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  • Question 1 - A 26-year-old woman with cystic fibrosis (CF) presents to the endocrinology clinic with...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman with cystic fibrosis (CF) presents to the endocrinology clinic with weight loss and frequent nocturnal urination. She has experienced two exacerbations of her CF in the past year and a decline in lung function. On examination, she has a blood pressure of 122/82 mmHg, a pulse of 82 beats per minute, and a BMI of 19 kg/m². Crackles and wheezing are heard on chest auscultation. Her fasting blood glucose is 8.1 mmol/l, and her HbA1c is 60 mmol/mol. What is the most appropriate management strategy for her diabetes mellitus?

      Your Answer: Start basal bolus insulin and continue high calorie diet

      Explanation:

      Patients who have both cystic fibrosis and diabetes need to consume a high calorie diet and administer additional insulin to regulate their blood sugar levels. This is crucial as the development of diabetes in such patients is linked to weight loss and more frequent respiratory exacerbations. Unlike other conditions, managing diabetes in cystic fibrosis requires a different approach. While gliclazide can be useful in the early stages of diabetes associated with cystic fibrosis, it may not be sufficient to maintain a high calorie diet. Therefore, insulin is the preferred option. Metformin is not effective in managing insulin resistance in CF-related diabetes, and DPPIV inhibitors are less effective than sulphonylureas in lowering blood glucose levels in this situation.

      Managing Cystic Fibrosis: A Multidisciplinary Approach

      Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a chronic condition that requires a multidisciplinary approach to management. Regular chest physiotherapy and postural drainage, as well as deep breathing exercises, are essential to maintain lung function and prevent complications. Parents are usually taught how to perform these techniques. A high-calorie diet, including high-fat intake, is recommended to meet the increased energy needs of patients with CF. Vitamin supplementation and pancreatic enzyme supplements taken with meals are also important.

      Patients with CF should try to minimize contact with each other to prevent cross-infection with Burkholderia cepacia complex and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Chronic infection with Burkholderia cepacia is an important CF-specific contraindication to lung transplantation. In cases where lung transplantation is necessary, careful consideration is required to ensure the best possible outcome.

      Lumacaftor/Ivacaftor (Orkambi) is a medication used to treat CF patients who are homozygous for the delta F508 mutation. Lumacaftor increases the number of CFTR proteins that are transported to the cell surface, while ivacaftor is a potentiator of CFTR that is already at the cell surface. This combination increases the probability that the defective channel will be open and allow chloride ions to pass through the channel pore.

      In summary, managing cystic fibrosis requires a comprehensive approach that involves a range of healthcare professionals. Regular chest physiotherapy, a high-calorie diet, and vitamin and enzyme supplementation are essential components of CF management. Patients with CF should also take steps to minimize contact with others with the condition to prevent cross-infection. Finally, the use of medications such as Lumacaftor/Ivacaftor can help improve outcomes for patients with CF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old woman presents with a history of exertional breathlessness and cough for...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with a history of exertional breathlessness and cough for the past seven months. She has also experienced a reduced appetite and has lost weight. She has no significant medical history. The patient worked as a hairdresser, kept a cat at home, and lived alone. She smoked 20 cigarettes a day. On examination, the patient was found to be clubbed and cyanosed, with a pale appearance. Her pulse rate was 80 beats per minute, and her blood pressure was 138/80 mmHg. Heart sounds were normal, but bilateral fine inspiratory crackles were heard at the lung bases. Investigations revealed an FEV1 of 2.8 L (3.6 predicted), FVC of 3.1 L (4.5 predicted), and diffusion capacity of 5.1 mmol/min/kPa (NR 6.3-11.9). The chest x-ray showed a slight increase in basal lung markings. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fibrosing alveolitis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Interstitial Lung Disease

      The patient’s history and examination findings suggest the presence of interstitial lung disease (ILD). Pulmonary function tests reveal a restrictive defect with a reduction in both FEV1 and FVC, along with a low diffusion capacity, which is consistent with ILD. The most likely diagnosis is CFA or usual interstitial pneumonia. It is important to note that bronchiectasis typically results in a productive cough and an obstructive pattern on lung function, while sarcoidosis usually affects the mid zones or is distributed more uniformly throughout the lungs. The history and CXR findings do not suggest LVF, and lymphangitis carcinomatosis typically produces hilar enlargement with diffuse streaky mid zone infiltrates.

