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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old female presents with acute asthma. She complains of worsening breathlessness and wheeze over the last 24 hours.
She has a history of previous hospital admissions with asthma but has never been to critical care. The patient has been given salbutamol, ipratropium, hydrocortisone, and magnesium. However, she is unable to complete sentences in one breath and cannot perform a peak flow test. She appears exhausted.
An arterial blood gas test is performed, and her PaCO2 is 7.5 kPa. What degree of clinical severity does this patient meet?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Near fatal asthma
Explanation:Near Fatal Asthma
The British Thoracic Society has defined near fatal asthma as an attack that involves raised PaCO2 and/or the need for mechanical ventilation with raised inflation pressures. This definition is crucial in identifying patients who may require intubation if they do not respond to maximum medical management. A raised PaCO2 is a significant indicator that the patient’s condition is worsening and that immediate intervention is necessary. Therefore, healthcare professionals must be vigilant in monitoring patients with near fatal asthma to ensure that they receive appropriate treatment and care. By the definition and signs of near fatal asthma, healthcare providers can take the necessary steps to prevent life-threatening complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman who is currently using a contraceptive pill requests sterilisation, as she is concerned about the risks of blood clots involved with the pill. Her 60-year-old maternal aunt developed deep vein thrombosis following a long-haul flight, for which she was anticoagulated. Her aunt went on to have subsequent screening of procoagulant tendencies and heterozygous factor V Leiden was identified. The patient's mother has suffered no problems, having had two normal pregnancies and occasional leg swelling only.
What advice would be given to the patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure and inform the patient that the risk is minimal in continuing COCP
Explanation:Managing Contraception in Patients with Factor V Leiden Mutation
Patients with factor V Leiden mutation may have an increased risk of developing venous thromboembolism (VTE), but the risk is still minimal. Screening for the mutation is not routinely recommended unless a first-degree relative has had a thromboembolic episode. In the case of a second-degree relative having the mutation, screening is not necessary, and the patient may continue on the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). Switching to the progesterone-only pill or seeking sterilization is not required. Other methods of contraception may be considered only if screening for factor V Leiden is positive. If a first-degree relative is diagnosed with the mutation, the advice may need to be reviewed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man presents to the Medical Admissions unit with complaints of palpitations. He has a medical history of hereditary obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) and has been taking amiodarone for the past year. He denies any personal or family history of autoimmune disease.
Upon examination, the patient appears flushed and diaphoretic. He is thin and has a fine tremor when his hands are outstretched. No goitre is detected.
The patient's vital signs are as follows: heart rate 102/min; blood pressure 126/82 mmHg; respiratory rate 14/min; temperature 37.9ºC; oxygen saturations 97% on air.
The following blood test results are obtained:
Free T4 28.6 pmol/L (12 - 22)
Free T3 9.1 pmol/L (3.1 - 6.8)
TSH < 0.05 mU/L (0.27 - 4.2)
Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate course of management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:The appropriate initial management for a patient with amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis type 2 is with corticosteroids, specifically prednisolone. This type of thyrotoxicosis is characterized by destructive thyroiditis and typically does not present with goitre formation. Carbimazole would be an appropriate initial management option for AIT type 1, which involves excess thyroid hormone synthesis stimulated by the iodide load from amiodarone therapy. Lithium may be used for refractory cases of either AIT type 1 or type 2. Lugol’s iodine is not routinely used in the management of AIT type 2, as the anti-inflammatory properties of corticosteroids are preferred over its antithyroid properties.
Amiodarone and Thyroid Dysfunction
Amiodarone, a medication used to treat heart rhythm disorders, can cause thyroid dysfunction in approximately 1 in 6 patients. This dysfunction can manifest as either hypothyroidism or thyrotoxicosis.
Amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism (AIH) is believed to occur due to the high iodine content of the medication, which can cause a Wolff-Chaikoff effect. Despite this, amiodarone may still be continued if desired.
On the other hand, amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis (AIT) can be divided into two types: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 AIT is caused by excess iodine-induced thyroid hormone synthesis, while type 2 AIT is related to destructive thyroiditis caused by amiodarone. In patients with type 1 AIT, a goitre may be present, while it is absent in type 2 AIT. Management of AIT involves carbimazole or potassium perchlorate for type 1 and corticosteroids for type 2.
It is important to note that unlike in AIH, amiodarone should be stopped if possible in patients who develop AIT. Understanding the potential effects of amiodarone on the thyroid gland is crucial in managing patients who require this medication for their heart condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman, previously healthy, is referred by her gynaecologist with a new diagnosis of stage 3 ovarian cancer. She had been experiencing increasing abdominal pain and bloating for the past four months. Following a hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, she is now being referred for chemotherapy. What is the typical initial chemotherapy treatment for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paclitaxel and Carboplatin
Explanation:For patients with locally advanced stage III ovarian cancer who have undergone tumour debulking, combination chemotherapy with carboplatin and paclitaxel is recommended as per NICE guidelines. This is typically offered to patients with a good performance status. In cases of relapse following first line treatment, gemcitabine and carboplatin may be considered. Single agent carboplatin is not as effective as combination chemotherapy. Second line options for ovarian cancer include single agent topetecan and single agent Caelyx.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with worsening shortness of breath over the past 24 hours, preceded by coryzal symptoms. She has a history of asthma and takes regular montelukast and a Seretide® inhaler.
Upon examination, she is unable to speak in full sentences and has bilateral wheeze and poor air entry in the bases. Her vital signs show a temperature of 37.1ºC, oxygen saturation of 92% on air, heart rate of 83 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 130/83 mmHg. An initial arterial blood gas on room air reveals a pH of 7.46, PaO2 of 7.5 kPa, PaCO2 of 3.1 kPa, Lac of 2.0, HCO3 of 24, and BE of +3.
