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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man is referred to the oncology clinic with progressively worsening lower back pain for the last three months and history of weight loss for the past eight months. MRI lumbar spine confirms the suspicion of bone metastasis. What is the most likely primary tumour?
Your Answer: Colorectal carcinoma
Correct Answer: Prostate carcinoma
Explanation:Prostate cancer is the most common primary tumour that metastasises to the bone.
Most common tumours causing bone metastasis (in descending order):
1. Prostate (32%)
2. Breast (22%)
3. Kidneys (16%)
4. Lungs
5. ThyroidMost common sites of bone metastasis (in descending order):
1. Spine
2. Pelvis
3. Ribs
4. Skull
5. Long bones -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old male is admitted with worsening shortness of breath with signs of left ventricular failure. He has a known genetic condition. On examination, there is an ejection systolic murmur loudest over the aortic area radiating to the carotids, bibasal crepitations and pitting oedema to the knees bilaterally. On closer inspection of the patient, you note a wide vermillion border, small spaced teeth and a flat nasal bridge. The patient also has a disinhibited friendly demeanour. What is the likely precipitating valvular issue?
Your Answer: Valvular aortic stenosis
Correct Answer: Supravalvular aortic stenosis
Explanation:Supravalvular aortic stenosis, is associated with a condition called William’s syndrome.
William’s syndrome is an inherited neurodevelopmental disorder caused by a microdeletion on chromosome 7. The most common symptoms of Williams syndrome are heart defects and unusual facial features. Other symptoms include failure to gain weight appropriately in infancy (failure to thrive) and low muscle tone. Individuals with Williams syndrome tend to have widely spaced teeth, a long philtrum, and a flattened nasal bridge.
Most individuals with Williams syndrome are highly verbal relative to their IQ, and are overly sociable, having what has been described as a cocktail party type personality. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 3
Correct
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A 63-year-old man, known to have small cell lung cancer and ischaemic heart disease (IHD), presents with increasing shortness of breath for the past 7 days. It becomes worse at night and is associated with an occasional non-productive cough. He has also noticed that his wedding ring feels tight. His cancer was diagnosed five months ago and he has recently completed a course of chemotherapy. From a cardiac point of view, he had a myocardial infarction (MI) two years ago following which he had primary angioplasty with stent placement. He has had no episode of angina since then. Clinical examination of his chest is unremarkable. He does, however, have distended neck veins and periorbital oedema. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Superior vena cava obstruction
Explanation:Superior vena cava (SVC) obstruction is an oncological emergency caused by compression of the SVC and is most commonly associated with lung cancer.
Some causes of the condition include:
1. Common malignancies: non small cell lung cancer, lymphoma
2. Other malignancies: metastatic seminoma, Kaposi’s sarcoma, breast cancer
3. Aortic aneurysm
4. Mediastinal fibrosisClinical features of SVC obstruction include:
1. Dyspnoea: most common
2. Swelling of the face, neck, and arms: conjunctival and periorbital oedema may be seen
3. Headache: often worse in the morning
4. Visual disturbances
5. Pulseless jugular venous distensionManagement options are:
1. General: dexamethasone, balloon venoplasty, stenting
2. Small cell lung cancer: chemotherapy and radiotherapy
3. Non small cell lung cancer: radiotherapy -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the following is most consistent with congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)?
Your Answer: Delayed puberty
Correct Answer: Premature epiphyseal closure
Explanation:Exposure to excessive androgens is usually accompanied by premature epiphyseal maturation and closure, resulting in a final adult height that is typically significantly below that expected from parental heights.
congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) is associated with precocious puberty caused by long term exposure to androgens, which activate the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis. Similarly, CAH is associated with hyperpigmentation and hyperreninemia due to sodium loss and hypovolaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic for review. His HbA1c is elevated at 64 mmol/mol despite taking 1g of metformin BD. On examination, his blood pressure is 142/88 mmHg, his pulse is 82 beats per minute and regular. His BMI is 33 kg/m². A decision is made to start him on dapagliflozin. Which of the following would you expect on starting therapy?
Your Answer: Weight gain
Correct Answer: Increased total cholesterol
Explanation:Dapagliflozin works by inhibiting sodium glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) and blocking resorption of glucose in the kidney, leading to an increase in urinary glucose excretion and lowering of both plasma glucose levels and body weight.
