-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 47-year-old man with kidney disease develops pulmonary tuberculosis. His recent blood tests show an eGFR of 50 ml/min and a creatinine clearance of 30 ml/min. Which ONE drug should be administered in a reduced dose?
Your Answer: Ethambutol
Explanation:The treatment of tuberculosis is a complex process that requires the expertise of a specialist in the field, such as a respiratory physician or an infectivologist. The first-line drugs used for active tuberculosis without CNS involvement are isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. These drugs are given together for the first 2 months of therapy, followed by continued treatment with just isoniazid and rifampicin for an additional 4 months. Pyridoxine is added to the treatment regimen to reduce the risk of isoniazid-induced peripheral neuropathy. If there is CNS involvement, the four drugs (and pyridoxine) are given together for 2 months, followed by continued treatment with isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin for an additional 10 months. It is important to monitor liver function tests before and during treatment, and to educate patients on the potential side effects of the drugs and when to seek medical attention. Treatment-resistant tuberculosis cases are becoming more common and require special management and public health considerations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 42-year-old man with schizophrenia is brought to the clinic by one of his caregivers. He is currently taking clozapine and procyclidine. The caregiver reports that he seems more fatigued than usual and generally not feeling well. She also suspects that he may have gained weight. What is the most crucial examination to conduct?
Your Answer: Full blood count
Explanation:Monitoring FBC is crucial to detect agranulocytosis/neutropenia, a potentially fatal adverse reaction of clozapine. Additionally, patients taking this medication often experience weight gain.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.
Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 32-year old woman who is currently breastfeeding her 8-week-old baby girl presents to the clinic with complaints of a painful right breast. During examination, her temperature is 38.5C, HR 110, the right breast appears significantly red and warm, and there is an area of fluctuance in the upper outer quadrant.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Fat necrosis
Correct Answer: Breast abscess
Explanation:Breast Mass Differential Diagnosis
Breast abscesses typically present with localised breast inflammation, pain, and fever. Treatment involves antibiotics and/or incision and drainage. Early breast cancer may be asymptomatic, but may present with changes in breast size or shape, skin dimpling, nipple abnormalities, and axillary lump. Fat necrosis is a benign inflammatory process that can result from trauma or surgery, and presents as a firm, painless mass. Fibroadenoma is the most common cause of breast mass in women aged <35 years, presenting as a singular, firm, rubbery, smooth, mobile, painless mass. Diffuse cystic mastopathy is characterised by cysts of varying sizes due to hormonal changes, but typically presents with multiple lumps and is not associated with inflammation. Clinical examination and biopsy may be needed to differentiate between these conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old Caucasian female teacher visits the clinic to inquire about preconception care. She intends to conceive and is interested in learning about the supplements she should take. She has never given birth before and is in good health. She is not on any medication and has no known allergies. She does not smoke or consume alcohol.
What supplements do you suggest she take?Your Answer: Folic acid 400 micrograms once a day and vitamin D 1 mg once a day
Correct Answer: Folic acid 400 micrograms once a day and vitamin D 10 micrograms once a day
Explanation:For this patient, who has a low risk of having a baby with neural tube defects and is not at high risk of vitamin D deficiency, the standard care is recommended. This includes taking a daily supplement of 10 micrograms of vitamin D. There is no need for her to take folic acid 5mg or higher doses of vitamin D, as they exceed the recommended amount.
Antenatal care guidelines were issued by NICE in March 2008, which included specific points for the care of healthy pregnant women. Nausea and vomiting can be treated with natural remedies such as ginger and acupuncture on the ‘p6’ point, as recommended by NICE. Antihistamines, with promethazine as the first-line option according to the BNF, can also be used. Adequate vitamin D intake is crucial for the health of both the mother and baby, and women should be informed about this at their booking appointment. The Chief Medical Officer advises all pregnant and breastfeeding women to take a daily supplement containing 10 micrograms of vitamin D, with particular care taken for those at risk. In 2016, new guidelines were proposed by the Chief Medical Officer regarding alcohol consumption during pregnancy. The government now advises pregnant women not to drink any alcohol to minimize the risk of harm to the baby.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
What is a true statement about trigeminal neuralgia? Choose one option from the list provided.
Your Answer: Carbamazepine is the first-line treatment
Explanation:Trigeminal Neuralgia: Diagnosis and Treatment
Trigeminal neuralgia is a condition characterized by sharp, shooting pain in the distribution of one or more branches of the trigeminal nerve. While the cause is unknown, it can be due to compression of the nerve as it exits the foramen. The pain is intermittent and often exacerbated by light touch, eating, talking, or exposure to the cold.