The patient is managed with high flow oxygen, back-to-back salbutamol nebulisers, an ipratropium bromide nebuliser, intravenous hydrocortisone, and intravenous magnesium sulphate. Upon reassessment in the subsequent hour, the patient appears more comfortable with a temperature of 37.3ºC, oxygen saturation of 100% on high flow oxygen, heart rate of 92 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 126/78 mmHg. A repeat arterial blood gas shows a pH of 7.34, PaO2 of 43 kPa, PaCO2 of 3.2 kPa, Lac of 6.4, HCO3 of 19, and BE of -5.
What is the likely cause of the hyperlactatemia observed in the subsequent arterial blood gas?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Salbutamol
Explanation:Excessive use of salbutamol during an acute asthma attack can result in hyperlactatemia, which is a type of lactic acidosis not caused by tissue hypoperfusion or hypoxia leading to anaerobic metabolism. It is important to consider this possibility along with the patient’s clinical presentation. In this case, the patient was alert and not showing signs of toxicity, hypoxia, or hypotension.
There is no evidence to suggest that magnesium sulfate can cause lactic acidosis.
The patient’s symptoms, physical examination, vital signs, and response to treatment are consistent with a severe asthma attack, rather than sepsis or pulmonary embolism.
Studies have shown that high levels of lactate in acute asthma are likely due to the effects of β-adrenergic agonists, rather than a physiological response to stress.
Respiratory medicine utilizes various drugs to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Salbutamol is a short-acting inhaled bronchodilator that relaxes bronchial smooth muscle through its effects on beta 2 receptors. It is commonly used in asthma and COPD treatment. Salmeterol, a long-acting beta receptor agonist, has similar effects. Corticosteroids are anti-inflammatory drugs used as maintenance therapy in the form of inhaled corticosteroids. Oral or intravenous corticosteroids are used following an acute exacerbation of asthma or COPD.
Ipratropium is a short-acting inhaled bronchodilator that blocks muscarinic acetylcholine receptors, relaxing bronchial smooth muscle. It is primarily used in COPD treatment, while tiotropium has similar effects but is long-acting. Methylxanthines, such as theophylline, are non-specific inhibitors of phosphodiesterase, resulting in an increase in cAMP. They are given orally or intravenously and have a narrow therapeutic index. Monteleukast and zafirlukast block leukotriene receptors and are usually taken orally. They are useful in treating aspirin-induced asthma. Overall, these drugs play a crucial role in managing respiratory conditions and improving patients’ quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old Turkish software engineer presents to the Emergency Department with a 24 hour history of excruciating abdominal pain, high fever and muscle pain.
During examination, he is found to be febrile with a temperature of 39.5 °C and has diffuse abdominal tenderness with guarding. Bowel sounds are absent. He has a healed surgical scar from a previous hospitalization with similar symptoms. The surgery was inconclusive.
After conducting a plain abdominal X-ray, which showed no abnormalities, the surgical team was consulted and the patient was started on broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics. His symptoms resolved after 20 hours of admission. He mentioned that his sister had also been hospitalized with similar symptoms in the past.
What medication would you prescribe to improve the long-term outcomes of this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colchicine
Explanation:Treatment options for Familial Mediterranean Fever
Familial Mediterranean fever (FMF) is an inherited condition that causes short, recurrent episodes of fever and peritonitis, along with other symptoms such as pleuritis, arthritis, and skin rashes. Colchicine is the most effective treatment for preventing and treating FMF attacks. Prednisolone may be used for severe acute episodes, but colchicine is the preferred choice due to its superior benefit-risk profile. Tramadol is not recommended as it may exacerbate abdominal symptoms and lead to opiate addiction. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs like diclofenac may be useful for treating spondyloarthritis associated with FMF, but they do not affect the progression of other symptoms. Indometacin is an intervention for pericarditis in FMF, but colchicine is also advised to impact disease progression. Overall, colchicine is the most effective and preferred treatment option for FMF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old construction worker presents with a six-month history of pain and swelling in both hands, which is most severe in the mornings. He takes diclofenac tablets for pain relief. The patient's job involves the use of vibrating tools. On examination, the metacarpophalangeal joints and wrists of both hands are warm, swollen, and tender. Investigations reveal a low Hb level, elevated ESR, and periarticular decalcification on x-ray. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:Comparison of Arthritis Types
Rheumatoid arthritis is a type of arthritis that commonly affects the proximal interphalangeal, metacarpophalangeal, and wrist joints. It is characterized by symmetrical joint involvement and morning stiffness that improves with exercise. In some cases, larger joints may also become involved. This condition causes pain, swelling, and chronic disease that can lead to deformity, such as Swan neck deformity, Boutonniere deformity, Z-thumb, ulnar deviation of the fingers, and dorsal subluxation of ulnar styloid.
Gout, on the other hand, usually starts as a monoarthritis. Osteoarthritis typically affects the distal interphalangeal, proximal interphalangeal, and first metacarpophalangeal joints. Meanwhile, psoriatic arthritis tends to affect the distal interphalangeal joints. Lastly, systemic lupus erythematosus usually causes a mild non-erosive arthritis.
In summary, while all types of arthritis involve joint pain and inflammation, they differ in the specific joints affected and the severity of the condition. these differences can help in the proper diagnosis and management of arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents with a 10-month history of fatigue and pruritus. She has a history of rheumatoid arthritis which was diagnosed 3 years ago and has been quiescent. Aside from a flare-up of her rheumatoid arthritis 2 years ago requiring a course of steroids, she has never been on any disease modifying drugs. Her present medications include naproxen 500mg BD and omeprazole 20 mg OD.
During examination, there is evidence of scratch marks and icteric sclera. There is some fullness in the right upper quadrant of her abdomen on palpation.