All studies with SGLT2 inhibitors have found significant reductions in BP, with greater reductions seen in systolic (1.66 to 6.9mmHg) than diastolic (0.88 to 3.5mmHg) BP.
While some trials have shown no change in lipid parameters, others have shown a modest but statistically significant increase in both HDL and LDL cholesterol with no effect on triglycerides or the LDL/HDL ratio. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl presents with vomiting and her investigations show: Sodium 115 mmol/L (137-144), Potassium 3.0 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), Urea 2.1 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), Urine sodium 2 mmol/L, Urine osmolality 750 mosmol/kg (350-1000). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion
Correct Answer: Bulimia nervosa
Explanation:The patient is most likely to have Bulimia nervosa. A young girl with a low body mass contributes to the low urea. Hypokalaemia and hyponatraemia are due to vomiting. Her urine sodium is also low.
– In Addison’s diseases, there are low levels of sodium and high levels of potassium in the blood. In acute adrenal crisis: The most consistent finding is elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine. Urinary and sweat sodium also may be elevated.
– In Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH) there is hyponatremia with corresponding hypo-osmolality, continued renal excretion of sodium, urine less than maximally dilute and absence of clinical evidence of volume depletion. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old woman is brought in by her carer with fluctuating consciousness. On examination she is deeply jaundiced, hypotensive with a tachycardia and has a hepatic flap. Initial blood tests reveal an ALT of 1000 U/l, INR 3.4, ALP 600 U/l and a bilirubin of 250 mmol/l. Repeat blood tests 6 hours later show an ALT of 550 U/l, INR 4.6, ALP 702 U/l and bilirubin of 245 m mol/l. The toxicology screen for paracetamol and aspirin is negative; she is positive for hepatitis B surface antibody and negative for hepatitis B surface antigen. Which of the following would best explain her clinical condition?
Your Answer: Reactivation of hepatitis B infection
Correct Answer: Acute liver failure secondary to paracetamol
Explanation:Liver flap is pathognomonic for liver failure. Paracetamol (also known as acetaminophen) overdose usually presents with symptoms including liver failure, resulting in confusion, jaundice, and coagulopathy a few days after overdose. The first 24 hours, people usually have minimal symptoms. Diagnosis is based on blood levels of acetaminophen at specific times after it was taken (see reference). If she took it a few days ago, levels may indeed be undetectable. The hepatitis B serology suggests prior vaccination. Wilson’s disease is not the most likely diagnosis given her presentation. The AST:ALT ratio would be expected to be reversed in alcohol induced liver failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. She has normal visual fields. You are concerned that she may have a prolactinoma. Investigations were done and the results are as shown below: Hb 12.5 g/dL, WCC 4.9 x109/L, PLT 199 x109/L, Na+ 140 mmol/L, K+ 4.9 mmol/L, Creatinine 90 Ù‰mol/L, Prolactin 1150 mU/l. MRI shows a 7 mm pituitary microadenoma. Which of the following hormones would you expect to be lower than normal?
Your Answer: LH
Explanation:Prolactinomas, benign lesions that produce the hormone prolactin, are the most common hormone-secreting pituitary tumours.
Based on its size, a prolactinoma can be classified as a microprolactinoma (< 10 mm diameter) or a macroprolactinoma (>10 mm diameter). If the prolactinoma is large enough to compress the surrounding normal hormone-secreting pituitary cells, it may result in deficiencies of one or more hormones (e.g., thyroid-stimulating hormone [TSH], growth hormone [GH], adrenocorticotropic hormone). However, the patient has microadenoma so it is unlikely to cause compression manifestations.
Hyperprolactinemia inhibits GnRH secretion from the medial basal hypothalamus and LH release from the pituitary. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 26 yr. old male was being investigated further following several hypertensive episodes. There was a marked difference in his systolic blood pressures between the right brachial and the right femoral arteries. Which of the following is most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus
Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:From the given physical findings (the difference in BP between the radial and femoral arteries), the most probable diagnosis is coarctation of the aorta.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 66-year-old gentleman is seen in the Emergency Department complaining of muscle weakness and lethargy. Admission bloods show the following: Na+ 138 mmol/L, K+ 6.6 mmol/L, Bicarbonate 15 mmol/L, Urea 9.2 mmol/L, Creatinine 110 µmol/L, An ECG is done which shows no acute changes. What is the most appropriate initial treatment to lower the serum potassium level?