Carbamazepine is the first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia, with an initial dose of 100 mg up to twice daily. The dosage can be increased in increments of 100-200 mg every 2 weeks until the pain is under control.
Contrary to popular belief, trigeminal neuralgia usually affects the face unilaterally, with only 3% of cases being bilateral. A CT scan of the head is not recommended for all patients with the diagnosis of trigeminal neuralgia, but may be necessary if red flag symptoms are present.
It is important to note that patients with trigeminal neuralgia do not typically experience constant pain, as the pain is episodic in frequency. Tramadol is not the first-line treatment for trigeminal pain, carbamazepine is.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 4-year-old girl is brought to the clinic with a history of fever with chills, vomiting, abdominal discomfort and loose stools for the past three days. Urine examination reveals the presence of white blood cells.
What is a notable characteristic of urinary tract infections (UTIs) in young children?Your Answer: They are associated with anatomical abnormalities in more than half of the cases
Correct Answer: Diarrhoea can be a presenting feature
Explanation:Understanding Urinary Tract Infections in Children
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in children and can present with a variety of symptoms. In older children, diarrhoea with or without mucus may be a presenting symptom, especially with E. coli infection. While amoxicillin is a commonly used antibiotic, current guidelines recommend trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for lower UTIs and co-amoxiclav for upper UTIs.
Anatomical abnormalities of the urinary tract increase a child’s susceptibility to UTIs, but they are not present in the majority of cases. Imaging studies are not necessary for infants and children with a first episode of cystitis or a first febrile UTI who respond well to treatment and have a normal voiding pattern. Ultrasonography is the preferred imaging study for children with UTIs.
Escherichia coli is the most common organism isolated in paediatric UTIs, but other organisms such as fungi and viruses can also cause infection. Poor containment of infection is more common in infants younger than 2 months, and UTIs can spread to the kidneys and bloodstream if left untreated.
Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for UTIs in children is important for prompt diagnosis and management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is a common feature of ulcerative colitis?
Your Answer: Inflammation in all layers from mucosa to serosa
Correct Answer: Pseudopolyps
Explanation:Pseudopolyps observed during endoscopy are indicative of ulcerative colitis.
Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis are the two main types of inflammatory bowel disease with many similarities in symptoms and management options. However, there are key differences such as non-bloody diarrhea and upper gastrointestinal symptoms being more common in Crohn’s disease, while bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant are more common in ulcerative colitis. Complications and pathology also differ between the two diseases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old man visits his doctor with a complaint of a rash on his face. Upon examination, the doctor observes a vesicular rash around the left orbit and on the bridge of the nose. The patient reports experiencing pain. The eye appears unaffected and is not inflamed. The doctor suspects shingles.
What would be the best course of action?Your Answer: Urgent referral to ophthalmology and start oral prednisolone
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to ophthalmology and start oral aciclovir
Explanation:Immediate ophthalmological assessment and a 7-10 day course of oral antivirals are necessary for the treatment of herpes zoster ophthalmicus. Hutchinson’s sign, which involves the tip of the nose, is a strong indicator of ocular involvement and warrants urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. While oral corticosteroids may help alleviate pain, they are not as crucial as antivirals or ophthalmological evaluation.
Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications
Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition that occurs when the varicella-zoster virus reactivates in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is responsible for approximately 10% of shingles cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong indicator of nasociliary involvement and increases the risk of ocular involvement.
Treatment for HZO involves oral antiviral medication for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be necessary for severe infections or immunocompromised patients. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review to prevent complications such as conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.
In summary, HZO is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It presents with a vesicular rash around the eye and may involve the eye itself. Treatment involves oral antiviral medication and urgent ophthalmology review is necessary for ocular involvement. Complications of HZO include various eye conditions, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 65-year-old man is brought to the emergency department due to self-neglect and suspected neurological event causing motor function loss. Upon examination, he presents with hypothermia and weakness on the right side. The patient reports discontinuing his regular medications and experiencing dizziness, restlessness, and electric shock sensations throughout his body. Which medication cessation is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Your Answer: Paroxetine
Explanation:Discontinuation syndrome, characterized by dizziness, electric shock sensations, and anxiety, is a common occurrence when SSRIs are abruptly stopped. This is why it is recommended to gradually taper off the medication. The patient in this scenario stopped their medication abruptly due to a suspected neurological event, leading to the onset of discontinuation syndrome. Atorvastatin, bisoprolol, and gabapentin are not typically associated with these symptoms when stopped abruptly.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe chest pain that started an hour ago and is radiating to his left arm. He has a history of type two diabetes and has smoked 50 packs of cigarettes in his lifetime. An ECG shows ST-elevation in leads V2-4, indicating a STEMI. As the healthcare provider, you decide to initiate treatment and give the patient 300mg of aspirin orally. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
Your Answer: Selective COX 2 inhibitor
Correct Answer: Non-reversible COX 1 and 2 inhibitor
Explanation:Aspirin irreversibly inhibits both COX 1 and COX 2, preventing the conversion of arachidonic acid into prostaglandin, prostacyclin, and thromboxane. Thromboxane A2 is responsible for platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction. In cases of acute coronary syndrome, high doses of aspirin are administered to prevent the enlargement of the coronary thrombus.
