 per hour, and severe OSA is an AHI of more than 30 per hour. If a person is diagnosed with OSA and experiences enough sleepiness to impair driving, they must inform the DVLA and stop driving. In this case, there is no need to retake a driving assessment, and the GP will not inform the DVLA initially. However, if the patient fails to inform the DVLA after multiple reminders and being informed that the GP may break confidentiality, the GP will inform the DVLA. If a person is being investigated for or has a diagnosis of OSA but doesn’t experience daytime sleepiness severe enough to impair driving, they do not need to inform the DVLA or stop driving. If a person is successfully using continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) or an intra-oral device and their symptoms are controlled to the point where they no longer impair driving, they should inform the DVLA but do not need to stop driving.

      Understanding Obstructive Sleep Apnoea/Hypopnoea Syndrome

      Obstructive sleep apnoea/hypopnoea syndrome (OSAHS) is a condition that causes interrupted breathing during sleep due to a blockage in the airway. This can lead to a range of health problems, including daytime somnolence, respiratory acidosis, and hypertension. There are several predisposing factors for OSAHS, including obesity, macroglossia, large tonsils, and Marfan’s syndrome. Partners of those with OSAHS often complain of excessive snoring and periods of apnoea.

      To assess sleepiness, patients may complete the Epworth Sleepiness Scale questionnaire, and undergo the Multiple Sleep Latency Test (MSLT) to measure the time it takes to fall asleep in a dark room. Diagnostic tests for OSAHS include sleep studies (polysomnography), which measure a range of physiological factors such as EEG, respiratory airflow, thoraco-abdominal movement, snoring, and pulse oximetry.

      Management of OSAHS includes weight loss and the use of continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) as a first-line treatment for moderate or severe cases. Intra-oral devices, such as mandibular advancement, may be used if CPAP is not tolerated or for patients with mild OSAHS without daytime sleepiness. It is important to inform the DVLA if OSAHS is causing excessive daytime sleepiness. While there is limited evidence to support the use of pharmacological agents, they may be considered in certain cases.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 95 - A 30-year-old healthy woman visits her General Practitioner to obtain a health insurance...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old healthy woman visits her General Practitioner to obtain a health insurance policy. She has no significant medical history, is a non-smoker, and drinks 3 units of alcohol weekly. During examination, a faint systolic murmur is detected. Her ECG shows a heart rate of 68 bpm and is normal. An echocardiogram reveals a bicuspid aortic valve.
      What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Referral for heart surgery at a later date

      Explanation:

      Bicuspid Aortic Valve: Risks and Recommendations

      Bicuspid aortic valve is a common congenital heart disease in adults, occurring in 1-2% of the population with a familial incidence of around 10%. While some patients may be asymptomatic, about 30% develop complications such as aortic stenosis or insufficiency, which may require surgery. Additionally, the aorta of patients with bicuspid aortic valve has reduced tensile strength, putting them at higher risk for aortic dissection and aneurysm formation in the ascending aorta.

      To manage the cardiovascular risk associated with this condition, low-dose aspirin and cholesterol-lowering drugs may be prescribed as appropriate. While there is evidence supporting a familial predisposition, screening for family members is not yet universally recommended. Finally, while infective endocarditis is a potential complication, antibiotic prophylaxis during dental procedures is no longer recommended.

      In summary, bicuspid aortic valve requires careful monitoring and management to prevent complications and ensure optimal cardiovascular health.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 96 - An active 58-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner for a consultation. She...

    Incorrect

    • An active 58-year-old woman comes to the General Practitioner for a consultation. She has a history of asthma and atrial fibrillation (AF) and has been assessed by her Cardiologist, who has diagnosed her with permanent AF. The Cardiologist recommends rate control. Her resting heart rate is 120 bpm.
      Which of the following is the correct statement about rate control in these circumstances?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Verapamil can be used for first-line rate control in asthmatic patients with AF

      Explanation:

      Managing Atrial Fibrillation: Choosing the Right Medication

      Patients with atrial fibrillation (AF) are at risk of stroke and require proper management. The initial approach to managing AF involves either rhythm or rate control, depending on the patient’s age, comorbidity, and the duration of AF.

