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Question 1
Incorrect
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An 77-year-old-man presents to your clinic with complaints of persistent right ear pain and discharge. He was previously diagnosed with otitis externa and prescribed antibiotic ear drops by a colleague, followed by further antibiotic drops and tramadol by an out of hours doctor. However, his symptoms have not improved and the pain has become unbearable.
The patient has a medical history of type-2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension, and takes metformin, gliclazide, ramipril, and atorvastatin regularly. He has no known drug allergies and doesn't smoke or drink alcohol.
Upon examination, debris is observed in the right ear canal, but the tympanic membrane remains visible. There is no erythema of the pinna or mastoid swelling, and cranial nerve examination is normal.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Take a swab of the ear canal for microscopy and culture
Correct Answer: Refer urgently to on-call ENT team
Explanation:If a patient with otitis externa experiences worsening pain that doesn’t respond to strong painkillers, it is important to refer them urgently to an ENT specialist. This is especially true if the patient has a history of diabetes, as they are at a higher risk of developing malignant (necrotising) otitis externa. In advanced stages, this condition can cause facial nerve palsy on the same side as the affected ear. Treatment typically involves a long course of intravenous antibiotics, which is why prompt ENT assessment is crucial.
While oral antibiotics such as ciprofloxacin may be prescribed alongside ear drops if there is concern about deep tissue infection, most patients will require IV antibiotics. However, the priority in this situation is to escalate the case to an ENT specialist rather than focusing on pain relief or swabbing the ear canal. It is also important to avoid syringing the ear, as this can worsen the condition.
Malignant Otitis Externa: A Rare but Serious Infection
Malignant otitis externa is a type of ear infection that is uncommon but can be serious. It is typically found in individuals who are immunocompromised, with 90% of cases occurring in diabetics. The infection starts in the soft tissues of the external auditory meatus and can progress to involve the soft tissues and bony ear canal, eventually leading to temporal bone osteomyelitis.
Key features in the patient’s history include diabetes or immunosuppression, severe and persistent ear pain, temporal headaches, and purulent otorrhea. In some cases, patients may also experience dysphagia, hoarseness, and facial nerve dysfunction.
Diagnosis is typically done through a CT scan, and non-resolving otitis externa with worsening pain should be referred urgently to an ENT specialist. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics that cover pseudomonas infections.
In summary, malignant otitis externa is a rare but serious infection that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Patients with diabetes or immunosuppression should be particularly vigilant for symptoms and seek medical attention if they experience persistent ear pain or other related symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A young patient suffers a traumatic left ear perforation. Which of the following sets of findings is the most likely to be noted on tuning fork testing?
Rinne left ear Rinne right ear Weber
Patient A Air conduction better than bone conduction Air conduction better than bone conduction Central
Patient B Bone conduction better than air conduction Air conduction better than bone conduction Lateralises to the left
Patient C Bone conduction better than air conduction Air conduction better than bone conduction Lateralises to the right
Patient D Air conduction better than bone conduction Bone conduction better than air conduction Lateralises to the right
Patient E Bone conduction better than air conduction Bone conduction better than air conduction CentralYour Answer: Patient C
Correct Answer: Patient B
Explanation:Hearing Tests and Their Interpretation
Hearing tests are essential in diagnosing hearing problems. Two common tests are Rinne’s test and Weber’s test. Rinne’s test uses tuning forks of 512 Hz, but those of 256 Hz may be more accurate. A heavy tuning fork is preferable because a light fork produces a sound that fades too rapidly. To test air conduction, hold the tuning fork directly in line with the external auditory canal. When testing bone conduction, place the flat end of the stem of the tuning fork against bone immediately superior and posterior to the external canal. When air conduction is louder than bone conduction, it is reported as Rinne-positive.
In interpreting the results, normal findings are expected in patient A, while patient C has anomalous findings that suggest a non-organic problem. Patient D suggests a right conductive loss, and patient E suggests a bilateral conductive loss, although in this case, the Weber test can lateralize to one side or the other.
Weber’s test involves placing a 512 Hz tuning fork in the midline of the patient’s forehead. If the sound is louder on one side than the other, the patient may have either an ipsilateral conductive hearing loss or a contralateral sensorineural hearing loss. These tests are crucial in diagnosing hearing problems and should be conducted accurately to ensure proper interpretation of the results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 3
Correct
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You are reviewing a patient who presented to a colleague about eight weeks ago. He is a 65-year-old male with mild to moderate symptoms of nasal congestion and persistent feeling of a blocked nose. He reports ongoing problems of a similar nature. He informs you that as well as the above he gets intermittent clear nasal discharge which can alternate between nostrils and he has had periods of nasal and ocular 'itch'.
At his last appointment he was prescribed a daily non-sedating antihistamine which he has been using regularly. He was also given advice on nasal douching. Despite these measures he is still suffering from persistent nasal symptoms. He has heard that steroid medication can be used to treat his symptoms and asks for a prescription.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next pharmacological option to add in to his treatment in trying to manage his symptoms?Your Answer: Intranasal corticosteroid spray (for example, fluticasone propionate 100 mcgs each nostril once daily)
Explanation:Treatment Guidelines for Allergic and Non-Allergic Rhinitis
Guidelines for the treatment of allergic and non-allergic rhinitis recommend the use of oral non-sedating antihistamines, topical nasal corticosteroids or antihistamines, and anti-inflammatory eye drops either in isolation or in combination. For mild symptoms, oral and/or topical antihistamines are recommended, with regular use being more effective than as-required use. Sedating antihistamines should be avoided due to their negative effects on academic and work performance.
In moderate to severe symptoms, intranasal corticosteroids are the treatment of choice if antihistamine treatment has been ineffective. Different preparations have different degrees of systemic absorption, with mometasone and fluticasone having negligible systemic absorption. Intranasal corticosteroids have an onset of action of six to eight hours after the first dose, but regular use for at least two weeks may be needed to see the maximal effects.
If treatment with the above doesn’t improve things, it is important to review technique and compliance and increase the dosage where appropriate. Short courses of oral corticosteroids may be used to gain control in severe nasal blockage or if the patient has a very important upcoming event. They should be used in conjunction with intranasal corticosteroids, and a burst of prednisolone at a dose of 0.5 mg/kg/day for 5-10 days can be used.
In addition to the above, watery rhinorrhoea may respond to topical ipratropium, and catarrh in those with co-existent asthma may be helped by a leukotriene receptor antagonist. These guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to the treatment of allergic and non-allergic rhinitis, with a range of options available depending on the severity of symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following characteristics is the least indicative of otosclerosis diagnosis?
Your Answer: Tinnitus
Correct Answer: Onset after the age of 50 years
Explanation:Understanding Otosclerosis: A Progressive Conductive Deafness
Otosclerosis is a medical condition that occurs when normal bone is replaced by vascular spongy bone. This condition leads to a progressive conductive deafness due to the fixation of the stapes at the oval window. It is an autosomal dominant condition that typically affects young adults, with onset usually occurring between the ages of 20-40 years.
The main features of otosclerosis include conductive deafness, tinnitus, a normal tympanic membrane, and a positive family history. In some cases, patients may also experience a flamingo tinge, which is caused by hyperemia and affects around 10% of patients.
Management of otosclerosis typically involves the use of a hearing aid or stapedectomy. A hearing aid can help to improve hearing, while a stapedectomy involves the surgical removal of the stapes bone and replacement with a prosthesis.
Overall, understanding otosclerosis is important for individuals who may be at risk of developing this condition. Early diagnosis and management can help to improve hearing and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 5
Correct
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A 27-year-old female is seeking your help as her seasonal allergic rhinitis (grass pollen allergy) has just started. Despite starting her nasal steroid, nasal antihistamine, and oral antihistamine 2 weeks ago, she has not experienced significant relief from her symptoms. She is getting married in a few days and is looking for a quick solution to improve her nasal itching and watery discharge.