The Mechanism and Guidelines for Aspirin Use in Cardiovascular Disease
Aspirin is a medication that works by blocking the action of cyclooxygenase-1 and 2, which are responsible for the synthesis of prostaglandin, prostacyclin, and thromboxane. By inhibiting the formation of thromboxane A2 in platelets, aspirin reduces their ability to aggregate, making it a widely used medication in cardiovascular disease. However, recent trials have cast doubt on the use of aspirin in primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, leading to changes in guidelines. Aspirin is now recommended as a first-line treatment for patients with ischaemic heart disease, but it should not be used in children under 16 due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome. The medication can also potentiate the effects of oral hypoglycaemics, warfarin, and steroids.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) issued a drug safety update in January 2010, reminding prescribers that aspirin is not licensed for primary prevention. NICE now recommends clopidogrel as a first-line treatment following an ischaemic stroke and for peripheral arterial disease. However, the situation is more complex for TIAs, with recent Royal College of Physician (RCP) guidelines supporting the use of clopidogrel, while older NICE guidelines still recommend aspirin + dipyridamole – a position the RCP state is ‘illogical’. Despite these changes, aspirin remains an important medication in the treatment of cardiovascular disease, and its use should be carefully considered based on individual patient needs and risk factors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
A mother brings in her 7-year-old girl who complains of 'an itchy bottom' at night. She is otherwise systemically well, developing normally and denies any change in her bowel habit. An external examination of the anus is unremarkable.
What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: Threadworms
Explanation:Anal itching in children is frequently caused by threadworms, which can be easily detected by observing moving white threads in the anal area at nighttime. Although examination may not reveal any significant findings, it is important to note that human roundworms are uncommon in the UK and typically do not result in itching.
Threadworm Infestation in Children
Threadworm infestation, caused by Enterobius vermicularis or pinworms, is a common occurrence among children in the UK. The infestation happens when eggs present in the environment are ingested. In most cases, threadworm infestation is asymptomatic, but some possible symptoms include perianal itching, especially at night, and vulval symptoms in girls. Diagnosis can be made by applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically, and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.
The CKS recommends a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household. Mebendazole is the first-line treatment for children over six months old, and a single dose is given unless the infestation persists. It is essential to treat all members of the household to prevent re-infection. Proper hygiene measures, such as washing hands regularly, keeping fingernails short, and washing clothes and bedding at high temperatures, can also help prevent the spread of threadworm infestation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 1-week history of epistaxis and bleeding gums. She recently recovered from influenza and has a history of hypothyroidism for which she takes levothyroxine. On examination, she has multiple bruises and petechiae over her lower limbs and trunk. Her investigations reveal a low platelet count and normal coagulation parameters. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Von Willebrand’s disease (VWD)
Correct Answer: Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
Explanation:The patient is likely suffering from immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), a condition where the immune system destroys platelets. This can be caused by autoantibodies targeting glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib–V–IX complexes, and is often seen in patients with autoimmune diseases. Acute cases can occur in children following a viral infection or vaccination, and symptoms typically include bleeding from the skin and mucous membranes. Given the patient’s history of hypothyroidism, ITP is a more likely diagnosis than other conditions such as Factor V Leiden, thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP), or von Willebrand’s disease (VWD). Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is also unlikely, as the patient’s coagulation profile is normal aside from the low platelet count.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old man presents with blisters on his skin. He reports that some of the blisters have healed and left scars, but others are still growing, and new ones are appearing. Despite taking antibiotics prescribed by his doctor, the blisters have not improved. Upon examination, he has multiple superficial skin lesions and oral ulcers that easily slough off. A skin punch biopsy shows circular intra-epidermal deposits. What other condition is likely to be present in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antibodies against desmosomes
Explanation:Understanding Autoimmune Blistering Conditions: Pemphigus Vulgaris and Bullous Pemphigoid
Pemphigus Vulgaris: Autoimmune Blistering Condition
Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune blistering condition that primarily affects middle-aged patients. The condition is caused by Immunoglobulin G (IgG) autoantibodies against desmosomal components (desmogleins 1 and 3) of the superficial layers of the skin. This results in flaccid blisters that rupture easily, leading to erosions and scarring. The oral mucosa is often affected early, and Nikolsky’s sign is positive. Immunofluorescence reveals intra-epidermal circular deposits, and antibodies against desmosomes are usually positive. The condition requires aggressive treatment, with high-dose steroids initially used, and life-long maintenance doses often needed. Immunologicals are being trialled.