Her blood tests are:
Hb 110 g/l Na+ 138 mmol/l Bilirubin 60 µmol/l
Platelets 200 * 109/l K+ 4.1 mmol/l ALP 220 u/l
WBC 8.5 * 109/l Urea 2.8 mmol/l ALT 65 u/l
Neuts 6.0 * 109/l Creatinine 80 µmol/l γGT 85 u/l
Lymphs 1.5 * 109/l Albumin 30 g/l
Eosin 0.3 * 109/l
Her antibody screen reveals:
ANA Positive at 1:160 titre
ANCA Negative
AMA Positive at 1:40 titre
ASMA Negative
What medication can be prescribed to alleviate the patient's pruritus symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cholestyramine
Explanation:Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) is a chronic liver disease that primarily affects women. It is characterized by the destruction of small bile ducts in the liver, leading to the accumulation of bile acids and other toxic substances in the liver. This can cause inflammation, scarring, and ultimately, liver failure.
Antimitochondrial antibodies (AMA) are present in the majority of patients with PBC, and a proportion of patients also have antinuclear antibodies (ANA).
Fatigue and itching are common symptoms of PBC and can be very debilitating. The first-line treatment for pruritus is cholestyramine, which binds to bile acid salts in the gut and provides relief. Other drugs such as colestipol or rifampicin may also be used. Ursodeoxycholic acid is used to slow the progression of the disease and has been shown to improve biochemical and histological markers in patients.
Primary biliary cholangitis is a chronic liver disorder that affects middle-aged women. It is thought to be an autoimmune condition that damages interlobular bile ducts, causing progressive cholestasis and potentially leading to cirrhosis. The classic presentation is itching in a middle-aged woman. It is associated with Sjogren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and thyroid disease. Diagnosis involves immunology and imaging tests. Management includes ursodeoxycholic acid, cholestyramine for pruritus, and liver transplantation in severe cases. Complications include cirrhosis, osteomalacia and osteoporosis, and an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents to neurology clinic for evaluation of his long-standing trigeminal neuralgia. He has been experiencing symptoms for five years and has been frequently reviewed by neurology, but his condition has not improved. The patient suffers from severe shooting pain affecting the right side of his lower face, with each episode lasting about an hour. The frequency of attacks has increased over time, and he now experiences four to five episodes per week. The patient's symptoms have significantly impacted his quality of life, and he rarely leaves his house due to fear of an attack.
Carbamazepine was initially prescribed four years ago, which provided some relief, but the patient was intolerant due to drowsiness. Subsequent trials of oxcarbazepine, lamotrigine, and baclofen did not provide lasting relief. The patient was recently diagnosed with depression and started on sertraline. He also has type 2 diabetes, which is managed with diet and metformin 500 mg TDS. The patient has been unable to work as a school-teacher for the past two years due to his symptoms. Although he was previously hesitant to consider surgical intervention, he is now willing to try any options that could improve his symptoms.
MRI brain with/without contrast showed no evidence of inflammation, space-occupying lesion, extra-cranial mass along the course of trigeminal nerves, widespread demyelination plaque, or previous infarction. There was also no abnormal enhancement of the trigeminal nerves.
What is the most appropriate surgical intervention for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Microvascular decompression
Explanation:Understanding Trigeminal Neuralgia
Trigeminal neuralgia is a type of pain syndrome that is characterized by severe pain on one side of the face. While most cases are idiopathic, some may be caused by compression of the trigeminal roots due to tumors or vascular problems. According to the International Headache Society, trigeminal neuralgia is defined as a disorder that causes brief electric shock-like pains that are limited to one or more divisions of the trigeminal nerve. The pain is often triggered by light touch, such as washing, shaving, or brushing teeth, and can occur spontaneously. Certain areas of the face may be more susceptible to pain, known as trigger areas, and the pain may remit for varying periods.
It is important to note that there are red flag symptoms and signs that may suggest a serious underlying cause, such as sensory changes, ear problems, history of skin or oral lesions, pain only in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, optic neuritis, a family history of multiple sclerosis, or onset before the age of 40.
The first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia is carbamazepine. However, if there is a failure to respond to treatment or atypical features are present, such as onset before the age of 50, referral to neurology may be necessary. Understanding the symptoms and management of trigeminal neuralgia can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with concerns about her sexual health. She reports experiencing vaginal dryness during intercourse and has noticed that her breasts leak milk with minimal stimulation. She also mentions that she has not had a period in the past 6 months. Her medical history includes recent use of metoclopramide for nausea. On examination, her blood pressure is 140/80 mmHg, pulse is 80/min and regular. She has some peripheral field visual loss. Laboratory results show elevated prolactin levels and abnormal thyroid function tests. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non-functioning pituitary adenoma
Explanation:A non-functioning pituitary adenoma is suspected in a woman presenting with peripheral visual field loss and abnormal hormone levels. The prolactin level is elevated, but not enough to suggest a macroprolactinoma. The low levels of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) are consistent with a large tumor. The slightly elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) may be due to local compression or secretion by the adenoma. An MRI scan is recommended to further characterize the tumor, but surgery is likely to be the mainstay of therapy as the tumor is unlikely to respond to medication. The elevated prolactin is likely due to pressure on the pituitary stalk, which stimulates milk production. Microprolactinoma and metoclopramide-related hyperprolactinemia are ruled out due to the absence of visual field loss and a lesser rise in prolactin, respectively. Pregnancy is also unlikely to be the cause of the visual field defect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 65-year old male presents with a five-day history of tingling in his fingers and toes. He has also experienced progressive weakness in his upper and lower limbs over the last two days, and is now unable to walk without assistance. Upon examination, he has a tetraparesis, areflexia, and a flexor plantar response. The CSF examination reveals no red or white cells, a CSF glucose level of 3.6 mmol/L (3.3-4.4), a plasma glucose level of 5.2 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), and a CSF protein level of 1.3 g/L (0.15-0.45). What is the most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Administration of IV immunoglobulin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Guillain-Barré Syndrome
Guillain-Barré Syndrome is a rare autoimmune disorder that affects the peripheral nervous system. The most effective treatment options for this condition are intravenous immunoglobulins and plasma exchange. Both treatments involve the use of antibodies to help the body fight off the disease.
