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Question 1
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A cohort study of 5,000 elderly patients aimed to determine whether the consumption of green tea has an effect on cognitive decline. Roughly half of the patients drank green tea regularly and half did not.
What is a drawback of conducting a cohort study?Your Answer: When the outcome of interest is rare a very large sample size is needed
Explanation:Cohort Studies: Advantages and Disadvantages
A cohort study is a research method that involves following a group of individuals over a period of time to determine whether exposure to a particular factor has an effect on the incidence of disease. Although they are time-consuming and expensive, cohort studies have several advantages. For instance, they can be used to study rare exposure factors and are less prone to recall bias than case-control studies. Additionally, they can measure the incidence or risk of a disease, which is useful in determining the effectiveness of interventions.
One of the main advantages of cohort studies is that they allow researchers to study exposure factors that are rare. This is because they involve following a group of individuals over a period of time, which means that even if the exposure factor is rare, it may still be possible to observe its effects. Another advantage is that cohort studies are less susceptible to recall bias than case-control studies. This is because the exposure factor is measured before the disease occurs, which reduces the likelihood of participants misremembering their exposure.
However, cohort studies also have some disadvantages. One of the main disadvantages is that they are time-consuming and expensive to perform. This is because they involve following a group of individuals over a period of time, which requires a significant amount of resources. Additionally, cohort studies may not be suitable for studying diseases that have a long latency period, as it may take many years for the disease to develop. Finally, cohort studies may be affected by loss to follow-up, which can reduce the validity of the results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old victim of a high-speed car collision had a right sided pneumothorax, along with fracture of the pelvis and right humerus. A chest drain was inserted, which kept on bubbling over the next few days. The air leak got worse when the drain was connected to low-grade suction and the lung failed to expand fully.
What is the most likely cause of this complication?Your Answer: Air embolism
Correct Answer: Injury to a major bronchus
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of persistent air leak after chest trauma
Injury to a major bronchus: a possible cause of persistent air leak after chest trauma
When a patient presents with a history of chest trauma and a persistent air leak from a chest drain, one possible explanation is injury to a major bronchus. This type of injury can occur when a forceful blow to the chest happens while the glottis is closed, leading to a tear or rupture of the bronchial wall. The presence of surgical emphysema, which is the abnormal accumulation of air in the tissues due to a communication between the airways and the pleural space, can be a clue to this diagnosis. However, if the injury is not recognized initially, the air leak may worsen or persist despite suction applied to the chest drain, and the affected lung may fail to re-expand.
The management of major air leaks from bronchial injuries typically involves pleurodesis, which is a procedure that aims to create adhesions between the two layers of the pleura, thus obliterating the pleural space and preventing further air leakage. This can be achieved by different methods, such as video-assisted thoracoscopy or the application of blood and fibrin patches.
Other possible causes of persistent air leak after chest trauma include tension pneumothorax, which is a medical emergency that requires immediate decompression of the pleural space, and fat embolism, which can occur in patients with multiple injuries and may cause respiratory and neurological symptoms as well as skin petechiae. However, these conditions can usually be distinguished from bronchial injury based on the clinical features and imaging findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 3
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When speaking with a new parent about the advantages of breastfeeding, they inquire about how breastfeeding can enhance their baby's immune system. You clarify that certain immunoglobulins are present in breast milk, which can transfer immunity from specific illnesses to the baby.
Which immunoglobulin will this parent be passing on to their child?Your Answer: IgA
Explanation:The primary immunoglobulin present in breast milk, tears, saliva, and GI secretions is IgA. The function of IgD is uncertain, but it may be present on B-cell membranes and in small quantities in serum. IgE is responsible for triggering allergic and anaphylactic reactions and is present on cell membranes. IgG is the most prevalent immunoglobulin in serum, lymph, and the GI tract, and it is the only one that can pass through the placenta.
Characteristics of Immunoglobulins
Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help defend the body against foreign substances. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.