Bullous Pemphigoid: Another Autoimmune Blistering Condition
Bullous pemphigoid is another autoimmune blistering condition that typically affects older patients. The condition is caused by antibodies directed to the deeper basement membrane of the skin. This results in tense, firm, often haemorrhagic blisters that do not rupture easily. Oral lesions are rare, and Nikolsky’s sign is negative. Immunofluorescence reveals linear IgG and C3 deposits along the basement membrane of the skin, and antibodies against hemidesmosomes may be positive. The condition carries significantly less morbidity than pemphigus vulgaris, and topical steroid cream (ex: clobetasol propionate usually suffices).
No Link to Other Conditions
There is no link between pemphigus vulgaris or bullous pemphigoid and other conditions such as alopecia, positive HIV serology, or psoriasis. It is important to understand the differences between these autoimmune blistering conditions to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
You are conducting a neurological examination on a thirty-five-year-old patient who presents with recent onset of blurred vision, speech disturbance, pronounced reflexes, and upward plantars upon attempting the Babinski reflex. The patient denies any history of headache and fundoscopy reveals normal findings. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis
Explanation:The presence of Babinski sign suggests the presence of a condition affecting the upper motor neurons. When the sole of the foot is stimulated with a blunt object, an atypical reflex is observed where the toes move upwards.
When ankle jerks are absent and extensor plantars are present, it is usually due to a lesion that affects both the upper and lower motor neurons. This can be caused by various conditions such as subacute combined degeneration of the cord, motor neuron disease, Friedreich’s ataxia, syringomyelia, taboparesis (syphilis), or a lesion in the conus medullaris. These conditions can lead to a loss of reflexes in the ankle and a specific type of reflex in the foot that indicates damage to both the upper and lower motor neurons. It is important to identify the underlying cause of these symptoms in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
Which skin condition is commonly linked to antiphospholipid syndrome in individuals?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Livedo reticularis
Explanation:Antiphospholipid syndrome is characterized by arterial and venous thrombosis, miscarriage, and the presence of livedo reticularis skin rash. Meanwhile, tuberculosis is commonly associated with the skin condition lupus vulgaris.
Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thromboses, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other diseases, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome can cause a paradoxical increase in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade. Other features of this condition include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension.
Antiphospholipid syndrome can also be associated with other autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and, rarely, phenothiazines. Management of this condition is based on EULAR guidelines. Primary thromboprophylaxis involves low-dose aspirin, while secondary thromboprophylaxis depends on the type of thromboembolic event. Initial venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and low-dose aspirin. Arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A highly active 12-year-old boy who plays football for his local team reports knee pain for several months. Upon examination, tenderness is noted over the tibial tuberosity.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osgood-Schlatter disease
Explanation:Common Causes of Knee Pain in Young Patients
Knee pain is a common complaint among young patients, especially those who are active in sports. Here are some of the most common causes of knee pain in this population:
1. Osgood-Schlatter disease: This condition is caused by overuse of quadriceps, putting strain on the patellar ligament attachment to the tibia, which is not yet fully developed. The key clinical examination finding is tenderness over the tibial tuberosity, and there may well be a bony lump over the area as well.
2. Patellar subluxation: This describes the temporary but recurring lateral subluxation of the patella. Patients may describe the knee ‘giving way’ or feeling it move out of place, most commonly during activity such as running or jumping.
3. Chondromalacia patellae: This is caused by abnormal softening of the cartilage on the underside of the patella. Patients will describe anterior knee pain, which is worse after sitting for a prolonged length of time, or for activities including walking down the stairs, jumping, running or climbing.
4. Osteoarthritis: This is a disease of older age, owing to degeneration of the articular cartilage. It is often seen in the weight-bearing areas, including the knee and hip, as well as in the hands.
