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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by his mother because he is experiencing diarrhoea and vomiting. He has no significant medical history and has been unwell for 48 hours with fever (up to 38.5 °C) and gastroenteritis symptoms. The GP examines the child.
Which of the following findings would most strongly suggest the need for urgent admission to hospital?
Your Answer: Poor feeding
Correct Answer: Reduced skin turgor
Explanation:Assessing the Severity of Dehydration in Young Children
When evaluating the likelihood of serious illness in young children, reduced skin turgor is the only red (high risk) option according to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence guidelines. Poor feeding, apex rate of 160 per minute, dry mucous membrane, and reduced urine output are all amber signs (intermediate risk) that require careful monitoring and safety netting. The pinch test (skin turgor) is the most reliable clinical assessment of dehydration when used alongside other clinical indicators. While these amber signs may not necessitate admission, they do require stringent safety netting and review.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman is treated in the Emergency Department (ED) following an anaphylactic reaction to a wasp sting. She presents to her General Practitioner (GP) a few days later as she is worried about the possibility of this happening again and is seeking advice on what she should do if it does.
What is the most appropriate initial self-management advice for this patient?Your Answer: Application of a cold compress
Correct Answer: Self-administer an intramuscular (IM) injection of adrenaline
Explanation:How to Self-Administer an Intramuscular Injection of Adrenaline for Anaphylaxis
Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that requires immediate treatment. The most effective treatment for anaphylaxis is intramuscular (IM) adrenaline, which can be self-administered using adrenaline auto-injectors (AAIs) such as EpiPen® and Jext®.
Before using an AAI, patients should receive proper training on their use. The recommended dose of adrenaline for adults is 0.3 mg, while for children up to 25-30 kg, it is 0.15 mg. Patients should carry two doses with them at all times, as the dose may need to be repeated after 5-15 minutes.
It is important to note that a cold compress is not an effective treatment for anaphylaxis, as it is a systemic reaction. Similarly, taking an oral antihistamine should not delay treatment with IM adrenaline.
If experiencing anaphylaxis, it is crucial to administer the IM adrenaline injection immediately and then seek medical attention. Contacting emergency services is recommended, but should not delay self-administration of the injection. Additionally, if stung by a bee, the sting should be scraped out rather than plucked to avoid squeezing more venom into the skin.
In summary, knowing how to self-administer an IM injection of adrenaline is crucial for those at risk of anaphylaxis. Proper training and carrying two doses of the medication at all times can help ensure prompt and effective treatment in case of an emergency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 12-year-old girl has been excluded from school because of her conduct. Her mother wonders if a psychological problem might explain her behaviour. What is conduct disorder and how might it be related to the girl's behaviour?
Your Answer: It may be associated with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
Explanation:Understanding Conduct Disorder: Characteristics and Prevalence
Conduct disorder (CD) is a behavioral disorder that is characterized by aggressive, antisocial, and defiant behavior in children. Children with CD exhibit behaviors such as physical cruelty, destructiveness, lying, stealing, and truancy. To be diagnosed with CD, a child must exhibit at least three of these characteristics over the past year, with at least one in the last six months.
CD can be classified into two types: early-onset CD, which occurs before the age of 10 and is less common, and adolescent-onset CD, which is more common and may be associated with ADHD. A UK government report found that 5% of children aged 5-15 years had conduct disorder, and 1% had ADHD/hyperkinetic disorder. The male to female ratio is 3:1.
The severity of CD depends on the number of problems the child has and the effect on others. Children with CD may exhibit persistent antisocial behavior, and temper tantrums are common. Stealing, assault, and destruction of property can lead to legal consequences for the child.
In conclusion, understanding the characteristics and prevalence of conduct disorder is crucial in identifying and addressing this behavioral disorder in children. Early intervention and treatment can help improve outcomes for children with CD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old teacher comes to the clinic seeking a medical certificate after undergoing an open repair for an inguinal hernia. As per the guidelines of the Department of Work and Pensions, what is the recommended duration before he can resume work?
Your Answer: After 7 days
Correct Answer: After 2 - 3 weeks
Explanation:Returning to work after inguinal hernia repair takes 2-3 weeks for open surgery and 1-2 weeks for laparoscopic surgery.
Understanding Inguinal Hernias
Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main symptom is a lump in the groin area, which disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are also common, especially during physical activity. However, severe pain is rare, and strangulation is even rarer.
The traditional classification of inguinal hernias into indirect and direct types is no longer relevant in clinical management. Instead, the current consensus is to treat medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for those who are not fit for surgery, but it has limited use in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method, as it has the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are usually repaired through an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically.
