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  • Question 1 - A 75-year-old man presents with a sizable abdominal aortic aneurysm. While undergoing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presents with a sizable abdominal aortic aneurysm. While undergoing a laparotomy for scheduled surgical intervention, the medical team discovers that the aneurysm is situated much closer to the origin of the SMA. While dissecting the area, a transverse vessel running across the aorta sustains damage. What is the most probable identity of this vessel?

      Your Answer: Middle colic artery

      Correct Answer: Left renal vein

      Explanation:

      During the repair of a juxtarenal aneurysm, intentional ligation of the left renal vein may be necessary as it travels over the aorta.

      The abdominal aorta is a major blood vessel that originates from the 12th thoracic vertebrae and terminates at the fourth lumbar vertebrae. It is located in the abdomen and is surrounded by various organs and structures. The posterior relations of the abdominal aorta include the vertebral bodies of the first to fourth lumbar vertebrae. The anterior relations include the lesser omentum, liver, left renal vein, inferior mesenteric vein, third part of the duodenum, pancreas, parietal peritoneum, and peritoneal cavity. The right lateral relations include the right crus of the diaphragm, cisterna chyli, azygos vein, and inferior vena cava (which becomes posterior distally). The left lateral relations include the fourth part of the duodenum, duodenal-jejunal flexure, and left sympathetic trunk. Overall, the abdominal aorta is an important blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to various organs in the abdomen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An 83-year-old woman comes to your clinic with a painful red swelling on...

    Incorrect

    • An 83-year-old woman comes to your clinic with a painful red swelling on her cheek that she noticed this morning. She has been feeling fatigued for a few days. The patient lives alone and has a history of pressure ulcers due to limited mobility. During the examination, you observe an erythematous swelling above the right angle of the mandible that is warm and tender to the touch. You suspect that the patient has a parotid gland infection. What is the nerve that provides sensation to the parotid gland capsule?

      Your Answer: Mandibular nerve

      Correct Answer: Greater auricular nerve

      Explanation:

      The greater auricular nerve (GAN) supplies sensation to the parotid gland, skin overlying the gland, mastoid process, and outer ear. The facial nerve supplies muscles of facial expression, taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, and sensation from parts of the external acoustic meatus, auricle, and retro-auricular area. The mandibular nerve carries sensory and motor fibers, supplying sensation to the lower lip, lower teeth and gingivae, chin, and jaw, and motor innervation to muscles of mastication. The lingual nerve supplies sensation to the tongue and travels with taste fibers from the chorda tympani of the facial nerve. The glossopharyngeal nerve carries taste and sensation from the posterior third of the tongue, sensation from the pharyngeal wall and tonsils, the middle ear, external auditory canal, and auricle, and parasympathetic fibers that supply the parotid gland. Infective parotitis is uncommon and has increased risk in dehydrated or intubated elderly patients.

      The parotid gland is located in front of and below the ear, overlying the mandibular ramus. Its salivary duct crosses the masseter muscle, pierces the buccinator muscle, and drains adjacent to the second upper molar tooth. The gland is traversed by several structures, including the facial nerve, external carotid artery, retromandibular vein, and auriculotemporal nerve. The gland is related to the masseter muscle, medial pterygoid muscle, superficial temporal and maxillary artery, facial nerve, stylomandibular ligament, posterior belly of the digastric muscle, sternocleidomastoid muscle, stylohyoid muscle, internal carotid artery, mastoid process, and styloid process. The gland is supplied by branches of the external carotid artery and drained by the retromandibular vein. Its lymphatic drainage is to the deep cervical nodes. The gland is innervated by the parasympathetic-secretomotor, sympathetic-superior cervical ganglion, and sensory-greater auricular nerve. Parasympathetic stimulation produces a water-rich, serous saliva, while sympathetic stimulation leads to the production of a low volume, enzyme-rich saliva.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 36-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department in an ambulance after...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department in an ambulance after being found unconscious by a friend. Shortly after arriving at the hospital, he becomes tachycardic, hypotensive, and stops breathing. The medical team suspects shock and examines him. What could be a potential cause of obstructive shock resulting from interference in ventricular filling?

      Your Answer: Myocardial infarction

      Correct Answer: Tension pneumothorax

      Explanation:

      Shock can be caused by various factors, but only tension pneumothorax affects ventricular filling. Distributive shock, such as anaphylactic shock, hypovolaemic shock caused by chemical burns, and cardiogenic shock resulting from myocardial infarction are other examples. Obstructive shock caused by pulmonary embolism interferes with ventricular emptying, not filling.

      Shock is a condition where there is not enough blood flow to the tissues. There are five main types of shock: septic, haemorrhagic, neurogenic, cardiogenic, and anaphylactic. Septic shock is caused by an infection that triggers a particular response in the body. Haemorrhagic shock is caused by blood loss, and there are four classes of haemorrhagic shock based on the amount of blood loss and associated symptoms. Neurogenic shock occurs when there is a disruption in the autonomic nervous system, leading to decreased vascular resistance and decreased cardiac output. Cardiogenic shock is caused by heart disease or direct myocardial trauma. Anaphylactic shock is a severe, life-threatening allergic reaction. Adrenaline is the most important drug in treating anaphylaxis and should be given as soon as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      15.4
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  • Question 4 - A 23-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of fatigue,...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of fatigue, breathlessness on exertion, skin pallor, and a swollen, painful tongue. She has also been experiencing bloating, diarrhoea, and stomach pain.

      On examination her respiratory rate was 18/min at rest, oxygen saturation 99%, blood pressure 120/80 mmHg and temperature 37.1ºC. Her abdomen was generally tender and distended.

      The results of a blood test are as follows:

      Hb 90 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)
      Ferritin 8 ng/mL (20 - 230)
      Vitamin B12 120 ng/L (200 - 900)
      Folate 2.0 nmol/L (> 3.0)

      What investigation would be most likely to determine the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Intrinsic factor antibodies

      Correct Answer: Tissue transglutaminase antibodies (anti-TTG) and total immunoglobulin A levels (total IgA)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.

      To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.

      Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.