What would you recommend as a possible option for her?Your Answer: Offer short course of oral prednisolone
Explanation:When standard treatment fails to control allergic rhinitis, it may be necessary to use short courses of steroids to manage important life events. However, it is important to note that oral steroids should only be used for a brief period if the symptoms are severe and significantly impacting the person’s quality of life. There is no evidence to suggest that switching to a different steroid nasal spray would be more effective. Chlorphenamine, a sedating antihistamine, would not be suitable in this situation. Intramuscular steroids are not recommended due to the risk of avascular necrosis from repeated doses. While immunotherapy may be an option in the long term, it will not provide immediate relief in time for a significant event such as a wedding.
Understanding Allergic Rhinitis
Allergic rhinitis is a condition that causes inflammation in the nose due to sensitivity to allergens such as dust mites, grass, tree, and weed pollens. It can be classified into seasonal, perennial, or occupational, depending on the timing and cause of symptoms. Seasonal rhinitis, which occurs due to pollens, is commonly known as hay fever. Symptoms of allergic rhinitis include sneezing, bilateral nasal obstruction, clear nasal discharge, post-nasal drip, and nasal pruritus.
The management of allergic rhinitis involves allergen avoidance and medication. For mild-to-moderate intermittent or mild persistent symptoms, oral or intranasal antihistamines may be prescribed. For moderate-to-severe persistent symptoms or if initial drug treatment is ineffective, intranasal corticosteroids may be recommended. In some cases, a short course of oral corticosteroids may be necessary to cover important life events. Topical nasal decongestants, such as oxymetazoline, may also be used for short periods, but prolonged use can lead to tachyphylaxis and rebound hypertrophy of the nasal mucosa (rhinitis medicamentosa) upon withdrawal.
In summary, allergic rhinitis is a common condition that can cause discomfort and affect daily life. Understanding the different types of allergic rhinitis and its symptoms can help in managing the condition effectively. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes to the clinic 3 days after being hit on the left side of his head. He reports experiencing muffled hearing on the left side since the incident. Upon examination, there are no visible bruises, but both ears are covered by a thin, translucent layer of wax. Rinne's test reveals that the tuning fork is more audible when placed on the mastoid bone on the left side. On Weber's test, the sound is heard most clearly on the left side. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Earwax
Correct Answer: Perforated eardrum
Explanation:Differentiating between tympanic membrane perforation and sensorineural hearing loss due to skull trauma is crucial. Rinne’s test can help identify conductive hearing loss in the affected ear, while Weber’s test can rule out sensorineural hearing loss on the right.
Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness
Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test indicates that BC is better than AC, suggesting conductive deafness.
Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking the patient which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.
The table below summarizes the interpretation of Rinne and Weber tests. A normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally and the sound is midline. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear and AC being greater than BC in the unaffected ear, with the sound lateralizing to the affected ear. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, with the sound lateralizing to the unaffected ear.
Overall, Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are useful tools for differentiating between conductive and sensorineural deafness, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 7
Correct
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Sarah is a 52-year-old woman who presents to you with a 4 month history of nasal congestion affecting her left nostril. She reports a reduction in her sense of smell on the left side as well. Her symptoms have been gradually worsening. Sarah is a non-smoker.
Upon examination, there is slight mucosal oedema but no significant nasal inflammation. There are no focal neurological signs.
What is the most appropriate initial management option?Your Answer: Urgent referral to an ear, nose and throat specialist
Explanation:Patients with chronic rhinosinusitis should be cautious of experiencing unilateral symptoms, as they are a warning sign. According to NICE guidelines, if the symptoms are not typical of chronic sinusitis and there is uncertainty about the diagnosis, it is recommended to refer the patient to an ear, nose and throat specialist to rule out other potential diagnoses. Urgent referral is necessary if the patient experiences unilateral symptoms, blood-stained discharge, crusting, orbital symptoms, or neurological symptoms. In Paul’s case, he has been experiencing worsening unilateral symptoms for over 3 months, which indicates the need for an urgent referral to an ENT specialist to rule out the possibility of malignancy.
Understanding Chronic Rhinosinusitis
Chronic rhinosinusitis is a common condition that affects approximately 10% of the population. It is characterized by inflammation of the nasal passages and paranasal sinuses that lasts for 12 weeks or more. There are several factors that can predispose individuals to this condition, including atopy, nasal obstruction, recent infections, swimming/diving, and smoking.
Symptoms of chronic rhinosinusitis include facial pain, nasal discharge, nasal obstruction, and post-nasal drip. Treatment options include avoiding allergens, using intranasal corticosteroids, and nasal irrigation with saline solution. However, it is important to be aware of red flag symptoms such as unilateral symptoms, persistent symptoms despite treatment, and epistaxis, which may require further evaluation and management.
In summary, chronic rhinosinusitis is a common inflammatory disorder that can cause significant discomfort and impact quality of life. Understanding the predisposing factors and symptoms, as well as appropriate management strategies, can help individuals effectively manage this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 8
Correct
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A 56-year-old woman visits the General Practitioner for a check-up. She mentions that her friends have informed her about her bad breath. From where is this patient's issue most likely originating?
Your Answer: Mouth
Explanation:Causes and Treatment of Halitosis
Halitosis, commonly known as bad breath, affects 80-90% of people with persistent symptoms. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence identifies poor oral hygiene, smoking, periodontal disease, dry mouth, dentures, and poor denture hygiene as the primary causes of halitosis. In such cases, referral to a dentist and a trial of antibacterial mouthwash and toothpaste may be appropriate.
Less common causes of halitosis include sinusitis, foreign body in the nasal cavities, tonsillitis, tonsil stones in the throat, bronchiectasis in the respiratory tract, acid reflux, and Helicobacter pylori in the gastrointestinal tract. Pseudo-halitosis is a condition in which people falsely believe they have bad breath.
In conclusion, halitosis can be caused by various factors, and treatment depends on the underlying cause. Maintaining good oral hygiene and seeking medical attention when necessary can help alleviate symptoms and improve overall oral health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 9
Correct
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A 6-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by his father. The child recently had an ear infection and his father is concerned that his child may have reduced hearing. There are no signs of inflammation or discharge on examination of the ears, but the GP suspects that the child may have otitis media with effusion (glue ear). His childhood development, including speech and language development, has been normal.
Which of the following management options is most appropriate for this patient?
Your Answer: No active treatment
Explanation:Treatment Options for Otitis Media with Effusion in Children
Otitis media with effusion is a common condition in children, but it is usually self-limiting and resolves within 12 months. While there is no proven benefit from medication, there are several treatment options available.
Observation is a viable option, as a period of watchful waiting is unlikely to result in any long-term complications. However, if signs and symptoms persist, referral for a hearing test after 6-12 weeks or to a specialist in ear, nose, and throat (ENT) may be necessary.
Antibiotics are not indicated in cases where there are no symptoms or signs of active infection. Intranasal corticosteroids and oral antihistamines are also not recommended by The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) for the treatment of otitis media with effusion in children.
Nasal decongestants, such as pseudoephedrine, may provide temporary relief for stuffy nose and sinus pain/pressure caused by infection or other breathing illnesses, but they are not indicated for children with glue ear.
In summary, the best course of action for otitis media with effusion in children is often observation, with referral to a specialist if necessary. Other treatment options should be carefully considered and discussed with a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old boy has cerebral palsy. He presents with profuse rhinorrhoea, pyrexia and noisy respiration. The noise is a heavy-snoring inspiratory sound. His tonsils are enlarged and inflamed.
Which of the following describes the sound that this child is making?