      The diagnosis of ILD can be confirmed through high-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) in most cases, although a lung biopsy may be required. It is crucial to accurately diagnose and manage ILD as it can lead to significant morbidity and mortality. Therefore, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s history, physical examination, and pulmonary function tests is necessary to determine the appropriate course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old construction worker presents to the Pulmonary Clinic for evaluation. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old construction worker presents to the Pulmonary Clinic for evaluation. He has been previously diagnosed with asthma by his primary care physician and is currently being treated with high-dose fluticasone/salmeterol and salbutamol, but his symptoms have not improved. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 120/70 mmHg, with a regular pulse of 75/min. Coarse crackles and scattered wheezing are heard during chest auscultation. Respiratory function tests reveal an obstructive pattern. A thoracic HRCT scan shows centrally dilated thickened airways with signet rings. Which test would be the most helpful in confirming the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: ANCA

      Correct Answer: IgE

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis

      Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) is characterized by proximal bronchiectasis. The preferred investigation for ABPA is total IgE, which is typically elevated during a flare-up. ANCA is more likely to be elevated in vasculitis, which presents with additional features such as skin lesions and mononeuritis. IgG can be low in bronchiectasis secondary to hypogammaglobulinaemia, but this typically presents at an earlier age due to recurrent respiratory tract infections. ANA is raised in connective tissue disease such as SLE, but there are no other features to suggest this as the underlying diagnosis. Complement factors C3 and C4 are consumed most when there is active tissue inflammation, such as with SLE, but the absence of other features counts against their usefulness in diagnosing ABPA. Therefore, total IgE is the most useful investigation for ABPA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 4 - A 70-year-old man with a history of chronic kidney disease, hypertension, and type...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of chronic kidney disease, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of cough and shortness of breath with minimal exertion. Upon examination, he displays bilateral inspiratory crepitations and pitting edema up to his sacrum. A chest X-ray reveals a moderate effusion on the right side and a smaller one on the left.

      What is the most appropriate single course of action?

      Your Answer: IV furosemide

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with signs and symptoms of fluid overload, such as bilateral pleural effusions, and the clinical picture suggests a transudate, initial management should be to treat the underlying cause with IV diuretics like furosemide. Fluid restriction to 1-1.5L daily may also be recommended as part of medical management. Oral spironolactone may be used as a diuretic, but IV diuresis may be more effective in patients with significant fluid overload and gut edema. Referral for dialysis may be necessary for patients with end-stage renal disease, but many patients with chronic kidney disease can be safely treated with diuretics. Therapeutic aspiration of a larger effusion may relieve symptoms, but it is unlikely to resolve the contralateral effusion or improve peripheral edema. If there are atypical features or the patient does not respond to initial treatment, referral for therapeutic aspiration may be considered.

      Pleural effusion is a condition where fluid accumulates in the pleural space, the area between the lungs and the chest wall. To investigate this condition, the British Thoracic Society (BTS) recommends performing a posterioranterior (PA) chest x-ray and an ultrasound to increase the likelihood of successful pleural aspiration and detect pleural fluid septations. Contrast CT is also increasingly used to investigate the underlying cause, particularly for exudative effusions. Pleural aspiration should be performed using a 21G needle and 50ml syringe, and the fluid should be sent for pH, protein, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), cytology, and microbiology. Light’s criteria can be used to distinguish between a transudate and an exudate, and other characteristic pleural fluid findings can help identify the underlying cause.

      In cases of pleural infection, diagnostic pleural fluid sampling is required for all patients with a pleural effusion in association with sepsis or a pneumonic illness. If the fluid is purulent or turbid/cloudy, a chest tube should be placed to allow drainage. If the fluid is clear but the pH is less than 7.2 in patients with suspected pleural infection, a chest tube should also be placed.