The most abundant type of immunoglobulin is IgG, which enhances phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses, fixes complement, and can pass to the fetal circulation. IgA, on the other hand, is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and provides localized protection on mucous membranes. It is also found in breast milk and the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A and B blood antibodies.
IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells. Lastly, IgE is the least abundant isotype in blood serum and mediates type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It is synthesized by plasma cells and provides immunity to parasites such as helminths by binding to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.
In summary, each type of immunoglobulin has its own unique function and plays a crucial role in defending the body against foreign substances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with urinary problems. He has been passing very frequent small amounts of urine and has also been getting up several times in the night to urinate.
Upon examination, he has a smooth, non-enlarged prostate, and no abdominal masses. Further investigation rules out diabetes, infection, and urological malignancy. It is determined that his symptoms are due to an overactive bladder. Lifestyle advice is discussed, and he is referred for bladder training exercises.
What should be the next course of action?Your Answer: Botulinum toxin injection
Correct Answer: Oxybutynin
Explanation:Antimuscarinic medications are effective in managing symptoms of overactive bladder. This condition is characterized by storage symptoms such as urinary urgency, frequency, and nocturia, often caused by detrusor overactivity. Oxybutynin is an example of an antimuscarinic drug that can increase bladder capacity by relaxing the detrusor’s smooth muscle, thereby reducing overactive bladder symptoms. Other antimuscarinic drugs include tolterodine and darifenacin. While botulinum toxin injection is an invasive treatment option for overactive bladder, it is not typically the first choice. Finasteride, a 5 alpha-reductase inhibitor, is not indicated for overactive bladder treatment as it is used to decrease prostate size in BPH patients. Mirabegron, a beta-3 adrenergic receptor agonist, can also relax the detrusor’s smooth muscle, but it is only recommended when antimuscarinic drugs are not effective or contraindicated due to side effects.
Lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) are a common issue in men over the age of 50, with benign prostatic hyperplasia being the most common cause. However, other causes such as prostate cancer should also be considered. These symptoms can be classified into three groups: voiding, storage, and post-micturition. To properly manage LUTS, it is important to conduct a urinalysis to check for infection and haematuria, perform a digital rectal examination to assess the size and consistency of the prostate, and possibly conduct a PSA test after proper counselling. Patients should also complete a urinary frequency-volume chart and an International Prostate Symptom Score to guide management.
For predominantly voiding symptoms, conservative measures such as pelvic floor muscle training, bladder training, and prudent fluid intake can be helpful. If symptoms are moderate or severe, an alpha-blocker may be offered. If the prostate is enlarged and the patient is at high risk of progression, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor should be offered. If there are mixed symptoms of voiding and storage not responding to an alpha-blocker, an antimuscarinic drug may be added. For predominantly overactive bladder symptoms, moderating fluid intake and bladder retraining should be offered, and antimuscarinic drugs may be prescribed if symptoms persist. Mirabegron may be considered if first-line drugs fail. For nocturia, moderating fluid intake at night, furosemide 40 mg in the late afternoon, and desmopressin may be helpful.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of back pain that has persisted for two weeks. The pain is situated between the shoulder blades and happens frequently throughout the day. He expresses concern that this might be a severe issue and has been avoiding physical activity as a result.
What aspects of this patient's medical history are cause for concern?Your Answer: Lack of trauma
Correct Answer: Location of pain
Explanation:When a patient presents with back pain in the thoracic area, it is considered a red flag and requires further investigation to rule out potential serious underlying causes such as skeletal disorders, degenerative disc disease, vertebral fractures, vascular malformations, or metastasis. Additionally, if the patient exhibits fear-avoidance behavior and reduced activity, it may indicate psychosocial factors that could lead to chronic back pain. Patients under 20 or over 50 years old, those with a history of trauma, and those whose pain is worse at night are also considered red flags.
