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Question 1
Incorrect
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A breathless 65-year-old smoker presents with the following lung function tests:
FEV1 (forced expiratory volume in 1 second) 1.5 l (60%)
FVC (forced vital capacity) 1.8 l (55%)
FEV1:FVC ratio = 84%
TLC (total lung capacity) = 66% predicted
RV (residual volume) = 57% predicted
TLCO (carbon monoxide transfer factor) = 55% predicted
KCO (carbon monoxide transfer coefficient) = 60% predicted
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?
Select the SINGLE most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Emphysema
Correct Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
Explanation:Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis: Differential Diagnosis with Other Respiratory Conditions
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF), also known as fibrosing alveolitis, is a chronic and progressive lung disease that affects people between the ages of 50 and 70 years. The disease is characterized by a significant restrictive defect in lung function tests, reduced KCO, and breathlessness. While there is no definitive treatment for IPF, up to 20% of patients can survive more than 5 years from diagnosis.
When considering a differential diagnosis, it is important to rule out other respiratory conditions that may present with similar symptoms. Anaemia, for example, may cause breathlessness but would not produce a defect in lung function tests. Emphysema, on the other hand, would produce an obstructive pattern with a FEV1:FVC ratio of less than 70%. Obesity may also fit the picture of a restrictive defect, but it would not affect the KCO. In the case of asthma, an obstructive pattern with a FEV1:FVC ratio of less than 70% would be expected.
In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis of IPF is crucial in providing appropriate treatment and management for patients with respiratory conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department after collapsing. Limited information is available, but an arterial blood gas has been obtained on room air with the following results:
- paO2: 13 kPa (11-13)
- paCO2: 3.5 kPa (4.7-6)
- pH: 7.31 (7.35-7.45)
- Na+: 143 mmol/L (135-145)
- K+: 5 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
- Bicarbonate: 17 mEq/L (22-29)
- Chloride: 100 mmol/L (98-106)
What potential diagnosis could explain these blood gas findings?Your Answer: Pulmonary embolism
Correct Answer: Septic shock
Explanation:An anion gap greater than 14 mmol/L typically indicates a raised anion gap metabolic acidosis, rather than a normal anion gap. In the absence of other information about the patient, an arterial blood gas (ABG) can provide a clue to the diagnosis. In this case, the ABG shows a normal paO2, indicating a respiratory cause of the patient’s symptoms is less likely. However, the pH is below 7.35, indicating acidosis, and the bicarbonate is low, suggesting metabolic acidosis. The low paCO2 shows partial compensation. Calculating the anion gap reveals a value of 31 mmol/L, indicating metabolic acidosis with a raised anion gap. Septic shock is the only listed cause of raised anion gap metabolic acidosis, resulting in acidosis due to the production of lactic acid from inadequate tissue perfusion. Addison’s disease is another cause of metabolic acidosis, but it results in normal anion gap metabolic acidosis due to bicarbonate loss from mineralocorticoid deficiency. Prolonged diarrhea can cause normal anion gap metabolic acidosis due to gastrointestinal loss of bicarbonate. Pulmonary embolism is unlikely due to normal oxygen levels and hypocapnia occurring as compensation. Prolonged vomiting can cause metabolic alkalosis, not metabolic acidosis, due to the loss of hydrogen ions in vomit. This patient’s electrolyte profile does not fit with prolonged vomiting.
The anion gap is a measure of the difference between positively charged ions (sodium and potassium) and negatively charged ions (bicarbonate and chloride) in the blood. It is calculated by subtracting the sum of bicarbonate and chloride from the sum of sodium and potassium. A normal anion gap falls between 8-14 mmol/L. This measurement is particularly useful in diagnosing metabolic acidosis in patients.
There are various causes of a normal anion gap or hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis. These include gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss due to conditions such as diarrhoea, ureterosigmoidostomy, or fistula. Renal tubular acidosis, drugs like acetazolamide, ammonium chloride injection, and Addison’s disease can also lead to a normal anion gap.
On the other hand, a raised anion gap metabolic acidosis can be caused by lactate due to shock or hypoxia, ketones in conditions like diabetic ketoacidosis or alcoholism, urate in renal failure, acid poisoning from substances like salicylates or methanol, and 5-oxoproline from chronic paracetamol use. Understanding the anion gap and its potential causes can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of metabolic acidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 3
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sudden breathlessness and pain on the left side of her chest for the past 24 hours. She is generally healthy and takes the combined oral contraceptive pill.
