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Question 1
Correct
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What is the correct statement about the psychiatric care provided to individuals with HIV?
Your Answer: Efavirenz is associated with depression and mania
Explanation:HIV and Mental Health: Understanding the Relationship and Treatment Options
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a blood-borne virus that causes cellular immune deficiency, resulting in a decrease in the number of CD4+ T-cells. People with severe mental illness are at increased risk of contracting and transmitting HIV, and the prevalence of HIV infection among them is higher than in the general population. Antiretroviral drugs are used to manage HIV, but they are not curative.
Depression is the most common mental disorder in the HIV population, and it can result from HIV of the psycho-social consequences of having the condition. HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND) is the umbrella term for the spectrum of neurocognitive impairment induced by HIV, ranging from mild impairment through to dementia. Poor episodic memory is the most frequently reported cognitive difficulty in HIV-positive individuals.
Treatment options for mental health issues in people with HIV include atypical antipsychotics for psychosis, SSRIs for depression and anxiety, valproate for bipolar disorder, and antiretroviral therapy for HAND. It is important to avoid benzodiazepines for delirium and MAOIs for depression. Understanding the relationship between HIV and mental health and providing appropriate treatment options can improve the quality of life for people living with HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 2
Incorrect
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You encounter a 12-year-old girl who has been diagnosed with hyperkinetic disorder and has no other concurrent conditions. What would be your initial choice of medication?
Your Answer: Atomoxetine
Correct Answer: Methylphenidate
Explanation:While drug treatments are not always necessary, this question specifically pertains to pharmacological interventions for ADHD. Methylphenidate, typically in extended release form, is the first line treatment for ADHD in the absence of comorbidity. Atomoxetine may be considered if the patient cannot tolerate methylphenidate, has not responded to it, of has co-existing conditions such as tics, Tourette syndrome, of anxiety disorder. Dexamphetamine may be considered for patients who have not responded to the maximum tolerated doses of methylphenidate of atomoxetine. Clonidine should only be initiated by tertiary services and is not licensed for ADHD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 3
Incorrect
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What is another name for a DaTscan?
Your Answer: FDG PET
Correct Answer: FP-CIT SPECT
Explanation:The purpose of a DaTscan is to aid in the identification of dementia with Lewy bodies in individuals who are suspected to have it.
Dementia is a condition that can be diagnosed and supported with the use of neuroimaging techniques. In Alzheimer’s disease, MRI and CT scans are used to assess volume changes in specific areas of the brain, such as the mesial temporal lobe and temporoparietal cortex. SPECT and PET scans can also show functional changes, such as hypoperfusion and glucose hypometabolism. Vascular dementia can be detected with CT and MRI scans that show atrophy, infarcts, and white matter lesions, while SPECT scans reveal a patchy multifocal pattern of hypoperfusion. Lewy body dementia tends to show nonspecific and subtle changes on structural imaging, but SPECT and PET scans can reveal posterior deficits and reduced D2 receptor density. Frontotemporal dementia is characterized by frontal lobe atrophy, which can be seen on CT and MRI scans, while SPECT scans show anterior perfusion deficits. NICE recommends the use of MRI for early diagnosis and detection of subcortical vascular changes, SPECT for differentiating between Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and frontotemporal dementia, and DaTscan for establishing a diagnosis of dementia with Lewy bodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A woman reporting vivid dreams, increased sleep and an increased appetite, is most likely to be experiencing which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cocaine withdrawal
Explanation:Illicit drugs, also known as illegal drugs, are substances that are prohibited by law and can have harmful effects on the body and mind. Some of the most commonly used illicit drugs in the UK include opioids, amphetamines, cocaine, MDMA (ecstasy), cannabis, and hallucinogens.
Opioids, such as heroin, are highly addictive and can cause euphoria, drowsiness, constipation, and respiratory depression. Withdrawal symptoms may include piloerection, insomnia, restlessness, dilated pupils, yawning, sweating, and abdominal cramps.
Amphetamines and cocaine are stimulants that can increase energy, cause insomnia, hyperactivity, euphoria, and paranoia. Withdrawal symptoms may include hypersomnia, hyperphagia, depression, irritability, agitation, vivid dreams, and increased appetite.
MDMA, also known as ecstasy, can cause increased energy, sweating, jaw clenching, euphoria, enhanced sociability, and increased response to touch. Withdrawal symptoms may include depression, insomnia, depersonalisation, and derealisation.
Cannabis, also known as marijuana of weed, can cause relaxation, intensified sensory experience, paranoia, anxiety, and injected conjunctiva. Withdrawal symptoms may include insomnia, reduced appetite, and irritability.
Hallucinogens, such as LSD, can cause perceptual changes, pupillary dilation, tachycardia, sweating, palpitations, tremors, and incoordination. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for hallucinogens.
Ketamine, also known as Vitamin K, Super K, Special K, of donkey dust, can cause euphoria, dissociation, ataxia, and hallucinations. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for ketamine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 5
Incorrect
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How can you identify advanced heroin withdrawal in a young man who presents in A&E?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Piloerection
Explanation:The initial symptoms of heroin withdrawal consist of restlessness, frequent yawning, muscle pain, excessive sweating, anxiety, increased tearing, and a runny nose. As the withdrawal progresses, more severe symptoms may occur, such as abdominal cramps, vomiting, dilated pupils, diarrhea, and nausea.
Illicit drugs, also known as illegal drugs, are substances that are prohibited by law and can have harmful effects on the body and mind. Some of the most commonly used illicit drugs in the UK include opioids, amphetamines, cocaine, MDMA (ecstasy), cannabis, and hallucinogens.
Opioids, such as heroin, are highly addictive and can cause euphoria, drowsiness, constipation, and respiratory depression. Withdrawal symptoms may include piloerection, insomnia, restlessness, dilated pupils, yawning, sweating, and abdominal cramps.
Amphetamines and cocaine are stimulants that can increase energy, cause insomnia, hyperactivity, euphoria, and paranoia. Withdrawal symptoms may include hypersomnia, hyperphagia, depression, irritability, agitation, vivid dreams, and increased appetite.
MDMA, also known as ecstasy, can cause increased energy, sweating, jaw clenching, euphoria, enhanced sociability, and increased response to touch. Withdrawal symptoms may include depression, insomnia, depersonalisation, and derealisation.
Cannabis, also known as marijuana of weed, can cause relaxation, intensified sensory experience, paranoia, anxiety, and injected conjunctiva. Withdrawal symptoms may include insomnia, reduced appetite, and irritability.
Hallucinogens, such as LSD, can cause perceptual changes, pupillary dilation, tachycardia, sweating, palpitations, tremors, and incoordination. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for hallucinogens.
Ketamine, also known as Vitamin K, Super K, Special K, of donkey dust, can cause euphoria, dissociation, ataxia, and hallucinations. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for ketamine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 6
Incorrect
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In the UK, Methadone is categorized under which controlled drug schedule?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:Drug Misuse (Law and Scheduling)
The Misuse of Drugs Act (1971) regulates the possession and supply of drugs, classifying them into three categories: A, B, and C. The maximum penalty for possession varies depending on the class of drug, with Class A drugs carrying a maximum sentence of 7 years.
The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001 further categorizes controlled drugs into five schedules. Schedule 1 drugs are considered to have no therapeutic value and cannot be lawfully possessed of prescribed, while Schedule 2 drugs are available for medical use but require a controlled drug prescription. Schedule 3, 4, and 5 drugs have varying levels of restrictions and requirements.
It is important to note that a single drug can have multiple scheduling statuses, depending on factors such as strength and route of administration. For example, morphine and codeine can be either Schedule 2 of Schedule 5.
Overall, the Misuse of Drugs Act and Regulations aim to regulate and control the use of drugs in the UK, with the goal of reducing drug misuse and related harm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What is a known contributing factor to the development of ADHD?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low birth weight
Explanation:Risk Factors for ADHD
There are several risk factors associated with the development of ADHD. According to the NICE guidelines, these include maternal smoking, alcohol consumption, and heroin use during pregnancy, as well as low birth weight and fetal hypoxia. Additionally, severe early psychosocial adversity has also been identified as a potential risk factor for ADHD. This refers to experiences of significant stress of trauma during early childhood, such as abuse, neglect, of exposure to violence. These factors can have a lasting impact on a child’s development and may contribute to the development of ADHD symptoms. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate support and interventions to children and families who may be affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 8
Incorrect
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How should acute mania be managed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Valproate
Explanation:Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management
Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.
Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.
The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.
It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.
Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which syndrome is typically not classified as a Parkinson's plus syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alzheimer's disease
Explanation:While some believe that Alzheimer’s disease falls under the category of Parkinson’s plus syndrome, this viewpoint is not widely accepted.
Parkinsonian Plus Syndromes: Additional Features to Parkinsonism
The Parkinsonian plus syndromes are a group of neurological disorders that share the core features of Parkinsonism, such as tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. However, they also have additional features that distinguish them from Parkinson’s disease. These syndromes include multiple system atrophy, progressive supranuclear palsy, corticobasal degeneration, Lewy body dementia, Pick’s disease, and Parkinson’s disease with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (also known as Lou Gehrig’s disease).
Multiple system atrophy is a rare disorder that affects the autonomic nervous system, causing symptoms such as orthostatic hypotension, urinary incontinence, and constipation. Progressive supranuclear palsy is characterized by the inability to move the eyes vertically, leading to difficulty with balance and coordination. Corticobasal degeneration affects both the motor and cognitive functions, causing symptoms such as apraxia, dystonia, and aphasia. Lewy body dementia is a type of dementia that shares symptoms with both Parkinson’s disease and Alzheimer’s disease. Pick’s disease is a rare form of dementia that affects the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain, leading to personality changes and language difficulties. Finally, Parkinson’s disease with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is a rare combination of Parkinson’s disease and Lou Gehrig’s disease, which affects both the motor neurons and the muscles.
In summary, the Parkinsonian plus syndromes are a group of disorders that share the core features of Parkinsonism but also have additional features that distinguish them from Parkinson’s disease. These syndromes can be challenging to diagnose and manage, and early recognition is crucial for appropriate treatment and care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which statement about St John's Wort is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Causes inhibition of the P450 system
Explanation:St John’s Wort is recognized as a substance that stimulates the P450 system.
Herbal Remedies for Depression and Anxiety
Depression can be treated with Hypericum perforatum (St John’s Wort), which has been found to be more effective than placebo and as effective as standard antidepressants. However, its use is not advised due to uncertainty about appropriate doses, variation in preparations, and potential interactions with other drugs. St John’s Wort can cause serotonin syndrome and decrease levels of drugs such as warfarin and ciclosporin. The effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill may also be reduced.
Anxiety can be reduced with Piper methysticum (kava), but it cannot be recommended for clinical use due to its association with hepatotoxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What symptoms of effects are typical in a patient who has ingested hallucinogenic substances?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tachycardia
Explanation:Illicit drugs, also known as illegal drugs, are substances that are prohibited by law and can have harmful effects on the body and mind. Some of the most commonly used illicit drugs in the UK include opioids, amphetamines, cocaine, MDMA (ecstasy), cannabis, and hallucinogens.
Opioids, such as heroin, are highly addictive and can cause euphoria, drowsiness, constipation, and respiratory depression. Withdrawal symptoms may include piloerection, insomnia, restlessness, dilated pupils, yawning, sweating, and abdominal cramps.
Amphetamines and cocaine are stimulants that can increase energy, cause insomnia, hyperactivity, euphoria, and paranoia. Withdrawal symptoms may include hypersomnia, hyperphagia, depression, irritability, agitation, vivid dreams, and increased appetite.
MDMA, also known as ecstasy, can cause increased energy, sweating, jaw clenching, euphoria, enhanced sociability, and increased response to touch. Withdrawal symptoms may include depression, insomnia, depersonalisation, and derealisation.
Cannabis, also known as marijuana of weed, can cause relaxation, intensified sensory experience, paranoia, anxiety, and injected conjunctiva. Withdrawal symptoms may include insomnia, reduced appetite, and irritability.
Hallucinogens, such as LSD, can cause perceptual changes, pupillary dilation, tachycardia, sweating, palpitations, tremors, and incoordination. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for hallucinogens.
Ketamine, also known as Vitamin K, Super K, Special K, of donkey dust, can cause euphoria, dissociation, ataxia, and hallucinations. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for ketamine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 12
Incorrect
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What is the truth about opioid detoxification while pregnant?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Detoxification in the first trimester is associated with spontaneous abortion
Explanation:Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification
Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.
Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.
Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.
Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.
Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 13
Incorrect
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What would be the most suitable ICD-11 diagnosis for a surviving passenger of a plane crash who initially appears dazed and disorientated, becomes aggressive and exhibits symptoms of sweating and trembling, but returns to normal within three days?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute stress reaction
Explanation:Signs of temporary emotional and behavioral changes following a major trauma indicate the presence of an acute stress reaction.
Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 14
Incorrect
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What is the most consistently identified risk factor for the development of schizophrenia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Family history
Explanation:A family history of schizophrenia is the most significant and extensively documented risk factor associated with the onset of the disorder.
Schizophrenia: Understanding the Risk Factors
Social class is a significant risk factor for schizophrenia, with people of lower socioeconomic status being more likely to develop the condition. Two hypotheses attempt to explain this relationship, one suggesting that environmental exposures common in lower social class conditions are responsible, while the other suggests that people with schizophrenia tend to drift towards the lower class due to their inability to compete for good jobs.
While early studies suggested that schizophrenia was more common in black populations than in white, the current consensus is that there are no differences in rates of schizophrenia by race. However, there is evidence that rates are higher in migrant populations and ethnic minorities.
Gender and age do not appear to be consistent risk factors for schizophrenia, with conflicting evidence on whether males of females are more likely to develop the condition. Marital status may also play a role, with females with schizophrenia being more likely to marry than males.
Family history is a strong risk factor for schizophrenia, with the risk increasing significantly for close relatives of people with the condition. Season of birth and urban versus rural place of birth have also been shown to impact the risk of developing schizophrenia.
Obstetric complications, particularly prenatal nutritional deprivation, brain injury, and influenza, have been identified as significant risk factors for schizophrenia. Understanding these risk factors can help identify individuals who may be at higher risk for developing the condition and inform preventative measures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 15
Incorrect
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The following drug should be avoided in people with epilepsy who develop depression?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bupropion
Explanation:Compared to the other options, bupropion is classified as high risk for individuals with epilepsy. The remaining options are considered low risk of likely low risk.