Your Answer: Stridor
Correct Answer: Stertorous
Explanation:Stertorous refers to a noisy and laboured breathing sound, often heard during deep sleep or coma, caused by obstruction in the upper airways. Hypernasal speech is an abnormal voice resonance due to increased airflow through the nose during speech, caused by an incomplete closure of the soft palate and/or velopharyngeal sphincter. Rales, also known as crackles or crepitations, are clicking or crackling noises heard during auscultation, caused by the popping open of small airways and alveoli collapsed by fluid or exudate during expiration. Stridor is a high-pitched sound occurring during inhalation or exhalation, indicating respiratory obstruction, commonly caused by croup, foreign bodies, or allergic reactions. Wheezing is a high-pitched whistling sound made while breathing, caused by narrowed airways, typically in asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 11
Correct
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A 22-month-old girl comes in with mild unilateral ear pain that started yesterday. She keeps tugging at her left ear. There is no discharge. She has no rashes and is still eating and drinking normally. She has not had any fevers.
During the examination, her temperature is 36.9ºC and her pulse is 105 beats per minute. She appears to be in good health. Both of her ears appear to be normal.
What is the best course of action for treatment?Your Answer: Monitor symptoms
Explanation:This young boy is experiencing earache on one side for the past 24 hours. However, the rest of his medical history is normal and there are no signs of infection during the examination. The recommended management approach is to advise the use of pain relief medication such as paracetamol and ibuprofen for relief of symptoms and to monitor the situation. If the diagnosis is otitis externa, acetic acid spray and flucloxacillin can be used. For bilateral otitis media that has persisted for at least 4 days, amoxicillin is recommended. For children over 2 years of age, the British National Formulary suggests the use of dexamethasone, neomycin, and acetic acid spray.
In 2008, NICE released guidelines for the management of respiratory tract infections in primary care, specifically focusing on the prescribing of antibiotics for self-limiting infections in both adults and children. The guidelines recommend a no antibiotic or delayed antibiotic prescribing approach for acute otitis media, acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis, common cold, acute rhinosinusitis, and acute cough/acute bronchitis. However, an immediate antibiotic prescribing approach may be considered for certain patients, such as children under 2 years with bilateral acute otitis media or patients with acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis who have 3 or more Centor criteria present. The guidelines also suggest advising patients on the expected duration of their respiratory tract infection. If a patient is deemed at risk of developing complications, an immediate antibiotic prescribing policy is recommended. This includes patients who are systemically unwell, have symptoms and signs suggestive of serious illness and/or complications, or are at high risk of serious complications due to pre-existing comorbidity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You encounter a 30-year-old mother of two who is experiencing recurrent Meniere's disease. She has been suffering from tinnitus and mild hearing loss on the right side for nearly 2 years. Every 2 months, she has an episode of vertigo accompanied by nausea and vomiting, which lasts up to 7 days and causes her significant distress. While under the care of the ENT team, she is curious about any available treatments to prevent Meniere's disease attacks.
What would be your initial recommendation?Your Answer: Promethazine theoclate
Correct Answer: Betahistine
Explanation:To prevent recurrent attacks of Meniere’s disease, doctors often prescribe betahistine. While prochlorperazine and promethazine teoclate can be used to treat acute attacks, they are not effective in preventing them. Betahistine, taken at an initial dose of 16 mg three times a day, can help reduce the frequency and severity of symptoms such as hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo. Diuretics are not recommended for treating Meniere’s disease in primary care. Although some other drugs, such as corticosteroids, have been used historically to treat Meniere’s disease, there is limited evidence to support their use and they should only be used under the supervision of an ENT specialist.
Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by the excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The main symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.
The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients will be left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis, and patients should inform the DVLA as the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. Acute attacks can be managed with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and admission to the hospital may be required. Prevention strategies include the use of betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises, which may be beneficial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male patient complains of constant sneezing, nasal congestion, and a persistent runny nose. What is not considered a part of the treatment plan for allergic rhinitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral decongestants
Explanation:Understanding Allergic Rhinitis
Allergic rhinitis is a condition that causes inflammation in the nose due to sensitivity to allergens such as dust mites, grass, tree, and weed pollens. It can be classified into seasonal, perennial, or occupational, depending on the timing and cause of symptoms. Seasonal rhinitis, which occurs due to pollens, is commonly known as hay fever. Symptoms of allergic rhinitis include sneezing, bilateral nasal obstruction, clear nasal discharge, post-nasal drip, and nasal pruritus.
The management of allergic rhinitis involves allergen avoidance and medication. For mild-to-moderate intermittent or mild persistent symptoms, oral or intranasal antihistamines may be prescribed. For moderate-to-severe persistent symptoms or if initial drug treatment is ineffective, intranasal corticosteroids may be recommended. In some cases, a short course of oral corticosteroids may be necessary to cover important life events. Topical nasal decongestants, such as oxymetazoline, may also be used for short periods, but prolonged use can lead to tachyphylaxis and rebound hypertrophy of the nasal mucosa (rhinitis medicamentosa) upon withdrawal.
In summary, allergic rhinitis is a common condition that can cause discomfort and affect daily life. Understanding the different types of allergic rhinitis and its symptoms can help in managing the condition effectively. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man comes to you with complaints of a persistent sore throat and occasional hoarseness that has been bothering him for a few months. He expresses concern that there may be something lodged in his throat, but he is able to swallow without difficulty. He denies any significant weight loss and has no notable medical or family history.
During your examination, you observe mild redness in the oropharynx, but the neck appears normal and there are no palpable masses.
What would be the best course of action in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe a trial of a proton pump inhibitor
Explanation:Understanding Laryngopharyngeal Reflux
Laryngopharyngeal reflux (LPR) is a condition that occurs when stomach acid flows back into the throat, causing inflammation in the larynx and hypopharynx mucosa. It is a common diagnosis, accounting for approximately 10% of ear, nose, and throat referrals. Symptoms of LPR include a sensation of a lump in the throat, hoarseness, chronic cough, dysphagia, heartburn, and sore throat. The external examination of the neck should be normal, with no masses, and the posterior pharynx may appear erythematous.
Diagnosis of LPR can be made without further investigations in the absence of red flags. However, the NICE cancer referral guidelines should be reviewed for red flags such as persistent, unilateral throat discomfort, dysphagia, and persistent hoarseness. Lifestyle measures such as avoiding fatty foods, caffeine, chocolate, and alcohol can help manage LPR. Additionally, proton pump inhibitors and sodium alginate liquids like Gaviscon can also be used to manage symptoms.
In summary, Laryngopharyngeal reflux is a common condition that can cause discomfort and inflammation in the throat. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention if red flags are present. Lifestyle measures and medication can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman who is typically healthy visits her GP complaining of hearing difficulties over the last 2 months. She has been an avid swimmer for the past 20 years. During the examination, Rinne's test is positive on her left ear but negative on her right ear. Weber's test shows sound localizing to the right side.
What is the type of hearing loss that this patient is experiencing?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left-sided conductive hearing loss
Explanation:If Rinne’s test is negative, it indicates that bone conduction is greater than air conduction, resulting in a conductive hearing loss in the affected ear. A positive test is considered normal when air conduction is greater than bone conduction. Therefore, the diagnosis of left-sided conductive hearing loss is correct, and Weber’s test would localize to the affected side in unilateral conductive hearing loss.
Left-sided mixed hearing loss is an incorrect diagnosis because Weber’s test would localize to the right, and on an audiogram, mixed hearing loss would show both bone and air conduction at abnormal levels (>20 dB) with a difference of at least >15 dB between them.
Left-sided sensorineural hearing loss is also an incorrect diagnosis because Weber’s test would localize to the right, and Rinne’s test would be positive in the left ear.
Right-sided conductive hearing loss is an incorrect diagnosis because a positive Rinne’s test indicates that air conduction is greater than bone conduction, which is considered normal.
Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness
Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test indicates that BC is better than AC, suggesting conductive deafness.
Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking the patient which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.
