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  • Question 1 - It was hypothesized that people that had lower socio economic status were more...

    Correct

    • It was hypothesized that people that had lower socio economic status were more prone to developing gastric cancer. After 30 years of studying people with lower socio economic status, it was found that they did have a greater tendency to develop cancer. As a result of that the authors got to the conclusion that a strong association existed between the two. Later on another study conducted found that people from lower socio economic back grounds also had a tendency to be smokers. Which form of potential bias can be associated with this particular study?

      Your Answer: Confounding bias

      Explanation:

      Selection bias is when randomisation is not achieved and is often a result of in efficient recruiting method.

      Recall bias is specifically appropriate to the case control studies that is when ever the memories retrieved by the participants differ in accuracy.

      Measurement bias can be characterized by gathering of information in a manner that is distorted.

      When the participants of a research study are recruited from the hospitals rather than the general population, its called Berkson Bias.

      Confounding bias is the major player here because in this case the effects of smoking can be masked behind and can be read as outcomes of lower socio economic status. This extraneous factor (Smoking), distorts the founding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - During a stabbing incident, a 30-year-old injured his inferior vena cava. What number...

    Correct

    • During a stabbing incident, a 30-year-old injured his inferior vena cava. What number of functional valves can be usually found in this vessel?

      Your Answer: 0

      Explanation:

      The inferior vena cava is formed by the union of the right and left common iliac veins. The inferior vena cava has no functional valves like the one-way valves commonly found in many veins. The forward flow to the heart is driven by the differential pressure created by normal respiration.

      The absence of functional valves has an important clinical role when cannulating during cardiopulmonary bypass.

      There is a valve that is non-functioning called the eustachian valve that lies at the junction of the IVC and the right atrium. This valve has a role to help direct the flow of oxygen-rich blood through the right atrium to the left atrium via the foramen ovale during fetal life. It has no specific function in adult life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - The passage of glucose into the brain is facilitated by which transport method?...

    Incorrect

    • The passage of glucose into the brain is facilitated by which transport method?

      Your Answer: Active transport

      Correct Answer: Facilitated diffusion

      Explanation:

      Glucose transport is a highly regulated process accomplished mostly by facilitated diffusion using carrier proteins to cross cell membranes.

      There are many transporters, but the most important are known as glucose transporters (GLUTs).

      Stresses in various form of acute and chronic forms affect the activity of glucose transporters.
      They are responsive to many types of metabolic stress, including hypoxia, injury, hypoglycaemia, numerous metabolic inhibitors, stress hormones, and other influences such as growth factors.

      Numerous signalling pathways appear to be involved in transporter regulation.

      New evidence suggests that stresses regulating GLUTs are not only acute biological stresses. In addition, chronic low-grade inflammation, and their associated chronic diseases also lead to altered glucose transport. These include obesity, type 2 diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and the growth and spread of many tumours that are affected by altered glucose transporters. Some of these glucose transport effects are compensatory, while others are pathogenic.

      Ultimately, deliberate manipulation of GLUTs could be used as treatment for some of these chronic diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 24-year-old female, presents to the emergency department via ambulance. She has just...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old female, presents to the emergency department via ambulance. She has just been involved in a car accident. She is examined and undergoes various diagnostic investigations. Her X-ray report states that a fracture was noted on the surgical neck of her humerus. What structure is most likely to the damaged as a result of a surgical neck fracture of the humerus?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve

      Correct Answer: Axillary nerve

      Explanation:

      Fractures to the surgical neck of the humerus are common place as it is the weakest point of the proximal humerus bone.

      The structures most likely to be damaged are the axillary nerve and the posterior circumflex humeral artery as they surround the surgical neck.

      The radial nerve runs along the radial groove, so injury to it would likely occur with a mid-shaft fracture of the humerus.

      The brachial artery is most likely to be injured as a result of a supracondylar fracture of the humerus which increases the risk of volkmaan’s ischemic contractures.

      Injury to the musculocutaneous nerve is least likely to happen and it very uncommon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A study aimed at assessing the validity of a novel diagnostic test for...

    Incorrect

    • A study aimed at assessing the validity of a novel diagnostic test for heart failure is being performed. The curators are worried that not all the patients will get the prevalent gold standard test. Which type of bias is that?

      Your Answer: Attention bias

      Correct Answer: Work-up bias

      Explanation:

      Work up bias involves comparing the novel diagnostic test with the current standard test. A portion of the patients undergo the standard test while others undergo the new test as the standard test is costly. The result can be alteration in specify and sensitivity.

      Selection bias is when randomisation is not achieved.

      Attention bias refers to the person’s failure to consider various alternatives when he pre occupied by some other thoughts.