5. Osteochondritis dissecans: This is caused by separation of subchondral bone articular cartilage from the joint surface, and affects the knee in 75% of cases. It tends to present in teenagers and young adults, with a vague and achy joint pain that is made worse by activity, and may be accompanied by swelling.
It is important to note that knee pain in children could also be due to hip pathology, such as SUFE (slipped upper femoral epiphysis). Proper diagnosis and management are crucial for the long-term health of the joint.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department with his spouse reporting weakness in his right arm and leg, decreased vision, and difficulty speaking. The symptoms began approximately 30 minutes ago, and his wife promptly called for an ambulance. A CT scan of the head ruled out a hemorrhagic stroke, but a CT contrast angiography revealed a confirmed blockage in the proximal anterior circulation. What is the appropriate acute management for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alteplase plus thrombectomy
Explanation:For patients with an acute ischaemic stroke who present within 4.5 hours, the recommended treatment is a combination of thrombolysis and thrombectomy. Thrombolysis involves the use of alteplase, a tissue plasminogen activator that breaks down the clot, while thrombectomy physically removes the clot using a specialized device inserted through the femoral artery. In this case, as the patient has confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation, both thrombolysis and thrombectomy should be performed together for the best possible outcome. While alteplase alone can be considered if thrombectomy is not available, a better prognosis is more likely with the combination treatment. It would not be appropriate to perform thrombectomy alone without considering thrombolysis, as the patient is presenting within the window for thrombolysis and should be considered for both in combination according to the guidelines.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old primigravida visits her General Practitioner at 25 weeks of gestation after her midwife detected glucose in a routine urinalysis. The patient's results are as follows:
- Blood pressure: 129/89 mmHg
- Fundal height: 25.5 cm
- Fasting plasma glucose: 6.8 mmol/L
What treatment option should be provided to this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trial of diet and exercise for 1-2 weeks
Explanation:For a patient presenting with elevated fasting plasma glucose (6.8 mmol/L), indicating possible gestational diabetes, the recommended initial management is a trial of diet and exercise to control blood glucose without medication. The patient should be advised to consume a high-fibre diet with minimal refined sugars and monitor their blood glucose regularly. If the patient’s blood glucose remains elevated despite lifestyle interventions, insulin should be started if the initial fasting plasma glucose is 7 mmol/L or more. If there is no improvement within 1-2 weeks, metformin may be added, and if still inadequate, insulin may be required. It is important to note that pregnant women should not aim to lose weight and should maintain a balanced diet. Advising the patient to only monitor blood glucose without any interventions is inappropriate as lifestyle changes are necessary to manage gestational diabetes.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 59-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of severe dizziness, double vision and tinnitus whenever he lifts weights. He is a non-smoker and is in good health otherwise. During the examination, there is a difference of 35 mmHg between the systolic blood pressure (BP) in his left and right arms. His cardiovascular examination is otherwise unremarkable. His neurological examination is also normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subclavian steal syndrome
Explanation:Differentiating Subclavian Steal Syndrome from Other Conditions
Subclavian steal syndrome is a condition that occurs when the subclavian artery is narrowed or blocked, leading to reversed blood flow in the vertebral artery. This can cause arm claudication and transient neurological symptoms when the affected arm is exercised. A key diagnostic feature is a systolic blood pressure difference of at least 15 mmHg between the affected and non-affected arms. However, other conditions can also cause discrepancies in blood pressure or similar symptoms, making it important to differentiate subclavian steal syndrome from other possibilities.
Aortic dissection is a medical emergency that can cause a sudden onset of chest pain and rapidly deteriorating symptoms. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is characterized by vertigo triggered by head movements, but does not involve blood pressure differences or diplopia. Buerger’s disease is a rare condition that can cause blood pressure discrepancies, but also involves skin changes and tissue ischemia. Carotid sinus hypersensitivity (CSH) can cause syncope when pressure is applied to the neck, but does not explain the other symptoms reported by the patient.
In summary, a thorough evaluation is necessary to distinguish subclavian steal syndrome from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman presents with a breast lump. The lump has been present for around eight months and the patient is not sure if it has increased in size. On examination, there are no skin or nipple changes and there is a soft, mobile lump in the lower outer quadrant of the right breast which is nontender to palpation. She has no personal or family history of breast disease and is a non-smoker. What would be the next most appropriate step in this patient’s management? Select the SINGLE most likely option.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2-week wait referral to the breast surgery team
Explanation:Management of Fibrocystic Breast Disease: Referral to Breast Surgery Team
Fibrocystic breast disease, also known as fibro-adenosis or fibrosclerosis, is a common benign condition that often presents with breast lumps or nodularity. According to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, patients under 30 years of age with a new breast lump without other suspicious features should be routinely referred to the Breast Clinic.