      According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence guidelines, rate-limiting calcium antagonists or β-blockers are recommended as first-line treatment for many patients requiring rate-control medication. However, β-blockers are contraindicated in patients with asthma.

      Rate-limiting calcium channel blockers such as verapamil and diltiazem are alternative options. Digoxin is only recommended for very sedentary patients as a first-line medication, as it doesn’t control heart rate during exertion. However, it can be used in combination with a first-line drug if rate control is poor. The target for rate control should be a resting heart rate of less than 110 bpm, and lower if the patient remains symptomatic.

      Choosing the right medication for managing AF is crucial in reducing the risk of stroke and improving the patient’s quality of life.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 97 - A 32-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner for a consultation. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner for a consultation. He has been diagnosed with Raynaud's phenomenon and is struggling to manage the symptoms during the colder months. He asks if there are any medications that could help alleviate his condition.
      Which of the following drugs has the strongest evidence to support its effectiveness in improving this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Raynaud’s Phenomenon

      Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition that causes the blood vessels in the fingers and toes to narrow, leading to reduced blood flow and pain. The most commonly used drug for treatment is nifedipine, which causes vasodilatation and reduces the number and severity of attacks. However, patients may experience side-effects such as hypotension, flushing, headache, and tachycardia.

      For those who cannot tolerate nifedipine, other agents such as nicardipine, amlodipine, or diltiazem can be tried. Limited evidence suggests that angiotensin receptor-blockers, fluoxetine, and topical nitrates may also provide some benefit. However, there is no evidence to support the use of antiplatelet agents.

      In secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon, management of the underlying cause may help alleviate symptoms. Treatment options are similar to primary Raynaud’s phenomenon, with the addition of the prostacyclin analogue iloprost, which has shown to be effective in systemic sclerosis.

      Overall, treatment options for Raynaud’s phenomenon aim to improve blood flow and reduce the frequency and severity of attacks. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to find the most effective treatment plan for each individual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 98 - A 63-year-old Caucasian man with a history of hypertension and gout presented to...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old Caucasian man with a history of hypertension and gout presented to the clinic seeking advice on controlling his blood pressure. He has been experiencing high blood pressure readings at home for the past week, with an average reading of 150/95 mmHg. He is currently asymptomatic and denies any chest discomfort. He is a non-smoker and non-drinker. His current medications include amlodipine and allopurinol, which he has been tolerating well. He has no known drug allergies. His recent blood test results are as follows:

      - Sodium (Na+): 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - Potassium (K+): 4.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Bicarbonate: 28 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      - Urea: 6.7 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine: 110 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing his hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add an angiotensin receptor blocker

      Explanation:

      To improve poorly controlled hypertension in a patient already taking a calcium channel blocker, NICE recommends adding an angiotensin receptor blocker, an ACE inhibitor, or a thiazide-like diuretic as step 2 management. In this case, the correct answer is to add an angiotensin receptor blocker, as the patient’s home blood pressure readings have remained uncontrolled despite maximum dose of amlodipine. Increasing amlodipine to 20 mg once a day is not recommended, and thiazide-like diuretic should be used with caution due to the patient’s history of gout. Aldosterone antagonist and alpha-blocker are not appropriate at this stage of hypertensive management.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 99 - A 58-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with hypertension wants to know...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with hypertension wants to know your opinion on salt consumption. What would be the most suitable answer based on the latest available evidence?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lowering salt intake significantly reduces blood pressure, the target should be less than 6g per day

      Explanation:

      Studies conducted recently have highlighted the noteworthy and swift decrease in blood pressure that can be attained through the reduction of salt consumption.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 100 - A 48-year-old man with controlled angina complains that he is experiencing nightmares, constant...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man with controlled angina complains that he is experiencing nightmares, constant fatigue, and impotence. Upon reviewing his medication, you note that he is taking ramipril, isosorbide mononitrate, atenolol, and simvastatin.
      What is the most suitable approach to managing this issue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduce the atenolol dosage and arrange to review him in 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      Side Effects of Beta Blockers and Other Medications

      Beta blockers are known to cause a range of side effects, including erectile dysfunction, nightmares, and reduced exercise capacity. In some cases, they can even trigger bronchospasm or heart failure. Patients on beta blockers may also experience depression, although this typically resolves once the medication is discontinued.

      Simvastatin, another commonly prescribed medication, can cause sleep dysfunction and erectile problems. However, in the case of this patient, it is more likely that the beta blocker is responsible for these symptoms.

      Ramipril, yet another medication, can cause a dry cough. While it may be worth trying an angiotensin II-receptor antagonist in some cases, it would not be effective in addressing the symptoms experienced by this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 101 - A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with a diastolic murmur that is...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with a diastolic murmur that is most audible at the left sternal edge. The apex beat is also displaced outwards. What condition is commonly associated with these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Characteristics of Aortic Regurgitation

      Aortic regurgitation is a heart condition characterized by the backflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle during diastole. One of the key features of this condition is a blowing high pitched early diastolic murmur that can be heard immediately after A2. This murmur is loudest at the left third and fourth intercostal spaces.

      In addition to the murmur, aortic regurgitation can also cause displacement of the apex beat. This is due to the dilatation of the left ventricle, which occurs as a result of the increased volume of blood that flows back into the ventricle during diastole. Despite this dilatation, there is relatively little hypertrophy of the left ventricle.

      Overall, the combination of a high pitched early diastolic murmur and displacement of the apex beat can be strong indicators of aortic regurgitation.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 102 - A 67-year-old man presents for follow-up. He has a medical history of small...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents for follow-up. He has a medical history of small cell lung cancer and ischemic heart disease. His cancer was detected five months ago and he recently finished a round of chemotherapy. In terms of his heart health, he experienced a heart attack two years ago and underwent primary angioplasty with stent placement. He has not had any angina since then.

      Over the past week, he has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath, particularly at night, and has an occasional non-productive cough. He has also noticed that his wedding ring feels tight. Upon examination, his chest appears normal, but he does have distended neck veins and periorbital edema. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior vena cava obstruction

      Explanation:

      Understanding Superior Vena Cava Obstruction

      Superior vena cava obstruction is a medical emergency that occurs when the superior vena cava, a large vein that carries blood from the upper body to the heart, is compressed. This condition is commonly associated with lung cancer, but it can also be caused by other malignancies, aortic aneurysm, mediastinal fibrosis, goitre, and SVC thrombosis. The most common symptom of SVC obstruction is dyspnoea, but patients may also experience swelling of the face, neck, and arms, headache, visual disturbance, and pulseless jugular venous distension.

      The management of SVC obstruction depends on the underlying cause and the patient’s individual circumstances. Endovascular stenting is often the preferred treatment to relieve symptoms, but certain malignancies may require radical chemotherapy or chemo-radiotherapy instead. Glucocorticoids may also be given, although the evidence supporting their use is weak. It is important to seek advice from an oncology team to determine the best course of action for each patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 103 - A 55-year-old carpenter comes to see you in surgery following an MI three...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old carpenter comes to see you in surgery following an MI three months previously.

      He has made a full recovery but wants to ask about his diet.

      Which one of the following foods should he avoid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pork

      Explanation:

      Tips for a Heart-Healthy Diet after a Heart Attack

      Following a heart attack, it is important to adopt a healthier overall diet to reduce the risk of future heart problems. Unhealthy diets have been attributed to up to 30% of all deaths from coronary heart disease (CHD). While reducing fat intake is important, exercise also plays a crucial role in maintaining heart health.