The table below summarizes the interpretation of Rinne and Weber tests. A normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally and the sound is midline. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear and AC being greater than BC in the unaffected ear, with the sound lateralizing to the affected ear. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, with the sound lateralizing to the unaffected ear.
Overall, Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are useful tools for differentiating between conductive and sensorineural deafness, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with multiple symptoms affecting his nose and throat. He has long-standing nasal congestion, but over the past week has also been suffering from a painful lesion in his mouth, sore throat and hoarse voice. On examination, he has bilateral, grey nasal swellings, a solitary yellow ulcer of 4 mm diameter on the oral mucosa, a multinodular goitre and unilateral parotid enlargement. He states that the parotid lump has been there for a few months, at least. His GP suspects cancer.
Which of the following presentations warrants specialist referral under the 2-week rule?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The discrete slow-growing lump in the right parotid gland
Explanation:Common Head and Neck Symptoms and Referral Guidelines
The following are common head and neck symptoms and the appropriate referral guidelines:
1. Discrete slow-growing lump in the right parotid gland: Any unexplained lump in the head or neck requires a 2-week rule referral. A discrete, persistent, unilateral lump in the parotid gland requires an urgent referral, imaging, and further investigation to determine the nature of the mass.
2. Solitary, painful ulcer on the oral mucosa, of 1-week duration: This is most likely to be an aphthous ulcer. An unexplained oral ulceration lasting more than three weeks, or an unexplained neck lump, would warrant a 2-week wait referral.
3. A 7-day history of hoarseness and sore throat: Patients over the age of 45 with persistent unexplained hoarseness should be referred using the cancer pathway. After seven days, this is most likely to be an upper respiratory tract infection.
4. Diffuse multinodular thyroid swelling: For suspected thyroid cancer, the single referral criterion is an ‘unexplained thyroid lump’. The most likely diagnosis in this patient is a multinodular goitre.
5. Nasal obstruction and bilateral grey swellings visible by nasal speculum: Bilateral nasal swellings of this description are almost certainly polyps. These can initially be managed in primary care. Unilateral polyps should be referred to the ear, nose and throat clinic.
Head and Neck Symptoms and Referral Guidelines
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with a large thyroid swelling, difficulty breathing on lying flat and slight dysphagia. What is the most appropriate investigation to delineate the size and extent of the goitre?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) scan
Explanation:Diagnostic Imaging Techniques for Thyroid Evaluation
Thyroid evaluation involves the use of various diagnostic imaging techniques to determine the size, extent, and function of the thyroid gland. Computed tomography (CT) scanning is a precise method that provides a better assessment of the effect of the thyroid gland on nearby structures. Barium swallow is useful in assessing oesophageal obstruction, while chest X-ray can determine the extent of goitre and the presence of calcification. Ultrasound is commonly used to guide biopsy of the thyroid and detect and characterise thyroid nodules. Radionuclide uptake and scanning using technetium isotope are used to evaluate thyroid function and anatomy in hyperthyroidism, including the assessment of thyroid nodules. These diagnostic imaging techniques play a crucial role in the accurate diagnosis and management of thyroid disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You see a 26-year-old man with a five day history of a sore throat. He has been feverish and has had a marked sore throat with pain when swallowing. He tells you that he has felt progressively worse over the last five days.
On examination, he has a temperature of 38.2°C and bilateral tonsillar exudates. There is some tender cervical lymphadenopathy present.
You discuss with him the role of antibiotic treatment and feel that his condition warrants treatment. He has no allergies and you prescribe a course of phenoxymethylpenicillin.
What duration of antibiotic treatment should you prescribe?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5 to 10 days
Explanation:Penicillin V: The Antibiotic of Choice for Sore Throat Treatment
Provided that there are no contraindications, penicillin V is the preferred antibiotic for treating sore throat. It is highly effective, affordable, and has a proven safety record. Additionally, it is a narrow-spectrum antibiotic, which helps prevent the development of antibiotic resistance.
Based on current evidence and guidelines, a 5 to 10-day course of penicillin V is recommended to ensure maximum eradication of the infection. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries visual summary guide provides further information on antibiotic selection and duration of use for treating sore throat, based on available evidence and guideline documents.
In summary, penicillin V is the antibiotic of choice for treating sore throat, and a 5 to 10-day course is recommended for optimal results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old smoker presents with a persistent hoarse voice for the past three to four weeks. He saw a colleague two weeks ago who found nothing focal on examination and advised him to seek review if his hoarseness did not settle after a further week. He has no significant past medical history, is not on any regular medication, and has no known drug allergies. He denies any cough, haemoptysis, swallowing problems, weight loss, or any systemic unwellness. Clinical examination reveals no anaemia, clubbing, lymphadenopathy or neck masses. His chest sounds clear, and an urgent chest x-ray is reported as 'normal'. What is the most appropriate next step in this patient's management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer urgently to an ear, nose and throat specialist
Explanation:Recognizing and Referring Suspected Cancer: The Case of a Persisting Hoarse Voice
The NICE guidelines on recognizing and referring suspected cancer do not provide a specific time period for what constitutes persistent symptoms. However, most references suggest that further action should be taken if hoarseness persists for three or more weeks. This could indicate a laryngeal cancer or a lung tumor that has infiltrated the recurrent laryngeal nerve. In such cases, an urgent chest x-ray may help direct referral.
If the chest x-ray is normal, urgent referral to an ENT (or head and neck) specialist is needed to investigate the persisting hoarse voice. However, if the chest x-ray is abnormal and suggestive of lung malignancy, urgent referral to a lung cancer specialist is warranted.
In summary, recognizing and referring suspected cancer is crucial in cases of persisting hoarseness. While the NICE guidelines do not provide a specific time period for what constitutes persistent symptoms, most references suggest that three or more weeks of hoarseness warrants further action. A normal chest x-ray requires urgent referral to an ENT (or head and neck) specialist, while an abnormal chest x-ray warrants urgent referral to a lung cancer specialist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man presents with concerns about his hearing. He has a history of recurrent Ménière disease which has resulted in significant hearing loss. He struggles to hear his coworkers at work and his partner has noticed that he needs to turn the volume up high on the television. He has not considered hearing aids due to negative stories he has heard about them.
Upon reviewing his recent audiogram, it shows an 80 dB hearing loss at the 1,000 Hz and 2,000 Hz frequencies. The patient is interested in being referred for a cochlear implant.
What is the recommended management plan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer her for hearing aids
Explanation:Individuals with severe to profound hearing loss, such as this woman, may benefit from a cochlear implant. It is not necessary for her to wait until her hearing worsens before seeking treatment. Ménière disease-related hearing loss, which is linked to inner ear issues and balance symptoms, can also be improved with a cochlear implant. While cochlear implants are available through the NHS, patients are typically required to have attempted hearing aids before being considered for the procedure.
A cochlear implant is an electronic device that can be given to individuals with severe-to-profound hearing loss. The suitability for a cochlear implant is determined by audiological assessment and/or difficulty developing basic auditory skills in children, and a trial of appropriate hearing aids for at least 3 months in adults. The causes of severe-to-profound hearing loss can be genetic, congenital, idiopathic, infectious, viral-induced sudden hearing loss, ototoxicity, otosclerosis, Ménière disease, or trauma. Prior to an assessment for the cochlear implant, patients should have exhausted all medical therapies aimed at targeting any underlying pathological process contributing to the loss of hearing.
Surgical implantation may be complicated by infection, facial paralysis due to nerve injury intra-operatively, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage, and meningitis. Patients are discharged for the postoperative physical recovery of the implantation site and generally return to outpatient clinic 3-5 weeks post-op for device stimulation. Contraindications to consideration for cochlear implant include lesions of cranial nerve VIII or in the brain stem causing deafness, chronic infective otitis media, mastoid cavity or tympanic membrane perforation, and cochlear aplasia.