For patients presenting with a persistent lump, watch and wait may not be appropriate, and referral for assessment is indicated. Urgent 2-week wait referral is recommended for patients over 30 years of age with a new unexplained breast or axillary lump, or skin or nipple changes suggestive of breast cancer.
Mammography is not indicated for patients under 35 years of age with a suspected fibro-adenoma. Instead, triple assessment with ultrasonography is recommended. Antibiotics are not indicated unless there is evidence of infection or abscess.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A young woman tells you she has developed fears of getting lost in the crowd and has become very anxious about going to open public places. She also says that she had experienced panic attacks previously when she went to a crowded shopping mall. She is physically healthy and so far has no history of mental illness.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Agoraphobia
Explanation:Understanding Phobias and Dissociative Disorders
Phobias and dissociative disorders are two types of mental health conditions that can significantly impact a person’s daily life. Phobias are intense and irrational fears of specific objects or situations, while dissociative disorders involve a disconnection from reality as a coping mechanism.
Agoraphobia is a common and severe phobia that affects mostly women and involves a fear of open spaces and crowded places. Social phobia, on the other hand, is a fear of being scrutinized in public and tends to start in adolescence. Acrophobia is a specific phobia that involves a fear of heights.
Treatment for phobias often involves psychological interventions such as cognitive-behavioral therapy. Dissociative disorders, on the other hand, typically require more intensive therapy to address the underlying trauma that led to the dissociation.
It’s important to seek professional help if you or someone you know is struggling with a phobia or dissociative disorder. With the right treatment and support, it is possible to manage these conditions and improve overall quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 62-year-old man is referred to Ophthalmology with bilateral cataracts. He reports a gradual decline in his vision over the past few years and has difficulty reading small print. He is placed on the surgical waiting list.
Which eye structure is most likely to be impacted by this ailment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lens
Explanation:Anatomy of the Eye: Understanding the Different Parts and Their Disorders
The eye is a complex organ that allows us to see the world around us. It is made up of several parts, each with its own function. Understanding the anatomy of the eye and the disorders that can affect it is important for maintaining good eye health.
Lens: The lens is a transparent structure located behind the pupil and iris. It helps to focus light onto the retina. Cataracts occur when the lens becomes cloudy or opaque, causing vision problems.
Cornea: The cornea is the clear dome-shaped surface of the eye that sits over the iris. It plays a role in refracting light. Damage to the cornea can cause pain and light sensitivity.
Iris: The iris is the colored part of the eye. It can be affected by disorders such as uveitis, which causes inflammation of the uvea (iris, ciliary body, and choroid).
Retina: The retina is located at the back of the eye and contains rods and cones that process incoming light. Disorders of the retina include retinitis pigmentosa, diabetic retinopathy, and retinal detachment.
Sclera: The sclera is the white part of the eye. Disorders of the sclera include scleritis, which causes redness, pain, and reduced visual acuity. It can be associated with rheumatoid arthritis.
Understanding the different parts of the eye and their functions can help you identify potential problems and seek treatment early. Regular eye exams are important for maintaining good eye health and preventing vision loss.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman presents to surgery with a complaint of not having a regular menstrual cycle for the past year, despite a negative pregnancy test. You order initial tests to establish a baseline. Which of the following is not included in your list of possible diagnoses?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Turner's syndrome
Explanation:Primary amenorrhoea is caused by Turner’s syndrome instead of secondary amenorrhoea.
Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management
Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods in women. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.
There are various causes of amenorrhoea, including gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and thyrotoxicosis. To determine the underlying cause of amenorrhoea, initial investigations such as full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels are necessary.