What is the highest scoring factor in the Wells' scoring system for suspected pulmonary embolism (PE)?Your Answer: Clinical signs and symptoms of a deep-vein thrombosis (DVT)
Explanation:Understanding the Two-Level PE Wells Score: Clinical Signs and Symptoms of DVT
The Two-Level PE Wells Score is a tool used to assess the likelihood of a patient having a pulmonary embolism (PE). One of the key factors in this score is the presence of clinical signs and symptoms of a deep-vein thrombosis (DVT), which includes leg swelling and pain on palpation of the deep veins. This carries three points in the score, and is a crucial factor in determining the likelihood of a PE.
Other factors in the score include an alternative diagnosis being less likely than a PE, heart rate over 100 beats/min, immobilization or recent surgery, previous DVT/PE, haemoptysis, and malignancy. Each of these factors carries a certain number of points, and a score of over 4 points indicates a high likelihood of a PE, while a score of 4 points or less indicates a lower likelihood.
Overall, understanding the Two-Level PE Wells Score and the clinical signs and symptoms of DVT is important in accurately assessing the likelihood of a patient having a PE and determining the appropriate course of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male visits his primary care clinic complaining of progressive dyspnea on exertion and a dry cough. He has a smoking history of 35 pack-years. He denies chest pain, weight loss, or hemoptysis. In the past, he was prescribed bronchodilators for COPD, but they did not alleviate his symptoms.
During the examination, the physician detects fine crackles at the lung bases bilaterally, and the patient has significant finger clubbing. The physician orders a chest X-ray, pulmonary function tests, and refers him urgently to a respiratory clinic.
What pulmonary function test pattern would you expect to see based on the most likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: FEV1:FVC reduced, TLCO reduced
Correct Answer: FEV1:FVC normal or increased, TLCO reduced
Explanation:In cases of IPF, the TLCO (gas transfer test) is reduced, indicating a restrictive lung disease that results in a reduced FEV1 and reduced FVC. This leads to a normal or increased FEV1:FVC ratio, which is a distinguishing factor from obstructive lung diseases like COPD or asthma. Therefore, the correct statement is that in IPF, the FEV1:FVC ratio is normal or increased, while the TLCO is reduced.
Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is typically seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is more common in men.
The symptoms of IPF include progressive exertional dyspnoea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation. Diagnosis is made through spirometry, impaired gas exchange tests, and imaging such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scans.
Management of IPF includes pulmonary rehabilitation, but very few medications have been shown to be effective. Some evidence suggests that pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will eventually require supplementary oxygen and a lung transplant.
The prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years. CT scans can show advanced pulmonary fibrosis, including honeycombing. While there is no cure for IPF, early diagnosis and management can help improve quality of life and potentially prolong survival.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 5
Correct
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A 48-year-old man is admitted with right-sided pneumonia. According to the patient he has been unwell for 3–4 days with malaise, fever, cough and muscular pain. He also has a rash on his abdomen and neck pain. He was previously fit and has not travelled abroad. He is a plumber and also keeps pigeons. According to his wife, two of his favourite pigeons died 2 weeks ago.
Which of the following organisms is most likely to be responsible for his pneumonia?Your Answer: Chlamydia psittaci
Explanation:Psittacosis is a disease caused by the bacterium Chlamydia psittaci, which is typically transmitted to humans through exposure to infected birds. Symptoms include fever, cough, headache, and sore throat, as well as a characteristic facial rash. Diagnosis is confirmed through serology tests, and treatment involves the use of tetracyclines or macrolides. Mycoplasma pneumoniae is another bacterium that can cause atypical pneumonia, with symptoms including fever, malaise, myalgia, headache, and a rash. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia, while Legionella pneumophila can cause Legionnaires’ disease, which presents with fever, cough, dyspnea, and systemic symptoms. Coxiella burnetii is the bacterium responsible for Q fever, which can be transmitted by animals and arthropods and presents with non-specific symptoms. In the scenario presented, the patient’s history of exposure to infected birds and the presence of a rash suggest a diagnosis of psittacosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 6
Correct
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A patient with small-cell lung cancer at the age of 60 has a serum sodium concentration of 121 mmol/l. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: SIADH
Explanation:Understanding SIADH: The Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion
SIADH, or the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion, is a condition where the body produces too much vasopressin (ADH), leading to overhydration in both the intracellular and extracellular compartments. This can result in dilutional hyponatraemia, where the sodium concentration falls to dangerous levels. Symptoms may include drowsiness, lethargy, irritability, mental confusion, and disorientation, with seizures and coma being the most severe features.