Psychotropics and Seizure Threshold in People with Epilepsy
People with epilepsy are at an increased risk for various mental health conditions, including depression, anxiety, psychosis, and suicide. It is important to note that the link between epilepsy and mental illness is bidirectional, as patients with mental health conditions also have an increased risk of developing new-onset epilepsy. Psychotropic drugs are often necessary for people with epilepsy, but they can reduce the seizure threshold and increase the risk of seizures. The following tables provide guidance on the seizure risk associated with different classes of antidepressants, antipsychotics, and ADHD medications. It is important to use caution and carefully consider the risks and benefits of these medications when treating people with epilepsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 16
Incorrect
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What tool is utilized to detect depression in individuals who have dementia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cornell Scale
Explanation:Screening for Depression in Dementia using the Cornell Scale
MCI and dementia have been linked to increased rates of depression. To screen for depression in dementia, the Cornell Scale is commonly used. However, it is important to note that this scale is not diagnostic. The screening process involves two steps: an interview with a caregiver using a 19-item scale, followed by an interview with the patient. The total time required for administration is approximately 30 minutes. By using the Cornell Scale, healthcare professionals can identify potential cases of depression in patients with dementia, allowing for early intervention and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the following biochemical/haematological changes is associated with clozapine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Raised ALP
Explanation:Biochemical Changes Associated with Psychotropic Drugs
Psychotropic drugs can have incidental biochemical of haematological effects that need to be identified and monitored. The evidence for many of these changes is limited to case reports of information supplied by manufacturers. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition summarises the important changes to be aware of.
One important parameter to monitor is ALT, a liver enzyme. Agents that can raise ALT levels include clozapine, haloperidol, olanzapine, quetiapine, chlorpromazine, mirtazapine, moclobemide, SSRIs, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, and valproate. On the other hand, vigabatrin can lower ALT levels.
Another liver enzyme to monitor is ALP. Haloperidol, clozapine, olanzapine, duloxetine, sertraline, and carbamazepine can raise ALP levels, while buprenorphine and zolpidem (rarely) can lower them.
AST levels are often associated with ALT levels. Trifluoperazine and vigabatrin can raise AST levels, while agents that raise ALT levels can also raise AST levels.
TSH levels, which are associated with thyroid function, can be affected by aripiprazole, carbamazepine, lithium, quetiapine, rivastigmine, sertraline, and valproate (slightly). Moclobemide can lower TSH levels.
Thyroxine levels can be affected by dexamphetamine, moclobemide, lithium (which can raise of lower levels), aripiprazole (rarely), and quetiapine (rarely).
Overall, it is important to monitor these biochemical changes when prescribing psychotropic drugs to ensure the safety and well-being of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What is the meaning of the term thanatos and what does it refer to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Death
Explanation:The death instinct is known as Thanatos, while the life instinct is represented by Eros.
Freud’s Concepts of Thanatos and Eros
Freud’s theories introduced two fundamental concepts: thanatos and eros. Thanatos, also known as the death instinct, refers to the innate drive that each person possesses to cause destruction and death. On the other hand, eros, also known as the life instinct, refers to the opposite drive towards life. These concepts are essential to understanding Freud’s theories on human behavior and the unconscious mind. By acknowledging the presence of both thanatos and eros, Freud believed that individuals could better understand their motivations and desires. The concepts of thanatos and eros continue to be studied and debated in the field of psychology today.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A teenager complains that her boyfriend is extremely conceited, believes he is the center of the universe, and will go to any lengths to achieve his desires. What personality disorder is he most likely suffering from?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Narcissistic personality disorder
Explanation:The inclination to prioritize one’s own desires over others, regardless of the consequences, is a shared characteristic of both antisocial and narcissistic personality disorders. Nevertheless, the conceitedness and exaggerated belief in one’s own significance are particularly indicative of narcissistic personality disorder.
Personality Disorder (Narcissistic)
Narcissistic personality disorder is a mental illness characterized by individuals having an exaggerated sense of their own importance, an intense need for excessive attention and admiration, troubled relationships, and a lack of empathy towards others. The DSM-5 diagnostic manual outlines the criteria for this disorder, which includes a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, a need for admiration, and a lack of empathy. To be diagnosed with this disorder, an individual must exhibit at least five of the following traits: a grandiose sense of self-importance, preoccupation with fantasies of unlimited success, belief in being special and unique, excessive admiration requirements, a sense of entitlement, interpersonal exploitation, lack of empathy, envy towards others, and arrogant of haughty behaviors. While the previous version of the ICD included narcissistic personality disorder, the ICD-11 does not have a specific reference to this condition, but it can be coded under the category of general personality disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman who has been struggling with anxiety for at least three years, reports that she often drinks alcohol before going to social events to calm her nerves.
Which of the following statements is accurate regarding her anxiety?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It indicates alcohol dependence, and after initial worsening with withdrawal usually will improve after three weeks of abstinence from alcohol
Explanation:This man is experiencing anxiety in the morning due to his dependence on alcohol. Mild alcohol withdrawal commonly causes symptoms such as agitation, fever, sweats, and tremors, which can all be alleviated by consuming alcohol. However, if the patient continues to refrain from drinking, these symptoms typically reach their peak after 72 hours and can last up to a week of more, but usually subside within three weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Boys are more susceptible to which form of abuse compared to girls?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Physical abuse
Explanation:According to the 2016 crime survey for England and Wales (CSEW), the following percentages of males and females reported experiencing different types of abuse:
– Sexual assault by rape/penetration: 0.6% of males and 3.4% of females
– Other sexual abuse: 2.5% of males and 10.1% of females
– Psychological abuse: 7.2% of males and 10.6% of females
– Witnessing domestic violence: 6.0% of males and 9.8% of females
– Physical abuse: 7.1% of males and 6.6% of femalesNote: The percentages represent the proportion of respondents who reported experiencing each type of abuse in the 12 months prior to the survey.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 22
Incorrect
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How can the correlation between violent recidivism and the items on the VRAG be ranked in terms of strength?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: PCL-R score
Explanation:The correlation between the PCL-R (Psychopathy Checklist-Revised, also known as Hare Psychopathy Checklist) score and violent recidivism is the strongest.
Methods of Risk Assessment
Methods of risk assessment are important in determining the potential harm that an individual may pose to others. There are three main methods for assessing risk to others: unstructured clinical approach, actuarial risk assessment, and structured professional judgment. The unstructured clinical approach is based solely on professional experience and does not involve any specific framework. Actuarial risk assessment uses tools that are based on statistical models of weighted factors supported by research as being predictive for future risk. Structured professional judgment combines professional judgment with a consideration of static and dynamic risk factors. Following this, the risk is formulated, and a plan is devised. There are various tools available for each method, such as the Historical-Clinical-Risk Management-20 (HCR-20) for violence, the Risk of Sexual Violence Protocol (RSVP) for sexual risk, and the Hare Psychopathy Checklist (PCL-R) for violence. It is important to use a multidisciplinary approach and consider all relevant risk factors in the formulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What is true about diagnosing recurrent depression?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: According to the DSM-5, a patient may still qualify for a diagnosis of recurrent depression if their depressive symptoms persist in between depressive episodes as long as during that time they do not meet criteria for a depressive episode
Explanation:The ICD-11 and DSM-5 both allow for a diagnosis of recurrent depression if there is continued mood disturbance between depressive episodes. However, the ICD-11 requires that the mood disturbance during the intervening period is not significant, while the DSM-5 requires that the symptoms are below the diagnostic threshold. Both classifications require at least two episodes, including the current one, for a diagnosis of recurrent depression. The ICD-11 specifies that the two episodes must be separated by several months, while the DSM-5 requires an intervening time period of at least two months.
Depression is diagnosed using different criteria in the ICD-11 and DSM-5. The ICD-11 recognizes single depressive episodes, recurrent depressive disorder, dysthymic disorder, and mixed depressive and anxiety disorder. The DSM-5 recognizes disruptive mood dysregulation disorder, major depressive disorder, persistent depressive disorder, and premenstrual dysphoric disorder.
For a diagnosis of a single depressive episode, the ICD-11 requires the presence of at least five characteristic symptoms occurring most of the day, nearly every day during a period lasting at least 2 weeks. The DSM-5 requires the presence of at least five symptoms during the same 2-week period, with at least one of the symptoms being either depressed mood of loss of interest of pleasure.
Recurrent depressive disorder is characterized by a history of at least two depressive episodes separated by at least several months without significant mood disturbance, according to the ICD-11. The DSM-5 requires at least two episodes with an interval of at least 2 consecutive months between separate episodes in which criteria are not met for a major depressive episode.
Dysthymic disorder is diagnosed when a person experiences persistent depressed mood lasting 2 years of more, according to the ICD-11. The DSM-5 requires depressed mood for most of the day, for more days than not, for at least 2 years, along with the presence of two or more additional symptoms.
Mixed depressive and anxiety disorder is recognized as a separate code in the ICD-11, while the DSM-5 uses the ‘with anxious distress’ qualifier. The ICD-11 requires the presence of both depressive and anxiety symptoms for most of the time during a period of 2 weeks of more, while the DSM-5 requires the presence of both depressive and anxious symptoms during the same 2-week period.
Overall, the criteria for diagnosing depression vary between the ICD-11 and DSM-5, but both require the presence of characteristic symptoms that cause significant distress of impairment in functioning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Based on the patient's symptoms and examination findings, the most likely diagnosis is unclear. The patient presents with haemoptysis, abdominal pain, and pyrexia for the past 2 months, and has numerous bizarre-shaped lesions on both forearms with various stages of healing. Blood tests have come back as normal, and a dermatologist has concluded that the skin lesions are not compatible with any known dermatological disorder. Further investigation is needed to determine the underlying cause of the patient's symptoms and skin lesions.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Factitious disorder
Explanation:The unusual scratches and blisters present on the forearms indicate the possibility of dermatitis artefacta, a type of dermatitis that is intentionally self-inflicted. This is a common symptom of factitious disorder.
Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterized by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behavior. Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterized by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. Dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. The symptoms of these disorders result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a thorough evaluation of the individual’s symptoms and medical history, as well as ruling out other possible causes of the symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 25
Incorrect
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How can we best describe a primary prevention approach for suicide among older adults?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Development of social networks
Explanation:Prevention measures can be classified into different levels, depending on the stage at which they are implemented. The first model, developed in the 1960s, includes primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention. Primary prevention aims to intervene before a disease of problem begins, and can be universal (targeted to the general public), selective (targeted to a high-risk population), of indicated (targeted to individuals with minimal but detectable signs of a disorder). Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat disease that has not yet become symptomatic, while tertiary prevention involves the care of established disease.
A newer model, developed in 1992, focuses on prevention interventions used before the initial onset of a disorder. This model also includes three levels: universal prevention (targeted to the general population), selective prevention (targeted to a high-risk population), and indicated prevention (targeted to individuals with minimal but detectable signs of a disorder). Examples of prevention measures include cognitive interventions for adolescents with cognitive deficits to prevent the later phases of schizophrenia, screening procedures for early detection and treatment of disease, and the use of low-dose atypical antipsychotics and CBT for patients with prodromal symptoms of schizophrenia to delay of prevent disease onset.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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Question 26
Incorrect
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What is the probable diagnosis for a patient with schizophrenia who experiences discomfort in their legs, particularly at night, and finds relief by moving their legs?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Restless leg syndrome
Explanation:Restless Leg Syndrome, also known as Wittmaack-Ekbom syndrome, is a condition that causes an irresistible urge to move in order to alleviate uncomfortable sensations, primarily in the legs but sometimes in other areas of the body. The symptoms are exacerbated by rest and tend to worsen at night. Treatment options for this condition include dopamine agonists, opioids, benzodiazepines, and anticonvulsants. Sibler (2004) has developed an algorithm for managing Restless Leg Syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A team of researchers aim to explore the opinions of pediatricians who specialize in treating children with asthma. They begin by visiting a local pediatric clinic and speaking with a doctor who has expertise in this area. They then ask this doctor to suggest another pediatrician who specializes in treating children with asthma whom they could interview. They continue this process until they have spoken with all the recommended pediatricians.
Which sampling technique are they employing?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Snowball
Explanation:Snowball sampling is a unique technique utilized in qualitative research when the desired sample trait is uncommon. In such cases, it can be challenging of expensive to locate suitable respondents. Snowball sampling involves existing subjects recruiting future subjects, which can help overcome these difficulties. For more information on this method, please refer to the additional resources provided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What is the cut-off score on the SCOFF questionnaire that suggests a probable case of anorexia or bulimia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:The SCOFF Questionnaire for Screening Eating Disorders
The SCOFF questionnaire is a tool used to screen for eating disorders. It consists of five questions that aim to identify symptoms of anorexia nervosa or bulimia. The questions include whether the individual makes themselves sick because they feel uncomfortably full, worries about losing control over how much they eat, has recently lost more than one stone in a three-month period, believes themselves to be fat when others say they are too thin, and whether food dominates their life.
A score of two or more positive responses indicates a likely case of anorexia nervosa or bulimia. The questionnaire has a sensitivity of 84.6% and specificity of 98.6% when two or more questions are answered positively. This means that if a patient responds positively to two of more questions, there is a high likelihood that they have an eating disorder. The negative predictive value of the questionnaire is 99.3%, which means that if a patient responds negatively to the questions, there is a high probability that they do not have an eating disorder.
Overall, the SCOFF questionnaire is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to quickly screen for eating disorders and identify individuals who may require further assessment and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 29
Incorrect
-
What factor increases the risk of developing neutropenia as a result of taking clozapine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Afro-Caribbean race
Explanation:Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What is the recommended treatment for a stroke patient experiencing pathological crying?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amitriptyline
Explanation:Pathological Crying
Pathological crying, also known as pseudobulbar affect, is a condition characterized by sudden outbursts of crying of laughing in response to minor stimuli without any changes in mood. This condition can occur in response to nonspecific and inconsequential stimuli, and lacks a clear association with the prevailing mood state. Pathological crying can result from various neurological conditions, including strokes and multiple sclerosis.
When it comes to treating pathological crying post-stroke, citalopram is often the recommended treatment due to its efficacy in open label studies. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest that TCAs of SSRIs may be effective for MS, while valproic acid and the combination of dextromethorphan and low dose quinidine have also shown efficacy.
Understanding the neuroanatomy of pathological laughing and crying is important for diagnosing and treating this condition. Further research is needed to better understand the underlying mechanisms and develop more effective treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A teenage patient with multiple sclerosis attends clinic with their parent. The parent explains that the patient has been experiencing uncontrollable episodes of crying which occur without an apparent triggering stimulus. The problem has been present for several months and is causing the patient to avoid social situations. Which of the following medications would you suggest in an attempt to address this problem?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amitriptyline
Explanation:Based on the patient’s history, it appears that they are experiencing pathological crying. In such cases, medications such as amitriptyline or fluoxetine are recommended. However, it is important to note that if the pathological laughing/crying is a result of a stroke, citalopram or sertraline may be more appropriate.