After surgery, patients are advised to return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks for open repair and 1-2 weeks for laparoscopic repair. Complications may include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman has developed a polymorphic eruption over the dorsa of both hands and feet. The lesions started 2 days ago and she now has some lesions on the arms and legs. Individual lesions are well-demarcated red macules or small urticarial plaques. Some lesions have a small blister or crusting in the centre, which seems darker than the periphery.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythema multiforme
Explanation:Understanding Erythema Multiforme: Symptoms and Characteristics
Erythema multiforme is a skin condition that typically begins with lesions on the hands and feet before spreading to other areas of the body. The upper limbs are more commonly affected than the lower limbs, and the palms and soles may also be involved. The initial lesions are red or pink macules that become raised papules and gradually enlarge to form plaques up to 2-3 cm in diameter. The center of a lesion darkens in color and may develop blistering or crusting. The typical target lesion of erythema multiforme has a sharp margin, regular round shape, and three concentric color zones. Atypical targets may show just two zones and/or an indistinct border. The rash is polymorphous, meaning it can take many forms, and lesions may be at various stages of development. The rash usually fades over 2-4 weeks, but recurrences are common. In more severe cases, there may be blistering of mucous membranes, which can be life-threatening. Some consider erythema multiforme to be part of a spectrum of disease that includes Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis, while others argue that it should be classified separately as it is associated with infections rather than certain drugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which of the following patients is most likely to have their actual risk of cardiovascular disease underestimated by QRISK2?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 54-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia who takes olanzapine
Explanation:Patients with a serious mental health disorder and those taking antipsychotics may have their cardiovascular disease risk underestimated by QRISK2.
Management of Hyperlipidaemia: NICE Guidelines
Hyperlipidaemia, or high levels of lipids in the blood, is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease (CVD). In 2014, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on lipid modification, which caused controversy due to the recommendation of statins for a significant proportion of the population over the age of 60. The guidelines suggest a systematic strategy to identify people over 40 years who are at high risk of CVD, using the QRISK2 CVD risk assessment tool. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and patients with very high cholesterol levels should be investigated for familial hyperlipidaemia. The new guidelines recommend offering a statin to people with a QRISK2 10-year risk of 10% or greater, with atorvastatin 20 mg offered first-line. Special situations, such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease, are also addressed. Lifestyle modifications, including a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, alcohol intake, and smoking cessation, are important in managing hyperlipidaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of the following drugs doesn't inhibit cytochrome P450?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clopidogrel
Explanation:P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors
The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing many drugs in the body. Induction of this system occurs when a drug or substance causes an increase in the activity of the P450 enzymes. This process usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug. On the other hand, P450 inhibitors decrease the activity of the enzymes and their effects are often seen rapidly.
Some common inducers of the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking. Smoking affects CYP1A2, which is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.
In contrast, some common inhibitors of the P450 system include antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, acute alcohol intake, and quinupristin.
It is important to be aware of the potential for drug interactions when taking medications that affect the P450 enzyme system. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications and supplements they are taking to avoid any adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Olive is 12 weeks pregnant. She has been engaging in unprotected sexual activity with multiple partners for the past 6 months and is concerned about the potential impact of a sexually transmitted infection on her unborn child. Which of the following STIs is typically included in the antenatal screening program in the UK?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Syphilis
Explanation:During the booking visit for prenatal care, healthcare providers typically test for sexually transmitted infections (STIs) that can have serious consequences for the mother and/or the developing fetus. These include syphilis, hepatitis B, and HIV. Testing for hepatitis C is usually only done for women who are at high risk, such as those who use intravenous drugs. Other STIs, such as chlamydia, gonorrhea, trichomonas, bacterial vaginosis, genital herpes, and genital warts, are not routinely tested for during pregnancy unless the patient has symptoms or is considered to be at risk. It is important to identify and treat STIs during pregnancy to prevent adverse outcomes for both the mother and the baby.
Antenatal care is an important aspect of pregnancy, and the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has issued guidelines on routine care for healthy pregnant women. The guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 visits for subsequent pregnancies, provided that the pregnancy is uncomplicated. Women do not need to see a consultant if their pregnancy is uncomplicated.
The timetable for antenatal visits begins with a booking visit between 8-12 weeks, where general information is provided on topics such as diet, alcohol, smoking, folic acid, vitamin D, and antenatal classes. Blood and urine tests are also conducted to check for conditions such as hepatitis B, syphilis, and asymptomatic bacteriuria. An early scan is conducted between 10-13+6 weeks to confirm dates and exclude multiple pregnancies, while Down’s syndrome screening is conducted between 11-13+6 weeks.
At 16 weeks, women receive information on the anomaly and blood results, and if their haemoglobin levels are below 11 g/dl, they may be advised to take iron supplements. Routine care is conducted at 18-20+6 weeks, including an anomaly scan, and at 25, 28, 31, and 34 weeks, where blood pressure, urine dipstick, and symphysis-fundal height (SFH) are checked. Women who are rhesus negative receive anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks.