SIADH can develop as a paraneoplastic syndrome, most commonly in patients with small-cell carcinoma of the lung. However, it can also be associated with various other neoplastic and non-neoplastic pathologies, as well as certain medications. Treatment for SIADH may involve restriction of fluids, demeclocycline, or other interventions, but caution must be taken to avoid complications such as cardiac failure, cerebral oedema, or central pontine myelinolysis.
While a sodium-restricted diet or sodium-reduced water drinking may contribute to hyponatraemia, they are unlikely to cause such severe levels in the absence of other medical conditions. Liver metastases and bone metastases may also be associated with hyponatraemia, but in the context of a known diagnosis of small-cell lung cancer, SIADH is the most likely explanation.
Overall, understanding SIADH and its potential causes and treatments is crucial for managing hyponatraemia and preventing serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman reports experiencing a cough and tightness in her chest a few days a week, but feels better on weekends. She mentions that she works at a hair salon.
What is the most appropriate initial investigation for occupational asthma?Your Answer: Skin-prick testing
Correct Answer: Serial peak expiratory flow rates at home and at work
Explanation:The recommended initial investigation for suspected occupational asthma is serial peak expiratory flow rates at home and at work, according to SIGN (Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network) referenced by NICE. CT of the thorax is inappropriate due to high radiation doses and chest radiograph is not part of the initial work-up for occupational asthma as it is unlikely to show specific evidence. Skin-prick testing is only recommended for high-molecular-weight agents and spirometry is not recommended as an initial investigation for occupational asthma, but may be appropriate for surveillance in industries with risk of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 8
Correct
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A 55-year-old man with a history of alcohol dependence presents with fever and malaise. On admission, a chest x-ray reveals consolidation in the right upper lobe with early cavitation. What is the probable causative agent responsible for this condition?
Your Answer: Klebsiella pneumoniae
Explanation:Causes of Pneumonia
Pneumonia is a respiratory infection that can be caused by various infectious agents. Community acquired pneumonia (CAP) is the most common type of pneumonia and is caused by different microorganisms. The most common cause of CAP is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which accounts for around 80% of cases. Other infectious agents that can cause CAP include Haemophilus influenzae, Staphylococcus aureus, atypical pneumonias caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae, and viruses.
Klebsiella pneumoniae is another microorganism that can cause pneumonia, but it is typically found in alcoholics. Streptococcus pneumoniae, also known as pneumococcus, is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. It is characterized by a rapid onset, high fever, pleuritic chest pain, and herpes labialis (cold sores).
In summary, pneumonia can be caused by various infectious agents, with Streptococcus pneumoniae being the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. It is important to identify the causative agent to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 9
Correct
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A 67-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of feeling generally unwell and feverish for 3 days. During the examination, coarse crackles and dullness to percussion were detected in the right lung base.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Lobar pneumonia
Explanation:Differentiating Lobar Pneumonia from Other Respiratory Conditions
Lobar pneumonia is the most common cause of focal crackles and dullness in the lower zone. However, it is important to differentiate it from other respiratory conditions with similar symptoms. Empyema, for example, is associated with high fevers, night sweats, chest pain, cough, breathlessness, and fatigue. Bronchiectasis, on the other hand, is characterized by a persistent dry cough with copious purulent sputum and occasional haemoptysis. Congestive cardiac failure usually causes bilateral crepitations and peripheral oedema, while pulmonary embolism may cause reduced breath sounds and acute breathlessness, pleuritic chest pain, haemoptysis, dizziness, or syncope. By carefully assessing the patient’s symptoms and conducting appropriate tests, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and treat respiratory conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 4-week history of dry cough and chest tightness. She was diagnosed with asthma 8-months ago and has been using a salbutamol inhaler as needed. However, she has noticed an increase in shortness of breath over the past month and has been using her inhaler up to 12 times per day.