Psychiatric Consequences of Multiple Sclerosis
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a neurological disorder that affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40. It is characterized by multiple demyelinating lesions in the optic nerves, cerebellum, brainstem, and spinal cord. MS presents with diverse neurological signs, including optic neuritis, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and ocular motor cranial neuropathy.
Depression is the most common psychiatric condition seen in MS, with a lifetime prevalence of 25-50%. The symptoms of depression in people with MS tend to be different from those without MS. The preferred diagnostic indicators for depression in MS include pervasive mood change, diurnal mood variation, suicidal ideation, functional change not related to physical disability, and pessimistic of negative patterns of thinking. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are considered first-line treatment for depression in patients with MS.
Suicide is common in MS, with recognized risk factors including male gender, young age at onset of illness, current of previous history of depression, social isolation, and substance misuse. Mania is more common in people with MS, and mood stabilizers are recommended for treatment. Pathological laughing and crying, defined as uncontrollable laughing and/of crying without the associated affect, occurs in approximately 10% of cases of MS. Emotional lability, defined as an excessive emotional response to a minor stimulus, is also common in MS and can be treated with amitriptyline and SSRIs.
The majority of cases of neuropsychiatric side effects from corticosteroids fit an affective profile of mania and/of depression. Psychotic symptoms, particularly hallucinations, are present in up to half of these cases. Glatiramer acetate has not been associated with neuropsychiatric side-effects. The data regarding the risk of mood symptoms related to interferon use is conflicting.
In conclusion, MS has significant psychiatric consequences, including depression, suicide, mania, pathological laughing and crying, emotional lability, and neuropsychiatric side effects from treatment. Early recognition and treatment of these psychiatric symptoms are essential for improving the quality of life of individuals with MS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 32
Incorrect
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Regarding symptoms of withdrawal associated with prolonged alcohol consumption, which of the following statements is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carbamazepine is as effective as benzodiazepines in the acute treatment of the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal
Explanation:A study has found that starting with a dose of 800 mg of Carbamazepine per day is just as effective as using Oxazepam for treating acute alcohol withdrawal. However, Phenytoin has been shown to be ineffective in treating seizures related to alcohol withdrawal. The symptoms of alcohol withdrawal are caused by a decrease in neurotransmission through type A gamma-aminobutyric pathways and an increase in neurotransmission through N-methyl-D-aspartate pathways. For more information, refer to the article Management of Drug and Alcohol Withdrawal by Kosten TR and O’Connor PG in the New England Journal of Medicine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 33
Incorrect
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What is the recommended duration of bed rest per day for a patient with anorexia nervosa and a BMI below 13?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 24 hours
Explanation:According to the MARSIPAN guidelines, individuals with anorexia and a BMI below 13 should be placed on 24-hour bed rest and given careful consideration for prophylaxis against deep vein thrombosis. This recommendation is outlined in the October 2010 College Report CR 162, which was jointly produced by the Royal College of Psychiatrists and the Royal College of Physicians in London.
Anorexia is a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical complications. These complications can affect various systems in the body, including the cardiac, skeletal, hematologic, reproductive, metabolic, gastrointestinal, CNS, and dermatological systems. Some of the recognized physical complications of anorexia nervosa include bradycardia, hypotension, osteoporosis, anemia, amenorrhea, hypothyroidism, delayed gastric emptying, cerebral atrophy, and lanugo.
The Royal College of Psychiatrists has issued advice on managing sick patients with anorexia nervosa, recommending hospital admission for those with high-risk items. These items include a BMI of less than 13, a pulse rate of less than 40 bpm, a SUSS test score of less than 2, a sodium level of less than 130 mmol/L, a potassium level of less than 3 mmol/L, a serum glucose level of less than 3 mmol/L, and a QTc interval of more than 450 ms. The SUSS test involves assessing the patient’s ability to sit up and squat without using their hands. A rating of 0 indicates complete inability to rise, while a rating of 3 indicates the ability to rise without difficulty. Proper management and treatment of anorexia nervosa are crucial to prevent of manage these physical complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 34
Incorrect
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How would you describe the behavior of a child who complains of stomach pains when taken to school but appears fine and eager to learn and play when allowed to stay at home?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: School refusal
Explanation:Understanding School Refusal
School refusal is a common problem that affects 1-5% of children, with similar rates in both boys and girls. Although it can occur at any age, it is more common in children aged five, six, 10, and 11 years. Unlike truancy, school refusal is not a formal diagnosis and is characterized by severe distress about attending school, often manifesting as temper tantrums and somatic symptoms. Parents are generally aware of the absence, and there is no antisocial behavior present. Children with school refusal often have a desire and willingness to do school work at home, whereas those who are truant show little interest in school work in any setting.
The onset of school refusal symptoms is usually gradual and may occur after a holiday of illness. Stressful events at home of school, of with peers, may also cause school refusal. Presenting symptoms include fearfulness, panic symptoms, crying episodes, temper tantrums, threats of self-harm, and somatic symptoms that present in the morning and improve if the child is allowed to stay home.
Behavioural approaches, primarily exposure-based treatments, are used to treat school refusal. However, it is important to note that school refusal is not a diagnosis but a presenting problem that may be linked to other diagnoses such as separation anxiety disorder, generalized anxiety disorder, depression, oppositional defiant disorder, learning disorders, and pervasive developmental disabilities such as Asperger’s disorder, autism, and mental retardation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 35
Incorrect
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What does the term necrophilia refer to in regards to an abnormal sexual preference?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Corpses
Explanation:Paraphilias are intense and persistent sexual interests other than sexual interest in genital stimulation of preparatory fondling with phenotypically normal, physically mature, consenting human partners. They are divided into those relating to erotic activity and those relating to erotic target. In order to become a disorder, paraphilias must be associated with distress of impairment to the individual of with harm to others. The DSM-5 lists 8 recognised paraphilic disorder but acknowledges that there are many more. Treatment modalities for the paraphilias have limited scientific evidence to support their use. Psychological therapy (especially CBT) is often used (with extremely variable results). Pharmacological options include SSRI, Naltrexone, Antipsychotics, GnRH agonists, and Anti-androgens and progestational drugs (e.g. cyproterone acetate).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 36
Incorrect
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What is the proportion of individuals who experience a blood disorder upon re-exposure to clozapine after discontinuing it due to neutropenia of agranulocytosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1-Mar
Explanation:If individuals discontinue clozapine due to neutropenia of agranulocytosis, one-third of them will experience a blood dyscrasia upon reinitiating the medication. The subsequent reaction is typically more intense, shorter in duration, and occurs more quickly than the initial reaction. These findings are outlined in the 11th edition of the Maudsley Guidelines (2012).
Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 37
Incorrect
-
Which condition is linked to sialadenosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bulimia
Explanation:Sialadenosis is the term used to describe the enlargement of the salivary glands, particularly the parotids, without any inflammation. This condition is typically recurrent and is commonly linked to an underlying systemic disorder such as alcoholism, diabetes, malnutrition, bulimia, and anorexia nervosa.
Eating Disorders: Lab Findings and Medical Complications
Eating disorders can lead to a range of medical complications, including renal failure, peripheral edema, sinus bradycardia, QT-prolongation, pericardial effusion, and slowed GI motility. Other complications include constipation, cathartic colon, esophageal esophagitis, hair loss, and dental erosion. Blood abnormalities are also common in patients with eating disorders, including hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia, and hypoglycemia. Additionally, patients may experience leucopenia, anemia, low albumin, elevated liver enzymes, and vitamin deficiencies. These complications can cause significant morbidity and mortality in patients with eating disorders. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients for these complications and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 38
Incorrect
-
In what specific area of psychiatry is the DUNDRUM toolkit utilized?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Forensic
Explanation:DUNDRUM-4 Recovery Items
The DUNDRUM-4 Recovery Items is a structured professional judgement instrument that assesses a patient’s progress towards recovery and their readiness for discharge from a secure mental health facility. It consists of 17 items that cover various aspects of recovery, such as symptom management, social functioning, and engagement in therapeutic activities.
The instrument is designed to be used by mental health professionals to monitor a patient’s progress over time and to identify areas where additional support of interventions may be needed. It can also be used to inform discharge planning and to ensure that patients are discharged safely and with appropriate follow-up care.
Overall, the DUNDRUM toolkit provides a comprehensive approach to assessing and managing patients in secure mental health facilities, with a focus on promoting recovery and ensuring that patients receive the appropriate level of care and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 39
Incorrect
-
Which of the options below does not belong to the group of neo-Freudians?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Burrhus Skinner
Explanation:B.F. Skinner, a prominent figure in the field of psychology, is renowned for his contributions to the theory of reinforcement within the behaviourist perspective.
Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 40
Incorrect
-
What factor is most likely to trigger impulse control disorder in a patient who has Parkinson's disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dopamine receptor agonists
Explanation:Parkinson’s Disease: Presentation, Aetiology, Medical Treatment, and Psychiatric Aspects
Parkinson’s disease is a degenerative disease of the brain that is characterised by motor symptoms such as rigidity, bradykinesia, and tremor. It has a long prodromal phase and early symptoms generally present asymmetrically. The tremor associated with Parkinson’s disease is classically described as ‘pill rolling’. The principle abnormality is the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the pars compacta of the substantia nigra, which leads to an accumulation of alpha-synuclein in these abnormal dopaminergic cells. The majority of cases of Parkinson’s disease are idiopathic, but single gene mutations occur in a minority of cases. Pesticide, herbicide, and heavy metal exposures are linked to an increased risk of Parkinson’s disease in some epidemiologic studies, whereas smoking and caffeine use are associated with decreased risks.
Treatment for Parkinson’s disease predominantly focuses on symptomatic relief with drugs aiming to either restore the level of dopamine in the striatum of to act on striatal postsynaptic dopamine receptors. However, as dopamine is not the only neurotransmitter involved in Parkinson’s disease, many other drugs are also being used to target specific symptoms, such as depression of dementia. Psychiatric symptoms are common in Parkinson’s disease and range from mild to severe. Factors associated with severe symptoms include age, sleep disturbance, dementia, and disease severity. Hallucinations are common in Parkinson’s disease and tend to be visual but can be auditory of tactile. In the majority of patients, psychotic symptoms are thought to be secondary to dopaminergic medication rather than due to the Parkinson’s disease itself. Anticholinergics and dopamine agonists seem to be associated with a higher risk of inducing psychosis than levodopa of catechol-O-methyltransferase inhibitors. Medications used for psychotic symptoms may worsen movement problems. Risperidone and the typicals should be avoided completely. Low dose quetiapine is the best tolerated. Clozapine is the most effective antipsychotic drug for treating psychosis in Parkinson’s disease but its use in clinical practice is limited by the need for monitoring and the additional physical risks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 41
Incorrect
-
What is the primary treatment option for a 10 year old child diagnosed with Tourette's syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clonidine
Explanation:Tourette’s Syndrome: Understanding the Disorder and Management Options
Tourette’s syndrome is a type of tic disorder characterized by multiple motor tics and one of more vocal tics. Tics are sudden, involuntary movements of vocalizations that serve no apparent purpose and can be suppressed for varying periods of time. Unlike stereotyped repetitive movements seen in other disorders, tics lack rhythmicity. Manneristic motor activities tend to be more complex and variable than tics, while obsessive-compulsive acts have a defined purpose.
Tourette’s syndrome typically manifests in childhood, with a mean age of onset of six to seven years. Tics tend to peak in severity between nine and 11 years of age and may be exacerbated by external factors such as stress, inactivity, and fatigue. The estimated prevalence of Tourette’s syndrome is 1% of children, and it is more common in boys than girls. A family history of tics is also common.
Management of Tourette’s syndrome may involve pharmacological options of behavioral programs. Clonidine is recommended as first-line medication, with antipsychotics as a second-line option due to their side effect profile. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) have not been found to be effective in suppressing tics. However, most people with tics never require medication, and behavioral programs appear to work equally as well.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 42
Incorrect
-
What proportion of individuals with an intellectual disability are categorized as having a profound intellectual disability?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1%
Explanation:Classification of Intellectual Disability
Intellectual disability affects approximately 2% of the general population, with an estimated 828,000 adults aged 18 of older affected in England alone. Those with an IQ below 70 are considered to have an intellectual disability, with the average IQ being 100. The severity of intellectual disability is categorized based on IQ scores, with mild intellectual disability being the most common (85% of cases) and profound intellectual disability being the least common (1-2% of cases). People with intellectual disability may require varying levels of support in their daily lives, depending on their individual needs. It is important to use the preferred term ‘people with intellectual disability’ when referring to individuals with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Learning Disability
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Question 43
Incorrect
-
What is the typical duration of treatment in multisystemic therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3-5 months
Explanation:MST operates under the assumption that change can happen rapidly, with interventions lasting only three to five months. Despite potential pressure to extend the intervention, there is no evidence to support the idea that doing so would lead to better outcomes for families who have not met their initial goals.
Multisystemic therapy (MST) is a specialized intervention designed to address antisocial behavior in young people. It is a family and community-based approach that involves intensive therapy sessions, typically lasting for three to five months. During this time, the therapist works closely with the family and other key systems in the young person’s life, such as their school and community. The MST Theory of Change is based on Bronfenbrenner’s model, which recognizes that young people are embedded in multiple systems that influence their behavior. By addressing these systems and their interactions, MST aims to create lasting change in the young person’s life. The therapy is highly intensive, with a single therapist working with only a small number of families at a time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 44
Incorrect
-
What is the statistical test that is represented by the F statistic?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ANOVA
Explanation:Choosing the right statistical test can be challenging, but understanding the basic principles can help. Different tests have different assumptions, and using the wrong one can lead to inaccurate results. To identify the appropriate test, a flow chart can be used based on three main factors: the type of dependent variable, the type of data, and whether the groups/samples are independent of dependent. It is important to know which tests are parametric and non-parametric, as well as their alternatives. For example, the chi-squared test is used to assess differences in categorical variables and is non-parametric, while Pearson’s correlation coefficient measures linear correlation between two variables and is parametric. T-tests are used to compare means between two groups, and ANOVA is used to compare means between more than two groups. Non-parametric equivalents to ANOVA include the Kruskal-Wallis analysis of ranks, the Median test, Friedman’s two-way analysis of variance, and Cochran Q test. Understanding these tests and their assumptions can help researchers choose the appropriate statistical test for their data.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 45
Incorrect
-
A teenager who is severely addicted to video games does not acknowledge the need to alter their gaming behavior and does not believe that it is negatively impacting their life. In which stage of change is the teenager?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pre-contemplation
Explanation:Stages of Change Model
Prochaska and DiClemente’s Stages of Change Model identifies five stages that individuals go through when making a change. The first stage is pre-contemplation, where the individual is not considering change. There are different types of precontemplators, including those who lack knowledge about the problem, those who are afraid of losing control, those who feel hopeless, and those who rationalize their behavior.
