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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old male complains of stiffness and joint pains in his hands and...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male complains of stiffness and joint pains in his hands and feet for the past month, which is worse in the morning. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any medication. Upon examination, there is some mild swelling in the proximal interphalangeal joints of both hands, metacarpo-phalangeal joints, and wrist. No other abnormalities are detected. What would be the most suitable investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid factor

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid Factor and Diagnostic Markers for Rheumatoid Arthritis

      The clinical scenario presented is a common manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis, with a positive rheumatoid factor found in approximately 70% of cases. This factor is an IgM antibody directed against IgG, and while false positives can occur, its presence is highly supportive of the diagnosis and carries prognostic significance. In addition to rheumatoid factor, non-specific markers of inflammation such as erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C reactive protein (CRP) are expected to be elevated in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. These diagnostic markers can aid in the diagnosis and management of the disease. Proper interpretation and utilization of these markers can lead to earlier diagnosis and better outcomes for patients with rheumatoid arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 2 - A previously healthy 8-year-old girl comes to the GP with a recent onset...

    Incorrect

    • A previously healthy 8-year-old girl comes to the GP with a recent onset limp. She experiences tenderness in her right leg during all hip movements. Blood tests reveal no abnormalities. An MRI scan shows an irregular femoral head. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Caisson disease

      Correct Answer: Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

      Explanation:

      Idiopathic Osteonecrosis of the Femoral Head in Children

      Idiopathic osteonecrosis of the femoral head, also known as Perthes disease, is a condition that primarily affects boys between the ages of 5 and 11. It is characterized by pain in the hip during movement and difficulty bearing weight. Unlike septic arthritis, the child is not systemically unwell. The cause of Perthes disease is unknown, although trauma may sometimes be a contributing factor.

      Examination findings can help localize the pathology to the hip, and irregularities in the femoral head may be visible on x-ray. However, MRI is the preferred imaging modality. Treatment options depend on the extent of the affected area. If less than 50% of the head is affected, bed rest and analgesia may be sufficient. If more than 50% is affected, surgery may be necessary.

      Other conditions that can cause a limping child include caisson disease, septic arthritis, sickle cell disease, and slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE). However, each of these conditions has distinct characteristics that can help differentiate them from Perthes disease. For example, caisson disease is associated with nitrogen decompression sickness after diving, while SUFE tends to occur in teenagers and involves a fracture through the growth plate with a displaced femoral head.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      25
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  • Question 3 - A 70-year-old male complains of increasing pain and swelling in his left knee...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male complains of increasing pain and swelling in his left knee over the past three days. He has a medical history of hypertension and takes bendroflumethiazide and lisinopril. Upon examination, his left knee is swollen, red, and tender, and he experiences limited mobility due to the pain. What is the most suitable test to perform for this patient?

      Your Answer: Serum urate concentration

      Correct Answer: Joint aspiration

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Monoarthropathy

      Monoarthropathy can have various causes, and one of the possibilities is septic arthritis. To rule out this condition, joint aspiration is necessary, and the sample should be sent for microscopy and culture to detect the presence of crystals and organisms. Polymorphs and organisms are expected in septic arthritis, while negatively birefringent crystals are typical for gout, and positively birefringent crystals are seen in pseudogout. FBC and ESR are not useful for diagnosis, and although an x-ray may show osteoarthritis changes, it is not the primary investigation.

      Bendroflumethiazide can increase urate levels and trigger acute gout, but urate concentrations may remain normal during an acute gout attack. Therefore, it is essential to consider all possible causes of monoarthropathy and perform the appropriate tests to make an accurate diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 4 - A 6-year-old boy presents to the clinic after experiencing his seventh fracture. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy presents to the clinic after experiencing his seventh fracture. Upon examination, his x-rays reveal dense bones with multiple cortical layers. He also has a mild normocytic anemia and low platelets, but his sclera appear white. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteogenesis imperfecta

      Correct Answer: Osteopetrosis

      Explanation:

      Osteopetrosis and its Distinction from Other Bone Disorders

      Osteopetrosis is a congenital condition that affects bone reabsorption, leading to the appearance of a ‘bone within a bone’ from multiple cortical layers. Despite the increased density, bones become brittle and prone to fracture, and there is no room for the marrow to grow, causing bone marrow failure and peripheral cytopenias. Additionally, bones expand and frequently cause neural compression symptoms.