At 36 weeks, presentation is checked, and external cephalic version may be offered if indicated. Information on breastfeeding, vitamin K, and ‘baby-blues’ is also provided. Routine care is conducted at 38 weeks, and at 40 weeks (for first pregnancies), discussion about options for prolonged pregnancy takes place. At 41 weeks, labour plans and the possibility of induction are discussed. The RCOG advises that either a single-dose or double-dose regime of anti-D prophylaxis can be used, depending on local factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male visits his GP clinic as he is preparing to start university in a few months. His friends have advised him to get vaccinated before he begins. He is of 'White British' ethnicity, has a clean medical history, and will be studying English at the University of Manchester. Which vaccine should he receive as part of the standard NHS immunisation program?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meningitis ACWY
Explanation:Due to a recent surge in meningitis W cases, the NHS is now advising all incoming students to receive the meningitis ACWY vaccine.
The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at specific intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, PCV, and Men B vaccines are given. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 Preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.
It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine is also offered to new students up to the age of 25 years at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine, while students going to university or college for the first time should contact their GP to have the vaccine before the start of the academic year.
The Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued as there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What specific information should you provide to a patient regarding the use of varenicline for smoking cessation during counselling?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Treatment should be discontinued and prompt medical advice sought if they develop suicidal thoughts
Explanation:Caution and Monitoring for Varenicline Use in Patients with Mental Illness
Patients with a history of mental illness should exercise caution when taking varenicline and be closely monitored during treatment. This medication may worsen underlying psychiatric conditions. Patients should be advised to discontinue use and seek medical attention immediately if they experience suicidal thoughts, depressed mood, or agitation.
Varenicline treatment typically begins one to two weeks before the target stop date. The initial dose is 500 micrograms once daily for three days, followed by 500 micrograms twice daily for four days, and then 1 mg twice daily for 11 weeks. If the 1 mg dose is not well-tolerated, the patient may continue with 500 micrograms twice daily.
It is important to note that there is no disulfiram-type reaction between alcohol and varenicline. However, patients should be aware that bupropion is associated with an increased risk of seizures and requires blood pressure monitoring before and during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman with known asthma visits your clinic with complaints of worsening shortness of breath and wheezing over the past few hours. She has a history of asthma but has not been consistent with her medication. During previous consultations, her best peak flow measurements were recorded at 300 L/min. What is the identifying characteristic of acute severe asthma in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Respiratory rate >20/min
Explanation:Assessment and Severity of Acute Asthma
Questions about the assessment and severity of acute asthma are common in exams. To address this, the British Thoracic Society has provided clear guidance on the assessment and management of acute asthma. It is important to familiarize oneself with this document.
Indicators of acute severe asthma include a peak expiratory flow rate of 33-50% of best or predicted, a respiratory rate of 25 or greater, a heart rate of 110/min or greater, or the inability to complete sentences in one breath. The goal of oxygen therapy is to maintain SpO2 at 94-98%.
It is important to note that increasing symptoms is a vague description that only indicates a moderate asthma exacerbation and is not a marker of an acute severe attack. The only indicator of an acute severe asthma attack in this case is the patient’s inability to complete sentences in one breath.
If any of these features of an acute severe asthma attack persist after initial treatment, the patient should be admitted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man was put on treatment for glaucoma and came back for a review after a month. Although his eye pressures had improved, he reported an increase in the length of his eyelashes. Which medication is responsible for this side effect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Latanoprost
Explanation:Prostaglandin analogues are associated with several side effects, including longer eyelashes, iris pigmentation, and periocular pigmentation.
Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type of optic neuropathy that is associated with increased intraocular pressure (IOP). It is classified based on whether the peripheral iris is covering the trabecular meshwork, which is important in the drainage of aqueous humour from the anterior chamber of the eye. In open-angle glaucoma, the iris is clear of the meshwork, but the trabecular network offers increased resistance to aqueous outflow, causing increased IOP. This condition affects 0.5% of people over the age of 40 and its prevalence increases with age up to 10% over the age of 80 years. Both males and females are equally affected. The main causes of primary open-angle glaucoma are increasing age and genetics, with first-degree relatives of an open-angle glaucoma patient having a 16% chance of developing the disease.
Primary open-angle glaucoma is characterised by a slow rise in intraocular pressure, which is symptomless for a long period. It is typically detected following an ocular pressure measurement during a routine examination by an optometrist. Signs of the condition include increased intraocular pressure, visual field defect, and pathological cupping of the optic disc. Case finding and provisional diagnosis are done by an optometrist, and referral to an ophthalmologist is done via the GP. Final diagnosis is made through investigations such as automated perimetry to assess visual field, slit lamp examination with pupil dilatation to assess optic nerve and fundus for a baseline, applanation tonometry to measure IOP, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy to assess peripheral anterior chamber configuration and depth. The risk of future visual impairment is assessed using risk factors such as IOP, central corneal thickness (CCT), family history, and life expectancy.