      The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      31.3
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  • Question 5 - A 67-year-old female is hospitalized with acute pancreatitis. What factor would indicate a...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old female is hospitalized with acute pancreatitis. What factor would indicate a poor prognosis?

      Your Answer: Glucose 15.8mmol/l

      Explanation:

      The Glasgow Prognostic Score is a useful tool for assessing the severity of acute pancreatitis. If three or more of the following criteria are present within the first 48 hours, it is likely that the patient is experiencing severe pancreatitis and should be referred to the High Dependency Unit or Intensive Care Unit. Conversely, if the score is less than three, severe pancreatitis is unlikely. The criteria include: age over 55 years, white blood cell count over 15 x 109/L, urea over 16 mmol/L, glucose over 10 mmol/L, pO2 less than 8 kPa (60 mm Hg), albumin less than 32 g/L, calcium less than 2 mmol/L, LDH over 600 units/L, and AST/ALT over 200 units. Based on these criteria, the only option that meets the threshold for severe pancreatitis is a glucose level of 15.8 mmol/L.

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      6.4
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  • Question 6 - How many unpaired branches does the abdominal aorta have to provide blood supply...

    Correct

    • How many unpaired branches does the abdominal aorta have to provide blood supply to the abdominal organs?

      Your Answer: Three

      Explanation:

      The abdominal viscera has three branches that are not paired, namely the coeliac axis, the SMA, and the IMA. Meanwhile, the branches to the adrenals, renal arteries, and gonadal vessels are paired. It is worth noting that the fourth unpaired branch of the abdominal aorta, which is the median sacral artery, does not provide direct supply to the abdominal viscera.

      Branches of the Abdominal Aorta

      The abdominal aorta is a major blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to the abdominal organs and lower extremities. It gives rise to several branches that supply blood to various organs and tissues. These branches can be classified into two types: parietal and visceral.

      The parietal branches supply blood to the walls of the abdominal cavity, while the visceral branches supply blood to the abdominal organs. The branches of the abdominal aorta include the inferior phrenic, coeliac, superior mesenteric, middle suprarenal, renal, gonadal, lumbar, inferior mesenteric, median sacral, and common iliac arteries.

      The inferior phrenic artery arises from the upper border of the abdominal aorta and supplies blood to the diaphragm. The coeliac artery supplies blood to the liver, stomach, spleen, and pancreas. The superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the small intestine, cecum, and ascending colon. The middle suprarenal artery supplies blood to the adrenal gland. The renal arteries supply blood to the kidneys. The gonadal arteries supply blood to the testes or ovaries. The lumbar arteries supply blood to the muscles and skin of the back. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and rectum. The median sacral artery supplies blood to the sacrum and coccyx. The common iliac arteries are the terminal branches of the abdominal aorta and supply blood to the pelvis and lower extremities.

      Understanding the branches of the abdominal aorta is important for diagnosing and treating various medical conditions that affect the abdominal organs and lower extremities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      9.8
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  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old woman undergoes a colonoscopy and a biopsy reveals a malignant tumour...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman undergoes a colonoscopy and a biopsy reveals a malignant tumour in her sigmoid colon. Her grandmother died of colorectal cancer at 30-years-old and her father developed endometrial cancer at 40-years-old. Which gene is suspected to be responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: LKB1 and STK11 genes

      Correct Answer: Mismatch repair genes

      Explanation:

      The patient’s familial background indicates the possibility of Lynch syndrome, given that several of his close relatives developed cancer at a young age. This is supported by the fact that his family has a history of both colorectal cancer, which may indicate a defect in the APC gene, and endometrial cancer, which is also linked to Lynch syndrome. Lynch syndrome is associated with mutations in mismatch repair genes such as MSH2, MLH1, PMS2, and GTBP, which are responsible for identifying and repairing errors that occur during DNA replication, such as insertions and deletions of bases. Mutations in these genes can increase the risk of developing cancers such as colorectal, endometrial, and renal cancer.

      Colorectal cancer can be classified into three types: sporadic, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC), and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Sporadic colon cancer is believed to be caused by a series of genetic mutations, including allelic loss of the APC gene, activation of the K-ras oncogene, and deletion of p53 and DCC tumor suppressor genes. HNPCC, which is an autosomal dominant condition, is the most common form of inherited colon cancer. It is caused by mutations in genes involved in DNA mismatch repair, leading to microsatellite instability. The most common genes affected are MSH2 and MLH1. Patients with HNPCC are also at a higher risk of other cancers, such as endometrial cancer. The Amsterdam criteria are sometimes used to aid diagnosis of HNPCC. FAP is a rare autosomal dominant condition that leads to the formation of hundreds of polyps by the age of 30-40 years. It is caused by a mutation in the APC gene. Patients with FAP are also at risk of duodenal tumors. A variant of FAP called Gardner’s syndrome can also feature osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma, and epidermoid cysts on the skin. Genetic testing can be done to diagnose HNPCC and FAP, and patients with FAP generally have a total colectomy with ileo-anal pouch formation in their twenties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 16-year-old presents to the Emergency Department with her father, who has noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old presents to the Emergency Department with her father, who has noticed a yellowish tint to her eyes. Upon further inquiry, she reports having a flu-like illness a few days ago, which has since resolved. She has no medical history and is not taking any medications. On examination, scleral icterus is the only significant finding. The following are her blood test results:

      Hb 130 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 320 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 6.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      Bilirubin 80 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      ALP 42 u/L (30 - 100)
      ALT 30 u/L (3 - 40)
      γGT 50 u/L (8 - 60)
      Albumin 45 g/L (35 - 50)

      What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Gallstones

      Correct Answer: Gilbert's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Gilbert’s syndrome is characterized by an inherited deficiency of an enzyme used to conjugate bilirubin, resulting in elevated levels of unconjugated bilirubin in the blood. This can lead to isolated jaundice of the sclera or mouth during times of physiological stress.

      Crigler Najjar syndrome, on the other hand, is a rare genetic disorder that causes an inability to convert and clear bilirubin from the body, resulting in jaundice shortly after birth.

      Gallstones, which can be asymptomatic or present with right upper quadrant pain following a meal, are associated with risk factors such as being overweight, over 40 years old, female, or fertile.

      Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is characterized by scarring and fibrosis of the bile ducts inside and outside the liver, and may occur alone or in combination with inflammatory diseases such as ulcerative colitis. Symptoms of PSC include jaundice, right upper quadrant pain, itching, fatigue, and weight loss.

      Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the way bilirubin is processed in the body. It is caused by a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase, which leads to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. This means that bilirubin is not properly broken down and eliminated from the body, resulting in jaundice. However, jaundice may only be visible during certain conditions such as fasting, exercise, or illness. The prevalence of Gilbert’s syndrome is around 1-2% in the general population.

      To diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome, doctors may look for a rise in bilirubin levels after prolonged fasting or the administration of IV nicotinic acid. However, treatment is not necessary for this condition. While the exact mode of inheritance is still debated, it is known to be an autosomal recessive disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      46.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old patient presents with sudden onset of fever and complains of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient presents with sudden onset of fever and complains of a painful mouth. The patient has a history of inflammatory bowel disease and has recently started taking sulphasalazine. There is no history of recent travel or any other relevant medical history.

      What urgent investigation should be performed in this case?

      Your Answer: C-reactive protein (CRP)

      Correct Answer: Full blood count

      Explanation:

      Aminosalicylates can cause various haematological adverse effects, including agranulocytosis, which can be detected through FBC testing. In this case, the patient’s recent exposure to sulphasalazine and symptoms of fever and mouth ulcers suggest bone marrow suppression with an infection. While an acute flare of IBD is a possible differential diagnosis, it is not strongly supported by the clinical signs. Amylase testing is not likely to be helpful in this case, as the presentation points more towards agranulocytosis than pancreatitis. CRP testing may be performed to monitor inflammation, but it is not likely to provide a specific diagnosis. Total bilirubin testing is included as a reminder of the potential haematological side-effects of aminosalicylates, such as haemolytic anaemia, but it is not a key investigation in this case. FBC testing is the most clinically urgent investigation to support the diagnosis of agranulocytosis.

      Aminosalicylate Drugs for Inflammatory Bowel Disease

      Aminosalicylate drugs are commonly used to treat inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). These drugs work by releasing 5-aminosalicyclic acid (5-ASA) in the colon, which acts as an anti-inflammatory agent. The exact mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed that 5-ASA may inhibit prostaglandin synthesis.

      Sulphasalazine is a combination of sulphapyridine and 5-ASA. However, many of the side effects associated with this drug are due to the sulphapyridine component, such as rashes, oligospermia, headache, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and lung fibrosis. Mesalazine is a delayed release form of 5-ASA that avoids the sulphapyridine side effects seen in patients taking sulphasalazine. However, it is still associated with side effects such as gastrointestinal upset, headache, agranulocytosis, pancreatitis, and interstitial nephritis.

      Olsalazine is another aminosalicylate drug that consists of two molecules of 5-ASA linked by a diazo bond, which is broken down by colonic bacteria. It is important to note that aminosalicylates are associated with a variety of haematological adverse effects, including agranulocytosis. Therefore, a full blood count is a key investigation in an unwell patient taking these drugs. Pancreatitis is also more common in patients taking mesalazine compared to sulfasalazine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      11.9
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  • Question 10 - You eagerly begin your second laparoscopic cholecystectomy and encounter unexpected difficulties with the...

    Correct

    • You eagerly begin your second laparoscopic cholecystectomy and encounter unexpected difficulties with the anatomy of Calots triangle. While attempting to apply a haemostatic clip, you accidentally tear the cystic artery, resulting in profuse bleeding. What is the most probable source of this bleeding?

      Your Answer: Right hepatic artery

      Explanation:

      The most frequent scenario is for the cystic artery to originate from the right hepatic artery, although there are known variations in the anatomy of the gallbladder’s blood supply.

      The gallbladder is a sac made of fibromuscular tissue that can hold up to 50 ml of fluid. Its lining is made up of columnar epithelium. The gallbladder is located in close proximity to various organs, including the liver, transverse colon, and the first part of the duodenum. It is covered by peritoneum and is situated between the right lobe and quadrate lobe of the liver. The gallbladder receives its arterial supply from the cystic artery, which is a branch of the right hepatic artery. Its venous drainage is directly to the liver, and its lymphatic drainage is through Lund’s node. The gallbladder is innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves. The common bile duct originates from the confluence of the cystic and common hepatic ducts and is located in the hepatobiliary triangle, which is bordered by the common hepatic duct, cystic duct, and the inferior edge of the liver. The cystic artery is also found within this triangle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      16.1
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  • Question 11 - A 72-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of painful legs, particularly in her...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of painful legs, particularly in her thighs, which occur after walking and subside on rest. She occasionally takes paracetamol to alleviate the pain. Her medical history includes hyperlipidaemia, type II diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and depression. The physician suspects that her pain may be due to claudication of the femoral artery, which is a continuation of the external iliac artery. Can you correctly identify the anatomical landmark where the external iliac artery becomes the femoral artery?

      Your Answer: Inguinal ligament

      Explanation:

      After passing the inguinal ligament, the external iliac artery transforms into the femoral artery. This means that the other options provided are not accurate. Here is a brief explanation of their anatomical importance:

      – The medial edge of the sartorius muscle creates the lateral wall of the femoral triangle.
      – The medial edge of the adductor longus muscle creates the medial wall of the femoral triangle.
      – The femoral vein creates the lateral border of the femoral canal.
      – The pectineus muscle creates the posterior border of the femoral canal.

      The inguinal canal is located above the inguinal ligament and measures 4 cm in length. Its superficial ring is situated in front of the pubic tubercle, while the deep ring is found about 1.5-2 cm above the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle. The canal is bounded by the external oblique aponeurosis, inguinal ligament, lacunar ligament, internal oblique, transversus abdominis, external ring, and conjoint tendon. In males, the canal contains the spermatic cord and ilioinguinal nerve, while in females, it houses the round ligament of the uterus and ilioinguinal nerve.