Intravenous immunoglobulins are given in high doses over a period of five days. This treatment helps to boost the immune system and reduce inflammation in the body. Plasma exchange involves removing the patient’s blood and replacing it with a plasma substitute. This process helps to remove harmful antibodies from the body and replace them with healthy ones.
Both treatments have been shown to improve the long-term prognosis for patients with Guillain-Barré Syndrome. They have similar efficacy rates and are often used in combination to achieve the best results. With proper treatment and care, many patients with this condition are able to make a full recovery and regain their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old F1 driver presents with neck pain after a race. After three days, he complains of numbness on the left side of his face and right upper and lower limbs. During examination, it is found that he has lost pain and temperature sensation on the left side of his face and right upper and lower limbs. Additionally, his left pupil is smaller than the right and he has partial ptosis on the left. Eye movements are normal, and power, coordination, and reflexes are all normal. What is the preferred brain imaging method used to establish the primary diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CT angiogram head and neck
Explanation:Stroke can affect different parts of the brain depending on which artery is affected. If the anterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the lower extremities being more affected than the upper. If the middle cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the upper extremities being more affected than the lower. They may also experience vision loss and difficulty with language. If the posterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience vision loss and difficulty recognizing objects.
Lacunar strokes are a type of stroke that are strongly associated with hypertension. They typically present with isolated weakness or loss of sensation on one side of the body, or weakness with difficulty coordinating movements. They often occur in the basal ganglia, thalamus, or internal capsule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman has been diagnosed with placenta praevia and is experiencing bleeding from the cannulation site during caesarean delivery. Her laboratory results indicate a platelet count of 40 ×109/L, a fibrinogen level of 0.4, prolonged PT at 14 seconds, and an elevated quantitative D-dimer. What is the most useful parameter to determine if this patient needs active treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The presence or absence of bleeding
Explanation:Guidelines for the Diagnosis and Management of Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
In 2009, the British Committee for Standards in Haematology (BCSH) issued guidelines for the diagnosis and management of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). According to these guidelines, transfusion of platelets or plasma components should not be based solely on laboratory results. Instead, it should be reserved for patients who are experiencing bleeding. Therefore, the most important factor in determining whether a patient with DIC requires treatment is the presence or absence of bleeding.
To summarize, the BCSH guidelines emphasize that laboratory results should not be the sole basis for treatment decisions in patients with DIC. Instead, clinicians should focus on whether the patient is experiencing bleeding. This approach ensures that treatment is targeted to those who need it most, while avoiding unnecessary interventions in patients who are not actively bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with learning difficulties presents with urinary incontinence and difficulty managing household tasks. He has a history of losing his son to multiple sclerosis. On examination, he has poor short and long term memory, labile affect, and difficulty interpreting proverbs. He also exhibits horizontal nystagmus, past-pointing in the upper limbs, and difficulty with heel-to-toe walking in the lower limbs. Brisk deep tendon reflexes and extensor plantar responses are present. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Korsakoff’s amnesic syndrome
Explanation:Korsakoff’s Amnesic Syndrome vs Alzheimer’s Disease
The symptoms of recent memory difficulties, mild impairment of attention and concentration, and lack of ability to reason are more indicative of Korsakoff’s amnesic syndrome rather than Alzheimer’s disease. This is because memory impairment is more severe in Alzheimer’s disease. Additionally, the presence of ataxia and nystagmus, which are retained features of acute Wernicke’s encephalopathy, further supports the diagnosis of Korsakoff’s amnesic syndrome.
Thiamine is typically administered in established cases of Korsakoff’s amnesic syndrome to prevent the progression of deficits. It is important to differentiate between Korsakoff’s amnesic syndrome and Alzheimer’s disease as the treatment and management of these conditions differ. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help improve the quality of life for individuals affected by these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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What is the most precise statement regarding the management of adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) in a patient with severe sepsis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The ventilator strategy should employ a relatively high level of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)
Explanation:ARDS Management Guidelines for Severe Sepsis
ARDS is a common complication of severe sepsis, and its management is crucial in improving patient outcomes. The ARDSnet guidelines are an essential component of the Surviving Sepsis guidelines, with a particular focus on factors that are critical in severe sepsis.
One of the primary recommendations is to base the target tidal volume on ideal body weight rather than actual body weight. This is because fat does not have alveoli, and a target tidal volume of 6 ml/kg ideal body weight should be set while maintaining plateau pressures of less than 30 cmH2O. Additionally, a high-PEEP strategy is recommended to reduce atelectotrauma, and turning the patient prone and recruitment manoeuvres are recommended for worsening hypoxaemia.