During the examination, her vital signs are normal. Her peak expiratory flow rate is 290L/min (best 400 L/min).
What is the next course of action in managing this patient's asthma symptoms?Your Answer: Combined inhaled corticosteroid and long-acting beta-agonist
Correct Answer: Low-dose inhaled corticosteroid
Explanation:For an adult with asthma that is not controlled by a short-acting beta-agonist, the appropriate next step is to add a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid. This is in accordance with NICE guidelines. The addition of a combined inhaled corticosteroid and long-acting beta-agonist is not recommended until symptoms cannot be controlled with a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid and a short-acting beta-agonist, with or without a leukotriene receptor antagonist. Similarly, a leukotriene receptor antagonist or long-acting beta-agonist should not be introduced until symptoms are not controlled with a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid and a short-acting beta-agonist, with or without a leukotriene receptor antagonist.
The management of asthma in adults has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. One of the significant changes is in ‘step 3’, where patients on a SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled should be offered a leukotriene receptor antagonist instead of a LABA. NICE does not follow the stepwise approach of the previous BTS guidelines, but to make the guidelines easier to follow, we have added our own steps. The steps range from newly-diagnosed asthma to SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options, including increasing ICS to high-dose, a trial of an additional drug, or seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is a form of combined ICS and LABA treatment that is only available for ICS and LABA combinations in which the LABA has a fast-acting component. It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance. The definitions of what constitutes a low, moderate, or high-dose ICS have also changed, with <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a low dose, 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a moderate dose, and > 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a high dose for adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes to see his GP complaining of chest tightness and shortness of breath on exertion for the past month. He reports that the symptoms subside after resting for 5 minutes. The patient has a medical history of asthma, hypertension, and obesity.
During the examination, the patient's temperature is 37.2ºC, heart rate is 86 bpm, blood pressure is 132/75 mmHg, and the ECG is normal.
What is the most appropriate prophylactic medication for this likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Prescribe verapamil
Correct Answer: Prescribe sublingual glyceryl trinitrate
Explanation:To prevent angina attacks, the first-line treatment is either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker. This patient is displaying symptoms of stable angina, which includes shortness of breath and chest tightness that occurs during exercise and is relieved by rest. The ECG results are normal, ruling out any serious conditions like myocardial infarction. According to NICE guidelines, all patients with stable angina should receive aspirin and a statin, unless there are contraindications. Additionally, sublingual glyceryl trinitrate spray (GTN) should be given to stop acute angina attacks. However, GTN spray does not prevent future attacks, so prophylactic medication should also be prescribed.
Angina pectoris is a condition that can be managed through various methods, including lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. The first-line medication should be either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If the initial treatment is not effective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, other drugs such as long-acting nitrates, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Nitrate tolerance is a common issue, and patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate should use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. This effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 12
Correct
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A 70-year-old male, who migrated to the UK from India 8 years ago, presents to the respiratory clinic with a persistent cough and recent episodes of haemoptysis. The patient has never smoked and there are no notable findings on physical examination. A chest X-ray reveals a crescent of air partially outlining a cavitating mass in the right upper lobe. A CT scan of the chest is performed in both supine and prone positions, demonstrating movement of the mass within the cavity. The patient has not previously been screened for tuberculosis. What is the most probable cause of the mass?
Your Answer: Aspergilloma
Explanation:Cavitating lung lesions can be caused by various factors, including infections and malignancies. In this case, the absence of a smoking history makes small cell and squamous cell lung cancers less likely. Small cell lung cancers typically affect the hilar or peri-hilar areas, while squamous cell lung cancers may present with pulmonary symptoms or paraneoplastic syndromes.