      The boundaries of Hesselbach’s triangle, which are frequently tested, are located in the inguinal region. Additionally, the inguinal canal is closely related to the vessels of the lower limb, which should be taken into account when repairing hernial defects in this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      18.9
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  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old female undergoes an emergency caesarean section due to failed induction of...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female undergoes an emergency caesarean section due to failed induction of labor and a macrosomic baby. After delivery, she is transferred to the postnatal ward. However, prior to discharge, she complains of abdominal pain, has a fever of 39ºC, and a tachycardia of 106 bpm. A CT scan reveals the presence of fluid accumulation in the retroperitoneal space. What is the probable cause of these CT findings?

      Your Answer: Ureteral injury during caesarean section

      Explanation:

      If the ureters are damaged during a caesarean section, it can cause fluid to accumulate in the retroperitoneal area. This can lead to pain and inflammation, which may present as fever and a rapid heartbeat. Ovarian thrombus is a rare complication that can occur after a caesarean section. CT scans can show filling defects and an increased diameter in the affected vein. The pyloric antrum is located near the bottom of the stomach, close to the pyloric sphincter. Since the stomach is an intraperitoneal organ in the left upper quadrant, it is unlikely to be lacerated during a caesarean section. Any damage to the stomach would not result in retroperitoneal fluid accumulation.

      The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old male patient is referred to the upper GI clinic under the...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male patient is referred to the upper GI clinic under the two-week rule. His daughter first noticed that his skin and eyes are becoming yellow. His past medical history includes neurofibromatosis type 1. He was recently diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus however the blood glucose has been very poorly controlled despite maximum therapy of metformin and gliclazide. On examination, he is jaundiced. There is mild discomfort in the epigastric region and the right upper quadrant. An urgent abdominal CT scan shows a mass arising from the head of the pancreas and dilated common bile duct. A subsequent endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) and biopsy confirms a pancreatic somatostatinoma.

      From which cells in the pancreas is this tumour originating?

      Your Answer: D cells

      Explanation:

      Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones

      Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.

      One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.

      Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.

      Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 14 - Which one of the following forms the medial wall of the femoral canal?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following forms the medial wall of the femoral canal?

      Your Answer: Sartorius

      Correct Answer: Lacunar ligament

      Explanation:

      It is important to differentiate between the femoral canal and the femoral triangle, particularly during exams when time is limited.

      Understanding the Femoral Canal

      The femoral canal is a fascial tunnel located at the medial aspect of the femoral sheath. It contains both the femoral artery and femoral vein, with the canal lying medial to the vein. The borders of the femoral canal include the femoral vein laterally, the lacunar ligament medially, the inguinal ligament anteriorly, and the pectineal ligament posteriorly.

      The femoral canal plays a significant role in allowing the femoral vein to expand, which facilitates increased venous return to the lower limbs. However, it can also be a site of femoral hernias, which occur when abdominal contents protrude through the femoral canal. The relatively tight neck of the femoral canal places these hernias at high risk of strangulation, making it important to understand the anatomy and function of this structure. Overall, understanding the femoral canal is crucial for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating potential issues related to this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 15 - Which of the following is most crucial in offering assistance to the duodenojejunal...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is most crucial in offering assistance to the duodenojejunal flexure?

      Your Answer: Ligament of Trietz

      Explanation:

      The ligament of Trietz, also known as the suspensory muscle of the duodenum, holds great significance. On the other hand, the ligament of Treves is situated between the caecum and ileum.

      Anatomy of the Duodenum

      The duodenum is the first and widest part of the small bowel, located immediately distal to the pylorus. It is around 25 cm long and comprises four parts: superior, descending, horizontal, and ascending. The horizontal part is the longest segment and passes transversely to the left with an upward deflection. The duodenum is largely retroperitoneal, except for the first 2-3 cm of the superior part and the final 1-2 cm.

      The medial relations of the duodenum include the superior pancreatico-duodenal artery and the pancreatic head. The descending part is closely related to the commencement of the transverse colon, while the horizontal part crosses in front of the right ureter, right psoas major, right gonadal vessels, and IVC. The ascending part runs to the left of the aorta and terminates by binding abruptly forwards as the duodenojejunal flexure.

      The region of the duodenojejunal flexure is fixed in position by the suspensory muscle of the duodenum, which blends with the musculature of the flexure and passes upwards deep to the pancreas to gain attachment to the right crus of the diaphragm. This fibromuscular band is known as the ligament of Treitz. The duodenum has important anterior and posterior relations, including the superior mesenteric vessels, the root of the small bowel, the left sympathetic trunk, the left psoas major, the left gonadal vessels, the left kidney, and the uncinate process of the pancreas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      6.2
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  • Question 16 - A 15-year-old boy, with a family history of Gilbert's syndrome, is showing symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy, with a family history of Gilbert's syndrome, is showing symptoms of hepatic dysfunction. Upon conducting liver function tests, it is found that he has elevated levels of unconjugated bilirubin. After genetic testing, it is confirmed that he has Gilbert's syndrome. What is the reason behind the increased levels of unconjugated bilirubin in Gilbert's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Defective hepatocyte excretion of conjugated bilirubin

      Correct Answer: Reduced levels of UDP-glucuronosyl transferase-1

      Explanation:

      Gilbert’s syndrome is characterized by a decrease in UDP glucuronosyltransferase levels.
      Enhanced drug effects can occur due to reduced warfarin metabolism caused by CYP2C9 deficiency.
      Elevated GGT levels are often caused by pancreatic disease, cholestasis, excessive alcohol consumption, and certain medications.
      Dubin-Johnson syndrome is associated with defective hepatocyte excretion of conjugated bilirubin.
      Disordered metabolism of clopidogrel and other drugs, including proton-pump inhibitors, anticonvulsants, and sedatives, can result from reduced CYP2C19 levels.

      Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the way bilirubin is processed in the body. It is caused by a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase, which leads to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. This means that bilirubin is not properly broken down and eliminated from the body, resulting in jaundice. However, jaundice may only be visible during certain conditions such as fasting, exercise, or illness. The prevalence of Gilbert’s syndrome is around 1-2% in the general population.