Pulmonary artery catheters should not be used routinely, and a conservative fluid strategy should be used where possible. Non-invasive ventilation (NIV) should not be routinely used and only considered in a minority of cases. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage ARDS in patients with severe sepsis and improve their chances of recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 16
Incorrect
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An 83-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance following a visit from his General Practitioner. The GP noted that he was experiencing severe shortness of breath and coughing up rust-coloured sputum. He is a smoker, consuming ten cigarettes per day. Upon examination, he displays crackles and bronchial breathing on the right side, indicative of pneumonia. At the hospital, his respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute, and he requires 3 litres of oxygen via nasal cannulae to achieve oxygen saturations of 96%. A chest X-ray confirms right basal consolidation, and he is started on antibiotics for community-acquired pneumonia (CAP). He responds well to treatment and is ready for discharge after five days. What feature of CAP necessitates a repeat chest X-ray at six weeks?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Age > 50 years
Explanation:When to Arrange a Chest X-Ray for Patients with Pneumonia: BTS Guidelines
The British Thoracic Society (BTS) guidelines recommend arranging a chest X-ray after about six weeks for patients with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) who have persistent symptoms or physical signs or who are at higher risk of underlying malignancy, especially smokers and those aged over 50 years. This recommendation applies to all patients treated for pneumonia, whether or not they are admitted to hospital. The need for repeat imaging should not be based on the CURB-65 score, which is used to stratify a patient’s risk associated with CAP. The need for oxygen therapy during admission or a previous history of pneumonia does not indicate a need for repeat imaging, although persistent symptoms or signs following initial treatment should prompt repeat imaging.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with vomiting and inability to tolerate any food. He confesses to taking an overdose of 60 × 500 mg paracetamol tablets two days ago due to personal issues. On examination, he is tender in the right upper quadrant of his abdomen and his blood pressure is 95/60 mmHg with a pulse of 90/min. The following investigations were obtained:
Haemoglobin (Hb) 130 g/l (135 - 175 g/l)
White cell count (WCC) 12.5 × 109/l (4.0 - 11.0 × 109/l)
Platelet (PLT) 180 × 109/l (150 - 400 × 109/l)
Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l (135 - 145 mmol/l)
Potassium (K+) 5.5 mmol/l (3.5 - 5.0 mmol/l)
Bicarbonate (HCO3-) 20 mmol/l (22 - 29 mmol/l)
Creatinine (Cr) 150 µmol/l (50 - 120 µmol/l)
International normalised ratio (INR) 3.8 (< 1.1)
Alanine transaminase (ALT) 4200 u/l (7 - 55 u/l)
Which of the above findings is the most crucial factor in determining the need for referral to a specialist unit?Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Interpreting Laboratory Results in Paracetamol Overdose
Paracetamol overdose can cause significant liver damage and requires prompt medical attention. When interpreting laboratory results in paracetamol overdose, several indicators can help determine the severity of the condition and the need for specialist referral or liver transplant.
Elevated INR, with a value of >2.0 at or before 48 hours or >3.5 at or before 72 hours, is a strong indicator of impaired hepatic synthetic function and warrants referral to a specialist liver unit. INR >6.5 is an indication for referral for liver transplant.
Creatinine levels >200 are considered a criterion for specialist referral, with levels >300 indicating the need for liver transplant. ALT elevation is indicative of hepatocellular necrosis, but impaired hepatic synthetic function is more predictive of poor outcomes in paracetamol overdose.
Bicarbonate levels are not specifically called out as an indicator for specialist referral, but arterial pH <7.3 or lactate >3.0 mmol/l after adequate fluid resuscitation are reasons to refer. Potassium levels towards the upper end of the normal range, such as K+ 5.3 mmol/l, are likely to correct with adequate fluid resuscitation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents to the outpatient cardiology clinic with complaints of palpitations and fatigue during normal household activities. He has a medical history of heart failure (with an ejection fraction of 41%) and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The patient is currently taking bisoprolol 10mg once daily, ramipril 10mg once daily, and using a tiotropium bromide inhaler.
During the examination, the patient's heart rate is 88 beats per minute, blood pressure is 145/82 mmHg, respiratory rate is 18/minute, and oxygen saturations are 96% on room air (95% on exertion). The pulse is regular.
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add spironolactone
Explanation:Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl is admitted to the Acute Medical Unit with a 4-day history of vomiting and persistent diarrhoea accompanied by cramping abdominal pain. She has noticed fresh blood in her stool and is having difficulty maintaining her oral intake. She reports a weight loss of 1-2kg. She has no previous medical history.
Upon examination, she has a temperature of 38.5ºC and a heart rate of 122 bpm with a blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg. Her chest sounds are clear and heart sounds are normal. She has reduced skin turgor and dry mucous membranes. She is generally tender over her entire abdomen, but there is no guarding or palpable masses.
Investigations:
Hb 115 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 102 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 15.2 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 147 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 5.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 12.8 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 183 µmol/L (55 - 120)
CRP 155 mg/L (< 5)
Blood film: schistocytes.
What is the most appropriate next investigation given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stool microscopy and culture
Explanation:In patients suspected of having haemolytic uraemic syndrome, it is recommended to send a stool culture to detect Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli. This is especially important if the patient presents with bloody diarrhoea, acute kidney injury, thrombocytopenia, and microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, which are all indicative of haemolytic uraemic syndrome. While urinalysis may be useful in detecting haematuria or proteinuria, it is not the next best investigation to send. Faecal calprotectin is only necessary for diagnosing inflammatory bowel disease, which does not explain the patient’s AKI, haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. Although a blood culture is necessary for detecting fever, a stool culture is more appropriate in this case. Stool antigen testing for Clostridium difficile is less appropriate as it is an unlikely diagnosis.
Understanding Haemolytic Uraemic Syndrome
Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS) is a condition that primarily affects young children and is characterized by a triad of symptoms, including acute kidney injury, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, and thrombocytopenia. The most common cause of HUS in children is Shiga toxin-producing Escherichia coli (STEC) 0157:H7, which accounts for over 90% of cases. Other causes of HUS include pneumococcal infection, HIV, systemic lupus erythematosus, drugs, and cancer.
To diagnose HUS, doctors may perform a full blood count, check for evidence of STEC infection in stool culture, and conduct PCR for Shiga toxins. Treatment for HUS is supportive and may include fluids, blood transfusion, and dialysis if required. Antibiotics are not recommended, despite the preceding diarrhoeal illness in many patients. The indications for plasma exchange in HUS are complicated, and as a general rule, plasma exchange is reserved for severe cases of HUS not associated with diarrhoea. Eculizumab, a C5 inhibitor monoclonal antibody, has shown greater efficiency than plasma exchange alone in the treatment of adult atypical HUS.