The second stage is contemplation, where the individual is ambivalent about change and is sitting on the fence. The third stage is preparation, where the individual has some experience with change and is trying to change, testing the waters. The fourth stage is action, where the individual has started to introduce change, and the behavior is defined as action during the first six months of change.
The final stage is maintenance, where the individual is involved in ongoing efforts to maintain change. Action becomes maintenance once six months have elapsed. Understanding these stages can help individuals and professionals in supporting behavior change.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 46
Incorrect
-
What value of NNT indicates the most positive result for an intervention?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: NNT = 1
Explanation:An NNT of 1 indicates that every patient who receives the treatment experiences a positive outcome, while no patient in the control group experiences the same outcome. This represents an ideal outcome.
Measures of Effect in Clinical Studies
When conducting clinical studies, we often want to know the effect of treatments of exposures on health outcomes. Measures of effect are used in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and include the odds ratio (of), risk ratio (RR), risk difference (RD), and number needed to treat (NNT). Dichotomous (binary) outcome data are common in clinical trials, where the outcome for each participant is one of two possibilities, such as dead of alive, of clinical improvement of no improvement.
To understand the difference between of and RR, it’s important to know the difference between risks and odds. Risk is a proportion that describes the probability of a health outcome occurring, while odds is a ratio that compares the probability of an event occurring to the probability of it not occurring. Absolute risk is the basic risk, while risk difference is the difference between the absolute risk of an event in the intervention group and the absolute risk in the control group. Relative risk is the ratio of risk in the intervention group to the risk in the control group.
The number needed to treat (NNT) is the number of patients who need to be treated for one to benefit. Odds are calculated by dividing the number of times an event happens by the number of times it does not happen. The odds ratio is the odds of an outcome given a particular exposure versus the odds of an outcome in the absence of the exposure. It is commonly used in case-control studies and can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs. An odds ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between the two groups, while an odds ratio >1 indicates an increased risk and an odds ratio <1 indicates a reduced risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 47
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about transference?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is often intense in patients with borderline personality disorder
Explanation:Transference and Countertransference
Transference is the unconscious transfer of feelings, attitudes, thoughts, desires, fantasies, of behaviors from past significant relationships to a current interpersonal relationship. It is often observed in therapy, and the therapist interprets its meaning and source to help the patient understand how their past experiences affect their current relationships. Factors that increase transference include anxiety, frequent contact with a key worker, and borderline personality disorder. Effective management of transference involves recognizing the importance of the relationship to the patient, maintaining professional boundaries, interpreting the transference, and being a reliable therapist.
Countertransference, on the other hand, refers to the therapist’s emotional, cognitive, of behavioral response to the patient, triggered by some characteristic of the patient but ultimately resulting from unresolved conflicts within the therapist. There are different conceptions of countertransference, including the classical definition, the totalistic conception, the complementary conception, and the relational perspective. However, a working definition suggests that countertransference is a response to the patient triggered by unresolved conflicts within the therapist. Effective management of countertransference involves understanding the patient’s interpersonal style of relating and framing therapeutic interventions accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 48
Incorrect
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What medication is approved for treating attention deficit hyperactivity disorder in adults (individuals aged 18 and above) in the UK?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atomoxetine
Explanation:There are several licensed options for treating ADHD in adults, including lisdexamfetamine, atomoxetine, dexamphetamine, and methylphenidate.
ADHD Diagnosis and Management in Adults
ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for ADHD, with the DSM-5 recognising three subtypes of the condition: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.
Treatment for ADHD in adults includes medication and non-pharmacological interventions. NICE recommends offering medication to adults with ADHD if their symptoms are still causing significant impairment after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine are first-line medications, with atomoxetine offered for those who cannot tolerate the former two. Additional medication options may be considered with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.
NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’ for ADHD. Prior to initiating medication, referral to cardiology is recommended if there is a suggestion of cardiac pathology. If a person with ADHD develops mania of psychosis, ADHD treatment should be stopped until the episode has resolved. If a person taking stimulants develops tics, medication options may be adjusted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 49
Incorrect
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What does the term diagnostic overshadowing refer to in the context of learning disabilities?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The assumption that the presence of a learning disability explains the entire patient's behaviour
Explanation:Diagnostic Shadowing: The Danger of Assuming One Condition Explains All
Diagnostic shadowing refers to the risk of assuming that a single condition can account for all of a patient’s behavior of symptoms. This can lead to misdiagnosis and inappropriate treatment. For instance, a patient with a learning disability may be assumed to be aggressive solely due to their disability, when in fact they may have an underlying condition such as schizophrenia that has not been identified. Failing to recognize this underlying condition can result in ineffective treatment and a failure to address the root cause of the patient’s behavior. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the potential for diagnostic shadowing and to consider all possible explanations for a patient’s symptoms. By doing so, they can provide more accurate diagnoses and better care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Learning Disability
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Question 50
Incorrect
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What is the recommended treatment for a stroke patient experiencing pathological crying?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Pathological Crying
Pathological crying, also known as pseudobulbar affect, is a condition characterized by sudden outbursts of crying of laughing in response to minor stimuli without any changes in mood. This condition can occur in response to nonspecific and inconsequential stimuli, and lacks a clear association with the prevailing mood state. Pathological crying can result from various neurological conditions, including strokes and multiple sclerosis.
When it comes to treating pathological crying post-stroke, citalopram is often the recommended treatment due to its efficacy in open label studies. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest that TCAs of SSRIs may be effective for MS, while valproic acid and the combination of dextromethorphan and low dose quinidine have also shown efficacy.
Understanding the neuroanatomy of pathological laughing and crying is important for diagnosing and treating this condition. Further research is needed to better understand the underlying mechanisms and develop more effective treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 51
Incorrect
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What is an unlikely finding in the blood test results of a patient with anorexia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low cortisol
Explanation:Anorexia is marked by prolonged hypercortisolism, with increased levels of free cortisol in both the plasma and CSF. Dexamethasone typically fails to suppress cortisol in individuals with anorexia.
Eating Disorders: Lab Findings and Medical Complications
Eating disorders can lead to a range of medical complications, including renal failure, peripheral edema, sinus bradycardia, QT-prolongation, pericardial effusion, and slowed GI motility. Other complications include constipation, cathartic colon, esophageal esophagitis, hair loss, and dental erosion. Blood abnormalities are also common in patients with eating disorders, including hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia, and hypoglycemia. Additionally, patients may experience leucopenia, anemia, low albumin, elevated liver enzymes, and vitamin deficiencies. These complications can cause significant morbidity and mortality in patients with eating disorders. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients for these complications and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 52
Incorrect
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Which of the following behavioral signs is absent in individuals with semantic dementia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced sociability
Explanation:FTD is more likely to impact social behavior, resulting in decreased sociability. Meanwhile, SD primarily affects conceptual knowledge.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A male patient in his mid-20s is referred for treatment due to a depressive illness. On first meeting him, the female doctor is uncomfortable with his clear attempts to be seductive. He explains that he has been rejected by his male friends as they have told him that he is overly sexual with their girlfriends and he demands too much attention from them.
He reports getting easily bored and quickly losing interest in jobs causing him issues with his career. There is no evidence of identity disturbance. He explains that his last relationship ended due to him repeatedly sending messages to his girlfriend saying he would hurt himself if she didn't stop seeing her friends and spend more time with him. He denied any actual acts of self-harm and insisted that he never had intent to hurt himself and only sent the messages to get more of his girlfriend's time.
Which of the following is most likely to be present?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Histrionic personality disorder
Explanation:This scenario strongly indicates the presence of histrionic personality disorder, which often involves individuals displaying sexualized behaviors towards their partners and a constant desire for attention, leading to social alienation. While individuals with borderline personality disorder may also exhibit attention-seeking behaviors, their condition is typically characterized by self-destructive tendencies, tumultuous relationships, and persistent feelings of emptiness and identity disturbance, setting it apart from histrionic personality disorder.
Personality Disorder: Histrionic
A histrionic personality disorder, also known as a dramatic personality disorder, is a psychiatric condition characterized by a consistent pattern of attention-seeking behaviors and exaggerated emotional responses. To diagnose this disorder, the DSM-5 requires the presence of at least five of the following symptoms: discomfort when not the center of attention, seductive of provocative behavior, shallow and shifting emotions, using appearance to draw attention, vague and impressionistic speech, dramatic of exaggerated emotions, suggestibility, and considering relationships to be more intimate than they actually are. However, the ICD-11 has removed the diagnosis of histrionic personality disorder from its list of recognized disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 54
Incorrect
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Which of the following would be the most appropriate first line treatment strategy for a 16 year old girl diagnosed with bulimia nervosa?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Family therapy
Explanation:The NICE Guideline recommends family therapy as the primary treatment option. For adults, guided self-help is the preferred first-line option, while medications are not advised for either children of adults.
Eating Disorders: NICE Guidelines
Anorexia:
For adults with anorexia nervosa, consider individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT-ED), Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA), of specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM). If these are not acceptable, contraindicated, of ineffective, consider eating-disorder-focused focal psychodynamic therapy (FPT). For children and young people, consider anorexia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-AN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Bulimia:
For adults, the first step is an evidence-based self-help programme. If this is not effective, consider individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer bulimia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-BN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Binge Eating Disorder:
The first step is a guided self-help programme. If this is not effective, offer group of individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer the same treatments recommended for adults. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Advice for those with eating disorders:
Encourage people with an eating disorder who are vomiting to avoid brushing teeth immediately after vomiting, rinse with non-acid mouthwash, and avoid highly acidic foods and drinks. Advise against misusing laxatives of diuretics and excessive exercise.Additional points:
Do not offer physical therapy as part of treatment. Consider bone mineral density scans after 1 year of underweight in children and young people, of 2 years in adults. Do not routinely offer oral of transdermal oestrogen therapy to treat low bone mineral density in children of young people with anorexia nervosa. Consider transdermal 17-β-estradiol of bisphosphonates for women with anorexia nervosa.Note: These guidelines are taken from NICE guidelines 2017.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A middle-aged man with a 12 month history of progressive memory decline is brought to the clinic by his wife. She reports marked variability in his presentation with episodic confusion where he will drift off and become vacant. She also reports that he has appeared to respond to unseen stimuli. On examination you note rigidity in his upper limbs. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lewy Body dementia
Explanation:The presence of Lewy Body dementia could account for the observed symptoms of the patient, including the cognitive decline, visual hallucinations, and Parkinson’s-like motor symptoms.
Dementia: Types and Clinical Characteristics
Dementia is a progressive impairment of cognitive functions occurring in clear consciousness. There are over 100 different causes of dementia, and a detailed knowledge is required for the more common types. The following are some of the subtypes of dementia, along with their early features, neuropathology, and proportion:
– Alzheimer’s disease: Impaired memory, apathy, and depression; gradual onset; cortical amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles; 50-75% proportion.
– Vascular dementia: Similar to AD, but memory less affected, and mood fluctuations more prominent; physical frailty; stepwise onset; cerebrovascular disease; single infarcts in critical regions, of more diffuse multi-infarct disease; 20-30% proportion.
– Frontotemporal dementia: Personality changes, mood changes, disinhibition, language difficulties; no single pathology – damage limited to frontal and temporal lobes; 5-10% proportion.
– Dementia with Lewy Bodies: Marked fluctuation in cognitive ability, visual hallucinations, Parkinsonism (tremor and rigidity); cortical Lewy bodies (alpha-synuclein); <5% proportion. Other types of dementia include Pick’s disease, Huntington’s disease, pseudodementia, and progressive supranuclear palsy. Each subtype has its own unique clinical characteristics and neuropathology. It is important to accurately diagnose the type of dementia in order to provide appropriate treatment and care. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl is referred to you after being caught stealing a phone from a store and attempting to leave without paying. Her parents are worried as they have heard rumors of her skipping school with friends and using inhalants. She has been displaying more aggressive behavior lately, such as throwing objects at her mother when asked to do chores. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conduct disorder
Explanation:Conduct disorders are defined by a consistent and recurring pattern of behavior that is defiant, aggressive, of dissocial. This behavior should be severe enough to violate social expectations that are appropriate for the individual’s age, and should not be mistaken for typical adolescent rebellion of childish mischief. The diagnosis is not based on isolated criminal of dissocial acts, but rather on a persistent pattern of behavior.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 57
Incorrect
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How does the suicide rate in patients with epilepsy compare to the general population?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3 times higher
Explanation:Suicide Risk in Epilepsy
Several studies have shown that individuals with epilepsy have an increased risk of suicide. A large study published in the Lancet in 2007 found that individuals with epilepsy were three times more likely to commit suicide compared to those without epilepsy. This risk remained high even after excluding those with a history of psychiatric disease and adjusting for socioeconomic factors.
The highest risk of suicide was found in individuals with epilepsy and comorbid psychiatric disease, with a risk of 13.7 times higher than controls. The risk of suicide was also highest during the first six months after diagnosis, especially in those with a history of comorbid psychiatric disease.
These findings highlight the importance of addressing mental health concerns in individuals with epilepsy, particularly during the early stages of diagnosis. Healthcare providers should be aware of the increased risk of suicide in this population and provide appropriate support and resources to prevent suicide.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A teenage boy is brought to the clinic by his father. The father is worried about his son's frequent use of alcohol, but the son does not see it as a problem and thinks his father is being too strict. Based on the stages of change model, what stage is the son currently in?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pre-contemplation
Explanation:The person is presently in the precontemplation stage of change as they are not contemplating any changes. At this stage, individuals may not be aware of any issues that require modification.
Stages of Change Model
Prochaska and DiClemente’s Stages of Change Model identifies five stages that individuals go through when making a change. The first stage is pre-contemplation, where the individual is not considering change. There are different types of precontemplators, including those who lack knowledge about the problem, those who are afraid of losing control, those who feel hopeless, and those who rationalize their behavior.
The second stage is contemplation, where the individual is ambivalent about change and is sitting on the fence. The third stage is preparation, where the individual has some experience with change and is trying to change, testing the waters. The fourth stage is action, where the individual has started to introduce change, and the behavior is defined as action during the first six months of change.