      To diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome, doctors may look for a rise in bilirubin levels after prolonged fasting or the administration of IV nicotinic acid. However, treatment is not necessary for this condition. While the exact mode of inheritance is still debated, it is known to be an autosomal recessive disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      16.2
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  • Question 17 - A 45-year-old woman with a family history of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman with a family history of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 visits her GP complaining of upper abdominal pain. She reports experiencing worsening dyspepsia after meals for the past three months. Upon further questioning, she discloses that she has had loose stools and unintentionally lost approximately one stone in weight during this time.

      What is the typical physiological function of the hormone that is accountable for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Delay gastric emptying

      Correct Answer: Increase H+ secretion by gastric parietal cells

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is that gastrin increases the secretion of H+ by gastric parietal cells. This patient is suffering from Zollinger-Ellison syndrome due to a gastrinoma, which results in excessive production of gastrin and an overly acidic environment in the duodenum. This leads to symptoms such as dyspepsia, diarrhoea, and weight loss, as the intestinal pH is no longer optimal for digestion. The patient’s family history of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 is also a clue, as this condition is associated with around 25% of gastrinomas. Gastrin’s normal function is to increase the secretion of H+ by gastric parietal cells to aid in digestion.

      The options delay gastric emptying, increase H+ secretion by gastric chief cells, and stimulate pancreatic bicarbonate secretion are incorrect. Gastrin’s role is to promote digestion and increase gastric emptying, not delay it. Gastric chief cells secrete pepsinogen and gastric lipase to aid in protein and fat digestion, not H+. Finally, pancreatic bicarbonate secretion is stimulated by secretin, which is produced by duodenal S-cells, not gastrin.

      Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones

      Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.

      One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.

      Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.

      Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      33.6
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  • Question 18 - A 17-year-old girl comes to the emergency department complaining of nausea and vomiting....

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl comes to the emergency department complaining of nausea and vomiting. A medical trainee, who has recently started her emergency rotation, prescribes metoclopramide to alleviate her symptoms before ordering some tests.

      The nurse cautions the doctor that metoclopramide is not recommended for young female patients and suggests switching to cyclizine.

      What is the reason for metoclopramide being unsuitable for this patient?

      Your Answer: Risk of respiratory depression

      Correct Answer: Risk of oculogyric crisis

      Explanation:

      Metoclopramide use in children and young adults can lead to oculogyric crisis, which is a dystonic reaction that causes the eyes to involuntarily gaze upwards for an extended period. Opioids can cause respiratory depression, while cyclizine may result in restlessness and urinary retention. Amiodarone use may cause slate-grey skin discoloration. Additionally, metoclopramide can increase urinary frequency.

      Understanding the Mechanism and Uses of Metoclopramide

      Metoclopramide is a medication primarily used to manage nausea, but it also has other uses such as treating gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and gastroparesis secondary to diabetic neuropathy. It is often combined with analgesics for the treatment of migraines. However, it is important to note that metoclopramide has adverse effects such as extrapyramidal effects, acute dystonia, diarrhoea, hyperprolactinaemia, tardive dyskinesia, and parkinsonism. It should also be avoided in bowel obstruction but may be helpful in paralytic ileus.

      The mechanism of action of metoclopramide is quite complicated. It is primarily a D2 receptor antagonist, but it also has mixed 5-HT3 receptor antagonist/5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. Its antiemetic action is due to its antagonist activity at D2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone, and at higher doses, the 5-HT3 receptor antagonist also has an effect. The gastroprokinetic activity is mediated by D2 receptor antagonist activity and 5-HT4 receptor agonist activity.

      In summary, metoclopramide is a medication with multiple uses, but it also has adverse effects that should be considered. Its mechanism of action is complex, involving both D2 receptor antagonist and 5-HT3 receptor antagonist/5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. Understanding the uses and mechanism of action of metoclopramide is important for its safe and effective use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      13.5
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  • Question 19 - You are employed at a medical clinic. A 56-year-old male patient complains of...

    Correct

    • You are employed at a medical clinic. A 56-year-old male patient complains of a painful lump in the vicinity of his groin. After inspecting the lump, it is found to be situated superior and medial to the pubic tubercle.

      What kind of hernia is probable in this case?

      Your Answer: Inguinal

      Explanation:

      Inguinal hernias are situated above and towards the middle of the pubic tubercle. They are distinct from epigastric hernias, which occur in the epigastric region and not in the groin area. Femoral hernias, on the other hand, are located below and to the side of the pubic tubercle, unlike inguinal hernias. Hiatal hernias are found in the stomach and can cause symptoms such as heartburn. If there is a soft swelling near the belly button, it is more likely to be an umbilical hernia than a painful lump near the groin.

      Understanding Inguinal Hernias

      Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main symptom is a lump in the groin area, which disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are also common, especially during physical activity. However, severe pain is rare, and strangulation is even rarer.

      The traditional classification of inguinal hernias into indirect and direct types is no longer relevant in clinical management. Instead, the current consensus is to treat medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for those who are not fit for surgery, but it has limited use in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method, as it has the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are usually repaired through an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically.

      After surgery, patients are advised to return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks for open repair and 1-2 weeks for laparoscopic repair. Complications may include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      9.4
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  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old man with chronic abdominal pain and a known alcohol dependency visits...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with chronic abdominal pain and a known alcohol dependency visits his gastroenterologist with a recent onset of diarrhoea. The gastroenterologist plans to conduct an abdominal MRI to assess the functionality of the responsible organ. Before the MRI, a hormone is administered.

      What is the purpose of this hormone?

      Your Answer: Increased intestinal secretion of bicarbonate

      Correct Answer: Increased pancreatic secretion of bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      The patient in question is likely suffering from chronic pancreatitis due to excessive alcohol consumption. This can lead to poor exocrine pancreatic function and result in diarrhea due to insufficient production of digestive enzymes. To assess pancreatic exocrine function, the patient is undergoing testing with secretin, a hormone that stimulates the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from pancreas and hepatic duct cells, as seen on abdominal MRI.

      Somatostatin, on the other hand, is a hormone that decreases the secretion of endogenous hormones from the pancreas and also reduces the exogenous production of bicarbonate. Therefore, it is not useful in testing pancreatic function.

      Somatostatin also inhibits the secretion of hydrochloric acid from gastric parietal cells and is released from delta cells in the stomach when the pH is low.