In summary, HUS is a serious condition that primarily affects young children and is characterized by a triad of symptoms. The most common cause of HUS in children is STEC 0157:H7, and diagnosis may involve various tests. Treatment is supportive, and antibiotics are not recommended. The indications for plasma exchange are complicated, and eculizumab may be more effective in treating adult atypical HUS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old woman presents with sudden swelling of her lips, hands, and legs. She is concerned as she experienced similar symptoms last year and was hospitalized. Her father and uncle have also had similar episodes of facial swelling. On examination, there is significant swelling of the lower lip and a generally puffy face. The chest is clear, and she is not experiencing any breathing difficulties.
What is the recommended treatment for this patient's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: C1 esterase inhibitor replacement protein (C1INHRP)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Hereditary Angioedema
Hereditary angioedema (HAE) is a genetic disorder that causes recurrent episodes of swelling in various parts of the body. The most effective treatment for acute attacks is the administration of C1 esterase inhibitor replacement protein (C1INHRP), which is obtained from pooled human plasma. This medication can be given intravenously (IV) and is considered the first-line therapy for HAE. Fresh frozen plasma is typically used for prophylaxis.
Hydrocortisone and adrenaline are not very effective in treating HAE, and danazol and aminocaproic acid are better suited for preventing the disease rather than treating acute attacks. These medications are not recommended during pregnancy.
If a patient with HAE does not have symptoms of acute obstruction, intubation is not necessary. However, close monitoring and admission to the hospital may be required. It is important for patients with HAE to work closely with their healthcare providers to develop a treatment plan that is tailored to their individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old gentleman with a history of polycystic kidneys and undergoing haemodialysis for the last six months presented to the renal patient clinic with complaints of increasing shortness of breath on exertion and reduced appetite. His GP had previously conducted investigations and prescribed ferrous sulphate, but the patient did not feel much better. On examination, he appeared pale with a blood pressure of 132/78 mmHg, heart rate of 82 bpm, and respiratory rate of 18/min. Two ballotable masses were noted in the renal angle. Further investigations revealed elevated levels of urea and creatinine. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commence intravenous iron therapy
Explanation:Anaemia is a common complication of chronic kidney disease in this patient. The causes of anaemia include erythropoietin deficiency, iron deficiency anaemia, chronic inflammation, malignancy, and other usual causes that need to be considered. Despite receiving oral iron therapy, the patient’s iron stores remain depleted, as evidenced by a ferritin level of less than 100 and a transferrin saturation of less than 20. Therefore, before starting erythropoietin therapy, it is necessary to replenish the patient’s iron stores. The most appropriate treatment option is intravenous iron therapy, and there is no need for a packed red cell transfusion in this case.
Anaemia in Chronic Kidney Disease
Patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) may develop anaemia due to various factors, with reduced erythropoietin levels being the most significant. This type of anaemia is usually normochromic normocytic and becomes apparent when the GFR is less than 35 ml/min. Other causes of anaemia should be considered if the GFR is greater than 60 ml/min. Anaemia in CKD can lead to the development of left ventricular hypertrophy, which is associated with a three-fold increase in mortality in renal patients.
There are several causes of anaemia in renal failure, including reduced erythropoietin levels, reduced erythropoiesis due to toxic effects of uraemia on bone marrow, reduced absorption of iron, anorexia/nausea due to uraemia, reduced red cell survival (especially in haemodialysis), blood loss due to capillary fragility and poor platelet function, and stress ulceration leading to chronic blood loss.
To manage anaemia in CKD, the 2011 NICE guidelines suggest a target haemoglobin of 10-12 g/dl. Determination and optimisation of iron status should be carried out before the administration of erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESA). Oral iron should be offered for patients who are not on ESAs or haemodialysis. If target Hb levels are not reached within three months, patients should be switched to IV iron. Patients on ESAs or haemodialysis generally require IV iron. ESAs such as erythropoietin and darbepoetin should be used in those who are likely to benefit in terms of quality of life and physical function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 22
Incorrect
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As the medical registrar on-call, you receive a fast-bleep to attend to a patient in the resuscitation room of the Emergency Department. A 28-year-old woman has been admitted with severe breathing difficulties and hypoxia, and has become increasingly drowsy during her time in the department. The emergency physicians have performed arterial blood gases, which show:
pH 7.142
pCO2 12.5 kPa
pO2 9.19 kPa
HCO3 25.3 mmol/l
Due to the rapidity of her decline, the emergency physicians were only able to obtain a brief history before intubation was required. The patient reported a productive cough over the last few days and mentioned that she was taking tablets for a neurological condition.
Upon examination, you notice that the patient is intubated and maintained on sedation with propofol. She has a well-healed midline sternotomy scar, and coarse crackles are audible in the left mid and lower zones of her chest.
The patient is transferred to the Intensive Care Unit for continued mechanical ventilation and is started on empirical broad-spectrum antibiotics. What additional intervention would most hasten her recovery?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Plasma exchange
Explanation:This patient is suffering from myasthenia gravis and is taking pyridostigmine tablets to alleviate symptoms. She has previously undergone a thymectomy.
The current situation is an acute myasthenic crisis, characterized by rapidly deteriorating weakness that can lead to respiratory failure. This crisis is often triggered by an infection (in this case, pneumonia) or non-adherence to medication.
The first priority is to provide ventilatory support. A decrease in oxygen saturation and PaO2 are late indicators of respiratory compromise, while an increase in PaCO2 is a more sensitive marker. Forced vital capacity should be measured, and if it falls below 1.5L, ventilatory support should be considered.
When considering antibiotic treatment, gentamicin should be avoided as it may interfere with neuromuscular transmission. Additionally, the anesthesiologist should be informed that the patient is highly sensitive to small doses of non-depolarizing muscle relaxants such as atracurium and vecuronium, which are commonly used for rapid sequence induction in emergency situations.
