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Question 1
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A 6-year-old child presents clinically with mumps and has not been immunised.
Which statement is true of notifiable diseases?Your Answer: Notification is a statutory duty
Explanation:Disease Notification and Surveillance
The notification of diseases has a long history, dating back to the great epidemics of the past. With improvements in hygiene and vaccination, infectious diseases have become less common, and many GP disease notification returns are inconsistent. However, it is still a legal obligation to report diseases. It is also essential that hospitals are informed of potential infectious diseases when patients are referred. The government uses various data sources for disease surveillance and increasingly relies on electronic data returns. Mumps remains a risk to unimmunised populations.
Mumps: Epidemiology, Surveillance, and Control
Mumps is a viral infection that can cause swelling of the salivary glands, fever, and headache. It is still a risk to unimmunised populations. To control the spread of mumps, it is essential to have effective epidemiology, surveillance, and control measures in place. This includes reporting cases to health authorities, monitoring outbreaks, and promoting vaccination. With the help of electronic data returns and other surveillance methods, it is possible to track the spread of mumps and take appropriate action to prevent further transmission. By working together, we can reduce the impact of mumps and other infectious diseases on our communities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 2
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How should the medication 'methotrexate 15 mg weekly' be entered on the repeat medication screen for a patient who was previously taking a lower dose and has completed all necessary monitoring as per shared care protocol, based on a letter received from the rheumatology department of the local hospital?
Your Answer: Methotrexate tablets 2.5 mg (six per week)
Explanation:Methotrexate Dosage Policy
Methotrexate is only available in 10 mg and 2.5 mg strengths, with no 5 mg formulation. However, there have been cases where two different strengths were co-prescribed, leading to potential medication errors. One patient received 10 mg tablets instead of the required 2.5 mg tablets, prompting a complaint and highlighting the need for caution. To prevent such incidents, it is recommended that only one strength of methotrexate is prescribed.
Most Local Health Boards (LHBs) and Primary Care Trusts (PCTs) advise that dosages in primary care should be multiples of the 2.5 mg formulation. This policy aims to reduce the risk of errors and ensure consistent dosing. Patients should also be advised to double-check their prescription and request slips to avoid confusion. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help ensure safe and effective use of methotrexate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 3
Correct
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What is the association between smoking during pregnancy and which outcome?
Your Answer: Low maternal weight gain
Explanation:Effects of Smoking During Pregnancy
Smoking during pregnancy has various effects on both the mother and the developing fetus. One positive effect is that pre-eclampsia, a potentially life-threatening condition characterized by high blood pressure and damage to organs, is less likely to occur in smokers. However, there is an increased rate of spontaneous abortion and intrauterine growth may be retarded. Additionally, smoking increases the risk of prematurity, which can lead to various health complications for the baby. There is also an increase in perinatal mortality over the average, meaning that the risk of the baby dying before or shortly after birth is higher. Furthermore, smoking during pregnancy increases the risk of thromboembolism, a condition where a blood clot forms and blocks a blood vessel, which can be fatal for both the mother and the baby. Therefore, it is highly recommended for pregnant women to quit smoking to ensure the best possible outcomes for both themselves and their babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 4
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You have been seeing a 52-year-old man who has been frequently attending with lower respiratory tract infections. He has lost weight and appears pale and gaunt. During your consultation, you inquire about his travel history and any potential exposure to sexually transmitted infections. The patient confesses to having unprotected sexual intercourse with a sex worker while on a business trip to Thailand a few years ago when his marriage was going through a rough patch. Since then, he has reconciled with his wife and she has been his only sexual partner. With the patient's consent, you conduct a blood test to screen for Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), which comes back positive. You discuss the implications of the result with the patient, but he insists that he cannot disclose this information to his wife, who is also a patient at your practice. What is your course of action?