Your Answer: Insulin/dextrose infusion
Explanation:Insulin/dextrose infusion will increase the activity of the sodium-potassium pump in the cells, which will in turn decrease serum potassium levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 11
Correct
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Which of the following is a feature of haemoglobin S?
Your Answer: It is the result of a point mutation
Explanation:Hb S is the most common type of abnormal haemoglobin and the basis of sickle cell trait and sickle cell anaemia. It differs from normal adult haemoglobin (called haemoglobin A—Hb A) only by a single amino acid substitution due to point mutation—a valine replacing a glutamine in the sixth position of the beta chain of globin. Hb S molecules polymerize in hypoxic and acidic environments, imparting a sickle shape to the RBCs. Hb S molecules are less negatively charged than Hb A (due to the loss of glutamine) and have a lower affinity for oxygen (right shift of the oxygen-dissociation curve).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 45-year-old man presents with tiredness and central weight gain. He underwent pituitary surgery for a non-functional pituitary tumour two years ago. Although he recovered from his pituitary surgery well, he has been found to have complete anterior hypopituitarism. Accordingly he is receiving stable replacement therapy with testosterone monthly injections, thyroxine and hydrocortisone. On examination, there are no specific abnormalities, his vision is 6/9 in both eyes and he has no visual field defects. From his notes, you see that he has gained 8 kg in weight over the last six months and his BMI is 31. His blood pressure is 122/72 mmHg. Thyroid function tests and testosterone concentrations have been normal. A post-operative MRI scan report shows that the pituitary tumour has been adequately cleared with no residual tissue. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his current symptoms?
Your Answer: Growth hormone deficiency
Explanation:The somatotroph cells of the anterior pituitary gland produce growth hormone (GH).
GH deficiency in adults usually manifests as reduced physical performance and impaired psychological well-being. It results in alterations in the physiology of different systems of the body, manifesting as altered lipid metabolism, increased subcutaneous and visceral fat, decreased muscle mass, decreased bone density, low exercise performance, and reduced quality of life. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old gentleman with a long history of gout presents with loin pain. Other past history of note includes an ileostomy after bowel surgery. There is no history of weight loss from malabsorption syndrome after his bowel surgery. Excretion urography reveals evidence of bilateral renal stones. What is the most likely composition of his renal stones?
Your Answer: Calcium oxalate
Correct Answer: Uric acid stones
Explanation:Uric acid stones will most likely be found in this case because of the patient’s long history of gout. Additionally, studies have shown that ileostomy patients have an increased risk for the development of uric acid stones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is referred to the acute medical unit with a 5 day history of polyarthritis and a low-grade fever. Examination reveals shin lesions which the patient states are painful. Chest x-ray shows a bulky mediastinum. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gonococcal arthritis
Correct Answer: Lofgren's syndrome
Explanation:Lofgren’s syndrome is an acute form of sarcoidosis characterized by erythema nodosum, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (BHL), and polyarthralgia or polyarthritis. Other symptoms include anterior uveitis, fever, ankle periarthritis, and pulmonary involvement.
Löfgren syndrome is usually an acute disease with an excellent prognosis, typically resolving spontaneously from 6-8 weeks to up to 2 years after onset. Pulmonologists, ophthalmologists, and rheumatologists often define this syndrome differently, describing varying combinations of arthritis, arthralgia, uveitis, erythema nodosum, hilar adenopathy, and/or other clinical findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which among the following factors is not associated with a poor prognosis in patients with schizophrenia?
Your Answer: Lack of obvious precipitant
Correct Answer: Acute onset
Explanation:A patient with a gradual onset of schizophrenia is to be associated with a poor prognosis.
Schizophrenia is a functional psychotic disorder characterized by the presence of delusional beliefs, hallucinations, and disturbances in thought, perception, and behaviour.