The majority of patients with primary open-angle glaucoma are managed with eye drops that aim to lower intraocular pressure and prevent progressive loss of visual field. According to NICE guidelines, the first line of treatment is a prostaglandin analogue (PGA) eyedrop, followed by a beta-blocker, carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, or sympathomimetic eyedrop as a second line of treatment. Surgery or laser treatment can be tried in more advanced cases. Reassessment is important to exclude progression and visual field loss and needs to be done more frequently if IOP is uncontrolled, the patient is high risk, or there
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents with urinary frequency, occasional dysuria, and persistent perineal discomfort. Ejaculation is also painful. Symptoms have been present for about 3 months. Before this, he had no history of urinary problems. Examination reveals no pyrexia but a tender prostate. Urine culture is reported as normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic prostatitis
Explanation:Possible Causes of Perineal Pain and Urinary Symptoms in Men
Chronic prostatitis is a likely cause of perineal pain or discomfort in men that lasts for at least 3 months. This condition may also be accompanied by lower urinary symptoms and sexual dysfunction. Recurrent urinary tract infections or a history of acute prostatitis may indicate chronic bacterial prostatitis. A positive urine culture confirms the presence of bacterial prostatitis, but it may be normal in non-bacterial prostatitis. Prostate cancer is unlikely to cause perineal pain or pain on ejaculation, and the examination findings do not support this option. Acute bacterial prostatitis is a more severe illness with sudden onset, which is not consistent with the patient’s symptoms. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) doesn’t cause dysuria or prostate tenderness. Cystitis doesn’t affect the prostate and doesn’t explain the patient’s symptoms. Therefore, chronic prostatitis is the most probable diagnosis in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man contacts the General Practitioner out of hours service for advice. He had a renal transplant five months ago. His family had a viral illness last week, which they managed with self-care and over the counter medications. He now complains of feeling unwell for the past three days. He reports feeling tired, with a fever and a headache and a mild sore throat. He can eat and drink and he has no rash.
You suspect that he may be experiencing an acute renal transplant rejection.
Which of the following signs or symptom would you most expect to see?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lower limb swelling
Explanation:Symptoms of Acute Renal Transplant Rejection
Acute renal transplant rejection can occur after a kidney transplant and is characterized by reduced urine output, leading to oliguria and water retention. This can result in swelling of the limbs or abdomen and face. Malaise and fatigue are common symptoms, but they are also present in upper respiratory tract infections. Fever may also be present, but it is a nonspecific symptom found in many infections. Polyuria, or excessive urine output, is not typically seen in acute renal transplant rejection. Headache is a nonspecific symptom and may be present in both acute infections and graft rejection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A new mother brings her 14-day-old boy to see you and you carry out a clinical examination. She wants to know if there are any indications that her child may have an underlying condition.
What feature in this boy would be most suggestive of a high risk of a serious underlying problem?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Unilateral Moro reflex
Explanation:Common Infant Characteristics and Abnormalities
The following are common characteristics and abnormalities that may be observed in infants:
Unilateral Moro Reflex: A response to something that startles the infant, such as a loud noise or a sudden loss of support. Absence may indicate a profound disorder of the motor system, while persistence beyond four or five months of age occurs in infants with severe neurological defects.
Scattered Red Marks with Papules and Pustules on the Face and Trunk: This is toxic erythema of the newborn, a common finding in neonates. It doesn’t cause the child discomfort and usually lasts several days.
Fall in Weight from Birth Weight: Most babies lose about 10% of their birth weight after birth, but they usually regain this weight after about two weeks.
Pink Moist Granuloma in the Umbilicus: An overgrowth of granulation tissue that occurs after the cord has fallen off. The discharge from an umbilical granuloma may irritate the surrounding skin.
Single Palmar Crease: About 5% of newborns have a single palmar crease on at least one hand, frequently inherited as a familial trait. It is sometimes associated with Down and other syndromes, although other signs would point to these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old patient with a strong family history of premature myocardial infarction presents to his General Practitioner and is found to have familial hypercholesterolaemia. He is a non-smoker and is normotensive. He is given lifestyle and dietary advice and prescribed a high-intensity statin. His lipid results are reviewed after two months.