      Including canned and frozen fruits and vegetables in your diet is just as beneficial as fresh produce. A Mediterranean diet, which includes many protective elements for CHD, is recommended. Replacing butter with olive oil and mono-unsaturated margarine, such as those made from rape-seed or olive oil, is a healthier option. Organic butter is not any better for heart health than non-organic butter.

      To reduce cholesterol intake, it is recommended to eat less red meat and replace it with poultry. Margarine containing sitostanol ester may also help reduce cholesterol intake. Adding plant sterol to margarine has been shown to reduce serum low-density lipoprotein cholesterol. Eating more fish, including oily fish, at least once a week is also recommended.

      Switching to whole-grain bread instead of white bread and eating more root vegetables and green vegetables is also beneficial. Lastly, it is important to eat fruit every day. By following these tips, you can maintain a heart-healthy diet and reduce the risk of future heart problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 104 - A 67-year-old man with diabetes is seen for his annual check-up. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man with diabetes is seen for his annual check-up. He is generally in good health, but experiences occasional cramping in his calf after walking about a mile on flat ground. He continues to smoke five cigarettes per day. During the examination, his blood pressure is measured at 166/98 mmHg, with a pulse of 86 bpm and a BMI of 30.2. Neurological examination is normal, and his fundi appear normal. Examination of his peripheral circulation reveals absent foot pulses and weak popliteal pulses. He was started on antihypertensive therapy, and his U+Es were measured over a two-week period, with the following results:

      Baseline:
      Sodium - 138 mmol/L
      Potassium - 4.6 mmol/L
      Urea - 11.1 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 138 µmol/L

      2 weeks later:
      Sodium - 140 mmol/L
      Potassium - 5.0 mmol/L
      Urea - 19.5 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 310 µmol/L

      Which class of antihypertensives is most likely responsible for this change?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor therapy

      Explanation:

      Renal Artery Stenosis and ACE Inhibitors

      This man has diabetes and hypertension, along with mild symptoms of claudication and absent foot pulses, indicating arteriopathy. These factors suggest a diagnosis of renal artery stenosis (RAS), which can cause macrovascular disease and mild renal impairment.

      When an antihypertensive medication was introduced, the patient’s renal function deteriorated, indicating that the drug was an ACE inhibitor. This is because hypertension in RAS is caused by the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system trying to maintain renal perfusion. Inhibiting this system with ACE inhibitors can result in relative renal ischemia, leading to further deterioration of renal function.

      In summary, patients with diabetes and hypertension who present with arteriopathy symptoms should be evaluated for RAS. The use of ACE inhibitors in these patients should be carefully monitored, as it can exacerbate renal impairment.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 105 - A 65-year-old woman came to the clinic with a complaint of intermittent swelling...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman came to the clinic with a complaint of intermittent swelling of her tongue and face that has been occurring for the past ten weeks. The episodes last for 36 hours and then resolve on their own. She has tried taking oral antihistamines but they did not help. Her medical history is significant for hypertension which was diagnosed and treated with appropriate medications six months ago. There is no other relevant medical or family history. What medication is most likely causing her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      ACE Inhibitors and Angioedema

      ACE inhibitors are medications that can lead to the development of angioedema, a condition characterized by swelling in various parts of the body. This is because ACE inhibitors block the action of the ACE enzyme, which is responsible for breaking down bradykinin. When bradykinin accumulates in the body, it causes blood vessels to dilate and become more permeable, leading to the accumulation of fluid in the interstitium. This can result in rapid swelling, particularly in areas with less connective tissue, such as the face.

      Interestingly, ACE inhibitor-induced angioedema appears to be more common in African-American individuals. If angioedema occurs, the medication should be discontinued immediately and an alternative treatment should be sought. One option is an angiotensin II receptor antagonist, which works similarly to ACE inhibitors but doesn’t affect bradykinin levels. It is important to monitor patients closely for signs of angioedema when prescribing ACE inhibitors, particularly in those with a history of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health