      Increased intestinal secretion of bicarbonate is not the primary mechanism for neutralizing gastric acid. It is only supplementary to the pancreatic release of bicarbonate and is stimulated by gastric contents in the duodenum, not by secretin.

      There is no specific hormone that increases pancreatic secretion of insulin and glucagon, but somatostatin can decrease the secretion of both hormones.

      Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones

      Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.

      One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.

      Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.

      Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      21.9
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  • Question 21 - A passionate surgical resident attempts his first independent splenectomy. The procedure proves to...

    Incorrect

    • A passionate surgical resident attempts his first independent splenectomy. The procedure proves to be more challenging than expected and the resident places a tube drain in the splenic bed at the conclusion of the surgery. Within the next 24 hours, around 500ml of clear fluid drains into the tube. What is the most probable result of biochemical testing on the fluid?

      Elevated creatinine
      28%
      Elevated triglycerides
      10%
      Elevated glucagon
      9%
      Elevated amylase
      25%
      None of the above
      29%

      During a splenectomy, the tail of the pancreas may be harmed, causing the pancreatic duct to drain into the splenic bed, resulting in an increase in amylase levels. Glucagon is not produced in the pancreatic duct.

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: Elevated amylase

      Explanation:

      If the tail of the pancreas is damaged during splenectomy, the pancreatic duct may end up draining into the splenic bed. This can result in an increase in amylase levels, but there will be no secretion of glucagon into the pancreatic duct.

      Understanding the Anatomy of the Spleen

      The spleen is a vital organ in the human body, serving as the largest lymphoid organ. It is located below the 9th-12th ribs and has a clenched fist shape. The spleen is an intraperitoneal organ, and its peritoneal attachments condense at the hilum, where the vessels enter the spleen. The blood supply of the spleen is from the splenic artery, which is derived from the coeliac axis, and the splenic vein, which is joined by the IMV and unites with the SMV.

      The spleen is derived from mesenchymal tissue during embryology. It weighs between 75-150g and has several relations with other organs. The diaphragm is superior to the spleen, while the gastric impression is anterior, the kidney is posterior, and the colon is inferior. The hilum of the spleen is formed by the tail of the pancreas and splenic vessels. The spleen also forms the apex of the lesser sac, which contains short gastric vessels.

      In conclusion, understanding the anatomy of the spleen is crucial in comprehending its functions and the role it plays in the human body. The spleen’s location, weight, and relations with other organs are essential in diagnosing and treating spleen-related conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      36.7
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  • Question 22 - An 80-year-old man visits his GP complaining of indigestion that has persisted for...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man visits his GP complaining of indigestion that has persisted for the last three months. He has a medical history of hypertension and is a heavy smoker with a 50-pack-year history. He also consumes three glasses of wine on weeknights. Upon referral to a gastroenterologist, a lower oesophageal and stomach biopsy is performed, revealing metaplastic columnar epithelium. What is the primary factor that has contributed to the development of this histological finding?

      Your Answer: Smoking

      Correct Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD)

      Explanation:

      Barrett’s oesophagus is diagnosed in this patient based on the presence of metaplastic columnar epithelium in the oesophageal epithelium. The most significant risk factor for the development of Barrett’s oesophagus is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD). While age is also a risk factor, it is not as strong as GORD. Alcohol consumption is not associated with Barrett’s oesophagus, but it is a risk factor for squamous cell oesophageal carcinoma. Infection with Helicobacter pylori is not linked to Barrett’s oesophagus, and it may even reduce the risk of GORD and Barrett’s oesophagus. Smoking is associated with both GORD and Barrett’s oesophagus, but the strength of this association is not as significant as that of GORD.

      Barrett’s oesophagus is a condition where the lower oesophageal mucosa is replaced by columnar epithelium, which increases the risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma by 50-100 fold. It is usually identified during an endoscopy for upper gastrointestinal symptoms such as dyspepsia, as there are no screening programs for it. The length of the affected segment determines the chances of identifying metaplasia, with short (<3 cm) and long (>3 cm) subtypes. The prevalence of Barrett’s oesophagus is estimated to be around 1 in 20, and it is identified in up to 12% of those undergoing endoscopy for reflux.

      The columnar epithelium in Barrett’s oesophagus may resemble that of the cardiac region of the stomach or that of the small intestine, with goblet cells and brush border. The single strongest risk factor for Barrett’s oesophagus is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), followed by male gender, smoking, and central obesity. Alcohol is not an independent risk factor for Barrett’s, but it is associated with both GORD and oesophageal cancer. Patients with Barrett’s oesophagus often have coexistent GORD symptoms.

      The management of Barrett’s oesophagus involves high-dose proton pump inhibitor, although the evidence base for its effectiveness in reducing the progression to dysplasia or inducing regression of the lesion is limited. Endoscopic surveillance with biopsies is recommended every 3-5 years for patients with metaplasia but not dysplasia. If dysplasia of any grade is identified, endoscopic intervention is offered, such as radiofrequency ablation, which is the preferred first-line treatment, particularly for low-grade dysplasia, or endoscopic mucosal resection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      21.8
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  • Question 23 - A 61-year-old man arrives at the ED less than an hour after experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man arrives at the ED less than an hour after experiencing central chest pain that spreads to his left arm. His ECG reveals ST-elevation in the anterior leads, and he is set to undergo urgent PCI. The cardiologist plans to access the femoral artery. What is the accurate surface landmark for identifying the femoral artery?

      Your Answer: 3 cm inferomedial to the ASIS

      Correct Answer: Midway between the ASIS and the pubic symphysis

      Explanation:

      The mid-inguinal point, which is the surface landmark for the femoral artery, is located at the midpoint between the ASIS and pubic symphysis. It should not be confused with the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, which is where the deep inguinal ring is located and runs from the ASIS to the pubic tubercle. While the other three options are not specific surface landmarks, it is worth noting that the superficial inguinal ring, which is the exit of the inguinal canal, is typically located superolateral to the pubic tubercle within a range of 1-2 cm.

      Understanding the Anatomy of the Femoral Triangle

      The femoral triangle is an important anatomical region located in the upper thigh. It is bounded by the inguinal ligament superiorly, the sartorius muscle laterally, and the adductor longus muscle medially. The floor of the femoral triangle is made up of the iliacus, psoas major, adductor longus, and pectineus muscles, while the roof is formed by the fascia lata and superficial fascia. The superficial inguinal lymph nodes and the long saphenous vein are also found in this region.