Clinical features:
Schneider’s first-rank symptoms may be divided into auditory hallucinations, thought disorders, passivity phenomena, and delusional perceptions:Auditory hallucinations of a specific type:
Two or more voices discussing the patient in the third person
Thought echo
Voices commenting on the patient’s behaviourThought disorder:
Thought insertion
Thought withdrawal
Thought broadcastingPassivity phenomena:
Bodily sensations being controlled by external influence
Actions/impulses/feelings – experiences which are imposed on the Individual or influenced by othersOther features of schizophrenia include
Impaired insight (a feature of all psychoses)
Incongruity/blunting of affect (inappropriate emotion for circumstances)
Decreased speech
Neologisms: made-up words
Catatonia
Negative symptoms: incongruity/blunting of affect, anhedonia (inability to derive pleasure), alogia (poverty of speech), avolition (poor motivation).Treatment:
For the initial treatment of acute psychosis, it is recommended to commence an oral second-generation antipsychotics such as aripiprazole, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, etc.
Once the acute phase is controlled, switching to a depot preparation like aripiprazole, paliperidone, zuclopenthixol, fluphenazine, haloperidol, pipotiazine, or risperidone is recommended.
Cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) and the use of art and drama therapies help counteract the negative symptoms of the disease, improve insight, and assist relapse prevention.
Clozapine is used in case of treatment resistance. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old gentleman presents with symptoms of nocturia and difficulty in passing urine. He is not known to have any previous prostatic problems and denies any dysuria. Following a digital rectal examination, he is started on Finasteride and Tamsulosin. Three months later he presents to the emergency department with urinary retention and is catheterized, and a craggy mass is felt on rectal examination. He is referred to a urologist, and a prostatic ultrasound and needle biopsy are arranged, and prostate serum antigen (PSA) is requested. Which of the following factors is most likely to give a false negative PSA?
Your Answer: Recent catheterisation
Correct Answer: Finasteride
Explanation:Finasteride is often prescribed for patients with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) or enlarged prostate. However, it has been known to cause a decrease in Prostatic Specific Antigen (PSA) levels in patients with BPH, which may lead to false negatives in a case like this, where a palpable mass has been detected and malignancy is suspected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman has a family history of haemochromatosis and is homozygous for the C282Y mutation. Her ferritin is 927 mg/L (normal range 15-150), haemoglobin 12.5 g/dL (normal range 11.5-16) and aspartate aminotransferase 87 U/L (normal range <40). Which is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Intravenous desferrioxamine
Correct Answer: Weekly venesection to drop her ferritin into the low-normal range
Explanation:Venesection should be done (essentially blood-letting) to decrease the too-high ferratin level. IV Desterrioxamine would have the opposite effect. ASA does not have to do with ferritin. You do not just watch this and recheck. And you do not want to make the patient anaemic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man, following a fall at home, presents to his GP with acute localised chest pain, associated chronic postural lower back pain and chronic fatigue. On examination, he appears mildly anaemic and dehydrated, and has bruises over his arms and legs despite denying previous trauma. Furthermore, he has marked tenderness over his left lower rib cage, compatible with injured ribs, and tenderness over his lower lumbar spine. The rest of his clinical examination is normal. In order to establish a diagnosis of multiple myeloma, based on the patient's symptomology, which of the following combination of criteria is required?
Your Answer: Increased acute leukaemia protocol (ALP) levels and Bence Jones protein in the urine
Correct Answer: >30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy and radiographic survey demonstrating lytic lesions
Explanation:Diagnosis of multiple myeloma (MM) is based on the confirmation of (a) one major criterion and one minor criterion or (b) three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of multiple myeloma.
Major criteria:
1. >30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy
2. Monoclonal band of paraprotein on electrophoresis: >35g/L for IgG, 20g/L for IgA, or >1g of light chains excreted in the urine per dayMinor criteria:
1. 10–30% plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy
2. Abnormal monoclonal band but levels less than listed above
3. Lytic bone lesions observed radiographically
4. Immunosuppression -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology & Oncology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 28 yr. old primigravida in her 24th week of pregnancy came for the routine follow up. She was asymptomatic at the time of examination. Her blood pressure was 152/92 mmHg and pulse rate was 90 bpm. Her blood pressure at the booking visit had been 132/80 mmHg. Her other examination findings were normal. Which of the following is the best method to use to treat her?