The device has both internal and external components. Externally, the microphone recognises the environmental sound and sends it to the sound processor. This, in turn, transforms the impulses received into a digital signal that which is then transferred to the transmitter coil. The transmitter coil conveys the signal to the internal components. Internally, a receiver, which magnetically connected to, and sits directly above the transmitter coil, and receives the impulses from the external apparatus which are then processed by a set of electrodes. The electrodes do the work that would be performed by the inner ear hair cells in a ‘normal’ ear. The brain can then process these signals to comprehend sound.
Rechargeable batteries can be used to power the apparatus and life span depends upon usage and the individual device. Hearing link describes cochlear implants as ‘…the world’s most successful medical prostheses in that less than 0.2% of recipients reject it or do not use it and the failure rate needing reimplantation is around 0.5%.’ It is important for patients to demonstrate an understanding of what to expect from cochlear implantation, including comprehension of the likely limitations of the device. Patients should also demonstrate an interest in using the
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which medication is most strongly linked to an increased risk of cleft palate during pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Medications and their effects on pregnancy
The incidence of orofacial malformations such as cleft lip and cleft palate is about 1:1000. While some cases are obvious due to external appearance, isolated palatal defects require close inspection and palpation of the palate during neonatal examination to be detected.
Phenytoin has been linked to congenital defects, particularly cleft lip and palate. Antiepileptic drugs, in general, have been studied closely with regard to congenital malformations, and evidence suggests that monotherapy with an antiepileptic drug during pregnancy doubles the risk of major congenital malformation, while polytherapy triples the risk.
Aspirin can be used in pregnancy, but caution should be exercised as it can cause impaired platelet function and risk of haemorrhage. Carbimazole can be used for the treatment of hyperthyroidism, but it has been linked to aplasia cutis of the newborn. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) should only be used during pregnancy if the benefits of treatment outweigh the risks. Methyldopa is a centrally acting antihypertensive agent that can be used for the management of hypertension in pregnancy.
It is important to consider the potential effects of medications on pregnancy and to weigh the risks and benefits before prescribing them. Close monitoring and follow-up are also necessary to ensure the health and safety of both the mother and the developing fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old woman presents with a two-week history of difficulty swallowing solid foods, particularly meat. She experiences discomfort at the lower end of the sternum and has trouble shifting it almost immediately after swallowing. The patient has a longstanding history of GORD and has intermittently taken omeprazole 20 mg/day for the past decade. She has not experienced any weight loss or vomiting. What is the best course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer urgently for direct access upper GI endoscopy
Explanation:Urgent Referral Needed for New Onset Dysphagia
The sudden onset of dysphagia, even in patients with a long history of GORD and dyspepsia, requires an urgent referral for upper GI endoscopy within two weeks. Delaying the referral can lead to serious complications and worsen the patient’s condition. Therefore, all other options apart from an urgent referral should be avoided. It is crucial to prioritize the patient’s health and well-being by promptly addressing any new symptoms that arise. Proper diagnosis and treatment can prevent further complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy comes to you complaining of sudden and severe pain in his right ear after recently having an ear infection. During examination, you notice a perforated eardrum. He has a soccer game next week and is eager to play. What advice would you give him regarding this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Avoid swimming until the perforation is completely healed
Explanation:It is recommended to refrain from swimming until a perforated tympanic membrane has fully healed, which typically takes longer than a week. Using a swimming cap may not offer adequate protection. Antibiotics should only be prescribed if there is an infection present, and oral antibiotics are preferred over drops.
Perforated Tympanic Membrane: Causes and Management
A perforated tympanic membrane, also known as a ruptured eardrum, is often caused by an infection but can also result from barotrauma or direct trauma. This condition can lead to hearing loss and increase the risk of otitis media.
In most cases, no treatment is necessary as the tympanic membrane will typically heal on its own within 6-8 weeks. However, it is important to avoid getting water in the ear during this time. Antibiotics may be prescribed if the perforation occurs after an episode of acute otitis media. This approach is supported by the 2008 Respiratory Tract Infection Guidelines from NICE.
If the tympanic membrane doesn’t heal by itself, myringoplasty may be performed. This surgical procedure involves repairing the perforation with a graft of tissue taken from another part of the body. With proper management, a perforated tympanic membrane can be successfully treated and hearing can be restored.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaining of a painless, foul-smelling discharge from her left ear that has been going on for four months. She had seen another doctor a month ago who prescribed gentamicin/hydrocortisone ear drops, but they did not help alleviate her symptoms.
Upon examination, there is some wax buildup in the attic of her left ear, but otherwise, everything appears normal. Her cranial nerve examination is also unremarkable.
What would be the best course of action to take?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to ENT outpatient clinic
Explanation:If a patient has persistent unilateral ear discharge that doesn’t respond to antibiotics, it is important to consider the possibility of cholesteatoma, according to NICE guidelines. A cholesteatoma can be concealed behind wax in the attic, so a referral to an ENT clinic for microsuction and direct inspection is necessary. The urgency of the referral depends on the severity of the patient’s symptoms. In this case, a semi-urgent referral is appropriate, but if the patient experiences more advanced symptoms such as vertigo or facial nerve palsy, an urgent discussion with an on-call ENT specialist is necessary.
While olive oil may be helpful for wax buildup, it is not the main issue in this case, as the patient is experiencing discharge. Oral antibiotics are not recommended as there is no evidence of infection. An MRI of the IAMs may be necessary, but it is best to arrange this as part of an assessment by the ENT service. Ear syringing may be useful for wax buildup, but it is not advisable in this situation.
Understanding Cholesteatoma
Cholesteatoma is a benign growth of squamous epithelium that can cause damage to the skull base. It is most commonly found in individuals between the ages of 10 and 20 years old. Those born with a cleft palate are at a higher risk of developing cholesteatoma, with a 100-fold increase in risk.
The main symptoms of cholesteatoma include a persistent discharge with a foul odor and hearing loss. Other symptoms may occur depending on the extent of the growth, such as vertigo, facial nerve palsy, and cerebellopontine angle syndrome.
During otoscopy, a characteristic attic crust may be seen in the uppermost part of the eardrum.
Management of cholesteatoma involves referral to an ear, nose, and throat specialist for surgical removal. Early detection and treatment are important to prevent further damage to the skull base and surrounding structures.
In summary, cholesteatoma is a non-cancerous growth that can cause significant damage if left untreated. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention promptly if they occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old-girl presents with persistent hearing loss. Her mother reports concerns from her teachers that she doesn't seem to pay attention in class. She reports the girl often turns up the volume of the television while at home. On examination, the right eardrum is retracted and there is loss of the light reflex. You suspect otitis media with effusion and arrange pure tone audiometry which reveals moderate hearing loss particularly at low frequencies. She presented to your colleague 10 weeks previously with similar symptoms, with similar audiometry findings.
What is the next most appropriate management in primary care according to the current NICE CKS guidance?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to an ear, nose and throat (ENT) specialist for further management
Explanation:If a child has significant hearing loss due to glue ear on two separate occasions, it is recommended to refer them to an ear, nose and throat (ENT) specialist. The current NICE CKS guidance suggests observing children with otitis media with effusion for 6-12 weeks as spontaneous resolution is common. However, if the signs and symptoms persist after this period, referral to an ENT specialist is necessary. It is important to inquire about any concerns regarding the child’s hearing or language development and for any complications. Immediate referral is required for children with Down’s syndrome or cleft palate who are suspected to have otitis media with effusion. Antibiotics are not recommended for the treatment of otitis media with effusion. The most common surgical option is myringotomy and insertion of grommets, but non-surgical management options are also considered by the ENT specialist. As the child in question has already presented with persistent hearing loss after 12 weeks, referral to ENT is appropriate at this point.