      Instrument bias is related to the experience and extent of familiarization of the participating individuals with the test.

      Co intervention bias is characterized by the groups receiving different co interventions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      49.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A strict diet is mandatory for which of the following drugs for mood...

    Incorrect

    • A strict diet is mandatory for which of the following drugs for mood disorders?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline

      Correct Answer: Tranylcypromine

      Explanation:

      Tranylcypromine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor that binds irreversibly to target enzyme.

      Monoamine oxidase inhibitors are responsible for blocking the monoamine oxidase enzyme. The monoamine oxidase enzyme breaks down different types of neurotransmitters from the brain: norepinephrine, serotonin, dopamine, and tyramine. MAOIs inhibit the breakdown of these neurotransmitters thus, increasing their levels and allowing them to continue to influence the cells that have been affected by depression.

      There are two types of monoamine oxidase, A and B. The MAO A is mostly distributed in the placenta, gut, and liver, but MAO B is present in the brain, liver, and platelets. Serotonin and noradrenaline are substrates of MAO A, but phenylethylamine, methylhistamine, and tryptamine are substrates of MAO B. Dopamine and tyramine are metabolized by both MAO A and B. Selegiline and rasagiline are irreversible and selective inhibitors of MAO type B, but safinamide is a reversible and selective MAO B inhibitor.

      MAOIs prevent the breakdown of tyramine found in the body and certain foods, drinks, and other medications. Patients that take MAOIs and consume tyramine-containing foods or drinks will exhibit high serum tyramine level. A high level of tyramine can cause a sudden increase in blood pressure, called the tyramine pressor response. Even though it is rare, a high tyramine level can trigger a cerebral haemorrhage, which can even result in death.

      Eating foods with high tyramine can trigger a reaction that can have serious consequences. Patients should know that tyramine can increase with the aging of food; they should be encouraged to have fresh foods instead of leftovers or food prepared hours earlier. Examples of high levels of tyramine in food are types of fish and types of meat, including sausage, turkey, liver, and salami. Also, certain fruits can contain tyramine, like overripe fruits, avocados, bananas, raisins, or figs. Further examples are cheeses, alcohol, and fava beans; all of these should be avoided even after two weeks of stopping MAOIs. Anyone taking MAOIs is at risk for an adverse hypertensive reaction, with accompanying morbidity. Patients taking reversible MAOIs have fewer dietary restrictions.

      Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant, and citalopram and escitalopram are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A chain smoker is interested in knowing how many years of his life...

    Correct

    • A chain smoker is interested in knowing how many years of his life would be lessened by smoking. You tell him explicitly that precise determination is impossible but you can tell him the proportion of people who died due to smoking. Which of the following epidemiological term is apt in this regard?

      Your Answer: Attributable risk - the rate in the exposed group minus the rate in the unexposed group

      Explanation:

      Attributable proportion is the proportion of disease that is caused due to exposure. It refers to the proportion of disease that would be eradicated from a particular population if the disease rate was diminished to match that of the unexposed group.

      Risk ratio (relative risk) compares the probability of an event in an exposed (experimental) group to that of an event in the unexposed (control) group. Thus two are not the same.

      The attributable risk is the rate of a disease in an exposed group to that of a group that has not been exposed to it i.e. how many deaths did the exposure cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following statements is true regarding oxygen? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true regarding oxygen?

      Your Answer: Has a critical temperature of 183°C

      Correct Answer: Forms molecules containing either two or three atoms

      Explanation:

      Oxygen is formed by a molecule of oxygen and two molecules of hydrogen with a molecular formula of H2O

      The critical temperature is defined as a temperature above which the substance cannot be liquefied, no matter how much pressure is applied.
      Water has a critical temperature of -118.6oC. So, it cannot be liquified at room temperature.

      Medical oxygen cylinder is stored in a cylinder with a white shoulder and black body. Meanwhile, medial air is stored in cylinders with a white and black shoulder and a French grey body.

      The partial pressure of air at a high altitude is less but the relative concentration remains constant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      32.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An air ambulance brought a young boy involved in a fight to the...

    Incorrect

    • An air ambulance brought a young boy involved in a fight to the emergency department. On examination, his blood pressure cannot be recorded. He suffers a stab wound to his chest that has penetrated the left atrium and the artery that supplies it. Which artery is most likely damaged in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Right coronary artery

      Correct Answer: Left coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The left atrium is supplied by the left coronary artery and its major branch the left circumflex.

      The heart receives blood supply from coronary arteries. The right and left coronary arteries branch off the aorta and supply oxygenated blood to all heart muscle parts.