Plasmapheresis and intravenous immunoglobulin are used to provide rapid disease-modifying effects in myasthenic crisis. In plasma exchange, circulating anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies are removed, which relieves neuromuscular blockade and improves weakness. However, there are potential side effects, such as worsening sepsis due to the removal of protective antibodies and coagulopathy due to the removal of clotting factors and destruction of platelets.
Botulinum anti-toxin is a specific treatment for botulism.
Edrophonium (Tensilon) is a short-acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used in the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis.
3,4-diaminopyridine is a specific treatment for Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome.
Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that results in muscle weakness and fatigue, particularly in the eyes, face, neck, and limbs. It is more common in women and is associated with thymomas and other autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through electromyography and testing for antibodies to acetylcholine receptors. Treatment includes acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and immunosuppression, and in severe cases, plasmapheresis or intravenous immunoglobulins may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl arrived at the Emergency department with breathing difficulties. She had a history of asthma and had visited her general practitioner the day before with a sore throat. The doctor diagnosed her with tonsillitis and prescribed a 5-day course of oral amoxicillin. The patient also had ulcerative colitis and was taking inhaled salbutamol, beclomethasone, and mesalazine 400 mg tds regularly.
During the examination, the patient appeared distressed with laboured breathing and inspiratory wheeze. She was pale, sweaty, and cyanosed, with a temperature of 36.5°C, pulse of 120/minute, and blood pressure of 90/35 mmHg. The lungs were clear, but her breathing continued to worsen despite receiving high-flow oxygen through a face mask.
What is the most likely pathogen responsible for her condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae
Explanation:Acute Epiglottitis: Diagnosis and Management
Acute epiglottitis is a medical emergency that can cause sudden airway obstruction. The most likely diagnosis is acute epiglottitis, and it is essential to obtain the assistance of an anaesthetist urgently. Attempting to visualise the epiglottis without an anaesthetist present can cause acute airway obstruction by touching the inflamed tissue.
The diagnosis of acute epiglottitis may be confirmed on direct visualisation of a cherry-red epiglottis. Early intubation is essential, especially in cases where there is respiratory distress. Adult epiglottitis is much less common but has a higher mortality. The usual causative organism is Haemophilus influenzae type b.
In summary, acute epiglottitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. It is crucial to obtain the assistance of an anaesthetist urgently and avoid attempting to visualise the epiglottis until they are present. Early intubation is essential, and the usual causative organism is Haemophilus influenzae type b.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is diagnosed with a deep vein thrombosis after being hospitalized for a fracture in his left femur due to a car accident.
What is the accuracy of thrombophilia testing?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A thrombosis in an unusual vascular territory warrants thrombophilia testing
Explanation:Thrombophilia Testing: When is it Useful?
Thrombophilia testing is recommended for patients who have experienced their first venous thromboembolism (VTE) at a young age, typically under 45 years old. It is also useful for those who have had an idiopathic venous thrombosis or have a family history of thrombosis, especially in a first-degree relative. Additionally, thrombophilia testing is recommended for patients who have experienced VTE in an unusual vascular territory, neonatal purpura fulminans, or warfarin-induced skin necrosis.
The most common heritable thrombophilia is Factor V Leiden, which is present in about 5% of the general Caucasian population in a heterozygote state. Thrombophilia testing can help identify individuals who may be at a higher risk for developing VTE and may benefit from preventative measures. Proper diagnosis and management of thrombophilia can help prevent future VTE events and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents with abdominal distension, tenderness in the right upper quadrant, and pallor that has been going on for three days. Her blood count reveals a hemoglobin level of 71 g/L (normal range: 115-165), a white blood cell count of 2.5 ×109/L (normal range: 4-11), and a platelet count of 80 ×109/L (normal range: 150-400). Imaging studies confirm Budd-Chiari syndrome with complete thrombosis of the hepatic vein, and flow cytometry confirms paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria. What is the most appropriate treatment at this stage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aggressive thrombolysis, low molecular weight heparin and long-term warfarinisation
Explanation:Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria (PNH)
Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH) is a stem cell disorder that results in a deficiency of GPI-anchored proteins, leading to intravascular haemolysis, cytopenias, and thrombosis. The condition requires aggressive management, with venous thrombosis being the primary concern. The first option for treatment should be focused on managing the thrombosis.
While red cell concentrate support, danazol, and stem cell transplantation are all treatment options, they have no role in the acute management of PNH. Eculizimab, a monoclonal antibody, has been shown to decrease blood product support requirements and improve quality of life in PNH patients. However, it requires meningococcal vaccination before commencement and is not useful in the acute phase of the condition.
In summary, PNH is a stem cell disorder that requires prompt management to address the risk of thrombosis. While there are various treatment options available, the focus should be on managing the acute symptoms of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presented to the outpatient clinic with a complaint of cough and shortness of breath that had been going on for four weeks. She reported producing 500 ml of frothy mucoid sputum per day due to the severity of her cough. Although she had noticed a decrease in appetite, she had not experienced any weight loss. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchoalveolar cell carcinoma
Explanation:Bronchoalveolar Cell Carcinoma: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis
Bronchoalveolar cell carcinoma is a rare type of bronchial carcinoma that can cause progressive breathlessness and excessive production of sputum, known as bronchorrhoea. This type of cancer spreads through the alveolar walls and can fill the alveoli with mucin. It accounts for only 1% of all bronchial carcinomas.
When a patient presents with these symptoms, it is important to consider other potential diagnoses, such as heart failure, persistent pneumonia, alveolar proteinosis, and cryptogenic organizing pneumonia. However, pulmonary Langerhan’s cell histiocytosis X and lymphangitis carcinomatosis may also cause progressive breathlessness and cough, but they do not typically present with bronchorrhoea.