Understanding Glue Ear
Glue ear, also known as serous otitis media, is a common condition among children, with most experiencing at least one episode during their childhood. It is characterized by the accumulation of fluid in the middle ear, leading to hearing loss, speech and language delay, and behavioral or balance problems. The risk factors for glue ear include male sex, siblings with the condition, bottle feeding, day care attendance, and parental smoking. It is more prevalent during the winter and spring seasons.
The condition typically peaks at two years of age and is the most common cause of conductive hearing loss and elective surgery in childhood. Treatment options include grommet insertion, which allows air to pass through into the middle ear, and adenoidectomy. However, grommets usually stop functioning after about ten months. It is important to understand the symptoms and risk factors of glue ear to seek appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of vertigo for the past 3 days. She reports feeling like 'the room is spinning' when she turns over in bed or looks upwards, lasting for about 10 seconds each time. She experiences some nausea but denies vomiting, hearing loss, or tinnitus. The patient states that she has been feeling generally well lately.
What is the examination technique used to diagnose the probable condition in this case, and what are the expected results of this examination?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre-rotatory nystagmus
Explanation:If rotatory nystagmus is observed during the Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, it is likely that the patient has benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV). This is supported by the patient’s history of vertigo lasting less than 1 minute when changing head position. The Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre is the recommended examination by NICE to diagnose BPPV and can provoke rotatory upbeat nystagmus.
It is important to note that while the Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre is specific to BPPV, it produces rotatory nystagmus rather than vertical nystagmus. The Epley manoeuvre is used as a treatment for BPPV, not as a diagnostic tool.
Unterberger’s test is not used to diagnose BPPV, but rather to assess vertigo and examine for labyrinth dysfunction, which may be associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo that occurs suddenly when there is a change in head position. It is more prevalent in individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms of BPPV include dizziness and vertigo, which can be accompanied by nausea. Each episode typically lasts for 10-20 seconds and can be triggered by rolling over in bed or looking upwards. A positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which is indicated by vertigo and rotatory nystagmus, can confirm the diagnosis of BPPV.
Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and usually resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited effectiveness. However, it is important to note that around half of individuals with BPPV may experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 27
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about mumps infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sterility commonly follows orchitis
Explanation:Mumps: Symptoms and Complications
Mumps is a viral infection that has an incubation period of 14-21 days. It can affect any of the salivary glands, but sometimes only one gland is affected. In rare cases, mumps can cause meningoencephalitis, which is inflammation of the brain and its surrounding tissues.
One of the common complications of mumps is orchitis, which is inflammation of the testicles. This occurs in around 25% of cases and can cause pain, swelling, and fever. However, sterility is a relatively uncommon complication following orchitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is brought to the GP clinic by her mother. She is on day 7 post-tonsillectomy and was recovering well until this morning when her mother noticed a small amount of blood on her pillow and fresh red blood in her mouth. Upon examination, the girl appears to be in good health, but there is a blood clot in her right tonsillar fossa with no active bleeding. Her vital signs are as follows:
Systolic blood pressure: 100 mmHg (normal range: 75-110)
Pulse: 96 bpm (normal range: 80-150)
Temperature: 36.8ºC (normal range: 35.5-37.5)
Respiratory rate: 24/min (normal range: 17-30)
What is the appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immediate referral to ENT
Explanation:ENT assessment is necessary for all cases of post-tonsillectomy haemorrhage.
Any haemorrhage occurring more than 24 hours after a tonsillectomy is considered a secondary haemorrhage and can be life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial that all patients are managed by ENT in a hospital setting. Children may have difficulty quantifying blood loss as they may swallow the blood, making bleeding less noticeable.
It is incorrect to review the patient in 24 hours as this is an emergency situation. Similarly, reassuring the patient or referring them to paediatrics is not appropriate. Although tranexamic acid may be helpful, hospital admission is necessary for this surgical emergency and should be managed by ENT.
Complications after Tonsillectomy
Tonsillectomy is a common surgical procedure that involves the removal of the tonsils. However, like any surgery, it carries some risks and potential complications. One of the most common complications is pain, which can last for up to six days after the procedure.
Another complication that can occur after tonsillectomy is haemorrhage, or bleeding. There are two types of haemorrhage that can occur: primary and secondary. Primary haemorrhage is the most common and occurs within the first 6-8 hours after surgery. It requires immediate medical attention and may require a return to the operating room.
Secondary haemorrhage, on the other hand, occurs between 5 and 10 days after surgery and is often associated with a wound infection. It is less common than primary haemorrhage, occurring in only 1-2% of all tonsillectomies. Treatment for secondary haemorrhage usually involves admission to the hospital and antibiotics, but severe bleeding may require surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl attends surgery with a febrile illness. Her mother tells you that she has been unwell for almost 24 hours and has been complaining of right-sided ear pain. The child is usually healthy with no significant past medical history.
On examination you find a temperature of 38.5°C and the right eardrum is red and bulging. The rest of the clinical examination is unremarkable.
What is the most suitable course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advice on symptomatic treatment should be given with a delayed antibiotic script (antibiotic to be collected at parents' discretion after 72 hours if the child has not improved) as back up
Explanation:Middle Ear Infection Caused by Upper Respiratory Tract Infection
The bacteria responsible for an upper respiratory tract infection (URTI) can travel up the eustachian tubes and cause an infection in the middle ear. This can lead to the tympanic membrane becoming retracted, making the handle and short process of the malleus more prominent. As pressure builds up in the middle ear, the eardrum may become distended and bulge outwards, accompanied by severe otalgia, systemic toxicity, fever, and tachycardia.
If the tympanic membrane perforates, severe pain followed by a sudden improvement is likely to occur. The raised pressure within the middle ear is the main cause of the severe pain, often accompanied by systemic symptoms. Once the tympanic membrane ruptures, the pressures will equalize, and the pain will decrease dramatically. For more information on acute otitis media, visit the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries website.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Olivia is a 42-year-old woman who came to see you 6 weeks ago with vertigo following a viral infection. You diagnosed vestibular neuronitis and prescribed a course of prochlorperazine for symptom control.
Olivia comes to see you today with ongoing vertigo. This improved with prochlorperazine but she still experiences attacks of vertigo which usually last hours. There are no new symptoms and neurological examination is normal.
What is the most important aspect of ongoing management for Olivia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for vestibular rehabilitation exercises
Explanation:Vestibular rehabilitation exercises are the recommended treatment for chronic symptoms in vestibular neuronitis, as they are both safe and effective in improving functioning in the medium term. It is important to avoid prolonged use of medication, as it may interfere with the body’s compensatory mechanisms and delay recovery. While a short course of promethazine may help with symptom control, it is unlikely to provide long-term relief for vertigo. Betahistine is only indicated for vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss associated with Ménière’s disease, and is therefore not appropriate for Marcus’s case. Hospital admission is not necessary, as Marcus is not acutely unwell and his symptoms are likely to resolve within a few weeks. However, it is important to refer chronic or recurrent cases for further evaluation to rule out any underlying serious conditions.
Understanding Vestibular Neuronitis
Vestibular neuronitis is a type of vertigo that typically occurs after a viral infection. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo that can last for hours or days, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Horizontal nystagmus is also a common symptom, but there is no hearing loss or tinnitus.
It is important to differentiate vestibular neuronitis from other conditions such as viral labyrinthitis and posterior circulation stroke. The HiNTs exam can be used to distinguish between these conditions.
Treatment for vestibular neuronitis typically involves medication to alleviate symptoms, such as buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine for severe cases, or a short course of oral medication for less severe cases. Vestibular rehabilitation exercises are also recommended for patients who experience chronic symptoms.
Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for vestibular neuronitis can help individuals manage this condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman visits your clinic with a complaint of continuous ringing in her ears. She had previously sought medical attention for her lower back pain and was prescribed naproxen and paracetamol. However, the paracetamol was later substituted with co-codamol and then with co-dydramol. Which medication is the probable cause of her recent symptom?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Naproxen
Explanation:High doses of aspirin and other NSAIDs can lead to tinnitus, although the frequency of this side effect is unknown. Co-codamol and co-dydramol are not known to cause tinnitus, but they can cause other side effects such as drowsiness, respiratory depression, and addiction. Melatonin is generally well-tolerated, but it can cause side effects such as changes in behavior, headaches, and sleep disturbances. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of these medications and to consult with a healthcare professional if any concerns arise.
Tinnitus is a condition where a person perceives sounds in their ears or head that do not come from an external source. It affects approximately 1 in 10 people at some point in their lives and can be distressing for patients. While it is sometimes considered a minor symptom, it can also be a sign of a serious underlying condition. The causes of tinnitus can vary, with some patients having no identifiable underlying cause. Other causes may include Meniere’s disease, otosclerosis, conductive deafness, positive family history, sudden onset sensorineural hearing loss, acoustic neuroma, hearing loss, drugs, and impacted earwax.
To assess tinnitus, an audiologist may perform an audiological assessment to detect any underlying hearing loss. Imaging may also be necessary, with non-pulsatile tinnitus generally not requiring imaging unless it is unilateral or there are other neurological or ontological signs. Pulsatile tinnitus, on the other hand, often requires imaging as there may be an underlying vascular cause. Management of tinnitus may involve investigating and treating any underlying cause, using amplification devices if associated with hearing loss, and psychological therapy such as cognitive behavioural therapy or joining tinnitus support groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl is brought in for an urgent appointment with her mother. She has been experiencing a sore throat, fever, malaise, and headache for the past two days. Yesterday, she complained of pain in her right ear, which has now spread to both ears. She has difficulty eating and drinking due to discomfort.
During the examination, bilateral swelling is observed, which is obstructing the angle of the jaw on both sides. When attempting to open her mouth to examine her throat, she experiences discomfort.
The patient has no significant medical history, and her mother is unsure if she has received all of her scheduled vaccinations.
What is the incubation period for this infection?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 14-21 days
Explanation:Mumps: Symptoms, Complications, and Incubation Period
Mumps is a viral infection that has an incubation period of 14-21 days. The patient typically experiences a nonspecific prodrome of sore throat, fever, malaise, and headache, which eventually leads to inflammation of the parotid gland. Fortunately, symptomatic treatment is usually sufficient, and the illness resolves within one to two weeks.
However, mumps can lead to serious complications, with meningoencephalitis occurring in 10% of patients with parotitis, and orchitis occurring in 25% of postpubertal males affected by mumps. In about 15% of those affected by orchitis, it is bilateral.
It’s worth noting that the incubation period for mumps may vary slightly depending on the reference source. However, the correct answer should always fall within a reasonable range, so don’t be too concerned if the limits of the reference range differ slightly from what you may have read elsewhere.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 33
Incorrect
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Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to be a feature of uncomplicated cholesteatoma in elderly patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Otorrhoea
Explanation:Cholesteatoma: Symptoms and Complications
Cholesteatoma is a condition characterized by the collection of epidermal and connective tissues within the middle ear. It can be dangerous as it may cause damage to adjacent vital structures such as the dura, lateral sinus, facial nerve, and semi-circular canal. In severe cases, it may lead to fatal central nervous system complications such as brain abscess and meningitis.
The hallmark symptom of cholesteatoma is a painless otorrhoea, which may be continuous or recurrent. When infected, the infection may be difficult to treat. Hearing loss is also a common symptom, as the cholesteatoma can fill the middle ear space with desquamated epithelium, interfering with sound transmission and causing ossicular damage.
Dizziness and facial nerve palsy may occur as the cholesteatoma grows and erodes into adjacent structures. These symptoms are worrisome as they may indicate more serious complications.
A retracted intact tympanic membrane is not a specific feature of cholesteatoma and may be seen in other conditions such as otitis media with effusion. In cholesteatoma, pearly, white, glistening debris may be visible through the otorrhoea, occupying a perforation in the tympanic membrane, usually in the pars flaccida. Alternatively, there may just be crusting in the uppermost part of the drum beneath which lies a cholesteatoma.
Rhinorrhoea is not a feature of cholesteatoma.
In summary, cholesteatoma is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. Its symptoms include painless otorrhoea, hearing loss, and possible complications such as dizziness and facial nerve palsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 41-year-old man presents to the surgery for the second time in the past month complaining of a severe sore throat. He has been prescribed a course of co-amoxiclav by your partner for suspected tonsillitis, but tells you this has had no impact on his symptoms. According to his records he has always had large tonsils and has been seen at the surgery for a number of episodes of tonsillitis over the past few years.
On examination his temperature is 37.7°C, pulse is 70 bpm and regular, BP is 122/82 mmHg. There is some cervical lymphadenopathy. There is a large erythematous nodule on the right hand side of the tonsillar bed.
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non-urgent referral for tonsillectomy
Explanation:Unilateral Tonsillar Enlargement: A Red Flag for Tonsillar Lymphoma
Unilateral tonsillar enlargement is a concerning symptom that may indicate tonsillar lymphoma. Delaying referral to an ENT specialist for biopsy can be detrimental to the patient’s health. Antibiotic therapy may not be effective in treating malignancy, and failure to respond to antibiotics may indicate underlying cancer. Patients with a history of smoking and alcohol consumption are at higher risk of tonsillar cancer, while those with recurrent tonsillitis may be more prone to tonsillar lymphoma.
Other diagnostic options, such as full blood count and viscosity, may not be abnormal in early lymphoma, and non-urgent referral can cause a delay of several weeks before review by an ENT specialist. Therefore, it is crucial to promptly refer patients with unilateral tonsillar enlargement to an ENT specialist for further evaluation.
The British Journal of General Practice (BJGP) published an article in November 2014 that provides a helpful table outlining the differences between acute tonsillitis and oropharyngeal carcinoma. This information can aid in the accurate diagnosis of tonsillar enlargement and prevent misdiagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A father brings his 5-year-old daughter to the General Practitioner with symptoms consistent with otitis media, which have started in the last 48 hours. On examination, there is a perforation of the tympanic membrane and purulent discharge from the ear. The child has a temperature of 36.5 °C and her heart rate is within normal parameters.
What would be the most appropriate treatment in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start oral antibiotics
Explanation:Management of Acute Otitis Media in Children: Treatment Options
Acute otitis media is a common childhood infection that can cause pain, fever, and hearing loss. When managing this condition, healthcare providers have several treatment options to consider. Here are some possible approaches:
Immediate Oral Antibiotics: If the child has otorrhoea or bilateral infection, or is under two years old, immediate oral antibiotics are recommended. Parents should be informed that the typical duration of acute otitis media is around three days, but it can last up to one week.
Delayed Antibiotics: In cases where otorrhoea and tympanic perforation are absent, or the child presents at an earlier stage, a prescription for delayed antibiotics may be appropriate. Parents should be advised on when to start the antibiotics, such as if the child experiences persistent fevers or worsening pain.
Oral Decongestants: According to guidance from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), decongestants are not recommended for the management of acute otitis media.
Referral to Ear, Nose and Throat: Immediate referral to an Ear, Nose and Throat specialist is necessary if the child is younger than three months and has tympanic perforation, shows signs of systemic sepsis, or has complicated otitis media (e.g., venous sinus thrombosis, meningitis, or mastoiditis). If none of these features are present, starting with oral antibiotics is reasonable.
Analgesia Only: While analgesia can help alleviate pain, it should not be the only treatment offered if the child has a perforation and otorrhoea. Antibiotics should also be prescribed in this case.