The final stage is maintenance, where the individual is involved in ongoing efforts to maintain change. Action becomes maintenance once six months have elapsed. Understanding these stages can help individuals and professionals in supporting behavior change.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 59
Incorrect
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What is a physical symptom commonly associated with anxiety?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dry mouth
Explanation:The question is specifically inquiring about the physical symptom, which is also known as the somatic symptom. The term ‘somatic’ pertains to bodily sensations of experiences, rather than mental of emotional ones.
Generalised Anxiety Disorder: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Generalised anxiety disorder is a condition characterized by persistent symptoms of anxiety that last for several months and occur on most days. The symptoms can be either general apprehension of excessive worry about multiple everyday events, such as family, health, finances, and work of school. In addition to these symptoms, individuals with generalised anxiety disorder may experience muscular tension, motor restlessness, sympathetic autonomic overactivity, nervousness, difficulty concentrating, irritability, of sleep disturbance.
To diagnose generalised anxiety disorder, healthcare professionals look for specific essential features. These include marked symptoms of anxiety that are not restricted to any particular environmental circumstance, and are accompanied by additional characteristic symptoms such as muscle tension, autonomic overactivity, nervousness, difficulty concentrating, irritability, and sleep disturbances. The symptoms must persist for at least several months, for more days than not, and cannot be better accounted for by another mental disorder of medical condition. The symptoms must also result in significant distress of impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 60
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 70-year-old woman and her husband in a memory clinic. She reports subjective memory difficulties, but her daily functioning is not affected. Her MMSE score is 28/30, with a loss of two points on recall. Her husband asks you about the likelihood of her developing dementia within the next year. What advice do you give them?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 10%
Explanation:Mild cognitive impairment (MCI) is a diagnosis that encompasses a diverse group of individuals, some of whom may be in the early stages of dementia. To diagnose MCI, there must be a reported concern about changes in cognitive functioning, impairment in one of more cognitive domains, preservation of functional abilities, and a score above the cut-off for dementia on cognitive tests. While some patients with MCI may return to normal cognition, approximately 10% of patients progress to dementia per year, with 85% of cases being Alzheimer’s and 15% being vascular dementia. The exact number of patients with MCI who will develop dementia is difficult to determine due to challenges in long-term follow-up.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 61
Incorrect
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What did Freud believe about the Id?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It has no sense of time
Explanation:Freud’s Structural Theory: Understanding the Three Areas of the Mind
According to Freud’s structural model, the human mind is divided into three distinct areas: the Id, the Ego, and the Superego. The Id is the part of the mind that contains instinctive drives and operates on the ‘pleasure principle’. It functions without a sense of time and is governed by ‘primary process thinking’. The Ego, on the other hand, attempts to modify the drives from the Id with external reality. It operates on the ‘reality principle’ and has conscious, preconscious, and unconscious aspects. It is also home to the defense mechanisms. Finally, the Superego acts as a critical agency, constantly observing a person’s behavior. Freud believed that it developed from the internalized values of a child’s main caregivers. The Superego contains the ‘ego ideal’, which represents ideal attitudes and behavior. It is often referred to as the conscience. Understanding these three areas of the mind is crucial to understanding Freud’s structural theory.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 62
Incorrect
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The patient inquires about the potential memory impairment caused by ECT. Which specific type of memory is impacted by this procedure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Retrograde and anterograde
Explanation:Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is known to cause retrograde amnesia, which is the most persistent cognitive side effect (Lisanby, 2000). Patients often experience memory gaps for events that occurred around the time of ECT, and sometimes even for events that happened months of years prior. While retrograde amnesia typically improves within a few months after treatment, some patients may not fully recover and may have permanent memory loss for events close to the time of treatment. Additionally, anterograde amnesia may also be a possible side effect.
ECT (Treatment) – Summary of Effectiveness and Recommendations
ECT (Electroconvulsive Therapy) is a treatment that induces a therapeutic seizure through the application of electrical current under general anesthesia and muscle relaxation. It is prescribed as a course and is usually administered twice weekly for 6 to 12 treatments. ECT is the most effective short-term treatment for major depression, with remission rates of around 60-80% when used as first-line treatment in a severe depressive episode. However, without maintenance treatment, the relapse rate is extremely high (over 80%) in the 6 months after successful ECT.
Cognitive effects are the main limitation to the wider use of ECT, particularly acute confusion shortly after the treatment, retrograde amnesia, and some losses in autobiographical memory longer term. The current state of evidence does not allow the general use of ECT in the management of schizophrenia. Bilateral ECT is more effective than unilateral ECT but may cause more cognitive impairment. With unilateral ECT, a higher stimulus dose is associated with greater efficacy but also increased cognitive impairment compared with a lower stimulus dose.
NICE (National Institute for Health and Care Excellence) recommends that ECT is used only to achieve rapid and short-term improvement of severe symptoms after an adequate trial of other treatment options has proven ineffective and/of when the condition is considered to be potentially life-threatening. ECT is recommended for individuals with severe depression (that is life-threatening and when a rapid response is required, of when other treatments have failed), moderate depression (consider it if their depression has not responded to multiple drug treatments and psychological treatment), catatonia, and a prolonged of severe manic episode.
The RCPsych (Royal College of Psychiatrists) position on ECT recommends it as a first-line treatment for individuals with high suicidal risk, severe psychomotor retardation and associated problems of compromised eating and drinking and/of physical deterioration, treatment-resistant depression that has responded to ECT in a previous episode of illness, pregnant individuals with severe depression, of severe mixed affective states, mania of catatonia and whose physical health of that of the fetus is at serious risk, and those who prefer this form of treatment. ECT is recommended as a second-line treatment for individuals with treatment-resistant depression, severe side-effects from medication, and persistent of life-threatening symptoms in severe of prolonged mania. ECT is indicated in some circumstances for individuals with bipolar depression, postnatal psychosis, treatment-resistant schizophrenia, treatment-resistant catatonia, and frequent relapses and recurrences of depression (maintenance).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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Question 63
Incorrect
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One of Bion's fundamental group assumptions is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pairing
Explanation:Bion, a psychoanalyst, was fascinated by group dynamics and believed that groups had a collective unconscious that functioned similarly to that of an individual. He argued that this unconsciousness protected the group from the pain of reality. Bion identified two types of groups: the ‘working group’ that functioned well and achieved its goals, and the ‘basic assumption group’ that acted out primitive fantasies and prevented progress. Bion then described different types of basic assumption groups, including ‘dependency,’ where the group turns to a leader to alleviate anxiety, ‘fight-flight,’ where the group perceives an enemy and either attacks of avoids them, and ‘pairing,’ where the group believes that the solution lies in the pairing of two members. These dynamics can be observed in various settings, such as when strangers come together for the first time of when doctors in different specialties criticize one another.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 64
Incorrect
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If a 14 year old boy with schizophrenia does not show improvement with olanzapine or risperidone despite being given adequate doses for adequate durations, what would be your recommendation for the next antipsychotic medication to try?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:The NICE guidelines require that before attempting clozapine, at least one second-generation (atypical) antipsychotic should have been tested. There is no mandate for a trial of a typical antipsychotic.
Antipsychotics in Young People
Antipsychotics are just as effective in children and adolescents as they are in adults. However, the rate of side effects in young people is higher than in adults. Clozapine is a beneficial second-line agent for treating children with refractory schizophrenia and some argue for its early use in first-episode psychosis. Before starting clozapine, a patient should have tried at least two different antipsychotics, with at least one being a second-generation (atypical) antipsychotic, according to NICE guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 65
Incorrect
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What is the recommended initial treatment for a patient with generalised anxiety disorder who has not shown improvement with psychological therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:If Sertraline were included in the list of options, it would be a preferable choice.
Anxiety (NICE guidelines)
The NICE Guidelines on Generalised anxiety disorder and panic disorder were issued in 2011. For the management of generalised anxiety disorder, NICE suggests a stepped approach. For mild GAD, education and active monitoring are recommended. If there is no response to step 1, low-intensity psychological interventions such as CBT-based self-help of psychoeducational groups are suggested. For those with marked functional impairment of those who have not responded to step 2, individual high-intensity psychological intervention of drug treatment is recommended. Specialist treatment is suggested for those with very marked functional impairment, no response to step 3, self-neglect, risks of self-harm or suicide, of significant comorbidity. Benzodiazepines should not be used beyond 2-4 weeks, and SSRIs are first line. For panic disorder, psychological therapy (CBT), medication, and self-help have all been shown to be effective. Benzodiazepines, sedating antihistamines, of antipsychotics should not be used. SSRIs are first line, and if they fail, imipramine of clomipramine can be used. Self-help (CBT based) should be encouraged. If the patient improves with an antidepressant, it should be continued for at least 6 months after the optimal dose is reached, after which the dose can be tapered. If there is no improvement after a 12-week course, an alternative medication of another form of therapy should be offered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 66
Incorrect
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What is the most frequently observed eye abnormality in individuals with Wernicke's encephalopathy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nystagmus
Explanation:Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that is characterized by confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. However, the complete triad is only present in 10% of cases, which often leads to underdiagnosis. The condition results from prolonged thiamine deficiency, which is commonly seen in people with alcohol dependency, but can also occur in other conditions such as anorexia nervosa, malignancy, and AIDS.
The onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy is usually abrupt, but it may develop over several days to weeks. The lesions occur in a symmetrical distribution in structures surrounding the third ventricle, aqueduct, and fourth ventricle. The mammillary bodies are involved in up to 80% of cases, and atrophy of these structures is specific for Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
Treatment involves intravenous thiamine, as oral forms of B1 are poorly absorbed. IV glucose should be avoided when thiamine deficiency is suspected as it can precipitate of exacerbate Wernicke’s. With treatment, ophthalmoplegia and confusion usually resolve within days, but the ataxia, neuropathy, and nystagmus may be prolonged of permanent.
Untreated cases of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is characterized by memory impairment associated with confabulation. The mortality rate associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy is 10-20%, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 67
Incorrect
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What is the primary requirement in brief psychodynamic therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A single focus for therapy
Explanation:Brief Psychodynamic Psychotherapy: A Time-Limited Treatment
Brief psychodynamic psychotherapy is a type of therapy that is based on psychodynamic principles and is designed to be completed within a limited time frame, typically 10-12 sessions. This therapy is particularly effective when there is a specific focus of problem that the patient is dealing with. However, it is important that the patient is highly motivated and able to think in feeling terms for the therapy to be successful.
There are different subtypes of brief psychodynamic psychotherapy, and some factors are considered contraindications for this type of therapy. These include serious suicide attempts, substance abuse, and marked acting out. Overall, brief psychodynamic psychotherapy can be a useful tool for addressing specific issues and helping patients achieve their therapeutic goals within a limited time frame.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 68
Incorrect
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Which substance withdrawal is linked to symptoms of hypersomnia, hyperphagia, and irritability?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amphetamine
Explanation:Illicit drugs, also known as illegal drugs, are substances that are prohibited by law and can have harmful effects on the body and mind. Some of the most commonly used illicit drugs in the UK include opioids, amphetamines, cocaine, MDMA (ecstasy), cannabis, and hallucinogens.
Opioids, such as heroin, are highly addictive and can cause euphoria, drowsiness, constipation, and respiratory depression. Withdrawal symptoms may include piloerection, insomnia, restlessness, dilated pupils, yawning, sweating, and abdominal cramps.
Amphetamines and cocaine are stimulants that can increase energy, cause insomnia, hyperactivity, euphoria, and paranoia. Withdrawal symptoms may include hypersomnia, hyperphagia, depression, irritability, agitation, vivid dreams, and increased appetite.
MDMA, also known as ecstasy, can cause increased energy, sweating, jaw clenching, euphoria, enhanced sociability, and increased response to touch. Withdrawal symptoms may include depression, insomnia, depersonalisation, and derealisation.
Cannabis, also known as marijuana of weed, can cause relaxation, intensified sensory experience, paranoia, anxiety, and injected conjunctiva. Withdrawal symptoms may include insomnia, reduced appetite, and irritability.
Hallucinogens, such as LSD, can cause perceptual changes, pupillary dilation, tachycardia, sweating, palpitations, tremors, and incoordination. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for hallucinogens.
Ketamine, also known as Vitamin K, Super K, Special K, of donkey dust, can cause euphoria, dissociation, ataxia, and hallucinations. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for ketamine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 69
Incorrect
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Which substance is most similar to Mephedrone among the given options?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ecstasy
Explanation:New Psychoactive Substances, previously known as ‘legal highs’, are synthetic compounds designed to mimic the effects of traditional illicit drugs. They became popular due to their ability to avoid legislative control, but the introduction of the Psychoactive Substances Act 2016 changed this. There is no standard for clinical classification, but some common legal highs include Mephedrone, Piperazines, GBL, Synthetic cannabinoids, and Benzofuran compounds. These substances have effects similar to ecstasy, amphetamines, and cannabis, and are classified as either Class B of Class C drugs in the UK.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 70
Incorrect
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What is the relationship between cannabis use and the likelihood of developing schizophrenia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The younger a person starts using cannabis the higher their subsequent risk
Explanation:Consistent evidence suggests a link between cannabis use and schizophrenia risk, with the risk increasing as the age of first use decreases.
Schizophrenia and Cannabis Use
The relationship between cannabis use and the risk of developing schizophrenia is a topic of ongoing debate. However, research suggests that cannabis use may increase the risk of later schizophrenia of schizophreniform disorder by two-fold (Arseneault, 2004). The risk of developing schizophrenia appears to be higher in individuals who start using cannabis at a younger age. For instance, regular cannabis smokers at the age of 15 are 4.5 times more likely to develop schizophrenia at the age of 26, compared to those who did not report regular use until age 18 (Murray, 2004).
A systematic review published in the Lancet in 2007 found that the lifetime risk of developing psychosis increased by 40% in individuals who had ever used cannabis (Moore, 2007). Another meta-analysis reported that the age at onset of psychosis was 2.70 years younger in cannabis users than in non-users (Large, 2011). These findings suggest that cannabis use may have a significant impact on the development of schizophrenia and related disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 71
Incorrect
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If a woman with schizophrenia does not respond to haloperidol and fluphenazine, what would be the most suitable drug to try next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Olanzapine
Explanation:The question is misleading as it suggests starting clozapine without following the clear guidance. According to the guidance, two antipsychotics (one of which must be an atypical) must be tried before considering clozapine. However, in the given scenario, both antipsychotics are typicals, which does not meet the criteria for starting clozapine.
Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 72
Incorrect
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Which risk factor is commonly associated with schizophrenia based on the findings of the AESOP study?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ethnicity and race
Explanation:Schizophrenia: Understanding the Risk Factors
Social class is a significant risk factor for schizophrenia, with people of lower socioeconomic status being more likely to develop the condition. Two hypotheses attempt to explain this relationship, one suggesting that environmental exposures common in lower social class conditions are responsible, while the other suggests that people with schizophrenia tend to drift towards the lower class due to their inability to compete for good jobs.