Investigations before and after being on a maximum dose of the statin:
Investigation Result Result after two months Normal value
Cholesterol concentration 10.2mmol/l 6.8 mmol/l <5.1 mmol/l
LDL-cholesterol 8.1 mmol/l 5.3 mmol/l <3.1 mmol/l
HDL-cholesterol 1.2 mmol/l 1.3 mmol/l >1.1 mmol/l
Fasting triglycerides 1.9 mmol/l 1.0 mmol/l <1.6 mmol/l
Which of the following is the single most appropriate next step in his management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adding ezetimibe to his medication
Explanation:Treatment Options for Primary Hypercholesterolaemia
Primary hypercholesterolaemia requires appropriate treatment to reduce LDL-cholesterol levels. In this case, the patient’s LDL-cholesterol reduction is only 35%, which is below the recommended reduction of >40% with the statin alone. Therefore, adding ezetimibe, an inhibitor of cholesterol absorption from the gut, is the treatment of choice. This is the only further primary care intervention before specialist intervention is required.
Treatment Options for Primary Hypercholesterolaemia
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Sophie is a 4-year-old girl who has been brought in by her father with a 2 day history of cough and fever. Her father describes the cough sounds like a bark and today Sophie has appeared more breathless.
On examination, Sophie appears alert with moist mucous membranes. You observe nasal flaring and moderate intercostal recession. You check Sophie's temperature which is 38.2°C and oxygen saturation is 97% in air. Her respiratory rate is 52 breaths per minute and heart rate is 138 beats per minute.
What red flag symptoms have you observed in Sophie?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Moderate intercostal recession
Explanation:When a child has a fever, moderate or severe intercostal recession is a concerning symptom. This is considered a red flag according to NICE guidelines, which indicate a high risk of serious illness. Other red flag symptoms include those in the amber risk category, such as nasal flaring and a respiratory rate over 40 breaths per minute for children over 12 months old. A heart rate of 138 beats per minute is not a red flag symptom, but a heart rate over 140 beats per minute for children aged 2-5 years is considered an amber symptom. A temperature of 38°C or higher is only a red flag symptom for infants aged 0-3 months.
The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013 to provide a ‘traffic light’ system for assessing the risk of febrile illness in children under 5 years old. The guidelines recommend recording the child’s temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time, as well as looking for signs of dehydration. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla for children under 4 weeks or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infra-red tympanic thermometer. The risk stratification table categorizes children as green (low risk), amber (intermediate risk), or red (high risk) based on their symptoms. Management recommendations vary depending on the risk level, with green children managed at home, amber children provided with a safety net or referred to a specialist, and red children urgently referred to a specialist. The guidelines also advise against prescribing oral antibiotics without an apparent source of fever and note that a chest x-ray is not necessary if a child with suspected pneumonia is not being referred to the hospital.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of low mood. He reports experiencing anhedonia, fatigue, weight loss, insomnia, and agitation. His PHQ-9 score is 20.
What is the optimal course of action for management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start citalopram and refer for CBT
Explanation:Based on the patient’s PHQ-9 score and varied symptoms, it appears that he is suffering from severe depression. According to NICE guidelines, the recommended treatment for severe depression is a combination of an antidepressant and psychological intervention, with an SSRI being the first-line antidepressant of choice. Therefore, in this case, citalopram with CBT would be the appropriate treatment.
While venlafaxine may be considered as a later option if other antidepressants are ineffective, it is not the first choice. Additionally, a referral to psychiatry is not necessary based on the symptoms presented.
Fluoxetine is a suitable first-line antidepressant, but for severe depression, it should be used in combination with psychological intervention.
CBT alone may be appropriate for mild to moderate depression, but for severe depression, the guidelines recommend using an antidepressant in combination.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Depression
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines for managing depression in 2022. The new guidelines classify depression severity as less severe and more severe based on a PHQ-9 score of <16 and ≥16, respectively. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and least resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient's preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), group behavioral activation (BA), individual CBT, individual BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT), selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy (STPP). For more severe depression, a shared decision should be made between the patient and healthcare provider. Treatment options for more severe depression include a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant, individual CBT, individual BA, antidepressant medication (SSRI, SNRI, or another antidepressant if indicated based on previous clinical and treatment history), individual problem-solving, counseling, STPP, IPT, guided self-help, and group exercise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman comes to the clinic after sustaining a Colles fracture during a fall while on vacation in Italy. The fracture clinic diagnosed her with a fragility fracture and advised her to see her GP in the UK for bone protection. She has no family history of hip fracture or osteoporosis, is a non-smoker, and doesn't drink alcohol. Her BMI is 22 kg/m2, and she has no other significant medical issues.
What is the most appropriate next step in her management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange a dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan
Explanation:As per the current NICE CKS guidance, individuals who are above 50 years of age and have a previous fragility fracture should be referred for a DEXA scan to measure bone mineral density (BMD). It is not necessary to calculate their QFracture risk or FRAX score before arranging the scan. Even if their QFracture risk is low, they are still at risk due to their history of fragility fracture. For patients over 75 years of age who have had a fragility fracture, treatment (oral bisphosphonates as first line) should be initiated immediately without the need for a DEXA scan. However, it is important to note that this differs from the NOGG guidelines 2014, which recommend treatment for all women over 50 years who have had a fragility fracture.
Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. When a patient experiences a fragility fracture, which is a fracture that occurs from a low-impact injury or fall, it is important to assess their risk for osteoporosis and subsequent fractures. The management of patients following a fragility fracture depends on their age.
For patients who are 75 years of age or older, they are presumed to have underlying osteoporosis and should be started on first-line therapy, such as an oral bisphosphonate, without the need for a DEXA scan. However, the 2014 NOGG guidelines suggest that treatment should be started in all women over the age of 50 years who’ve had a fragility fracture, although BMD measurement may sometimes be appropriate, particularly in younger postmenopausal women.
For patients who are under the age of 75 years, a DEXA scan should be arranged to assess their bone mineral density. These results can then be entered into a FRAX assessment, along with the fact that they’ve had a fracture, to determine their ongoing fracture risk. Based on this assessment, appropriate treatment can be initiated to prevent future fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man visits his GP for a blood pressure check. He has a medical history of hypothyroidism, asthma, and high cholesterol. He reports feeling well, and his QRISK score is calculated at 11%.
The patient is currently taking levothyroxine, atorvastatin, lercanidipine, beclomethasone, and salbutamol. He has no known allergies.
After taking three readings, his blood pressure averages at 146/92 mmHg.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Addition of losartan
Explanation:The patient’s current therapy doesn’t affect the treatment decision, but an additional medication from either the ACE-inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker class is recommended to control their blood pressure. According to updated guidelines from 2019, a thiazide-like diuretic may also be used. As losartan is the only medication from these classes, it is the correct choice. Bisoprolol, doxazosin, and spironolactone are typically reserved for cases of resistant hypertension that do not respond to combinations of a calcium channel blocker, a thiazide-like diuretic, and an ACE-inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Since the patient is only on a single therapy, adding any of these options is not currently indicated. Choosing to make no changes to the medication is incorrect, as the patient’s blood pressure remains above the target range of 140/90 mmHg.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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During a routine contraception review, you ask a 27-year-woman whether she has any troublesome vaginal discharge or any unscheduled bleeding. She says that she has no unscheduled bleeding and that she has always had a very slight, clear, intermittent vaginal discharge. She has no other symptoms and is in a stable relationship.
What is the most probable reason for this?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The most likely cause is a physiological discharge
Explanation:Causes of Vaginal Discharge in Women
This woman is experiencing occasional vaginal discharge. There are several potential causes of vaginal discharge, including candidiasis, bacterial vaginosis, and physiological discharge. Candidiasis is typically associated with itch and a thick discharge, while bacterial vaginosis is often intermittent and accompanied by a profuse and smelly discharge. However, given the patient’s age and stable relationship, physiological discharge is the most likely cause.
In this case, it may not be necessary to conduct a speculum exam unless the patient specifically requests it. Initially, the patient can be reassured without further investigation. However, if investigation is deemed necessary, a self-taken lower vaginal swab would be a reasonable option.
It is important to note that normality is a common theme in the MRCGP exam, and understanding the various causes of vaginal discharge is an important aspect of primary care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man is brought to the General Practitioner by his daughter for a consultation. He has recently been diagnosed with Alzheimer disease, so she asks for more information on the condition and on any associated disorders.
Which of the following disorders is most likely also to be present in this patient because of his recent diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Depression
Explanation:Common Co-Morbidities and Symptoms in Alzheimer Disease
Alzheimer disease is a complex disorder that can present with a variety of co-morbidities and symptoms. One of the most common co-morbidities is depression, which affects 30%-50% of patients. However, depression in Alzheimer patients differs from depression in cognitively intact elderly patients, as it often features motivational disturbances rather than mood symptoms.
Anxiety is also common in people with dementia, particularly in vascular dementia. Panic attacks can occur, but are not significantly more common. Alcohol abuse is another potential comorbidity, as alcohol is a known cause of dementia.
Hallucinations can occur in Alzheimer disease, but are more common in specific forms of dementia such as dementia with Lewy bodies and Parkinson’s disease dementia. Finally, obsessive-compulsive behaviours are more common in frontotemporal dementia, Huntington’s disease, and progressive supranuclear palsy.
Overall, understanding these co-morbidities and symptoms can aid in the differential diagnosis of Alzheimer disease and improve patient care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a history of coronary artery disease and hypertension and has, over the past week, become suspicious of her neighbours and daughter. She has accused her daughter of trying to steal her fiancé (who doesn't exist) and accused her neighbours of entering her house at night and stealing her belongings, although she is unable to state what is missing. The daughter reports that, over the previous year, the patient has become increasingly forgetful and functioned less well, to the point that she is now no longer able to cook or manage her own finances.