The management of amenorrhoea depends on the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause in women 40 years of age or older and treat the underlying cause accordingly. It is important to note that hypothyroidism may also cause amenorrhoea.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of right upper quadrant pain, dark urine, and pale stools that have been present for the past 24 hours. He reports being a part-time teacher and smoking 10 cigarettes daily. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications. Upon examination, his sclera are yellow, and his BMI is 29 kg/m². What investigation would be the most useful in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ultrasound of abdomen
Explanation:Gallstones: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Gallstones are a common condition, with up to 24% of women and 12% of men affected. Local infection and cholecystitis may develop in up to 30% of cases, and 12% of patients undergoing surgery will have stones in the common bile duct. The majority of gallstones are of mixed composition, with pure cholesterol stones accounting for 20% of cases. Symptoms typically include colicky right upper quadrant pain that worsens after fatty meals. Diagnosis involves abdominal ultrasound and liver function tests, with magnetic resonance cholangiography or intraoperative imaging used to confirm the presence of stones in the bile duct. Treatment options include expectant management for asymptomatic gallstones, laparoscopic cholecystectomy for symptomatic gallstones, and early ERCP or surgical exploration for stones in the bile duct. Intraoperative cholangiography or laparoscopic ultrasound may be used to confirm anatomy or exclude CBD stones during surgery. ERCP carries risks such as bleeding, duodenal perforation, cholangitis, and pancreatitis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman presents with a history of headache every day for the past three months. She describes that it is worse in the evening. There are no associated symptoms.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tension headache
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Headaches
Headaches are a common ailment that can be caused by a variety of factors. Here are some of the different types of headaches and their distinguishing characteristics:
1. Tension headache: This type of headache is often described as a tight, band-like pain across the forehead and is more common in females. It typically worsens towards the end of the day but does not interfere with daily activities. Chronic tension headaches occur at least 15 days of the month for at least three months.
2. Brain tumour: Headaches caused by space-occupying lesions tend to be worse in the morning and when bending forward. They may also be associated with vomiting.
3. Cluster headache: This type of headache is more common in men and presents with intense pain localized around one eye, which can last for a few minutes up to three hours. There may also be simultaneous lacrimation and nasal congestion. Symptoms occur every day or multiple times every day for a number of weeks, followed by a symptom-free period lasting months or even years.
4. Giant cell arteritis: This type of headache typically occurs in those aged over 50 years and is characterized by an abrupt onset and recurrent daily headache. Common symptoms include scalp pain/tenderness, jaw claudication, visual disturbances, fever, weight loss, and lethargy. A diagnosis of GCA requires three out of five specific criteria.
5. Migraine: Migraines can occur daily but are typically accompanied by associated features such as nausea or vomiting, photophobia, or phonophobia. The International Headache Society criteria for migraine without aura include at least five attacks fulfilling specific criteria.
Understanding the different types of headaches and their characteristics can help in proper diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman presents with excessive sweating and weight loss. Her partner reports that she is constantly on edge and you notice a fine tremor during the consultation. A large, nontender goitre is also noted. Upon examination of her eyes, there is no evidence of exophthalmos. Her pulse rate is 96/min. The following results were obtained: Free T4 26 pmol/l, Free T3 12.2 pmol/l (3.0-7.5), and TSH < 0.05 mu/l. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Graves' disease
Explanation:Graves’ Disease: Common Features and Unique Signs
Graves’ disease is the most frequent cause of thyrotoxicosis, which is commonly observed in women aged 30-50 years. The condition presents typical features of thyrotoxicosis, such as weight loss, palpitations, and heat intolerance. However, Graves’ disease also exhibits specific signs that are not present in other causes of thyrotoxicosis. These include eye signs, such as exophthalmos and ophthalmoplegia, as well as pretibial myxoedema and thyroid acropachy. The latter is a triad of digital clubbing, soft tissue swelling of the hands and feet, and periosteal new bone formation.
Autoantibodies are also present in Graves’ disease, including TSH receptor stimulating antibodies in 90% of patients and anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies in 75% of patients. Thyroid scintigraphy can also aid in the diagnosis of Graves’ disease, as it shows diffuse, homogenous, and increased uptake of radioactive iodine.
Overall, Graves’ disease presents with both typical and unique features that distinguish it from other causes of thyrotoxicosis. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes for patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of constant fatigue. He wakes up feeling tired and unrefreshed. He has type II diabetes and is taking metformin. His body mass index is 40 kg/m2. Blood tests come back normal. The doctor suspects obstructive sleep apnoea.
What is the most suitable assessment tool to be utilized in primary care to assist in determining the appropriate referral?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Epworth Sleepiness Scale
Explanation:Different Sleep Assessment Tools and Their Uses
There are various tools used to assess sleep in individuals, each with its own specific purpose. The Epworth Sleepiness Scale is commonly used in the UK to diagnose obstructive sleep apnoea syndrome by measuring an individual’s perception of sleepiness. The Insomnia Severity Index, on the other hand, is used to assess insomnia in adults and monitor treatment response. The Stanford Sleepiness Scale is a quick assessment tool used to measure alertness throughout the day, while the Pittsburgh Sleep Quality Index is used to evaluate sleep quality over a month, particularly in patients with psychiatric illness. Lastly, the Sleep Quality Scale assesses the subjective effect of poor sleep on the patient. Understanding the different uses of these tools can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment of sleep disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 22-month-old toddler presents to the GP with a barking cough and fever for 3 days. The fever has been responding to regular paracetamol. The child's parent reports that the toddler is eating and drinking normally and has been urinating regularly. During playtime, the parent has noticed some increased breathing sounds, but they disappear when the child is at rest. There have been no febrile convulsions, rash, or drowsiness reported.