      The femoral triangle contains several important structures, including the femoral vein, femoral artery, femoral nerve, deep and superficial inguinal lymph nodes, lateral cutaneous nerve, great saphenous vein, and femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve. The femoral artery can be palpated at the mid inguinal point, making it an important landmark for medical professionals.

      Understanding the anatomy of the femoral triangle is important for medical professionals, as it is a common site for procedures such as venipuncture, arterial puncture, and nerve blocks. It is also important for identifying and treating conditions that affect the structures within this region, such as femoral hernias and lymphadenopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 6-year-old boy complains of pain in the right iliac fossa and there...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy complains of pain in the right iliac fossa and there is a suspicion of appendicitis. What is the embryological origin of the appendix?

      Your Answer: Hindgut

      Correct Answer: Midgut

      Explanation:

      Periumbilical pain may be a symptom of early appendicitis due to the fact that the appendix originates from the midgut.

      Appendix Anatomy and Location

      The appendix is a small, finger-like projection located at the base of the caecum. It can be up to 10cm long and is mainly composed of lymphoid tissue, which can sometimes lead to confusion with mesenteric adenitis. The caecal taenia coli converge at the base of the appendix, forming a longitudinal muscle cover over it. This convergence can aid in identifying the appendix during surgery, especially if it is retrocaecal and difficult to locate. The arterial supply to the appendix comes from the appendicular artery, which is a branch of the ileocolic artery. It is important to note that the appendix is intra-peritoneal.

      McBurney’s Point and Appendix Positions

      McBurney’s point is a landmark used to locate the appendix during physical examination. It is located one-third of the way along a line drawn from the Anterior Superior Iliac Spine to the Umbilicus. The appendix can be found in six different positions, with the retrocaecal position being the most common at 74%. Other positions include pelvic, postileal, subcaecal, paracaecal, and preileal. It is important to be aware of these positions as they can affect the presentation of symptoms and the difficulty of locating the appendix during surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      13.6
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  • Question 25 - Which of the following is not a branch of the abdominal aorta? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a branch of the abdominal aorta?

      Your Answer: Inferior phrenic artery

      Correct Answer: Superior phrenic artery

      Explanation:

      To remember the order of branches, use the phrase ‘Prostitutes Cause Sagging Swollen Red Testicles [in men] Living In Sin’:

      Phrenic [inferior]
      Celiac
      Superior mesenteric
      Suprarenal [middle]
      Renal
      Testicular [‘in men’ only]
      Lumbars
      Inferior mesenteric
      Sacral

      Note that the superior phrenic artery branches from the aorta in the thorax.

      Branches of the Abdominal Aorta

      The abdominal aorta is a major blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to the abdominal organs and lower extremities. It gives rise to several branches that supply blood to various organs and tissues. These branches can be classified into two types: parietal and visceral.

      The parietal branches supply blood to the walls of the abdominal cavity, while the visceral branches supply blood to the abdominal organs. The branches of the abdominal aorta include the inferior phrenic, coeliac, superior mesenteric, middle suprarenal, renal, gonadal, lumbar, inferior mesenteric, median sacral, and common iliac arteries.

      The inferior phrenic artery arises from the upper border of the abdominal aorta and supplies blood to the diaphragm. The coeliac artery supplies blood to the liver, stomach, spleen, and pancreas. The superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the small intestine, cecum, and ascending colon. The middle suprarenal artery supplies blood to the adrenal gland. The renal arteries supply blood to the kidneys. The gonadal arteries supply blood to the testes or ovaries. The lumbar arteries supply blood to the muscles and skin of the back. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and rectum. The median sacral artery supplies blood to the sacrum and coccyx. The common iliac arteries are the terminal branches of the abdominal aorta and supply blood to the pelvis and lower extremities.

      Understanding the branches of the abdominal aorta is important for diagnosing and treating various medical conditions that affect the abdominal organs and lower extremities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      16.4
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  • Question 26 - A 38-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 6-month history of fatigue...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 6-month history of fatigue and weakness, with a recent increase in shortness of breath upon walking.

      Past medical history - vitiligo.

      Medications - over the counter multivitamins.

      On examination - lung sounds were vesicular with equal air entry bilaterally; mild jaundice noticed in her sclera.


      Hb 95 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 210 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 6.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)


      Vitamin B12 105 ng/L (200 - 900)

      What is the underlying pathological process given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lack of B12 in the diet

      Correct Answer: Autoimmune destruction of gastroparietal cells

      Explanation:

      Pernicious anaemia is a condition where the body’s immune system attacks either the intrinsic factor or the gastroparietal cells, leading to a deficiency in vitamin B12 absorption. The patient’s history, examination, and blood results can provide clues to the diagnosis, such as fatigue, dyspnoea, mild jaundice, and low haemoglobin levels. The correct answer for the cause of pernicious anaemia is autoimmune destruction of gastroparietal cells, as intrinsic factor destruction is not an option. Autoimmune destruction of chief or goblet cells is not related to this condition. Ulcerative colitis may cause similar symptoms, but it is unlikely to affect vitamin B12 absorption and cause jaundice.

      Pernicious anaemia is a condition that results in a deficiency of vitamin B12 due to an autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa. The term pernicious refers to the gradual and subtle harm caused by the condition, which often leads to delayed diagnosis. While pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, other causes include atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy, and malnutrition. The condition is characterized by the presence of antibodies to intrinsic factor and/or gastric parietal cells, which can lead to reduced vitamin B12 absorption and subsequent megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy.

      Pernicious anaemia is more common in middle to old age females and is associated with other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s, rheumatoid, and vitiligo. Symptoms of the condition include anaemia, lethargy, pallor, dyspnoea, peripheral neuropathy, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, neuropsychiatric features, mild jaundice, and glossitis. Diagnosis is made through a full blood count, vitamin B12 and folate levels, and the presence of antibodies.