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dementia
Explanation:Understanding Different Diagnoses in Older Adults
Dementia is a condition that affects memory, thinking, and social abilities, leading to a decline in daily functioning. Symptoms worsen gradually over time, unlike delirium, which has a sudden onset and can coexist with dementia. Late-onset schizophrenia-like psychosis may also occur in older adults, often due to underlying medical conditions. Depression is common but not present in this case. Drug-induced psychosis is a possibility with polypharmacy, but not in this patient’s case, where dementia is the likely diagnosis. Understanding these different diagnoses is crucial in providing appropriate care for older adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man contacts the clinic to discuss his 'sick note'. He recently experienced acute mechanical lower back pain after twisting his back while working in the garden two weeks ago. He self-certified for the first seven days with an SC2 note and then saw a colleague of yours a week ago who gave him a medical certificate to cover the last one week.
Upon reviewing the notes, you notice that your colleague marked the fit note as you may be fit to return to work taking into account the following advice and has ticked amended duties and has handwritten in the comments section: to avoid heavy lifting. The fit note has been marked, I will not need to assess your fitness to work again at the end of this period.
He works in a factory and some of his duties involve heavy lifting, but he is still able to contribute effectively in his role in other areas that do not involve heavy lifting. He informs you that his back has fully recovered, but his employer has requested a fit note stating that he is fit to resume his full work activities.
What is the most appropriate course of action in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: You do not need to sign a 'return to work' note - he may return to full duties without any further input or paperwork from yourself
Explanation:Return to Work Note: What You Need to Know
When you’re on sick leave, your employer may ask you to sign a return to work note. However, you should know that you are not obligated to sign it. Employers may ask for this note to protect themselves or for insurance purposes, but you have the right to return to work at any time, even before the end of your sick note.
It’s important to inform your employer that you can return to work without seeing your doctor again, even if the doctor has indicated that they need to assess you again. The Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) has provided guidance for employers and managers, which states that as long as a suitable risk assessment has taken place, returning to work early will not breach your Employers Liability Compulsory Insurance.
In summary, if you’re asked to sign a return to work note, remember that you have the right to return to work at any time and that you don’t need to sign the note. Refer your employer to the DWP guidance for employers and managers to ensure that they understand their obligations and your rights.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Sophie is a 25-year-old woman who presented to your clinic last week complaining of fatigue, muscle aches, and swollen glands. She had gone on a camping trip to a wooded area recently but did not recall any insect bites. Upon examination, there was no visible rash. You ordered an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test for Lyme disease, and the result came back as equivocal today.
What would be the most suitable course of action now?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Perform an immunoblot test for Lyme disease
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, if a patient is suspected to have Lyme disease and doesn’t have erythema migrans, an ELISA test should be offered. If the ELISA test result is positive or equivocal, an immunoblot test should be performed. In the case of Jess, her ELISA test result was equivocal, so she requires an immunoblot test.
NICE guidelines suggest that if there is a high clinical suspicion of Lyme disease, antibiotics should be started while waiting for the results of the immunoblot test. However, Jess’s symptoms are nonspecific, and her clinical suspicion of Lyme disease is not high. Additionally, NICE recommends a 21-day course of doxycycline as the first-line treatment for Lyme disease, not a 14-day course. Amoxicillin is only recommended if doxycycline is not suitable.
There is no need to repeat the ELISA test at this time. NICE advises repeating the ELISA test 4-6 weeks after the initial test if the first test is negative and Lyme disease is still suspected within 4 weeks from symptom onset.
Referral to a specialist is not currently necessary for Jess. NICE recommends referring patients with focal symptoms to the appropriate specialist or considering a discussion with a specialist. If the immunoblot test is negative but symptoms persist, a discussion with or referral to a specialist should be considered (regardless of the ELISA result) to review whether further tests are required or to consider alternative diagnoses.
Understanding Lyme Disease
Lyme disease is an illness caused by a type of bacteria called Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected ticks. The disease can cause a range of symptoms, which can be divided into early and later features.
Early features of Lyme disease typically occur within 30 days of being bitten by an infected tick. These can include a distinctive rash known as erythema migrans, which often appears as a bulls-eye pattern around the site of the tick bite. Other early symptoms may include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.
Later features of Lyme disease can occur after 30 days and may affect different parts of the body. These can include heart block or myocarditis, which affect the cardiovascular system, and facial nerve palsy or meningitis, which affect the nervous system.
To diagnose Lyme disease, doctors may look for the presence of erythema migrans or use blood tests to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. Treatment typically involves antibiotics, such as doxycycline or amoxicillin, depending on the stage of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old gentleman, with stable schizophrenia and a penicillin allergy, had a routine ECG which showed a QTc interval of 420 ms. He takes oral quetiapine regularly. He was started on a course of clarithromycin for a recently suspected tonsillitis and has now recovered. He reported no new symptoms and was otherwise well. Blood tests including electrolytes were normal.
Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Discuss with the on-call psychiatry team for advice
Explanation:Normal QTc Interval in Patient Taking Quetiapine and Clarithromycin
The normal values for QTc are < 440 ms in men and <470 ms in women. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking medications such as quetiapine and clarithromycin, which are known to increase the QTc interval. In this scenario, an ECG was performed and the QTc interval was found to be normal. Therefore, no intervention is necessary at this time. It is important to continue monitoring the patient's QTc interval throughout their treatment with these medications. Proper monitoring can help prevent potentially life-threatening arrhythmias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man with schizophrenia reports that thoughts are leaking out of his head and being read by others around him.
What is the correct term for this symptom?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thought broadcast
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Thought Experiences
There are various types of thought experiences that individuals may encounter. One of these is thought broadcast, where others can seemingly hear or read one’s thoughts as they are being broadcasted from the individual. On the other hand, thought insertion and withdrawal refer to the experience of having thoughts inserted into or taken out of one’s mind by an external force. In thought blocking, individuals may suddenly find themselves unable to continue speaking as their minds go blank. Meanwhile, thought echo involves hearing one’s own thoughts being spoken aloud after thinking them. Finally, auditory hallucinations refer to the perception of hearing sounds or voices without any external stimulus. Understanding these different types of thought experiences can help individuals better recognize and cope with them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents to the Neurology Clinic with a severe, sudden-onset headache at the back of his head, associated with vomiting. His paternal aunt has been on dialysis since the age of 45.
On examination, his blood pressure is 190/100 mm/Hg and he has a mass in both loins.
Given the diagnosis, what is the likelihood that his sister is affected?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Understanding the Likelihood of Genetic Diseases: A Case Study of Autosomal-Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease
Autosomal-dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPCKD) affects 1 in 1000 individuals and is the most common inherited cause of serious renal disease. This case study explores the likelihood of a patient having ADPCKD based on their symptoms and family history.
The patient presented with a headache caused by a subarachnoid haemorrhage, which is often caused by intracranial aneurysms. Individuals with ADPCKD have a higher risk of developing these aneurysms, which also rupture at a younger age than those in the general population. The patient also had hypertension, loin masses, and a family history of dialysis, all of which are indicators of ADPCKD.
The likelihood of the patient having ADPCKD is 50%, as it is highly unlikely that both parents have the ADPCKD gene. If one parent has the gene, there is a 50% chance of inheriting it.
It is important to note that 100% likelihood of genetic diseases is rare unless prenatal genetic testing has taken place. Prenatal testing can only be done if the specific genetic abnormality is known and can be tested for. This type of testing raises ethical implications that need to be considered.
Understanding the likelihood of genetic diseases is crucial in making accurate diagnoses and providing appropriate treatment. In the case of ADPCKD, early detection and management can help prevent serious renal and neurological complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old lady calls for telephone advice. She is 20 days postpartum and had unprotected sexual intercourse 72 hours ago. She has no significant medical history and doesn't take any regular medication. She is bottle-feeding her baby. She is uncertain if there is a possibility of pregnancy and if emergency contraception is necessary.
Which of the following would be the most suitable recommendation to provide in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Emergency contraception is advised and oral ulipristal acetate 30 mg is the only safe treatment option
Explanation:Emergency Contraception Options After Childbirth
Oral levonorgestrel 1.5 mg and ulipristal acetate 30 mg are safe to use 21 days after childbirth, while the copper intrauterine device can be used for emergency contraception from day 28 postpartum. Among the three options, the copper intrauterine device is the most effective, with a pregnancy rate of approximately 1 in 1000.
It is important to note that the copper intrauterine device carries the same contraindications as when used for standard contraception. It can be retained until the next period then removed or kept in situ for ongoing long-term contraception. With these options available, women can make informed decisions about their reproductive health after childbirth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old receptionist has been absent from work for 4 weeks due to depression caused by multiple miscarriages. She is not ready to return to work and asks her doctor to extend her sick leave. What is the maximum duration that her doctor can sign her off for?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3 months
Explanation:Fit notes are limited to a maximum of 3 months per form during the initial issuance.
The eMed Initiative: Electronic Fit Notes
The eMed initiative is a project by the Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) aimed at replacing handwritten fit notes with electronically printed ones. This new system will be integrated into existing electronic record systems, such as EMIS, and stored alongside the patient’s record. The printed note will be given to the patient, who will use it in the same way as a handwritten note.
It is important to note that the electronic fit note will not be sent electronically to the employer, patient, or DWP. However, the DWP plans to collect anonymous data on sick notes in the future to inform policy development.
Despite the introduction of the eMed initiative, GPs will still be able to issue handwritten notes during home visits. Hospital doctors will also not be switching to the new system. The eMed initiative is a step towards modernizing the healthcare system and improving efficiency in the issuance of fit notes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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