Your Answer: Give the patient an opportunity to tell his wife and if he doesn't then inform him that it is your duty to inform her
Explanation:The question pertains to patient confidentiality and when it is acceptable to breach it. Specifically, if a patient has been diagnosed with a serious communicable disease, there is a risk of transmission to another patient. According to GMC guidelines, it is permissible to disclose information to a sexual partner of a patient with a sexually transmitted serious communicable disease if the patient has not informed them and cannot be convinced to do so. However, the patient should be informed before the disclosure is made, if possible and safe to do so. Any decision to disclose personal information without consent must be justified. Therefore, in this scenario, if the patient refuses to inform their spouse, it is appropriate to inform the spouse after informing the patient of the decision. It is important to follow professional guidelines in such situations, and other options would not be appropriate.
GMC Guidance on Confidentiality
Confidentiality is a crucial aspect of medical practice that must be upheld at all times. The General Medical Council (GMC) provides extensive guidance on confidentiality, which can be accessed through a link provided. As such, we will not attempt to replicate the detailed information provided by the GMC here. It is important for healthcare professionals to familiarize themselves with the GMC’s guidance on confidentiality to ensure that they are meeting the necessary standards and protecting patient privacy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 5
Correct
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You suspect a patient you have seen on a home visit who is elderly and was previously treated with antibiotics has now developed Clostridium difficile (C. difficile) infection.
Which of the following is most likely to have caused this infection?Your Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Antibiotics and C. difficile Infection
Antibiotics are known to increase the risk of patients developing C. difficile infection. However, certain antibiotics are more frequently associated with this infection than others. These include clindamycin, cephalosporins, fluoroquinolones, and broad-spectrum penicillins.
If a patient does develop C. difficile infection, there are treatments available. Metronidazole and vancomycin are commonly used to treat this infection. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the risks associated with antibiotics and to use them judiciously to prevent the development of C. difficile infection. By doing so, patients can receive the necessary treatment without experiencing unnecessary complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 32-year-old man presents to the local General Practice out-of-hours service after experiencing a seizure earlier. He has a history of epilepsy since childhood. While waiting to be seen, he has another seizure, which has lasted for more than five minutes.
What is the most suitable initial pharmacological treatment option for this patient? Choose ONE answer only.Your Answer: Buccal midazolam
Explanation:When someone experiences a prolonged or repeated convulsive seizure, immediate emergency care is necessary. The first step is to ensure general protective measures and maintain an open airway. Buccal midazolam is the preferred first-line treatment in the community, administered by placing the medication between the cheek and gum. If this is not effective, rectal diazepam or intravenous lorazepam or diazepam may be used. If the seizure continues despite medication or there is a history of repeated seizures, an ambulance should be called. In the hospital setting, intravenous lorazepam is the first-line treatment, with midazolam or diazepam used as alternatives if necessary. For refractory convulsive status epilepticus, intravenous midazolam or thiopental sodium may be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman has presented to you with a six month history of amenorrhoea. On examination you diagnose a mid trimester pregnancy. An ultrasound reveals a single live foetus of approximately 24 weeks gestation with multiple congenital defects including left ventricular hypoplasia.
She comes to you for further discussion, having talked to the gynaecologist and neonatal paediatrician. She decides that she wishes to be referred for a termination of pregnancy.
Who must sign the HSA 1 Form before a termination of pregnancy may proceed?Your Answer: A gynaecologist and any other registered doctor
Explanation:Abortion Laws in the UK
Under the UK Abortion Act 1967, a registered medical practitioner may terminate a pregnancy if two other registered medical practitioners agree and sign in good faith that certain conditions relating to the woman or her unborn foetus apply. These conditions were updated in 1990, but the requirement for two signatures remains unchanged. It is important to note that this requirement applies regardless of the stage of the pregnancy.