      The left main coronary artery branches into:
      1. Circumflex artery – supplies the left atrium, side, and back of the left ventricle. The left marginal artery arises from the left circumflex artery. It travels along the obtuse margin of the heart.
      The left marginal artery, a branch of the circumflex artery, supplies the left ventricle.
      2. Left Anterior Descending (LAD) artery – supplies the front and bottom of the left ventricle and front of the interventricular septum

      The right coronary artery branches into:
      1. Right marginal artery
      2. Posterior descending artery

      The right coronary artery supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, interatrial septum, and the inferior posterior third of the interventricular septum. It also supplies the atrioventricular node + sinoatrial node in most patients. The posterior descending artery supplies the posterior third of the interventricular septum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Risk stratification is done prior to a major cardiac surgery using cardiopulmonary exercise...

    Correct

    • Risk stratification is done prior to a major cardiac surgery using cardiopulmonary exercise testing. Given the following options, which one is most likely to have the highest risk for post-operative cardiac morbidity?

      Your Answer: Anaerobic threshold (AT) of less than 11 mL/kg/minute

      Explanation:

      The ventilatory anaerobic threshold (VAT), formerly referred to as the anaerobic threshold, is an index used to estimate exercise capacity. During the initial (aerobic) phase of CPET, which lasts until 50€“60% of Vo2max is reached, expired ventilation (VE) increases linearly with Vo2 and reflects aerobically produced CO2 in the muscles. Blood lactate levels do not change substantially during this phase, since muscle lactic acid production is minimal.

      During the latter half of exercise, anaerobic metabolism occurs because oxygen supply cannot keep up with the increasing metabolic requirements of exercising muscles. At this time, there is a significant increase in lactic acid production in the muscles and in the blood lactate concentration. The Vo2 at the onset of blood lactate accumulation is called the lactate threshold or the VAT. The VAT is also defined as the point at which minute ventilation increases disproportionately relative to Vo2, a response that is generally seen at 60€“70% of Vo2max.

      The VAT is a useful measure as work below this level encompasses most daily living activities. The ability to achieve the VAT can help distinguish cardiac and non€�cardiac (pulmonary or musculoskeletal) causes of exercise limitation, since patients who fatigue before reaching VAT are likely to have a non€�cardiac problem.

      When VAT is detected, patients with PVo2 of ©½10€…ml/kg/min have a high event rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Regarding the plateau phase of the cardiac potential, which electrolyte is the main...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the plateau phase of the cardiac potential, which electrolyte is the main determinant?

      Your Answer: Cl-

      Correct Answer: Ca2+

      Explanation:

      The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
      Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
      These channels automatically deactivate after a few ms

      Phase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.

      Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
      There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potential

      Of note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.

      Different sites have different conduction velocities:
      1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec

      2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec

      3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      84.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 31-year old Caucasian female came into the emergency department due to difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year old Caucasian female came into the emergency department due to difficulty of breathing. History revealed exposure to room odorizes that are rich in alkyl nitrites. Upon physical examination, patient is tachypnoeic at 32 breaths per minute, desaturated at 88% while on a non-rebreather mask at 15 litres per minute oxygen. She was also noted to be cyanotic, however with clear breath sounds. Considering the history, what is the most probable cause of her difficulty of breathing?

      Your Answer: High levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate

      Correct Answer: Increased affinity of bound oxygen to haemoglobin

      Explanation:

      Amyl nitrate is part of the treatment of cyanide poisoning. The short acting nitrate causes oxidation of Fe2+ in haemoglobin to Fe3+ in methaemoglobin. Methaemoglobin combines with cyanide (cyanmethemoglobin), which reacts with sodium thiosulfate to convert nontoxic thiocyanate and methaemoglobin.

      Methaemoglobin is formed when the iron in haemoglobin is converted from the reduced state (Fe2+) to the oxidized state (Fe3+). The oxidized form of haemoglobin (Fe3+) does not bind oxygen as readily as Fe2+, but has high affinity for cyanide. It also results to high affinity of bound oxygen to haemoglobin, thus leading to tissue hypoxia. Arterial oxygen tension is normal despite observations of cyanosis and dyspnoea. Methemoglobinemia can be treated with methylene blue and vitamin C.

      Carboxyhaemoglobin can be due to carbon monoxide poisoning. In such cases, patients experience headache and dizziness, but do not develop cyanosis.

      2,3-diphosphoglycerate causes a shift in the oxygen dissociation curve to the right, decreasing haemoglobin’s affinity to oxygen to facilitate unloading of oxygen to the tissues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - From the following electromagnetic waves, which one has the shortest wavelength? ...