Your Answer: Labetalol
Explanation:Methyldopa is the drug of first choice for the control of mild to moderate hypertension in pregnancy. Labetalol is also considered as a first line drug for hypertension in pregnancy. Calcium channel blockers and hydralazine are considered as second line drugs. Beta-blockers (except labetalol), angiotensin receptor blockers, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors and thiazides are not recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 65 yr. old heavy smoker presented with acute central chest pain for 2 hours. Which of the following ECG findings is an indication for thrombolysis in this patient?
Your Answer: 2 mm ST depression in all chest leads
Correct Answer: 1 mm ST elevation in 2 limb leads
Explanation:Thrombolytic therapy is indicated in patients with evidence of ST-segment elevation MI (STEMI) or presumably new left bundle-branch block (LBBB) presenting within 12 hours of the onset of symptoms if there are no contraindications to fibrinolysis. STEMI is defined as new ST elevation at the J point in at least two contiguous leads of 2 mm (0.2 mV) or more in men or 1.5 mm (0.15 mV) in women in leads V2-V3 and/or 1 mm (0.1 mV) or more in other contiguous limb leads.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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In diabetes, what is the most common finding on renal biopsy?
Your Answer: Mesangial proliferation
Correct Answer: Glomerulosclerosis
Explanation:Glomerulosclerosis is the scarring and hardening of the glomeruli known as diabetic glomerulosclerosis occurring in long-standing diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of the following features is not associated with an oculomotor nerve palsy?
Your Answer: Eye is deviated 'down and out'
Correct Answer: Miosis
Explanation:Oculomotor nerve palsy is an eye condition resulting from damage to the third cranial nerve or a branch thereof. A complete oculomotor nerve palsy will result in a characteristic down and out position in the affected eye. This is because the lateral rectus (innervated by the sixth cranial nerve) and superior oblique (innervated by the fourth cranial or trochlear nerve), is unantagonized by the paralyzed superior rectus, inferior rectus and inferior oblique. The affected individual will also have a ptosis, or drooping of the eyelid, and mydriasis (pupil dilation), not miosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man, originally from Pakistan, was admitted with ascites and weight loss. The protein level on ascitic tap was 9 g/l. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this presentation?
Your Answer: Tuberculous peritonitis
Correct Answer: Hepatic cirrhosis
Explanation:This is a low protein level, indicating the fluid is transudative. The only answer choice that is a transudative fluid is in hepatic cirrhosis. Exudative fluid would be seen in tuberculous peritonitis, peritoneal lymphoma, with liver mets, and with intra-abdominal malignancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 42 year old obese man complains of a painful swollen ankle. The pain has worsened over the past 2 weeks. He is a diabetic and gives a history of recent alcohol consumption. Joint aspirate shows rhomboid crystals with numerous neutrophils. Radiological examination shows evidence of chondrocalcinosis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Septic arthritis
Correct Answer: Pseudogout
Explanation:Pseudogout is a paroxysmal joint inflammation due to calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition (calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate). Aetiology includes mostly idiopathic (primary form) and secondary form occurring as a result of joint trauma, familial chondrocalcinosis, hyperparathyroidism, hemochromatosis, gout, hypophosphatemia. Clinical presentation: Often asymptomatic.
Acute (pseudogout attack): monoarthritis (rarely oligoarthritis), mostly affecting the knees and other large joints (e.g., hips, wrists, and ankles). It may become chronic (can affect multiple joints). Osteoarthritis with CPPD (most common form of symptomatic CPPD): progressive joint degeneration with episodes of acute inflammatory arthritis typical of pseudogout attacks. Arthrocentesis should be performed, especially in acute cases. Polarized light microscopy: detection of rhomboid-shaped, positively birefringent CPPD crystals. Synovial fluid findings: 10,000-50,000 WBCs/μL with > 90% neutrophils. X-ray findings: cartilage calcification of the affected joint (chondrocalcinosis). Fibrocartilage (meniscus, annulus fibrosus of intervertebral disc) and hyaline cartilage (joint cartilage) may be affected. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A study is developed to assess a new mandible advancement device designed to reduce snoring. A 10 point scale was used to assess the severity of snoring before and after applying of the device by the respective partner. The number of the people involved in the study was 50. What test would you apply in this particular study?