Treatment Options for Acute Otitis Media in Children
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 36
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the least acknowledged cause of vertigo?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Motor neuron disease
Explanation:Vertigo is a condition characterized by a false sensation of movement in the body or environment. There are various causes of vertigo, each with its own unique characteristics. Viral labyrinthitis, for example, is typically associated with a recent viral infection, sudden onset, nausea and vomiting, and possible hearing loss. Vestibular neuronitis, on the other hand, is characterized by recurrent vertigo attacks lasting hours or days, but with no hearing loss. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo is triggered by changes in head position and lasts for only a few seconds. Meniere’s disease, meanwhile, is associated with hearing loss, tinnitus, and a feeling of fullness or pressure in the ears. Elderly patients with vertigo may be experiencing vertebrobasilar ischaemia, which is accompanied by dizziness upon neck extension. Acoustic neuroma, which is associated with hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus, is also a possible cause of vertigo. Other causes include posterior circulation stroke, trauma, multiple sclerosis, and ototoxicity from medications like gentamicin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male comes to the GP with a history of hearing loss for 6 months due to ototoxicity from furosemide. Upon examination, he has severe bilateral sensorineural hearing loss and can only hear spoken words if they are within 10 cm of him. He has been using hearing aids for 4 months, but they are not very effective. What aspect of his history indicates that cochlear implantation may be necessary?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duration of hearing aid use
Explanation:Before considering a cochlear implant as a management strategy for hearing loss in adults, a failed trial of hearing aids for at least 3 months is generally required, regardless of the cause, age at the time of hearing loss, duration, or severity of the condition. In the case of this patient, the duration of his hearing aid use is the most significant factor suggesting the appropriateness of a cochlear implant.
A cochlear implant is an electronic device that can be given to individuals with severe-to-profound hearing loss. The suitability for a cochlear implant is determined by audiological assessment and/or difficulty developing basic auditory skills in children, and a trial of appropriate hearing aids for at least 3 months in adults. The causes of severe-to-profound hearing loss can be genetic, congenital, idiopathic, infectious, viral-induced sudden hearing loss, ototoxicity, otosclerosis, Ménière disease, or trauma. Prior to an assessment for the cochlear implant, patients should have exhausted all medical therapies aimed at targeting any underlying pathological process contributing to the loss of hearing.
Surgical implantation may be complicated by infection, facial paralysis due to nerve injury intra-operatively, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage, and meningitis. Patients are discharged for the postoperative physical recovery of the implantation site and generally return to outpatient clinic 3-5 weeks post-op for device stimulation. Contraindications to consideration for cochlear implant include lesions of cranial nerve VIII or in the brain stem causing deafness, chronic infective otitis media, mastoid cavity or tympanic membrane perforation, and cochlear aplasia.
The device has both internal and external components. Externally, the microphone recognises the environmental sound and sends it to the sound processor. This, in turn, transforms the impulses received into a digital signal that which is then transferred to the transmitter coil. The transmitter coil conveys the signal to the internal components. Internally, a receiver, which magnetically connected to, and sits directly above the transmitter coil, and receives the impulses from the external apparatus which are then processed by a set of electrodes. The electrodes do the work that would be performed by the inner ear hair cells in a ‘normal’ ear. The brain can then process these signals to comprehend sound.
Rechargeable batteries can be used to power the apparatus and life span depends upon usage and the individual device. Hearing link describes cochlear implants as ‘…the world’s most successful medical prostheses in that less than 0.2% of recipients reject it or do not use it and the failure rate needing reimplantation is around 0.5%.’ It is important for patients to demonstrate an understanding of what to expect from cochlear implantation, including comprehension of the likely limitations of the device. Patients should also demonstrate an interest in using the
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old-man schedules an appointment due to a nose injury he sustained while playing soccer two days ago. He reports that his nose bled for a few minutes after the injury but has not bled since. He also mentions that his nose did not appear deformed after the incident. He has not sought medical attention before this appointment and is generally healthy with no long-term medications.
During the examination, you notice no signs of nasal bone deviation, but there is significant swelling in the surrounding soft tissue. On anterior rhinoscopy, you observe a bilateral fluctuant swelling of the nasal septum that almost blocks the nostrils.
What is the most suitable course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit directly to the hospital for same day ENT assessment
Explanation:If there is bilateral purple swelling of the nasal septum, it is likely that the patient has a septal haematoma. It is important to examine the nose for this condition, even if the injury seems minor. A septal haematoma can cause permanent damage to the septal cartilage within 24 hours due to obstructed blood flow. If suspected, the patient should be referred to the on-call ENT team for urgent assessment.
If a nasal bone fracture is suspected, the patient should also be referred to the ENT emergency clinic. This type of fracture can be corrected under local anaesthetic within 2-3 weeks of the injury.
Facial bone x-rays are not useful in diagnosing nasal bone fractures.
If the patient has only experienced simple epistaxis without any other nasal injury, Naseptin may be appropriate.
If there is a septal deviation, routine ENT referral may be necessary. However, if there is any uncertainty, it is best to seek advice from an ENT specialist.
Nasal Septal Haematoma: A Complication of Nasal Trauma
Nasal septal haematoma is a serious complication that can occur after even minor nasal trauma. It is characterized by the accumulation of blood between the septal cartilage and the perichondrium. The most common symptom is nasal obstruction, but pain and rhinorrhoea may also be present. On examination, a bilateral, red swelling arising from the nasal septum is typically seen. It is important to differentiate this from a deviated septum, which will be firm upon probing.
Prompt treatment is necessary to prevent irreversible septal necrosis, which can occur within 3-4 days if left untreated. This is caused by pressure-related ischaemia of the cartilage, leading to necrosis and potentially resulting in a ‘saddle-nose’ deformity. Management typically involves surgical drainage and intravenous antibiotics. It is crucial to be aware of this complication and to promptly seek medical attention if nasal trauma occurs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 39
Incorrect
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As a GP visiting a residential home patient, you encounter a 74-year-old female with a 4 week history of oral ulceration. The patient reports experiencing pain and bleeding due to the condition. She also mentions that her dentures have not been fitting well, leading her to stop using them. Additionally, she has lost a few kilograms in weight over the past few weeks. Based on NICE guidelines for suspected cancer, which aspects of this patient's history would necessitate referral (within 2 weeks) for oral cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Unexplained ulceration in the oral cavity lasting for more than 3 weeks
Explanation:Alcohol consumption is linked to 30% of cases in the UK.
When to Refer Patients with Mouth Lesions for Oral Surgery
Mouth lesions can be a cause for concern, especially if they persist for an extended period of time. In cases where there is unexplained oral ulceration or mass that lasts for more than three weeks, or red and white patches that are painful, swollen, or bleeding, a referral to oral surgery should be made within two weeks. Additionally, if a patient experiences one-sided pain in the head and neck area for more than four weeks, which is associated with earache but doesn’t result in any abnormal findings on otoscopy, or has an unexplained recent neck lump or a previously undiagnosed lump that has changed over a period of three to six weeks, a referral should be made.
Patients who have persistent sore or painful throats or signs and symptoms in the oral cavity that last for more than six weeks and cannot be definitively diagnosed as a benign lesion should also be referred. It is important to note that the level of suspicion should be higher in patients who are over 40, smokers, heavy drinkers, and those who chew tobacco or betel nut (areca nut). By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients with mouth lesions receive timely and appropriate care. For more information on this topic, please refer to the link provided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with headache.
Select from the list below the single feature that would suggest frontal sinusitis rather than migraine.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Green nasal discharge
Explanation:Migraine vs Sinus Headache: Understanding the Difference
Many people who believe they are suffering from a sinus headache may actually be experiencing a migraine. This is because migraines can activate the trigeminal nerves, which are responsible for both the sinus region and the meninges. As a result, it can be difficult to determine the exact source of the pain. In addition, migraines can cause nasal congestion, as well as lacrimation and rhinorrhoea due to autonomic nerve stimulation. Unlike sinusitis, which often presents with thick green nasal discharge, migraines tend to be recurrent and may not have a clear history of sinusitis. Understanding the difference between these two conditions can help with proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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