While early studies suggested that schizophrenia was more common in black populations than in white, the current consensus is that there are no differences in rates of schizophrenia by race. However, there is evidence that rates are higher in migrant populations and ethnic minorities.
Gender and age do not appear to be consistent risk factors for schizophrenia, with conflicting evidence on whether males of females are more likely to develop the condition. Marital status may also play a role, with females with schizophrenia being more likely to marry than males.
Family history is a strong risk factor for schizophrenia, with the risk increasing significantly for close relatives of people with the condition. Season of birth and urban versus rural place of birth have also been shown to impact the risk of developing schizophrenia.
Obstetric complications, particularly prenatal nutritional deprivation, brain injury, and influenza, have been identified as significant risk factors for schizophrenia. Understanding these risk factors can help identify individuals who may be at higher risk for developing the condition and inform preventative measures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 73
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about bodily distress disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prevalence is higher in females
Explanation:Children experience a particular symptom more frequently than adults do.
Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterized by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behavior. Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterized by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. Dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. The symptoms of these disorders result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a thorough evaluation of the individual’s symptoms and medical history, as well as ruling out other possible causes of the symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 74
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about flumazenil?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flumazenil is not currently licensed for the treatment of benzodiazepine overdose in the UK
Explanation:Flumazenil is not authorized for treating benzodiazepine overdose in the UK, despite its widespread use. It works by competitively inhibiting the benzodiazepine binding site on the GABAA receptor, reversing the effects of benzodiazepines. Due to its brief half-life of approximately 10 minutes, it is important to note that multiple doses may be required in cases of benzodiazepine overdose.
Self-Harm and its Management
Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.
Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.
In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.
For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 75
Incorrect
-
A colleague in primary care contacts you for advice regarding a case of mild panic disorder in a 35-year-old woman. Medical causes have been ruled out.
According to NICE guidelines, what would be the most appropriate course of action in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Individual self-help
Explanation:Understanding Panic Disorder: Key Facts, Diagnosis, and Treatment Recommendations
Panic disorder is a mental health condition characterized by recurrent unexpected panic attacks, which are sudden surges of intense fear of discomfort that reach a peak within minutes. Females are more commonly affected than males, and the disorder typically onsets during the early 20s. Panic attacks are followed by persistent concern of worry about their recurrence of negative significance, of behaviors intended to avoid their recurrence. The symptoms result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.
To diagnose panic disorder, the individual must experience recurrent panic attacks that are not restricted to particular stimuli of situations and are unexpected. The panic attacks are followed by persistent concern of worry about their recurrence of negative significance, of behaviors intended to avoid their recurrence. The symptoms are not a manifestation of another medical condition of substance use, and they result in significant impairment in functioning.
Panic disorder is differentiated from normal fear reactions by the frequent recurrence of panic attacks, persistent worry of concern about the panic attacks of their meaning, and associated significant impairment in functioning. Treatment recommendations vary based on the severity of the disorder, with mild to moderate cases recommended for individual self-help and moderate to severe cases recommended for cognitive-behavioral therapy of antidepressant medication. The classes of antidepressants that have an evidence base for effectiveness are SSRIs, SNRIs, and TCAs. Benzodiazepines are not recommended for the treatment of panic disorder due to their association with a less favorable long-term outcome. Sedating antihistamines of antipsychotics should also not be prescribed for the treatment of panic disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 76
Incorrect
-
What is the most crucial test of investigation to perform when a patient who has recently started taking clozapine experiences central chest pain accompanied by sweating and nausea?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Troponin
Explanation:If a patient taking clozapine experiences chest pain, it is important to consider myocarditis as a potential cause. Conducting a troponin test can aid in confirming the presence of this condition.
Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 77
Incorrect
-
A young man who still experiences seizures during his sleep is interested in reapplying for his driver's license. He has had seizures during the day in the past, but it has been a while since his last one. What guidance would you provide him with regarding reapplying for his license?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She can reapply as long as she has not had a seizure during the day for 3 years
Explanation:Driving is still an option for individuals experiencing nocturnal seizures. Those who have solely experienced nocturnal seizures can reapply for their license after a 12-month period. However, if they have experienced both nocturnal and diurnal seizures, they must wait for 3 years without a diurnal seizure before reapplying.
Epilepsy and Driving Regulations in the UK
If an individual has experienced epileptic seizures while awake and lost consciousness, they can apply for a car of motorbike licence if they haven’t had a seizure for at least a year. However, if the seizure was due to a change in medication, they can apply when the seizure occurred more than six months ago if they are back on their old medication.
In the case of a one-off seizure while awake and lost consciousness, the individual can apply for a licence after six months if there have been no further seizures.
If an individual has experienced seizures while asleep and awake, they may still qualify for a licence if the only seizures in the past three years have been while asleep.
If an individual has only had seizures while asleep, they may qualify for a licence if it has been 12 months of more since their first seizure.
Seizures that do not affect consciousness may still qualify for a licence if the seizures do not involve loss of consciousness and the last seizure occurred at least 12 months ago.
It is important to note that the rules for bus, coach, and lorry licences differ. For these licences, an individual must be seizure-free for 10 years if they have had more than one previous seizure and have not been on antiepileptic medication. If they have only had one previous seizure and have not been on antiepileptic medication, they must be seizure-free for five years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 78
Incorrect
-
What is the term used to describe the likelihood of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is actually false?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Power of the test
Explanation:Understanding Hypothesis Testing in Statistics
In statistics, it is not feasible to investigate hypotheses on entire populations. Therefore, researchers take samples and use them to make estimates about the population they are drawn from. However, this leads to uncertainty as there is no guarantee that the sample taken will be truly representative of the population, resulting in potential errors. Statistical hypothesis testing is the process used to determine if claims from samples to populations can be made and with what certainty.
The null hypothesis (Ho) is the claim that there is no real difference between two groups, while the alternative hypothesis (H1 of Ha) suggests that any difference is due to some non-random chance. The alternative hypothesis can be one-tailed of two-tailed, depending on whether it seeks to establish a difference of a change in one direction.
Two types of errors may occur when testing the null hypothesis: Type I and Type II errors. Type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, while Type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
P-values provide information on statistical significance and help researchers decide if study results have occurred due to chance. The p-value is the probability of obtaining a result that is as large of larger when in reality there is no difference between two groups. The cutoff for the p-value is called the significance level (alpha level), typically set at 0.05. If the p-value is less than the cutoff, the null hypothesis is rejected, and if it is greater or equal to the cut off, the null hypothesis is not rejected. However, the p-value does not indicate clinical significance, which may be too small to be meaningful.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 79
Incorrect
-
How are correlation and regression related?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Regression allows one variable to be predicted from another variable
Explanation:Stats: Correlation and Regression
Correlation and regression are related but not interchangeable terms. Correlation is used to test for association between variables, while regression is used to predict values of dependent variables from independent variables. Correlation can be linear, non-linear, of non-existent, and can be strong, moderate, of weak. The strength of a linear relationship is measured by the correlation coefficient, which can be positive of negative and ranges from very weak to very strong. However, the interpretation of a correlation coefficient depends on the context and purposes. Correlation can suggest association but cannot prove of disprove causation. Linear regression, on the other hand, can be used to predict how much one variable changes when a second variable is changed. Scatter graphs are used in correlation and regression analyses to visually determine if variables are associated and to detect outliers. When constructing a scatter graph, the dependent variable is typically placed on the vertical axis and the independent variable on the horizontal axis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 80
Incorrect
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What is the estimated percentage of prisoners aged 60 and above in England and Wales who have been diagnosed with a personality disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 30%
Explanation:Prisoner Mental Health: Focus on Older Adults
Limited research exists on the mental health of older adults (60 years and above) in prison. However, a study conducted in 2001 in England and Wales revealed high rates of depressive disorder and personality disorder among this population. More than half (53%) of the sample had a psychiatric diagnosis, with approximately 30% diagnosed with depression and another 30% with personality disorder (including 8% with antisocial personality disorder). Only 1% of the sample had dementia. Further research is needed to better understand and address the mental health needs of older adults in prison.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with a 5-year history of Parkinson's has been experiencing distressing visual and tactile hallucinations for the past 4 months. An attempt was made to reduce his Parkinson's medication, but this led to a severe deterioration in his mobility. Which of the following medications would you suggest he try?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Only clozapine and quetiapine are appropriate antipsychotics for Parkinson’s disease, with clozapine being supported by randomized controlled trials with placebo (Friedman, 2010).
Parkinson’s Disease: Presentation, Aetiology, Medical Treatment, and Psychiatric Aspects
Parkinson’s disease is a degenerative disease of the brain that is characterised by motor symptoms such as rigidity, bradykinesia, and tremor. It has a long prodromal phase and early symptoms generally present asymmetrically. The tremor associated with Parkinson’s disease is classically described as ‘pill rolling’. The principle abnormality is the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the pars compacta of the substantia nigra, which leads to an accumulation of alpha-synuclein in these abnormal dopaminergic cells. The majority of cases of Parkinson’s disease are idiopathic, but single gene mutations occur in a minority of cases. Pesticide, herbicide, and heavy metal exposures are linked to an increased risk of Parkinson’s disease in some epidemiologic studies, whereas smoking and caffeine use are associated with decreased risks.
Treatment for Parkinson’s disease predominantly focuses on symptomatic relief with drugs aiming to either restore the level of dopamine in the striatum of to act on striatal postsynaptic dopamine receptors. However, as dopamine is not the only neurotransmitter involved in Parkinson’s disease, many other drugs are also being used to target specific symptoms, such as depression of dementia. Psychiatric symptoms are common in Parkinson’s disease and range from mild to severe. Factors associated with severe symptoms include age, sleep disturbance, dementia, and disease severity. Hallucinations are common in Parkinson’s disease and tend to be visual but can be auditory of tactile. In the majority of patients, psychotic symptoms are thought to be secondary to dopaminergic medication rather than due to the Parkinson’s disease itself. Anticholinergics and dopamine agonists seem to be associated with a higher risk of inducing psychosis than levodopa of catechol-O-methyltransferase inhibitors. Medications used for psychotic symptoms may worsen movement problems. Risperidone and the typicals should be avoided completely. Low dose quetiapine is the best tolerated. Clozapine is the most effective antipsychotic drug for treating psychosis in Parkinson’s disease but its use in clinical practice is limited by the need for monitoring and the additional physical risks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 82
Incorrect
-
Out of the options provided, which technique is the least commonly utilized in cognitive behavioural therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paradoxical Injunction
Explanation:The paradoxical injunction is a technique utilized to deter undesired actions by encouraging the individual to engage in the behavior in question. This method can be highly successful, but it also carries potential hazards and should only be employed in specific, well-considered situations. An example of this approach would be to suggest that an individual who frequently engages in self-harm should do so.
Cognitive Behavioural Therapy (CBT): Basic Principles
CBT is a form of psychotherapy that focuses on the relationship between thoughts, feelings, and behaviours. The central elements of CBT include collaborative empiricism, problem-orientated focus, short-term treatment for uncomplicated disorders, structured methods, psychoeducation, and homework.
Collaborative empiricism involves the therapist and client working together to identify and test the client’s beliefs and assumptions. The problem-orientated focus means that therapy is focused on specific problems of symptoms that the client is experiencing. CBT is typically a short-term treatment for uncomplicated disorders, with a focus on achieving measurable goals within a limited number of sessions.
Structured methods are used in CBT to help clients identify and challenge negative thoughts and behaviours. Psychoeducation involves teaching clients about the relationship between thoughts, feelings, and behaviours. Homework is often assigned to help clients practice new skills and reinforce what they have learned in therapy.
Cognitive methods used in CBT include Socratic questioning, guided discovery, examining the evidence, identifying cognitive errors, thought change records, generating rational alternatives, imagery, role play, and rehearsal. Behavioural methods used in CBT include activity and pleasant event scheduling, graded task assignments, exposure and response prevention, relaxation training, breathing training, and coping cards.
In summary, CBT is a structured, problem-focused, and collaborative approach to therapy that aims to help clients identify and challenge negative thoughts and behaviours. It is a short-term treatment that uses a range of cognitive and behavioural methods to achieve measurable goals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 83
Incorrect
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What is the method used to establish accountability for criminal actions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: McNaughten rules
Explanation:The issue of consent in individuals under the age of 16 is evaluated through the Gillick test, while cases of medical negligence are assessed using the Bolam test.
Criminal Responsibility and Age Limits
To be found guilty of a crime, it must be proven that a person committed the act (actus reus) and had a guilty mind (mens rea). In England and Wales, children under the age of 10 cannot be held criminally responsible for their actions and cannot be arrested or charged with a crime. Instead, they may face other punishments such as a Local Child Curfew of a Child Safety Order. Children between the ages of 10 and 17 can be arrested and taken to court, but are treated differently from adults and may be dealt with by youth courts, given different sentences, and sent to special secure centers for young people. Young people aged 18 are treated as adults by the law.
Not Guilty by Reason of Insanity and Other Defenses
A person may be found not guilty by reason of insanity if they did not understand the nature of quality of their actions of did not know that what they were doing was wrong. Automatism is a defense used when the act is believed to have occurred unconsciously, either from an external cause (sane automatism) of an internal cause (insane automatism). Diminished responsibility is a defense used only in the defense of murder and allows for a reduction of the normal life sentence to manslaughter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 84
Incorrect
-
To qualify as purposive sampling, would the researcher need to specifically target participants based on certain characteristics, such as those who had received a delayed diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Convenience sampling
Explanation:The sampling method employed was convenience sampling, which involved recruiting participants through flyers posted in clinics. However, this approach may lead to an imbalanced sample. To be considered purposive sampling, the researcher would need to demonstrate a deliberate effort to recruit participants based on specific characteristics, such as targeting individuals who had experienced a delayed diagnosis.