    Incorrect

    • From the following electromagnetic waves, which one has the shortest wavelength?

      Your Answer: Visible light

      Correct Answer: X rays

      Explanation:

      Electromagnetic waves are categorized according to their frequency or equivalently according to their wavelength. Visible light makes up a small part of the full electromagnetic spectrum.

      Electromagnetic waves with shorter wavelengths and higher frequencies include ultraviolet light, X-rays, and gamma rays. Electromagnetic waves with longer wavelengths and lower frequencies include infrared light, microwaves, and radio and televisions waves.

      Different electromagnetic waves according to their wavelength from shorter to longer are X-rays, ultraviolet radiations, visible light, infrared radiation, radio waves. X-ray among electromagnetic waves has the shortest wavelength and higher frequency with wavelengths ranging from 10*-8 to 10* -12 and corresponding frequencies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Bacteria and viruses that are smaller than 0.1 μm in diameter can be...

    Correct

    • Bacteria and viruses that are smaller than 0.1 μm in diameter can be filtered out using heat and moisture exchanger (HME) with a typical pore size 0.2 μm. Choose the most appropriate mechanisms of particle capture for most bacteria and viruses.

      Your Answer: Diffusion

      Explanation:

      Warming, humidifying, and filtering inspired anaesthetic gases is done by heat and moisture exchangers (HME) and breathing system filters. They are made of glass fibres materials and are supported by a sturdy frame. Pleating increases the surface area to reduce resistance to air flow and boost efficiency.

      Filters’ effectiveness is determined by the amount and size of particles they keep out of the patient’s airway. The efficiency of filters might be classified as 95, 99.95, or 99.97 percent. Pores with a diameter of 0.2 µm are common. The following are examples of typical particle sizes:
      Red blood cell – 5 µm
      Lymphocyte – 5-8 µm
      Viruses – 0.02-0.3 µm
      Bacteria – 0.5-1 µm
      Depending on particle size, gas flow speed, and charge, particles are collected via a number of processes. Mechanical sieve, interception, diffusion, electrostatic filtration, and inertial impaction are some of the options:

      Sieve:
      The diameter of the particle the filter is supposed to collect is smaller than the apertures of the filter’s fibres.

      Interception:
      When a particle following a gas streamline approaches a fibre within one radius of itself, it becomes attached and captured.
      Diffusion:

      A particle’s random (Brownian) zig-zag path or motion causes it to collide with a fibre.
      By attracting and capturing a particle from within the gas flow, it generates a lower-concentration patch within the gas flow into which another particle diffuses, only to be captured. At low gas velocities and with smaller particles (0.1µm diameter), this is more common.

      Electrostatic:

      These filters use large diameter fibre media and rely on electrostatic charges to improve fine particle removal effectiveness.

      Impaction due to inertia:

      When a particle is too large to respond fast to abrupt changes in streamline direction near a filter fibre, this happens. Because of its inertia, the particle will continue on its original course and collide with the filter fibre. When high gas velocities and dense fibre packing of the filter media are present, this sort of filtration mechanism is most prevalent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      24.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A randomized controlled trail has been conducted to compare two drugs used for...

    Incorrect

    • A randomized controlled trail has been conducted to compare two drugs used for the early management of acute severe asthma in the emergency department. After being allocated to the randomized groups, many patients have been excluded due to deleterious effect to the drugs. How the data would be analysed?

      Your Answer: Recruit more patients

      Correct Answer: Include the patients who drop out in the final data set

      Explanation:

      Randomized controlled trails will be analysed by the intention-to-treat (ITT) approach. It provides unbiased comparisons among the treatment groups. ITT analyses are done to avoid the effects of dropout, which may break the random assignment to the treatment groups in a study.

      ITT analysis is a comparison of the treatment groups that includes all patients as originally allocated after randomization.

      In order to include such participants in an analysis, outcome data could be imputed which involves making assumptions about the outcomes in the lost participants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - All of the following are causes of hypalbuminaemia except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following are causes of hypalbuminaemia except:

      Your Answer: Renal failure

      Correct Answer: Starvation

      Explanation:

      Major surgery induces the systemic inflammatory response and this causes endothelial leakage and a low albumin level.

      Albumin is a single polypeptide which is made but not stored in the liver. Therefore, levels are a reflection of synthetic activity. It is negatively charged and very soluble.

      Only 40% of albumin is intravascular, and the rest in the in interstitial compartment.

      If there was normal liver function during starvation, albumin will be maintained and proteolysis will occur elsewhere.
      It is not catabolised during starvation.
      Starvation and malnutrition may, however, present as part of other disease processes that are associated with hypalbuminaemia.