      For patients with recurrent pleural effusions, options for management include recurrent aspiration, pleurodesis, indwelling pleural catheter, and drug management to alleviate symptoms such as dyspnea. It is important to follow the BTS guidelines for investigation and management of pleural effusion to ensure appropriate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 5 - A 68-year-old retired stone mason with a history of silicosis and mild COPD...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old retired stone mason with a history of silicosis and mild COPD presents to the Emergency department with symptoms of increasing shortness of breath, productive cough, and wheeze. Upon examination, his respiratory rate is 32, oxygen saturations are 63% on air, pulse is 126 bpm, and BP is 135/57 mmHg. A blood gas is performed on 28% oxygen, revealing a pH of 7.21 (normal range: 7.36 - 7.44), PO2 of 7.5 kPa (normal range: 11.3 - 12.6), Pco2 of 8.0 kPa (normal range: 4.7 - 6.0), bicarbonate of 10 mmol/L (normal range: 20 - 28), and a base excess of -3. What is the interpretation of these blood gases?

      Your Answer: Mixed metabolic and respiratory acidosis

      Explanation:

      Importance of Interpreting Blood Gases in Acutely Unwell Patients

      Interpreting blood gases is crucial in managing acutely unwell patients. In this case, the patient is clearly acidotic, with an elevated PCO2 indicating a respiratory cause for the acidosis. Additionally, the reduced bicarbonate is contributing to the acidosis. It is important to note that the patient has not had time to compensate for the hypercapnia, suggesting that this is likely an acute event.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 6 - A 67-year old male with metastatic small cell lung cancer presents with an...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year old male with metastatic small cell lung cancer presents with an acutely swollen leg. An ultrasound scan reveals a femoral vein deep vein thrombosis. Later in the day, he experiences pleuritic chest pain and SOB but neglects to inform the nursing staff. As his condition worsens, he becomes tachypnoeic and his oxygen saturation level drops to 88% on air. On auscultation, he has a wheeze bilaterally and reduced air on the left with hyper-resonant percussion note. An urgent CT thorax is requested, which shows a large 5 cm pneumothorax, bilateral segmental PE's, left-sided 4x3x2 cm lung cancer (unchanged from last scan one month ago), and bibasal atelectasis. The patient stabilizes after a chest drain is inserted. What is the most likely cause of the pneumothorax?

      Your Answer: Pneumothorax secondary to malignancy

      Correct Answer: Pneumothorax secondary to pulmonary embolism (PE)

      Explanation:

      PE Causing Pneumothorax: A Rare but Serious Complication

      PE causing pneumothorax is a rare but serious complication that can occur in patients with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). In this case, the patient presented with a DVT likely due to secondary embolism from a PE. Although the patient described reflux symptoms, they were more likely to be consistent with the PE causing the pneumothorax at the time. The patient’s observations deteriorated, which also fit with PE causing the pneumothorax.

      It is important to treat the underlying pneumothorax if severe while still treating the PE with anticoagulation. Using unfractionated heparin may be favourable in cases where there is an increased risk of bleeding from the drain site. It is crucial to be aware of this rare complication and manage it appropriately to prevent further complications. Further reading on the management of spontaneous pneumothorax and secondary spontaneous pneumothorax can provide more information on how to manage this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      174.4
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  • Question 7 - A 63-year-old man with metastatic small cell lung cancer is admitted with shortness...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man with metastatic small cell lung cancer is admitted with shortness of breath, cough, and purulent sputum. His chest x-ray reveals a right lower lobe pneumonia with partial collapse of the right lung. The right hilum has a bulky primary tumor and extensive hilar lymphadenopathy. He receives IV antibiotics, fluids, and oxygen, and his symptoms improve over the next five days. He is comfortable on 2 liters of oxygen via nasal cannulae and his pain is controlled on 20mg long-acting morphine sulfate twice daily. The decision is made to discharge him to a hospice for end-of-life care. However, due to the proximity of his lung tumor to major vessels, he is at risk of a major terminal bleed. What medication should the hospice be advised to administer in the event of a major bleed?

      Your Answer: Midazolam

      Explanation:

      It is possible that the patient may suffer from a fatal catastrophic bleed caused by the erosion of their lung tumor through a major blood vessel. To prepare for such an event, patients who are at risk should be provided with a crisis pack that includes midazolam and green or blue towels that can help absorb blood while also masking its color. If possible, midazolam can be administered intravenously, but if not, it can be given intramuscularly. The goal is to minimize the patient’s anxiety and distress.

      While haloperidol is a useful medication for anxiety and nausea in end-of-life care, it is not as effective in this situation. Morphine is typically used to manage pain and breathing difficulties in the terminal stage.