In summary, bronchoalveolar cell carcinoma should be considered in patients with progressive breathlessness and excessive sputum production. However, it is important to rule out other potential diagnoses before making a definitive diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman who has been living with diabetes for a long time comes to the clinic complaining of a painful and stiff left shoulder that has been bothering her for three weeks. The pain is dull and aching, and it persists even when she is at rest. She denies any history of trauma, fever, or night pain.
Upon examination, the patient's shoulder movements are significantly limited. There are no signs of shoulder effusion, and her cervical spine movements are normal. Recent blood tests, including FBC, UEC, LFT, and bone profile, all came back normal.
What is the most probable cause of this patient's shoulder symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adhesive capsulitis
Explanation:Shoulder Conditions
Adhesive capsulitis, also known as frozen shoulder, is a common condition among diabetics. It is characterized by a sudden onset of dull pain and limited shoulder movements. The pain is often present even at rest, and external rotation is the most severely affected movement.
On the other hand, subacromial bursitis presents with shoulder pain when attempting to reach above the head. Pain is felt in the mid arc of shoulder abduction during examination, and active shoulder abduction is limited by pain. However, there is full range of shoulder abduction passively.
Rotator cuff tears have symptoms similar to subacromial impingement, but there may be weakness in specific shoulder movements in full thickness rotator cuff tears. Meanwhile, osteoarthritis at glenohumeral and acromioclavicular joints usually presents with gradually worsening, generalised shoulder, or shoulder tip pain, especially in older people or those with physically demanding jobs.
the differences between these shoulder conditions is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presented with a 6-day history of progressive weakness. Initially, he developed a foot drop on the left and some weakness of hand grip on the right, but over the next few days this progressed to weakness of all four limbs. He had just returned from a two-week holiday to Italy where he had spent the first few days in bed with a cough and feeling generally unwell.
On examination, there was weakness, decreased tone and areflexia in all four limbs. Plantar responses were downgoing. Cranial nerves, coordination and sensation were normal.
What is the most useful investigation to make a diagnosis in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lumbar puncture
Explanation:Diagnosis and Investigation of Guillain-Barré Syndrome
Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) is a condition characterized by rapidly progressive lower motor neurone pattern of weakness and a history of prodromal illness. Lumbar puncture is an important diagnostic tool to exclude other potential causes of similar presentations, such as infection or malignancy. A raised protein count and normal white cell count in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) are characteristic findings in GBS. In some cases, anti-ganglioside antibodies are found. Treatment involves intravenous immunoglobulins and supportive interventions, including monitoring of respiratory function, prophylactic anticoagulation, and monitoring for cardiac arrhythmias. Early and regular measurement of forced vital capacity (FVC) is crucial.
Atypical pneumonia serology, serum immunoglobulins, CT of the whole spine, and serum creatinine kinase are not specific to GBS and would not help confirm the diagnosis. CT of the spine is useful to identify bony abnormalities, while serum creatinine kinase is useful in the diagnosis of inflammatory myopathies. However, in GBS, the examination findings are in keeping with a lower motor neurone distribution. Therefore, lumbar puncture remains the most important investigation in the diagnosis of GBS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man, who spent 4 months on a construction project in India, comes to the clinic for follow-up. He experienced a severe bout of diarrhea with blood during his time in the country and now reports intermittent sweats and pain in his lower right chest. Upon examination, he has hepatic tenderness and a temperature of 37.8 °C. Further investigations reveal abnormal results, including a low hemoglobin level and elevated liver enzymes. A CT scan shows a single abscess in the right liver lobe measuring 6 cm in diameter. You consult with an interventional radiologist for their opinion. What is the most appropriate initial medical treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metronidazole
Explanation:Treatment Options for Amoebic Liver Abscess
Amoebic liver abscess is a condition caused by Entamoeba histolytica, which travels to the liver via the portal circulation. Diagnosis can be made based on imaging and positive serology. Unlike bacterial abscess management, this condition does not require drainage. Metronidazole is the treatment of choice for liver trophozoites, followed by a luminal amoebicide such as paromomycin. Chloroquine can be used second line to treat amoebic liver abscess, but there is a better option. Doxycycline would not be appropriate treatment for this condition. Cefotaxime can be used to cover for both pyogenic infection and amoeba until the diagnosis is serologically confirmed. Quinine is not a treatment for amoebic infection. It is important to consider the appropriate treatment options for amoebic liver abscess to ensure effective management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A local GP requests your evaluation of a 40-year-old female patient who has been experiencing symptoms of oesophageal reflux disease that have only partially responded to proton-pump inhibitors. Lately, she has been complaining about the cold weather and may have Raynaud's phenomenon. During routine blood testing, her creatinine levels were found to be elevated at 180 µmol/l, and she has hypertension with a blood pressure reading of 170/85 mmHg. What is the most effective treatment to prevent further renal impairment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Treatment Options for Renal Disease Associated with Systemic Sclerosis
Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects interlobular renal arteries, causing intimal thickening and fibrinoid changes in afferent glomerular arterioles. ACE inhibitors are the preferred treatment for renal disease associated with systemic sclerosis, as they have positive effects on proteinuria and can even reverse the decline in renal function in some cases. Prostacyclin infusion may also be beneficial in cases where renal function is rapidly deteriorating. Thiazide diuretics like bendrofluazide are not recommended for hypertension treatment in patients with an eGFR of less than 30 ml/min/1.73 m2 and have no reno-protective benefits. Calcium channel blockers like amlodipine may be useful in treating Raynaud’s and systemic sclerosis with lung involvement. Steroids like prednisolone and IV methylprednisolone should be used sparingly in patients with scleroderma, as they may trigger renal crisis and are not effective in ameliorating further renal impairment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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