      Causes of low albumin are

      1. Decreased production (hepatic dysfunction)
      2. Increased loss (renal dysfunction)
      3. Redistribution (endothelial leak/damage)
      4. Increased catabolism (very rare)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which of the following bias is more prone to case-control studies? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following bias is more prone to case-control studies?

      Your Answer: Publication bias

      Correct Answer: Recall bias

      Explanation:

      Omitted variable bias occurs when a statistician passes over one or more relevant variables from the study.

      Publication bias occurs in publish academic research. it occurs when the results of the study effect the decision whether to publish or not.

      Expectation bias occurs when the expectation of a researcher about the results effect the behaviour of the participants. Expectations may come from communication and experiences.

      Work up bias occurs in the study of diagnostic test validity, whether a gold standard procedure has been used. work up bias can seriously affect the specificity of the test.

      Recall bias introduced when participants in a study are systematically more or less likely to recall and relate information on exposure depending on their outcome status. Recall bias is more potential for Case-control studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Intracellular effectors are activated by receptors on the cell surface. These receptors receive...

    Incorrect

    • Intracellular effectors are activated by receptors on the cell surface. These receptors receive signals that are relayed by second messenger systems. In the human body, which second messenger is most abundant?

      Your Answer: Diacylglycerol (DAG)

      Correct Answer: Calcium ions

      Explanation:

      Second messengers relay signals to target molecules in the cytoplasm or nucleus when an agonist interacts with a receptor on the cell surface. They also amplify the strength of the signal. The most ubiquitous and abundant second messenger is calcium and it regulates multiple cellular functions in the body.

      These include:
      Muscle contraction (skeletal, smooth and cardiac)
      Exocytosis (neurotransmitter release at synapses and insulin secretion)
      Apoptosis
      Cell adhesion to the extracellular matrix
      Lymphocyte activation
      Biochemical changes mediated by protein kinase C.

      cAMP is either inhibited or stimulated by G proteins.

      The receptors in the body that stimulate G proteins and increase cAMP include:

      Beta (β1, β2, and β3)
      Dopamine (D1 and D5)
      Histamine (H2)
      Glucagon
      Vasopressin (V2).

      The second messenger for the action of nitric oxide (NO) and atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) is cGMP.

      The second messengers for angiotensin and thyroid stimulating hormone are inositol triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - General anaesthesia is administered to a patient in a hospital in Lhasa which...

    Incorrect

    • General anaesthesia is administered to a patient in a hospital in Lhasa which is one of the highest cities in the world (at 11,975 feet). An Anaesthetic rotameter is normally calibrated at 20 C and 1 bar pressure and is known to be underread at altitude. The temperature of the theatre was 10 C. Which one of the following physical properties is responsible for the rotameter inaccuracy in these conditions?

      Your Answer: Pressure in the gas cylinder

      Correct Answer: Density of the gas

      Explanation:

      Since the gas is less dense at higher altitudes, the density of a gas influences flows when passing through the orifice. Due to this reason, for a given flow rate, the bobbin will not be forced as far up the rotameter tube.

      At higher altitudes, the volume of a fixed mass of gas increases, and therefore the molecules of gas are widely spaced resulting in a decrease in density with an increase in altitude.

      Viscosity is simply termed as friction of gas. The viscosity of a gas is important only at low flow rates when the flow characteristic of the gas is laminar.

      Charle’s law stated that the volume occupied by a fixed amount of gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature (T) provided the pressure remains constant.

      Boyle’s law for a fixed amount of gas at constant temperature, the pressure (P) and volume (V) are inversely proportional.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - The following are pairs of neurotransmitters with their corresponding synthesising enzymes. Which pair...

    Incorrect

    • The following are pairs of neurotransmitters with their corresponding synthesising enzymes. Which pair is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glutamic acid decarboxylase and gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

      Explanation:

      Glutamic acid decarboxylase is responsible for the catalyses of glutamate to gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

      Catechol-o-methyl transferase catalyses the degradation and inactivation of dopamine into 3-methoxytyramine, epinephrine into metanephrine, and norepinephrine into normetanephrine and vanylmethylmandelic acid (VMA).

      Monoamine oxidase catalyses the oxidation of norepinephrine to vanylmethylmandelic acid (VMA) and serotonin to 5-hydeoxyindole acetic acid (5-HIAA).

      Cholinesterase functions to catalyse the split of acetylcholine into choline and acetic acid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Statistical Methods (4/5) 80%
Anatomy (2/3) 67%
Physiology (2/3) 67%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Pathophysiology (0/3) 0%
Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (1/2) 50%
Physiology And Biochemistry (0/1) 0%
Basic Physics (1/1) 100%
Passmed