      In cases of slow gastrointestinal bleeding caused by cancer, tranexamic acid may be administered.

      Lung cancer is divided into non-small cell carcinoma (NSCLC) and small cell carcinoma (SCLC). Approximately 75% of lung cancer cases are diagnosed at stage III/IV, which affects management options. NSCLC can be treated with surgical resection, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, or combination therapy depending on the stage. SCLC is rarely treated with surgery and is typically treated with chemotherapy and radiotherapy. Palliative care is recommended for patients who cannot receive curative treatment. Complications include local and metastatic spread. SCLC has a worse prognosis than NSCLC, with a 5-year survival rate of around 10%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 8 - A 35 year old man returns from a camping trip in the Amazon...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old man returns from a camping trip in the Amazon rainforest with weight loss, fever, dry cough, and nocturnal wheezing. He remembers being bitten by multiple mosquitoes. His chest X-ray shows pulmonary infiltrates. The following are his blood test results:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 14 g/dl
      - Platelets: 400 * 109/l
      - White blood cells (WBC): 15 * 109/l
      - Neutrophils: 8.0 * 10^9/l (reference range 2.0-7.5 * 10^9/l)
      - Eosinophils: 1.5 * 10^9/l (reference range 0.04-0.44 * 10^9/l)

      - Serum IgG: 100 mg/dl (reference range 80 - 350 mg/dl)
      - Serum IgM: 180 mg/dl (reference range 45 - 250 mg/dl)
      - Serum IgE: 5.0 mg/dl (reference range 0.002 - 0.2 mg/dl)

      What is the most effective treatment for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diethylcarbamazine

      Explanation:

      There are several conditions that can cause pulmonary eosinophilia, which is characterized by an increase in eosinophils in the lungs. One such condition is allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis, which is caused by an allergic reaction to the fungus Aspergillus fumigatus. Symptoms include wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath. Diagnosis can be made through imaging, sputum microscopy and culture, and a skin-prick test. Treatment typically involves the use of steroids.

      Another cause of pulmonary eosinophilia is Loeffler’s syndrome, which is caused by infection with worms such as Ascaris lumbricoides, Strongyloides, or Ancylostoma. These worms are prevalent in tropical and subtropical countries and are spread through ingestion of contaminated food. Symptoms include wheezing and coughing, and treatment involves the use of mebendazole.

      Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia is caused by the roundworms Wuchereria bancrofti or Brugia malayi, which are spread through mosquito bites. Symptoms include coughing, wheezing, and breathlessness, and treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine.

      Churg-Strauss syndrome is a type of vasculitis that can cause pulmonary eosinophilia. Symptoms include refractory asthma, mononeuritis multiplex, and sinusitis. Diagnosis is made through biopsy, and treatment involves the use of steroids and potentially steroid-sparing agents.

      Finally, drug-induced pulmonary eosinophilia can be caused by drugs such as sulphonamides, nitrofurantoin, penicillin, and tetracycline. Treatment involves stopping the offending drug.

      Pulmonary eosinophilia is a condition characterized by an increase in the number of eosinophils in the airways and lung tissue, often accompanied by a blood eosinophilia. This condition can be caused by various factors, including Churg-Strauss syndrome, allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis, Loeffler’s syndrome, eosinophilic pneumonia, hypereosinophilic syndrome, tropical pulmonary eosinophilia, and certain drugs such as nitrofurantoin and sulphonamides. Less commonly, it may be associated with Wegener’s granulomatosis. Loeffler’s syndrome, which is thought to be caused by parasites such as Ascaris lumbricoides, typically presents with a fever, cough, and night sweats lasting less than two weeks and is generally self-limiting. Acute eosinophilic pneumonia is highly responsive to steroids, while tropical pulmonary eosinophilia is associated with Wuchereria bancrofti infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old female patient presents to the respiratory outpatient clinic for her asthma...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old female patient presents to the respiratory outpatient clinic for her asthma review.

      Regrettably, she has been admitted to hospital three times in the past year with asthma exacerbations, requiring 2-3 days in hospital but never requiring intubation or intensive care admission. This is on a background of multiple admissions to hospitals in previous years.

      During the review, she reports wheeze associated with dyspnoea on most days, usually triggered by exertion. There is a non-productive cough most mornings which settles throughout the course of the day. She has no history of allergic rhinitis, eczema or other medical problems. She is a lifelong non-smoker.