Qualitative research is a method of inquiry that seeks to understand the meaning and experience dimensions of human lives and social worlds. There are different approaches to qualitative research, such as ethnography, phenomenology, and grounded theory, each with its own purpose, role of the researcher, stages of research, and method of data analysis. The most common methods used in healthcare research are interviews and focus groups. Sampling techniques include convenience sampling, purposive sampling, quota sampling, snowball sampling, and case study sampling. Sample size can be determined by data saturation, which occurs when new categories, themes, of explanations stop emerging from the data. Validity can be assessed through triangulation, respondent validation, bracketing, and reflexivity. Analytical approaches include content analysis and constant comparison.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 85
Incorrect
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What is the most dependable risk factor that has been demonstrated for autism spectrum disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Valproate use during pregnancy
Explanation:Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is a lifelong disorder characterized by deficits in communication and social understanding, as well as restrictive and repetitive behaviors. The distinction between autism and Asperger’s has been abandoned, and they are now grouped together under the ASD category. Intellectual ability is difficult to assess in people with ASD, with an estimated 33% having an intellectual disability. ASD was first described in Europe and the United States using different terms, with Leo Kanner and Hans Asperger being the pioneers. Diagnosis is based on persistent deficits in social communication and social interaction, as well as restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior. The worldwide population prevalence is about 1%, with comorbidity being common. Heritability is estimated at around 90%, and both genetic and environmental factors seem to cause ASD. Currently, there are no validated pharmacological treatments that alleviate core ASD symptoms, but second-generation antipsychotics are the first-line pharmacological treatment for children and adolescents with ASD and associated irritability.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 86
Incorrect
-
For what purpose is the Gudjonsson Scale primarily used in assessment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Suggestibility
Explanation:The Gudjonsson Suggestibility Scale
The Gudjonsson Suggestibility Scale is a tool used to measure suggestibility in individuals. It involves reading a story to participants, who are then asked to recall as much as they can remember. Afterward, participants are asked 20 questions related to the story, 15 of which are misleading. Once the questions have been answered, participants are given negative feedback on their performance and told that they made several errors. They are then asked to repeat the questions to obtain more accurate answers. Based on the participants’ responses to the misleading questions, a total suggestibility score can be calculated. This scale is useful in understanding how easily individuals can be influenced of manipulated by external factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 87
Incorrect
-
What is the estimated percentage of children with conduct disorders who are believed to fulfill the diagnostic criteria for antisocial personality disorder in adulthood?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Disruptive Behaviour of Dissocial Disorders
Conduct disorders are the most common reason for referral of young children to mental health services. These disorders are characterized by a repetitive and persistent pattern of antisocial, aggressive, of defiant conduct that goes beyond ordinary childish mischief of adolescent rebelliousness. Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) shares some negative attributes but in a more limited fashion.
ICD-11 terms the disorder as ‘Conduct-dissocial disorder’, while DSM-5 recognizes three separate conditions related to emotional/behavioral problems seen in younger people: conduct disorder, oppositional defiant disorder, and intermittent explosive disorder. Conduct disorder is about poorly controlled behavior, intermittent explosive disorder is about poorly controlled emotions, and ODD is in between. Conduct disorders are further divided into childhood onset (before 10 years) and adolescent onset (10 years of older).
The behavior pattern of conduct disorders must be persistent and recurrent, including multiple incidents of aggression towards people of animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness of theft, and serious violations of rules. The pattern of behavior must result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.
Oppositional defiant disorder represents a less severe form of conduct disorder, where there is an absence of more severe dissocial of aggressive acts. The behavior pattern of ODD includes persistent difficulty getting along with others, provocative, spiteful, of vindictive behavior, and extreme irritability of anger.
The prevalence of conduct disorders increases throughout childhood and is more common in boys than girls. The most frequent comorbid problem seen with conduct disorder is hyperactivity. The conversion rate from childhood conduct disorder to adult antisocial personality disorder varies from 40 to 70% depending on the study.
NICE recommends group parent-based training programs of parent and child training programs for children with complex needs for ages 3-11, child-focused programs for ages 9-14, and multimodal interventions with a family focus for ages 11-17. Medication is not recommended in routine practice, but risperidone can be used where other approaches fail and they are seriously aggressive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 88
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman is brought into hospital by her husband. She has been refusing to go outside for the past 12 months, telling her husband she is afraid of catching avian flu. This is despite there being no known cases of avian flu in the country. When asked about this she becomes agitated and says there are too many migrating birds in her garden. On further questioning she reports that approximately twelve months ago she saw a man lift his hat off his head twice in a supermarket and knew instantly that her life was in danger. She appears euthymic in mood. You note that her speech is highly disorganised and almost incoherent.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Schizophrenia
Explanation:The patient displays a strong fear for her safety due to what appears to be delusions regarding the severity of the threat posed by avian flu. Despite attempts to reason with her, her belief remains firmly held with delusional conviction. This is an example of delusional perception, a first rank symptom strongly indicative of schizophrenia. If the patient also exhibits disorganized speech for a duration of over six months, a diagnosis of schizophrenia is likely. Delusional disorder is not diagnosed if the criteria for schizophrenia are met. A schizophreniform disorder is similar to schizophrenia, but with a symptom duration of less than six months, while a brief psychotic disorder has a symptom duration of less than one month.
– Schizophrenia and other primary psychotic disorders are characterized by impairments in reality testing and alterations in behavior.
– Schizophrenia is a chronic mental health disorder with symptoms including delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech of behavior, and impaired cognitive ability.
– The essential features of schizophrenia include persistent delusions, persistent hallucinations, disorganized thinking, experiences of influence, passivity of control, negative symptoms, grossly disorganized behavior, and psychomotor disturbances.
– Schizoaffective disorder is diagnosed when all diagnostic requirements for schizophrenia are met concurrently with mood symptoms that meet the diagnostic requirements of a moderate or severe depressive episode, a manic episode, of a mixed episode.
– Schizotypal disorder is an enduring pattern of unusual speech, perceptions, beliefs, and behaviors that are not of sufficient intensity of duration to meet the diagnostic requirements of schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, of delusional disorder.
– Acute and transient psychotic disorder is characterized by an acute onset of psychotic symptoms, which can include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thinking, of experiences of influence, passivity of control, that emerge without a prodrome, progressing from a non-psychotic state to a clearly psychotic state within 2 weeks.
– Delusional disorder is diagnosed when there is a presence of a delusion of set of related delusions, typically persisting for at least 3 months and often much longer, in the absence of a depressive, manic, of mixed episode. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 89
Incorrect
-
Which type of evidence is typically regarded as the most reliable according to traditional methods?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: RCTs with non-definitive results
Explanation:Levels and Grades of Evidence in Evidence-Based Medicine
To evaluate the quality of evidence on a subject of question, levels of grades are used. The traditional hierarchy approach places systematic reviews of randomized control trials at the top and case-series/report at the bottom. However, this approach is overly simplistic as certain research questions cannot be answered using RCTs. To address this, the Oxford Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine introduced their 2011 Levels of Evidence system, which separates the type of study questions and gives a hierarchy for each.
The grading approach to be aware of is the GRADE system, which classifies the quality of evidence as high, moderate, low, of very low. The process begins by formulating a study question and identifying specific outcomes. Outcomes are then graded as critical of important. The evidence is then gathered and criteria are used to grade the evidence, with the type of evidence being a significant factor. Evidence can be promoted of downgraded based on certain criteria, such as limitations to study quality, inconsistency, uncertainty about directness, imprecise of sparse data, and reporting bias. The GRADE system allows for the promotion of observational studies to high-quality evidence under the right circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 90
Incorrect
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What is the calculation that the nurse performed to determine the patient's average daily calorie intake over a seven day period?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arithmetic mean
Explanation:You don’t need to concern yourself with the specifics of the various means. Simply keep in mind that the arithmetic mean is the one utilized in fundamental biostatistics.
Measures of Central Tendency
Measures of central tendency are used in descriptive statistics to summarize the middle of typical value of a data set. There are three common measures of central tendency: the mean, median, and mode.
The median is the middle value in a data set that has been arranged in numerical order. It is not affected by outliers and is used for ordinal data. The mode is the most frequent value in a data set and is used for categorical data. The mean is calculated by adding all the values in a data set and dividing by the number of values. It is sensitive to outliers and is used for interval and ratio data.
The appropriate measure of central tendency depends on the measurement scale of the data. For nominal and categorical data, the mode is used. For ordinal data, the median of mode is used. For interval data with a normal distribution, the mean is preferable, but the median of mode can also be used. For interval data with skewed distribution, the median is used. For ratio data, the mean is preferable, but the median of mode can also be used for skewed data.
In addition to measures of central tendency, the range is also used to describe the spread of a data set. It is calculated by subtracting the smallest value from the largest value.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 91
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old construction worker presents to the hospital with complaints of muscle aches, poor memory, and malaise for the past four weeks. During the physical examination, a 5 cm well-defined lesion is observed on the right flank. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lyme Disease
Explanation:Lyme disease, which is caused by ticks carrying the infection (Lyme borreliosis), is typically found in the Northern Hemisphere. A distinctive ‘bulls-eye’ rash appears in around two thirds of patients.
Although the symptoms of Lyme disease can be vague, other conditions such as Chronic Fatigue Syndrome, hypothyroidism and SLE may be considered as possible diagnoses. The crucial factor in identifying Lyme disease is the presence of the characteristic skin lesion. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 92
Incorrect
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What is the estimated percentage of patients with schizophrenia who do not respond to treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 30%
Explanation:Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 93
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman is being treated in the trauma unit after a head injury resulting from a car accident which occurred two weeks ago when she was driving under the influence of drugs and after not sleeping for 48 hours.
She needed drug detoxification and neurosurgical input to remove a subdural haematoma. She had anterograde amnesia for 5 days. She has suffered a head injury previously whilst playing soccer.
You see her to aid the trauma team with management of the drug dependence but they ask you to comment on her prognosis with regard to the head injury.
Which of the following is not a negative prognostic factor in the patient's history?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Young age
Explanation:A negative prognosis in head injury can be indicated by various factors, including advanced age, history of prior head injury, post traumatic amnesia lasting longer than seven days, dependence on alcohol, severity of the head injury requiring neurosurgical intervention, and presence of the APOE4 gene.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 94
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old man is concerned about his risk of developing a condition that his grandfather and father both had. His grandfather was diagnosed in his 50s and his father in his 40s. The man is experiencing uncontrollable muscle movements, clumsiness, lack of concentration, short-term memory lapses, and changes in mood. He is also becoming more aggressive, which is not typical of his usual behavior. What is the mode of inheritance for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant with complete penetrance
Explanation:Huntington’s disease is a degenerative disorder of the central nervous system that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. This means that if one parent has the disease, there is a 50% chance that their offspring will also develop the disease. The disease has complete penetrance, meaning that all individuals who inherit the disease-causing gene will eventually develop symptoms. Symptoms typically appear in the late 30s of early 40s. Inheritance patterns differ between maternal and paternal alleles, with paternal alleles exhibiting repeat expansion and earlier onset and severity of disease in successive generations. This phenomenon is known as genetic anticipation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 95
Incorrect
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What is the most appropriate indicator of internal consistency?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Split half correlation
Explanation:Cronbach’s Alpha is a statistical measure used to assess the internal consistency of a test of questionnaire. It is a widely used method to determine the reliability of a test by measuring the extent to which the items on the test are measuring the same construct. Cronbach’s Alpha ranges from 0 to 1, with higher values indicating greater internal consistency. A value of 0.7 of higher is generally considered acceptable for research purposes. The calculation of Cronbach’s Alpha involves comparing the variance of the total score with the variance of the individual items. It is important to note that Cronbach’s Alpha assumes that all items are measuring the same construct, and therefore, it may not be appropriate for tests that measure multiple constructs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 96
Incorrect
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What is the highest approved dosage of risperidone that can be administered for treating aggression and agitation related to Alzheimer's disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 mg BD
Explanation:According to the Maudsley 14th, Risperidone is approved for a maximum dosage of 1 mg twice daily, but the recommended of optimal dose is 500 µg.
Management of Non-Cognitive Symptoms in Dementia
Non-cognitive symptoms of dementia can include agitation, aggression, distress, psychosis, depression, anxiety, sleep problems, wandering, hoarding, sexual disinhibition, apathy, and shouting. Non-pharmacological measures, such as music therapy, should be considered before prescribing medication. Pain may cause agitation, so a trial of analgesics is recommended. Antipsychotics, such as risperidone, olanzapine, and aripiprazole, may be used for severe distress of serious risk to others, but their use is controversial due to issues of tolerability and an association with increased mortality. Cognitive enhancers, such as AChE-Is and memantine, may have a modest benefit on BPSD, but their effects may take 3-6 months to take effect. Benzodiazepines should be avoided except in emergencies, and antidepressants, such as citalopram and trazodone, may have mixed evidence for BPSD. Mood stabilizers, such as valproate and carbamazepine, have limited evidence to support their use. Sedating antihistamines, such as promethazine, may cause cognitive impairment and should only be used short-term. Melatonin has limited evidence to support its use but is safe to use and may be justified in some cases where benefits are seen. For Lewy Body dementia, clozapine is favored over risperidone, and quetiapine may be a reasonable choice if clozapine is not appropriate. Overall, medication should only be used when non-pharmacological measures are ineffective, and the need is balanced with the increased risk of adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 97
Incorrect
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The ICD-11 defines a condition characterized by distressing emotional, behavioral, and physical symptoms that occur in the premenstrual phase of the menstrual cycle as:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Premenstrual dysphoric disorder
Explanation:There is currently no evidence to support the use of vitamin supplements for the treatment of premenstrual dysphoric disorder. However, lifestyle changes such as regular exercise, a healthy diet, and stress reduction techniques may be helpful in managing symptoms. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for individual cases of PMDD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 98
Incorrect
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Which of the following drugs is not recommended by NICE for the treatment of PTSD in adults?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amitriptyline
Explanation:There are various treatment options available for PTSD, including the use of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and venlafaxine.
Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 99
Incorrect
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Which adverse effect has been most consistently associated with the use of paroxetine during pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neonatal withdrawal
Explanation:The short half-life of paroxetine results in neonatal withdrawal when used during pregnancy.
Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?
Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 100
Incorrect
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The clinical director of a pediatric unit conducts an economic evaluation study to determine which type of treatment results in the greatest improvement in asthma symptoms (as measured by the Asthma Control Test). She compares the costs of three different treatment options against the average improvement in asthma symptoms achieved by each. What type of economic evaluation method did she employ?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cost-effectiveness analysis
Explanation:Methods of Economic Evaluation
There are four main methods of economic evaluation: cost-effectiveness analysis (CEA), cost-benefit analysis (CBA), cost-utility analysis (CUA), and cost-minimisation analysis (CMA). While all four methods capture costs, they differ in how they assess health effects.
Cost-effectiveness analysis (CEA) compares interventions by relating costs to a single clinical measure of effectiveness, such as symptom reduction of improvement in activities of daily living. The cost-effectiveness ratio is calculated as total cost divided by units of effectiveness. CEA is typically used when CBA cannot be performed due to the inability to monetise benefits.