      When diagnosing osteopetrosis, it is important to exclude non-accidental injury (NAI) due to the repeated bone injury, but NAI alone cannot account for the x-ray findings or the blood counts. However, a diagnosis of osteopetrosis does not rule out the possibility of NAI co-existing with the condition.

      Other bone disorders, such as acute lymphocytic leukemia and aplastic anemia, may present with peripheral cytopenias but not the x-ray appearances or multiple fractures. On the other hand, osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) is a congenital condition of brittle bones susceptible to multiple fractures due to a mutation in type I collagen. The most common form, type I OI, is inherited as an autosomal dominant condition and is associated with blue sclerae and neural deafness from bone overgrowth. X-rays show reduced bone density with cortical disorganization.

      In summary, the distinct features of osteopetrosis and its differentiation from other bone disorders is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 5 - A 27-year-old male presents with lower back pain and painful feet that feel...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old male presents with lower back pain and painful feet that feel like walking on pebbles. He has been generally healthy, but he recently returned from a trip to Corfu where he had a diarrheal illness. He admits to infrequently taking ecstasy but takes no other medication. On examination, he has limited movement and pain in the sacroiliac joints and soreness in the soles of his feet upon deep palpation. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Drug-induced arthropathy

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      After a diarrhoeal illness, the patient may be at risk of developing reactive arthritis, which is a possible diagnosis for both sacroiliitis and plantar fasciitis. However, it is less likely to be related to inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) if there is only one acute episode of diarrhoea.

      Sacroiliitis is a condition that affects the sacroiliac joint, which is located at the base of the spine where it connects to the pelvis. It causes inflammation and pain in the lower back, buttocks, and legs. Plantar fasciitis, on the other hand, is a condition that affects the plantar fascia, a thick band of tissue that runs along the bottom of the foot. It causes pain and stiffness in the heel and arch of the foot.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 6 - A 14-year-old boy with juvenile idiopathic arthritis is visiting the eye clinic for...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old boy with juvenile idiopathic arthritis is visiting the eye clinic for a screening.

      What is the purpose of his visit and what complication is he being screened for?

      Your Answer: Chronic anterior uveitis

      Explanation:

      Complications of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis

      Patients with Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) are regularly screened for chronic anterior uveitis, which can lead to scarring and blindness if left untreated. However, this condition may be asymptomatic in some cases, making annual screening using a slit-lamp essential.

      One of the long-term complications of JIA is the development of flexion contractures of joints due to persistent joint inflammation. This occurs because pain is partly related to increased intra-articular pressure, which is at its lowest when joints are held at 30-50 degrees.

      While corticosteroids may be used to manage joint inflammation, they are used sparingly in children due to the risk of cataract development. Conjunctivitis is not typically associated with JIA, but reactive arthritis. Keratitis, on the other hand, tends to be an infective process caused by bacteria or viruses.

      Lastly, pterygium is an overgrowth of the conjunctiva towards the iris and is often seen in individuals exposed to windy or dusty conditions, such as surfers.

      In summary, JIA can lead to various complications, including chronic anterior uveitis, joint contractures, and cataract development. Regular screening and management are crucial to prevent long-term damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 7 - A 12-year-old boy comes to his GP complaining of a limp. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy comes to his GP complaining of a limp. He has a swollen right knee with clinical synovitis but no effusion. He is growing normally and has been generally healthy, except for experiencing diarrhoea and vomiting last week. There are no signs of joint issues in his other joints.

      What condition is most likely causing his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Juvenile idiopathic arthritis

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Reactive Arthritis in Children

      Reactive arthritis is the most common form of arthritis in children and is often associated with recent illness. In this case, the child presents with large-joint oligoarthritis following gastroenteritis. While it may also be associated with genitourinary infection, treating the infection does not alter the course of the joint disease. The child should be given analgesia and observed for arthritis elsewhere.