Upon examination, the toddler has a clear chest with no signs of increased work of breathing. An occasional barking cough is heard.
What is the most appropriate management for this toddler?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral dexamethasone
Explanation:For this infant with mild croup, the recommended treatment is a single dose of oral dexamethasone (0.15 mg/kg body weight) regardless of the severity of symptoms. This should be taken immediately to reduce upper airway inflammation and alleviate the occasional barking cough and stridor. Delayed antibiotic prescription, immediate oral antibiotics, humidified oxygen, and inhaled or nebulised salbutamol are not appropriate options for croup management. Antibiotics are ineffective against viruses, which are the most common cause of croup, while humidified oxygen and inhaled or nebulised salbutamol are used for other respiratory conditions.
Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers
Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.
The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.
Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.
Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
The mother of a 3-month-old boy presents to the clinic with concerns about a soft lump in his right groin area. The baby has been breastfeeding well and having regular bowel movements. There is no significant medical history. Upon examination, a 1 cm swelling is noted in the right inguinal region, which is reducible and disappears when the baby is laid flat. Scrotal examination reveals no abnormalities. What is the best course of action in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to paediatric surgery
Explanation:Abdominal wall hernias occur when an organ or the fascia of an organ protrudes through the wall of the cavity that normally contains it. Risk factors for developing these hernias include obesity, ascites, increasing age, and surgical wounds. Symptoms of abdominal wall hernias include a palpable lump, cough impulse, pain, obstruction (more common in femoral hernias), and strangulation (which can compromise the bowel blood supply and lead to infarction). There are several types of abdominal wall hernias, including inguinal hernias (which account for 75% of cases and are more common in men), femoral hernias (more common in women and have a high risk of obstruction and strangulation), umbilical hernias (symmetrical bulge under the umbilicus), paraumbilical hernias (asymmetrical bulge), epigastric hernias (lump in the midline between umbilicus and xiphisternum), incisional hernias (which may occur after abdominal surgery), Spigelian hernias (rare and seen in older patients), obturator hernias (more common in females and can cause bowel obstruction), and Richter hernias (a rare type of hernia that can present with strangulation without symptoms of obstruction). In children, congenital inguinal hernias and infantile umbilical hernias are the most common types, with surgical repair recommended for the former and most resolving on their own for the latter.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 12-year-old girl presents to the clinic with complaints of anterior knee pain for a few weeks, which worsens while walking downstairs. During the examination, a positive shrug test is observed, and she has a valgus knee deformity.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chondromalacia patellae
Explanation:Common Causes of Knee Pain in Adolescents and Young Adults
Knee pain is a common complaint among adolescents and young adults. There are several conditions that can cause knee pain, including chondromalacia patellae, osteoarthritis, Osgood-Schlatter disease, osteochondritis dissecans, and patellar subluxation.
Chondromalacia patellae is characterized by abnormal softening of the cartilage on the underside of the patella. It is more common in females, those with valgus knee deformity, and those who are flat-footed. Patients may experience anterior knee pain that worsens with prolonged sitting or activities such as walking down stairs, jumping, running, or climbing. Treatment involves physiotherapy to alter patella-femoral alignment, along with analgesics and ice for symptom relief.
Osteoarthritis is a disease of older patients caused by cartilage breakdown in weight-bearing joints. Osgood-Schlatter disease is a common cause of knee pain in young adolescents, particularly sporty boys, and is caused by overuse of quadriceps. Osteochondritis dissecans is caused by separation of subchondral bone articular cartilage from the joint surface and tends to present in teenagers and young adults with vague and achy joint pain. Patellar subluxation describes the temporary but recurring lateral subluxation of the patella, which can cause anterior patellar pain and joint stiffness.
It is important to note that knee pain in children could be due to hip pathology, such as slipped upper femoral epiphysis. Diagnosis and treatment for these conditions may involve clinical examination, radiographs, and MRI. Treatment may include physiotherapy, analgesics, ice packs, knee braces, and in some cases, surgery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)