To comply with these laws, healthcare providers must complete the HSA1 and HSA2 abortion forms. These forms require detailed information about the woman’s medical history and the reasons for seeking an abortion. The forms must also include the signatures of the two medical practitioners who have agreed that the conditions for a legal abortion have been met.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 8
Correct
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A 32-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of breathlessness and bradycardia. During the consultation, it is observed that he has bilateral ptosis. He has no contact with his family and has never met his father, but he is aware that his sister has a muscle condition and lost a child in infancy. The patient reports having difficulty releasing someone's hand after shaking it at work.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Myotonic dystrophy
Explanation:Neuromuscular Disorders: Symptoms and Differences
Myotonic Dystrophy: An Overview
Myotonic dystrophy is a genetic disorder that affects the muscles and nervous system. It is characterized by myopathic facies, myotonia in the hands, and cardiac conduction defects. The congenital form of the disease can be fatal.Spinal Muscular Atrophy: Symptoms and Differences
Spinal muscular atrophy is a genetic disorder that causes progressive muscle weakness and atrophy. It primarily affects the spinal nerves and doesn’t typically present with ptosis.Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy: Symptoms and Differences
Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder that presents in early childhood with progressive proximal muscular dystrophy. Ptosis is not a typical sign.Facioscapulohumeral Dystrophy: Symptoms and Differences
Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy is a genetic disorder that causes weakness in the orbicularis oculi muscles, leading to difficulty in keeping eyelids closed. Ptosis is not typically seen at presentation.Becker Muscular Dystrophy: Symptoms and Differences
Becker muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder that presents with progressive proximal dystrophy. It usually presents at a younger age than myotonic dystrophy, with patients becoming progressively weaker between the ages of 20 and 60 years. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 9
Correct
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You see a 10-month-old girl with her mother who is concerned as her daughter seems pale and has a high temperature. She states that she has been lethargic and not smiling for the last 24 hours. She has had a snotty nose and a cough for the last 2 days. Everyone at home also has a nasty cold. She is managing to drink milk well and has had a normal amount of wet nappies today. Her mother hasn't noticed any rashes.
On examination, she looks pale and miserable but lets you examine her. Her temperature is 38.1ºC, she has moist mucous membranes and her capillary refill time is 3 seconds. You observe her heart rate to be 140 beats per minute. Her respiratory rate is 50 breaths per minute and her chest sounds clear. Her oxygen saturations are 98% in air. You undress her fully and there are no rashes and her abdomen is soft. Her throat is red with large tonsils and both her eardrums are bright red and bulging.
Which observation that you have made is normal in this age group?Your Answer: A heart rate of 140 bpm.
Explanation:In children under 12 months old, a heart rate of 140 is within the normal range of 110-160 bpm. However, pallor and not smiling are considered amber symptoms according to the NICE traffic light system for feverish children and should be monitored closely. A respiratory rate of 50 and a capillary refill time of 3 seconds or more are also abnormal and should be evaluated by a healthcare professional.
Paediatric vital signs refer to the normal range of heart rate and respiratory rate for children of different ages. These vital signs are important indicators of a child’s overall health and can help healthcare professionals identify any potential issues. The table below outlines the age-appropriate ranges for heart rate and respiratory rate. Children under the age of one typically have a higher heart rate and respiratory rate, while older children have lower rates. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor these vital signs regularly to ensure that children are healthy and developing properly.
Age Heart rate Respiratory rate
< 1 110 - 160 30 - 40
1 – 2 100 – 150 25 – 35
2 – 5 90 – 140 25 – 30
5 – 12 80 – 120 20 – 25
> 12 60 – 100 15 – 20 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding bendroflumethiazide is accurate?
Your Answer: Potassium supplementation should be given for the first two weeks of treatment
Correct Answer: May cause hypercalcaemia
Explanation:Hypercalcaemia and hypocalciuria may be caused by thiazide diuretics.
The onset of action of bendroflumethiazide is 1 to 2 hours, and its effect lasts for 12 to 24 hours. According to the BNF, the quantity of bendroflumethiazide present in breast milk is insignificant and poses no harm.
Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlortalidone.
Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.
It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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