      Although this may be a new presentation of enteropathic arthritis or JIA, the child’s lack of chronic disease symptoms reduces the likelihood of these diagnoses. Gout is extremely rare in children, except for in rare metabolic conditions. Septic arthritis must also be considered, but the child is likely to be systemically unwell with features of infection.

      In summary, reactive arthritis is the most likely diagnosis in this case of paediatric arthritis following recent illness. It is important to monitor the child’s symptoms and consider other potential diagnoses if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 8 - A 16-year-old girl visits a rheumatologist with complaints of occasional joint pain. Despite...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl visits a rheumatologist with complaints of occasional joint pain. Despite the absence of clinical synovitis, she has a Beighton score of 9 and is in good health. What is the most suitable course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Physiotherapy

      Explanation:

      Joint Pain in Children and Hypermobility Syndrome

      Joint pain in children can have various causes, including hypermobility syndrome. This condition is characterized by increased flexibility, as opposed to hereditary connective tissue disorders. The Beighton score is a method used to assess hypermobility, which involves ten tests. A score of 9 indicates high flexibility and suggests susceptibility to hypermobility syndrome. Although there is no intrinsic joint disease or clinical synovitis, joint pain can be experienced. Physiotherapy can help strengthen the soft tissues supporting joints and reduce pain.

      In mild juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA), which may present similarly to hypermobility syndrome, ibuprofen is the first line of management. However, if joints show clinical synovitis, methotrexate may be considered for severe JIA. It is important to reassure the child and parents that the pain is not sinister, but it is not the optimal management for this condition. Genetic conditions causing hypermobility, such as Ehlers-Danlos and Marfan syndrome, may require referral for genetic counseling, but there are no other features of these syndromes present in hypermobility syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old patient presents with complaints of recurrent bloody diarrhoea and symptoms of...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old patient presents with complaints of recurrent bloody diarrhoea and symptoms of iritis. On examination, there is a painful nodular erythematous eruption on the shin and anal tags are observed. What diagnostic test would you recommend to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      Inflammatory Bowel Disease with Crohn’s Disease Suggestion

      The patient’s symptoms and physical examination suggest inflammatory bowel disease, with anal skin tags indicating a possible diagnosis of Crohn’s disease. Other symptoms consistent with this diagnosis include iritis and a skin rash that may be erythema nodosum. To confirm the diagnosis, a colonoscopy with biopsies would be the initial investigation. While serum ACE levels can aid in diagnosis, they are often elevated in conditions other than sarcoidosis.

      Overall, the patient’s symptoms and physical examination point towards inflammatory bowel disease, with Crohn’s disease as a possible subtype. Further testing is necessary to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      31.2
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  • Question 10 - A 5-year-old girl from an underprivileged family comes in with a waddling gait....

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl from an underprivileged family comes in with a waddling gait. She displays signs of a proximal myopathy and positional deformity in her lower limbs. Upon examination, x-rays reveal a widened growth plate with cupping of the metaphysis. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypocalcaemia

      Correct Answer: Vitamin D deficiency

      Explanation:

      Rickets and Other Growth-Related Disorders

      Rickets is a condition that results from a deficiency in vitamin D, which is essential for the mineralization of osteoid. This process primarily occurs at the growth plate, or physis, and in vitamin D deficiency, the growth plate widens, and the metaphysis appears cupped and frayed. The bones become softer than usual, and the lower limbs may develop a bow-legged deformity. In addition to affecting bone health, vitamin D deficiency can also lead to hypocalcemia, which causes muscle spasms and changes in bowel habits.

      Growth hormone deficiency, on the other hand, causes growth failure and an immature doll-like facies. Hyperthyroidism tends to occur in teenage girls and presents with weight loss, heat intolerance, and diarrhea. Hypothyroidism, on the other hand, presents with failure to grow, disproportionate weight gain, tiredness, and cold intolerance.

      It is important to understand these growth-related disorders and their symptoms to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment. By recognizing the characteristic changes on x-ray in rickets, for example, healthcare professionals can identify and address vitamin D deficiency early on. Similarly, the symptoms of other disorders can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate care and support to those affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      30.4
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Rheumatology (4/10) 40%
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