Cost-benefit analysis (CBA) measures all costs and benefits of an intervention in monetary terms to establish which alternative has the greatest net benefit. CBA requires that all consequences of an intervention, such as life-years saved, treatment side-effects, symptom relief, disability, pain, and discomfort, are allocated a monetary value. CBA is rarely used in mental health service evaluation due to the difficulty in converting benefits from mental health programmes into monetary values.
Cost-utility analysis (CUA) is a special form of CEA in which health benefits/outcomes are measured in broader, more generic ways, enabling comparisons between treatments for different diseases and conditions. Multidimensional health outcomes are measured by a single preference- of utility-based index such as the Quality-Adjusted-Life-Years (QALY). QALYs are a composite measure of gains in life expectancy and health-related quality of life. CUA allows for comparisons across treatments for different conditions.
Cost-minimisation analysis (CMA) is an economic evaluation in which the consequences of competing interventions are the same, and only inputs, i.e. costs, are taken into consideration. The aim is to decide the least costly way of achieving the same outcome.
Costs in Economic Evaluation Studies
There are three main types of costs in economic evaluation studies: direct, indirect, and intangible. Direct costs are associated directly with the healthcare intervention, such as staff time, medical supplies, cost of travel for the patient, childcare costs for the patient, and costs falling on other social sectors such as domestic help from social services. Indirect costs are incurred by the reduced productivity of the patient, such as time off work, reduced work productivity, and time spent caring for the patient by relatives. Intangible costs are difficult to measure, such as pain of suffering on the part of the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 101
Incorrect
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In what contexts is Socratic questioning employed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:Cognitive Behavioural Therapy (CBT): Basic Principles
CBT is a form of psychotherapy that focuses on the relationship between thoughts, feelings, and behaviours. The central elements of CBT include collaborative empiricism, problem-orientated focus, short-term treatment for uncomplicated disorders, structured methods, psychoeducation, and homework.
Collaborative empiricism involves the therapist and client working together to identify and test the client’s beliefs and assumptions. The problem-orientated focus means that therapy is focused on specific problems of symptoms that the client is experiencing. CBT is typically a short-term treatment for uncomplicated disorders, with a focus on achieving measurable goals within a limited number of sessions.
Structured methods are used in CBT to help clients identify and challenge negative thoughts and behaviours. Psychoeducation involves teaching clients about the relationship between thoughts, feelings, and behaviours. Homework is often assigned to help clients practice new skills and reinforce what they have learned in therapy.
Cognitive methods used in CBT include Socratic questioning, guided discovery, examining the evidence, identifying cognitive errors, thought change records, generating rational alternatives, imagery, role play, and rehearsal. Behavioural methods used in CBT include activity and pleasant event scheduling, graded task assignments, exposure and response prevention, relaxation training, breathing training, and coping cards.
In summary, CBT is a structured, problem-focused, and collaborative approach to therapy that aims to help clients identify and challenge negative thoughts and behaviours. It is a short-term treatment that uses a range of cognitive and behavioural methods to achieve measurable goals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 102
Incorrect
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At what age is enuresis typically diagnosed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Age 5
Explanation:Elimination Disorders
Elimination disorders refer to conditions that affect a child’s ability to control their bladder of bowel movements. Enuresis, of lack of control over the bladder, typically occurs between the ages of 1-3, while control over the bowel usually occurs before that of the bladder for most toddlers. Toilet training can be influenced by various factors, including intellectual capacity, cultural determinants, and psychological interactions between the child and their parents.
Enuresis is characterized by involuntary voiding of urine, by day and/of by night, which is abnormal in relation to the individual’s age and is not a result of any physical abnormality. It is not normally diagnosed before age 5 and may be primary (the child never having achieved continence) of secondary. Treatment options include reassurance, enuresis alarms, and medication.
Encopresis refers to repeated stool evacuation in inappropriate places in children over the age of four. The behavior can be either involuntary of intentional and may be due to unsuccessful toilet training (primary encopresis) of occur after a period of normal bowel control (secondary encopresis). Treatment generally involves bowel clearance, prevention of impaction, and behavioral therapy.
Before a diagnosis of encopresis is made, organic causes must be excluded. Hirschsprung’s disease is a condition that results from an absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in the rectum, colon, and sometimes the small intestine. It leads to a colonic obstruction and is diagnosed in at least half of all cases in the first year of life. It is twice as common in boys than in girls.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 103
Incorrect
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What falls under the category of class A according to the Misuse of Drugs Act?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Magic mushrooms
Explanation:Drug Misuse (Law and Scheduling)
The Misuse of Drugs Act (1971) regulates the possession and supply of drugs, classifying them into three categories: A, B, and C. The maximum penalty for possession varies depending on the class of drug, with Class A drugs carrying a maximum sentence of 7 years.
The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001 further categorizes controlled drugs into five schedules. Schedule 1 drugs are considered to have no therapeutic value and cannot be lawfully possessed of prescribed, while Schedule 2 drugs are available for medical use but require a controlled drug prescription. Schedule 3, 4, and 5 drugs have varying levels of restrictions and requirements.
It is important to note that a single drug can have multiple scheduling statuses, depending on factors such as strength and route of administration. For example, morphine and codeine can be either Schedule 2 of Schedule 5.
Overall, the Misuse of Drugs Act and Regulations aim to regulate and control the use of drugs in the UK, with the goal of reducing drug misuse and related harm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 104
Incorrect
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Which treatment is considered most effective for atypical depression?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MAOIs
Explanation:Atypical Depression: Symptoms and Treatment
Atypical depression is a subtype of major depressive disorder that is characterized by low mood with mood reactivity and a reversal of the typical features seen in depression. This includes hypersomnia, hyperphagia, weight gain, and libidinal increases. People with atypical depression tend to respond best to MAOIs, while their response to tricyclics is poor, and SSRIs perform somewhere in the middle.
The DSM-5 defines atypical depression as a subtype of major depressive disorder ‘with atypical features’, which includes mood reactivity, significant weight gain of increase in appetite, hypersomnia, leaden paralysis, and a long-standing pattern of interpersonal rejection sensitivity that results in significant social of occupational impairment. However, this subtype is not specifically recognized in ICD-11.
If you of someone you know is experiencing symptoms of atypical depression, it is important to seek professional help. Treatment options may include therapy, medication, of a combination of both. MAOIs may be the most effective medication for atypical depression, but it is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 105
Incorrect
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Which p-value would provide the strongest evidence in favor of the alternative hypothesis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Understanding Hypothesis Testing in Statistics
In statistics, it is not feasible to investigate hypotheses on entire populations. Therefore, researchers take samples and use them to make estimates about the population they are drawn from. However, this leads to uncertainty as there is no guarantee that the sample taken will be truly representative of the population, resulting in potential errors. Statistical hypothesis testing is the process used to determine if claims from samples to populations can be made and with what certainty.
The null hypothesis (Ho) is the claim that there is no real difference between two groups, while the alternative hypothesis (H1 of Ha) suggests that any difference is due to some non-random chance. The alternative hypothesis can be one-tailed of two-tailed, depending on whether it seeks to establish a difference of a change in one direction.
Two types of errors may occur when testing the null hypothesis: Type I and Type II errors. Type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, while Type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
P-values provide information on statistical significance and help researchers decide if study results have occurred due to chance. The p-value is the probability of obtaining a result that is as large of larger when in reality there is no difference between two groups. The cutoff for the p-value is called the significance level (alpha level), typically set at 0.05. If the p-value is less than the cutoff, the null hypothesis is rejected, and if it is greater or equal to the cut off, the null hypothesis is not rejected. However, the p-value does not indicate clinical significance, which may be too small to be meaningful.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 106
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman has been referred to you by her primary care physician. She has been struggling with compulsive gambling and has accumulated significant debt. She spends most of her time at the casino and her relationships with family and friends have suffered as a result. The referring doctor suspects that she may have a gambling disorder as she is distressed by her inability to control her gambling behavior. What pharmacological interventions would you suggest in conjunction with cognitive behavioral therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)
Explanation:Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are a class of medications commonly used to treat depression, anxiety disorders, and other mental health conditions. They work by increasing the levels of serotonin, a neurotransmitter that regulates mood, in the brain.
SSRIs selectively block the reuptake of serotonin by the presynaptic neuron, which means that more serotonin is available to bind to the postsynaptic neuron and transmit signals. This leads to an increase in serotonin activity in the brain, which can help alleviate symptoms of depression and anxiety.
Some common SSRIs include fluoxetine (Prozac), sertraline (Zoloft), and escitalopram (Lexapro). They are generally well-tolerated and have fewer side effects than older antidepressants such as tricyclics and monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs).
However, like all medications, SSRIs can have side effects, including nausea, insomnia, sexual dysfunction, and weight gain. They can also interact with other medications, so it is important to talk to a healthcare provider before starting of stopping any medication.
Overall, SSRIs are an effective treatment option for many people with depression and anxiety disorders. They can help improve mood and quality of life, but it is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to find the right medication and dosage for each individual.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 107
Incorrect
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What is another term used to refer to a type II error in hypothesis testing?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: False negative
Explanation:Hypothesis testing involves the possibility of two types of errors: type I and type II errors. A type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is wrongly rejected of the alternative hypothesis is wrongly accepted. This error is also referred to as an alpha error, error of the first kind, of a false positive. On the other hand, a type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is wrongly accepted. This error is also known as the beta error, error of the second kind, of the false negative.
Understanding Hypothesis Testing in Statistics
In statistics, it is not feasible to investigate hypotheses on entire populations. Therefore, researchers take samples and use them to make estimates about the population they are drawn from. However, this leads to uncertainty as there is no guarantee that the sample taken will be truly representative of the population, resulting in potential errors. Statistical hypothesis testing is the process used to determine if claims from samples to populations can be made and with what certainty.
The null hypothesis (Ho) is the claim that there is no real difference between two groups, while the alternative hypothesis (H1 of Ha) suggests that any difference is due to some non-random chance. The alternative hypothesis can be one-tailed of two-tailed, depending on whether it seeks to establish a difference of a change in one direction.
Two types of errors may occur when testing the null hypothesis: Type I and Type II errors. Type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, while Type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
P-values provide information on statistical significance and help researchers decide if study results have occurred due to chance. The p-value is the probability of obtaining a result that is as large of larger when in reality there is no difference between two groups. The cutoff for the p-value is called the significance level (alpha level), typically set at 0.05. If the p-value is less than the cutoff, the null hypothesis is rejected, and if it is greater or equal to the cut off, the null hypothesis is not rejected. However, the p-value does not indicate clinical significance, which may be too small to be meaningful.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 108
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about Lesch-Nyhan syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The condition is inherited in an X-linked recessive pattern
Explanation:Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome: A Rare Genetic Disorder
Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that causes the overproduction and accumulation of uric acid in the body, leading to various health problems such as gouty arthritis, kidney stones, and subcutaneous tophi. The condition primarily affects males and is caused by mutations in the HPRT gene located on the X-chromosome.
People with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome typically experience motor disability, including severe dystonia, hypotonia, and choreoathetosis, which can make it difficult of impossible for them to walk of sit without assistance. They may also exhibit self-injurious behavior, such as biting and head-banging, which is the most common and distinctive behavioral problem associated with the condition. Intellectual disability is common, but severe cognitive impairment is rare.
The absence of the HPRT enzyme, which is responsible for recycling purine bases, leads to the accumulation of uric acid and affects the development of specific neural pathways in the brain, particularly the mesotelencephalic dopamine pathways. This disruption is likely responsible for the motor disability and behavioral peculiarities associated with the condition.
Treatment for self-injurious behavior typically involves the use of protective restraints applied to the limbs, trunk, of head to prevent self-hitting of self-biting. Dental extraction may be necessary in cases of lip of tongue biting. Behavior modification methods that involve extinction may also be used, but neuroleptics may be required during particularly stressful of difficult behavior periods. However, these medications should only be used transiently due to their sedative effects and potential side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Learning Disability
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Question 109
Incorrect
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You record the age of all of your students in your class. You notice that your data set is skewed. What method would you use to describe the typical age of your students?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Median
Explanation:When dealing with a data set that is quantitative and measured on a ratio scale, the mean is typically the preferred measure of central tendency. However, if the data is skewed, the median may be a better choice as it is less affected by the skewness of the data.
Measures of Central Tendency
Measures of central tendency are used in descriptive statistics to summarize the middle of typical value of a data set. There are three common measures of central tendency: the mean, median, and mode.
The median is the middle value in a data set that has been arranged in numerical order. It is not affected by outliers and is used for ordinal data. The mode is the most frequent value in a data set and is used for categorical data. The mean is calculated by adding all the values in a data set and dividing by the number of values. It is sensitive to outliers and is used for interval and ratio data.
The appropriate measure of central tendency depends on the measurement scale of the data. For nominal and categorical data, the mode is used. For ordinal data, the median of mode is used. For interval data with a normal distribution, the mean is preferable, but the median of mode can also be used. For interval data with skewed distribution, the median is used. For ratio data, the mean is preferable, but the median of mode can also be used for skewed data.
In addition to measures of central tendency, the range is also used to describe the spread of a data set. It is calculated by subtracting the smallest value from the largest value.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 110
Incorrect
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What is typically avoided during alcohol withdrawal because of the increased likelihood of respiratory depression?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clomethiazole
Explanation:Alcohol withdrawal is characterized by overactivity of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in symptoms such as agitation, tremors, sweating, nausea, vomiting, fever, and tachycardia. These symptoms typically begin 3-12 hours after drinking stops, peak between 24-48 hours, and can last up to 14 days. Withdrawal seizures may occur before blood alcohol levels reach zero, and a small percentage of people may experience delirium tremens (DT), which can be fatal if left untreated. Risk factors for DT include abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use, self-detox, previous history of DT, low potassium, low magnesium, and thiamine deficiency.
Pharmacologically assisted detox is often necessary for those who regularly consume more than 15 units of alcohol per day, and inpatient detox may be needed for those who regularly consume more than 30 units per day. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment decisions. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment, as chronic alcohol exposure results in decreased overall brain excitability and compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. Chlordiazepoxide is a good first-line agent, while oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam are useful in patients with liver disease. Clomethiazole is effective but carries a high risk of respiratory depression and is not recommended. Thiamine should be offered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and long-acting benzodiazepines can be used as prophylaxis for withdrawal seizures. Haloperidol is the treatment of choice if an antipsychotic is required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 111
Incorrect
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Which statement accurately describes autism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Individuals with the condition show restricted social play and reduced desire to share interests
Explanation:The genetics involved in this condition are complex and do not adhere to a straightforward Mendelian pattern of inheritance. Additionally, individuals with this condition typically exhibit limited social play and experience language-related challenges.
Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is a lifelong disorder characterized by deficits in communication and social understanding, as well as restrictive and repetitive be
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