Your Answer: Chi-squared test
Correct Answer: Wilcoxon signed-rank test
Explanation:Steps required in performing the Wilcoxon signed rank test:
1 State the null hypothesis and, in particular, the hypothesized value for comparison
2 Rank all observations in increasing order of magnitude, ignoring their sign. Ignore any observations that are equal to the hypothesized value. If two observations have the same magnitude, regardless of sign, then they are given an average ranking
3 Allocate a sign (+ or -) to each observation according to whether it is greater or less than the hypothesized value (as in the sign test)
4 Calculate:
R+ = sum of all positive ranks
R- = sum of all negative ranks
R = smaller of R+ and R-
5 Calculate an appropriate P value What makes this test the most appropriate for this study is that the data is non-parametric, paired and comes from the same population. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old plumber presents with general deterioration. He drinks approximately 25 units of alcohol each week and is a smoker of five cigarettes daily. Examination reveals that he is jaundiced, has numerous spider naevi on his chest and he has a temperature of 37.2°C. Abdominal examination reveals hepato-splenomegaly. Investigations reveal: Bilirubin 100 micromol/L (1-22), Alkaline phosphatase 310 iu/l (45 – 105), ALT 198 iu/l (5 – 35), AST 158 iu/l (1 – 31), Albumin 25 g/L (37 – 49), Hepatitis B virus surface antigen positive, Hepatitis B virus e antigen negative, Hepatitis B virus DNA awaited. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Alcoholic liver disease
Correct Answer: Chronic hepatitis B infection
Explanation:The clinical scenario describes a man in liver failure. Given the serological results, he is most likely to have a chronic hepatitis B infection. In chronic hepatitis B infection, you have +HBsAg, +anti-HBc, (-)IgM antiHBc, and (-) anti-HBs. In acute hepatitis B infection, you have +HBsAg, +anti-HBc, +IgM anti-HBc, and negative anti-HBs. in immunity due to natural infection, you have negative HBsAg, +anti-HBc, and + anti-HBs. In immunity due to vaccination, you have negative HBsAg, negative anti-HBc, and positive anti-HBs. While he could have a superimposed hepatitis D infection on top of hepatitis B, there is no mention of hepatitis D serology, make this an incorrect answer. The other choices do not involve hepatitis serologies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 30-year-old male presented with a history of bloody and mucoid diarrhoea since that morning. He is also complaining of abdominal spasm and bloating. Which of the following investigations is the most suitable one in this case?
Your Answer: Stool culture and sensitivity
Explanation:In a case of sudden bloody and mucoid diarrhoea, stool culture and sensitivity are required to access which organism is causing the problem and to discuss appropriate antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 28
Correct
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A 68 year old man presents with acute symptoms of gout on his first metatarsophalangeal joint. Which option best explains the underlying mechanism of gout?
Your Answer: Decreased renal excretion of uric acid
Explanation:Primary gout is related more often to underexcretion of uric acid or overproduction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 29
Correct
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The chorda tympani of the facial nerve (CN VII) carries:
Your Answer: parasympathetic fibres to the submandibular and sublingual glands and taste fibres from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue
Explanation:In the petrous temporal bone the facial nerve produces three branches:
1. The greater petrosal nerve, which transmits preganglionic parasympathetic fibres to the sphenopalatine ganglion. These postganglionic fibres supply the lacrimal gland and the glands in the nasal cavity;
2. The nerve to stapedius;
3. Parasympathetic fibres to the submandibular and sublingual glands and taste fibres from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 30
Correct
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Which one of the following is not associated with non-alcoholic steatohepatitis?
Your Answer: Type 1 diabetes mellitus
Explanation:There are two types of Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD); simple fatty liver and non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH). Simple fatty liver and NASH are two separate conditions.
Simple fatty liver, also called non-alcoholic fatty liver (NAFL), is a form of NAFLD in which you have fat in your liver but little or no inflammation or liver cell damage. Simple fatty liver typically does not progress to cause liver damage or complications.
Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH)
NASH is a form of NAFLD in which you have hepatitis and liver cell damage, in addition to fat in your liver. Inflammation and liver cell damage can cause fibrosis, or scarring, of the liver. NASH may lead to cirrhosis or liver cancer. Type I diabetes is not associated with NASH (non-alcoholic steatohepatitis), but type II diabetes is. Hyperlipidaemia, obesity, sudden weight loss/starvation and jejunoileal bypass are all associated with NASH. This is the most common cause of liver disease in the developed world. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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