      Her current asthma therapy is high dose inhaled fluticasone propionate plus salmeterol 2 puffs twice daily, prednisolone 10mg once daily and inhaled salbutamol as required. She has been taking regular prednisolone 10mg for the last eighteen months.

      On examination, observations revealed a respiratory rate of 14/min, oxygen saturation 98% on room air, heart rate 80/min regular, blood pressure 130/70 mmHg and a temperature of 36.8ºC. There is no clubbing, cervical lymphadenopathy or elevation of the jugular venous pressure. Auscultation of the chest revealed dual heart sounds with no murmurs and some mild expiratory wheeze in the upper zones. The calves were soft and non-tender, with no pedal oedema.

      You had reviewed this patient during her most recent exacerbation and had arranged some outpatient tests, the results of which are shown below:

      Hb 140 g/l Na+ 138 mmol/l
      Platelets 350 * 109/l K+ 3.4 mmol/l
      WBC 8 * 109/l Urea 5 mmol/l
      Neuts 4.5 * 109/l Creatinine 70 µmol/l
      Lymphs 1.0 * 109/l CRP 7 mg/l
      Eosin 2.5 * 109/l


      Fraction of exhaled nitric oxide 65 parts per billion (upper limit of normal 50 ppb)

      What would be the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Add in mepolizumab

      Explanation:

      The management of asthma in adults has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 British Thoracic Society (BTS) guidelines. One of the significant changes is in ‘step 3’, where patients on a SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled should be offered a leukotriene receptor antagonist, not a LABA. NICE does not follow the stepwise approach of the previous BTS guidelines, but to make the guidelines easier to follow, we have added our own steps. It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance.

      The steps for managing asthma in adults are as follows: for newly-diagnosed asthma, a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If the patient is not controlled on the previous step or has symptoms >= 3/week or night-time waking, a SABA + low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is recommended. For step 3, a SABA + low-dose ICS + leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is recommended. Step 4 involves a SABA + low-dose ICS + long-acting beta agonist (LABA), and LTRA should be continued depending on the patient’s response. Step 5 involves a SABA +/- LTRA, and switching ICS/LABA for a maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) that includes a low-dose ICS. Step 6 involves a SABA +/- LTRA + medium-dose ICS MART, or changing back to a fixed-dose of a moderate-dose ICS and a separate LABA. Step 7 involves a SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options: increasing ICS to high-dose (only as part of a fixed-dose regimen, not as a MART), a trial of an additional drug (for example, a long-acting muscarinic receptor antagonist or theophylline), or seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma.

      It is important to note that the definitions of what constitutes a low, moderate, or high-dose ICS have changed. For adults, <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a low dose, 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is a moderate dose, and > 800 micrograms budes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 10 - A 51-year-old teacher presents to the clinic with complaints of worsening shortness of...

    Correct

    • A 51-year-old teacher presents to the clinic with complaints of worsening shortness of breath, chronic cough, and wheezing. She is a smoker of 15 cigarettes per day and has a strong odor of cigarettes. On physical examination, coarse wheezing and occasional crackles are heard on auscultation. What is the most helpful factor in determining the appropriate long-term management of her condition?

      Your Answer: Spirometry with reversibility

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Shortness of Breath in a Patient with COPD

      Shortness of breath is a common symptom in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Spirometry with reversibility can help identify patients who may benefit from inhaled corticosteroids, as up to 30% of patients with COPD show improvement in lung function after bronchodilator therapy. Additionally, spirometry can also predict long-term mortality and motivate patients to quit smoking.

      Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency testing is not necessary in this patient as her age and smoking history suggest that her shortness of breath is likely related to COPD. A chest X-ray may reveal hyper-expansion consistent with emphysema or lung cancer, but it cannot determine response to treatment. CT thorax may be useful in identifying the underlying cause of restrictive lung disease if lung function testing reveals a restrictive defect.

      Bronchoscopy may show airway inflammation related to asthma, but it does not strongly correlate with response to corticosteroids in patients with COPD. In summary, spirometry with reversibility is a valuable diagnostic test for patients with COPD experiencing shortness of breath.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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Respiratory Medicine (8/10) 80%
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