Lower back pain is a common issue that is often caused by muscular strain. However, it is important to be aware of potential underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Certain red flags should be considered, such as age under 20 or over 50, a history of cancer, night pain, trauma, or systemic illness. There are also specific causes of lower back pain that should be kept in mind. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, worse in the morning and on standing, and typically worsens with back extension. Spinal stenosis may cause leg pain, numbness, and weakness that is worse on walking and relieved by sitting or leaning forward. Ankylosing spondylitis is more common in young men and causes stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arterial disease may cause pain on walking and weak foot pulses. It is important to consider these potential causes and seek appropriate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 6
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A 4-month-old boy is being seen by his GP for an undescended testi. During the NIPE at birth, his right testi was found to be undescended. On examination today, only one testi is palpated in the scrotum. The patient is referred to the surgeons for further evaluation. What potential complication is this patient at an elevated risk of experiencing if the undescended testi is not addressed?
Your Answer: Testicular torsion
Explanation:Undescended testicles can lead to testicular torsion, infertility, and testicular cancer if left untreated. It is recommended to wait up to three months for spontaneous descent, but intervention should occur by six months of age. Femoral hernias are rare in childhood, but undescended testicles may increase the risk of an inguinal hernia. Hydroceles are common at birth and resolve on their own, without known association to undescended testicles. While orchitis can occur in an undescended testis, there is no increased risk of orchitis due to lack of descent.
Undescended Testis: Causes, Complications, and Management
Undescended testis is a condition that affects around 2-3% of male infants born at term, but it is more common in preterm babies. Bilateral undescended testes occur in about 25% of cases. This condition can lead to complications such as infertility, torsion, testicular cancer, and psychological issues.
To manage unilateral undescended testis, NICE CKS recommends considering referral from around 3 months of age, with the baby ideally seeing a urological surgeon before 6 months of age. Orchidopexy, a surgical procedure, is typically performed at around 1 year of age, although surgical practices may vary.
For bilateral undescended testes, it is crucial to have the child reviewed by a senior paediatrician within 24 hours as they may require urgent endocrine or genetic investigation. Proper management of undescended testis is essential to prevent complications and ensure the child’s overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old male presents to the emergency department with severe pain in his left thigh. He has a history of recurrent UTIs and currently has a catheter in place. Upon examination, he is febrile and experiences significant tenderness in the left thigh, making it difficult to move his knee. Blood and bone cultures both come back positive, leading to a diagnosis of osteomyelitis. What organism is most likely responsible for this infection?
Your Answer: Mycobacteria
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Understanding Osteomyelitis: Types, Causes, and Treatment
Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be classified into two types: haematogenous and non-haematogenous. Haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by bacteria that enter the bloodstream and is usually monomicrobial. It is more common in children, with vertebral osteomyelitis being the most common form in adults. Risk factors include sickle cell anaemia, intravenous drug use, immunosuppression, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, non-haematogenous osteomyelitis results from the spread of infection from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is often polymicrobial and more common in adults, with risk factors such as diabetic foot ulcers, pressure sores, diabetes mellitus, and peripheral arterial disease.
Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of osteomyelitis, except in patients with sickle-cell anaemia where Salmonella species predominate. To diagnose osteomyelitis, MRI is the imaging modality of choice, with a sensitivity of 90-100%. Treatment for osteomyelitis involves a six-week course of flucloxacillin. Clindamycin is an alternative for patients who are allergic to penicillin.
In summary, osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream or spreading from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is more common in children and adults with certain risk factors. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause, and MRI is the preferred imaging modality for diagnosis. Treatment involves a six-week course of flucloxacillin or clindamycin for penicillin-allergic patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with cholecystitis. During her stay, her blood glucose levels remain consistently high. Her lab results reveal an HbA1c level of 68 mmol/mol. As her healthcare provider, you initiate treatment with metformin 500 mg immediate release. What is the recommended time interval before considering a dose increase?