      Management of pernicious anaemia involves vitamin B12 replacement, usually given intramuscularly. Patients with neurological features may require more frequent doses. Folic acid supplementation may also be necessary. Complications of the condition include an increased risk of gastric cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 27 - Sophie, a 5-year-old girl, visits her doctor with her mother, complaining of a...

    Correct

    • Sophie, a 5-year-old girl, visits her doctor with her mother, complaining of a lump in her groin that appears and disappears. The lump is easily reducible.

      The doctor suspects an indirect inguinal hernia, although it is difficult to differentiate between femoral, direct inguinal, and indirect inguinal hernias in such a young patient.

      Sophie's mother is curious about the cause of her daughter's hernia. What is the pathology of an indirect inguinal hernia?

      Your Answer: Protrusion through the failure of the processus vaginalis to regress

      Explanation:

      Indirect inguinal hernias are caused by the failure of the processus vaginalis to regress, resulting in a protrusion through the deep inguinal ring and into the inguinal canal. In males, it may progress into the scrotum, while in females, it may enter the labia. This type of hernia is located lateral to the epigastric vessels.

      On the other hand, direct inguinal hernias are usually caused by weakening in the abdominal musculature, which occurs with age. The protrusion enters the inguinal canal through the posterior wall, which is medial to the epigastric vessels. It may exit through the superficial inguinal ring.

      The tunica vaginalis is a layer that surrounds the testes and contains a small amount of serous fluid, reducing friction between the scrotum and the testes. Meanwhile, the tunica albuginea is a layer of connective tissue that covers the ovaries, testicles, and corpora cavernosa of the penis.

      Understanding Inguinal Hernias

      Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main symptom is a lump in the groin area, which disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are also common, especially during physical activity. However, severe pain is rare, and strangulation is even rarer.

      The traditional classification of inguinal hernias into indirect and direct types is no longer relevant in clinical management. Instead, the current consensus is to treat medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for those who are not fit for surgery, but it has limited use in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method, as it has the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are usually repaired through an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically.

      After surgery, patients are advised to return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks for open repair and 1-2 weeks for laparoscopic repair. Complications may include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      20.2
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  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old man is suspected of having an inflamed Meckel's diverticulum. Where is...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is suspected of having an inflamed Meckel's diverticulum. Where is it most likely to be located?

      Your Answer: Approximately 60 cm distal to the ileocecal valve

      Correct Answer: Approximately 60 cm proximal to the ileocaecal valve

      Explanation:

      The length of these growths is 2 inches (5cm), and they are twice as common in men. They involve two types of tissue and are located approximately 2 feet (60cm) from the ileocaecal valve.

      Meckel’s diverticulum is a congenital diverticulum of the small intestine that is a remnant of the omphalomesenteric duct. It occurs in 2% of the population, is 2 feet from the ileocaecal valve, and is 2 inches long. It is usually asymptomatic but can present with abdominal pain, rectal bleeding, or intestinal obstruction. Investigation includes a Meckel’s scan or mesenteric arteriography. Management involves removal if narrow neck or symptomatic, with options between wedge excision or formal small bowel resection and anastomosis. Meckel’s diverticulum is typically lined by ileal mucosa but ectopic gastric, pancreatic, and jejunal mucosa can also occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      17.1
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  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the gastrointestinal clinic with a history of abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the gastrointestinal clinic with a history of abdominal bloating, diarrhoea, and fatigue for the past 6 months. She experiences severe cramps after most meals and struggles to focus on her work at the office.

      After conducting investigations, it is found that her tissue transglutaminases (TTG) are positive. What is a potential complication of the suspected underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polycythaemia

      Correct Answer: Hyposplenism

      Explanation:

      Hyposplenism is a possible complication of coeliac disease. The patient’s symptoms and positive tissue transglutaminases support the diagnosis of coeliac disease, which can lead to malabsorption of important nutrients like iron, folate, and vitamin B12. Hyposplenism may occur due to autoimmune processes and loss of lymphocyte recirculation caused by inflammation in the colon. However, hepatomegaly, pancreatitis, and polycythaemia are not associated with coeliac disease.

      Understanding Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.

      To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.

      Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.

      The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 30 - A 72-year-old man presents to his physician with a gradual yellowing of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to his physician with a gradual yellowing of his skin. During the examination, the physician observes jaundiced sclerae and palpates a round mass under the right costal margin, measuring approximately 4 cm in diameter. The patient's abdomen is soft, non-tender, and not distended.

      The physician orders a blood test, which reveals the following results:

      - Bilirubin: 180 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      - ALP: 98 u/L (30 - 100)
      - ALT: 36 u/L (3 - 40)
      - γGT: 71 u/L (8 - 60)
      - Albumin: 43 g/L (35 - 50)

      What clinical sign is evident, and what is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rovsing's sign indicating likely cholecystitis

      Correct Answer: Courvoisier's sign indicating biliary tract cancer

      Explanation:

      If a patient has painless jaundice and a palpable gallbladder in the right upper quadrant, it is unlikely to be caused by gallstones and more likely to be a malignancy. This is known as Courvoisier’s sign, and the most common cancers associated with it are cholangiocarcinoma and adenocarcinoma of the pancreatic head.

      Rovsing’s sign is a sign of acute appendicitis, where palpation of the left lower quadrant causes pain in the right lower quadrant.

      Virchow’s sign is the presence of a palpable left supraclavicular lymph node, which is a sign of metastatic gastric cancer.

      Understanding Cholangiocarcinoma

      Cholangiocarcinoma, also known as bile duct cancer, is a serious medical condition that can be caused by primary sclerosing cholangitis. This disease is characterized by persistent biliary colic symptoms, which can be accompanied by anorexia, jaundice, and weight loss. In some cases, a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant may be present, which is known as the Courvoisier sign. Additionally, periumbilical lymphadenopathy (Sister Mary Joseph nodes) and left supraclavicular adenopathy (Virchow node) may be seen.

      One of the main risk factors for cholangiocarcinoma is primary sclerosing cholangitis. This condition can cause inflammation and scarring of the bile ducts, which can lead to the development of cancer over time. To detect cholangiocarcinoma in patients with primary sclerosing cholangitis, doctors often use a blood test to measure CA 19-9 levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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