Your Answer: 3 months
Correct Answer: 1 week
Explanation:Metformin dosage should be increased slowly, with a minimum of 1 week between each increase. The recommended starting dose for immediate-release metformin is 500 mg once daily for at least 1 week, followed by an increase to 500 mg twice daily for at least another week. This gradual increase is necessary to avoid exacerbating the common side effect of diarrhoea. Increasing the dosage within a day is not recommended as it can lead to more side effects. Waiting for several months before increasing the dosage is also not advisable. For modified-release preparations, the dosage should be increased gradually every 10-15 days. However, since the medication in this scenario is immediate-release, waiting for 1 week is the appropriate course of action.
Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. It belongs to a class of drugs called biguanides and works by activating the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK), which increases insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis. Additionally, it may decrease the absorption of carbohydrates in the gastrointestinal tract. Unlike other diabetes medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin does not cause hypoglycemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. It is also used to treat polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease.
While metformin is generally well-tolerated, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea, anorexia, and diarrhea are common and can be intolerable for some patients. Reduced absorption of vitamin B12 is also a potential side effect, although it rarely causes clinical problems. In rare cases, metformin can cause lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. However, it is important to note that lactic acidosis is now recognized as a rare side effect of metformin.
There are several contraindications to using metformin, including chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and alcohol abuse. Additionally, metformin should be discontinued before and after procedures involving iodine-containing x-ray contrast media to reduce the risk of contrast nephropathy.
When starting metformin, it is important to titrate the dose slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side effects. If patients experience intolerable side effects, modified-release metformin may be considered as an alternative.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
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A 42-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe pain in her right upper quadrant and vomiting. Upon examination, she is found to be pyrexial and has tenderness and peritonism in the right upper quadrant. There is more pain during inspiration on subcostal pressure in the right upper quadrant than in the left. Her bilirubin level is 9 mol/L (normal range: 1-22), amylase level is 50 U/L (normal range: 50-130), hemoglobin level is 128 g/L (normal range: 115-165), platelet count is 172 ×109/L (normal range: 150-400), and white cell count is 15 ×109/L (normal range: 4-11). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute cholecystitis
Explanation:Manifestations of Gallstone Disease
All options for gallstone disease can be seen in different manifestations. However, the combination of pyrexia, an elevated white cell count, and local peritonism (Murphy’s sign) is a classic symptom of acute cholecystitis. Pancreatitis can be eliminated with normal amylase levels, while jaundice and cholangitis (which are usually associated with fever and tenderness: Charcot’s triad) can be ruled out with normal bilirubin levels. Biliary colic, on the other hand, would not exhibit peritonism and an elevated white cell count. It is important to note that these symptoms can help in the diagnosis and treatment of gallstone disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 10
Correct
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An 80-year-old female visits her doctor with a vesicular rash on the right-side of her face and tip of her nose, and is diagnosed with herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO). What is the most probable complication for this patient?
Your Answer: Anterior uveitis
Explanation:Hutchinson’s sign, which is characterized by vesicles that spread to the tip of the nose, is a strong indicator of shingles-related ocular involvement. As a result, the patient is at risk of developing anterior uveitis.
Treatment for herpes zoster ophthalmicus typically involves the use of antivirals and/or steroids. Given the likelihood of ocular involvement in this case, an urgent ophthalmology review is necessary.Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications
Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition that occurs when the varicella-zoster virus reactivates in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is responsible for approximately 10% of shingles cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong indicator of nasociliary involvement and increases the risk of ocular involvement.
Treatment for HZO involves oral antiviral medication for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be necessary for severe infections or immunocompromised patients. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review to prevent complications such as conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.
In summary, HZO is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It presents with a vesicular rash around the eye and may involve the eye itself. Treatment involves oral antiviral medication and urgent ophthalmology review is necessary for ocular involvement. Complications of HZO include various eye conditions, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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