An aspergilloma is a fungal ball that forms in an existing lung cavity, often caused by conditions such as tuberculosis, lung cancer, or cystic fibrosis. While it may not cause any symptoms, it can lead to coughing and severe haemoptysis (coughing up blood). Diagnosis can be made through a chest x-ray, which will show a rounded opacity with a possible crescent sign, as well as high levels of Aspergillus precipitins. In some cases, a CT scan may also be necessary to confirm the presence of the aspergilloma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man attending the respiratory clinic receives a suspected diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation to confirm diagnosis?Your Answer: Peak flow
Correct Answer: Spirometry
Explanation:Investigations for COPD: Spirometry is Key
COPD is a chronic obstructive airway disease that is diagnosed through a combination of clinical history, signs, and investigations. While several investigations may be used to support a diagnosis of COPD, spirometry is the most useful and important tool. A spirometer is used to measure functional lung volumes, including forced expiratory volume in 1 s (FEV1) and forced vital capacity (FVC). The FEV1:FVC ratio provides an estimate of the severity of airflow obstruction, with a normal ratio being 75-80%. In patients with COPD, the ratio is typically <0.7 and FEV1 <80% predicted. Spirometry is essential for establishing a baseline for disease severity, monitoring disease progression, and assessing the effects of treatment. Other investigations, such as echocardiography, chest radiography, ECG, and peak flow, may be used to exclude other pathologies or assess comorbidities, but spirometry remains the key investigation for diagnosing and managing COPD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 14
Incorrect
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The cardiac arrest team is summoned to the bedside of a 68-year-old male patient, 3 days post-myocardial infarction. Two nurses are currently administering chest compressions and a manual defibrillator has just been connected. Chest compressions are momentarily halted to analyze the rhythm, which reveals pulseless electrical activity. What actions should be taken in this situation?
Your Answer: Adrenaline should be given after the third cycle
Correct Answer: Adrenaline should be commenced immediately
Explanation:In the case of a non-shockable rhythm, it is crucial to administer adrenaline as soon as possible according to the ALS protocol. This should be done immediately and during alternate cycles. However, if the rhythm is shockable, adrenaline should be given after the third shock and then during alternate cycles. Amiodarone should be administered after the third shock, and a second dose may be considered after five shocks. Therefore, the other options are not appropriate.
The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 15
Correct
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Among the following options, which condition is considered a restrictive lung disease/condition?
Your Answer: Severe scoliosis
Explanation:Different Types of Lung Diseases and their Spirometry Patterns
Scoliosis and Lung Function
Severe scoliosis can affect the respiratory muscles and the natural movements of the thoracic cage, leading to a restrictive pattern in pulmonary function tests. This can prevent the lungs from expanding correctly, compromising their function.Cystic Fibrosis and Lung Function
In early stage cystic fibrosis, the presence of inflammation and thick secretions in the airways can cause an obstructive pattern in spirometry tests. As damage to the lung tissue occurs, a restrictive component can also develop, resulting in a combined obstructive and restrictive pattern.Emphysema and Lung Function
Emphysema is a type of obstructive lung disease characterized by abnormal and irreversible enlargement of air spaces and alveolar wall destruction. This leads to airflow limitation and a spirometry pattern typical of obstructive lung disease.Asthma and Lung Function
Asthma is an inflammatory disorder of the airways that causes hyperresponsiveness and constriction of the airways in response to various stimuli. This leads to airflow limitation and a spirometry pattern typical of obstructive lung disease.Bronchiectasis and Lung Function
Bronchiectasis is characterized by abnormal and irreversible dilatation of the bronchial walls, leading to accumulation of secretions and recurrent inflammation of the airways. This produces an obstructive pattern in pulmonary function tests.In summary, different types of lung diseases can affect lung function in various ways, leading to different spirometry patterns. Understanding these patterns can help in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 16
Correct
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A 68-year-old man presents to clinic with increasing breathlessness, weight loss and peripheral oedema over the past 2 months. His family are concerned that he has also become a bit more confused over the past week.
His past history includes hypertension and a 35 pack-year smoking history. An echocardiogram from last year showed good biventricular contraction.
His blood tests show the following:
Haemoglobin (Hb) 150 g/L
Platelets 230 * 109/L (150 - 400)
White cell count (WCC) 4.6 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 124 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 3.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 2.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 62 µmol/L (55 - 120)
C reactive protein (CRP) 6 mg/L (< 5)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Lung cancer
Explanation:Investigation for lung cancer should be considered in a long-term smoker with a history of weight loss and breathlessness, as SIADH is a common endocrine complication of small cell lung cancer. If the patient has not had a normal echo recently, right-sided heart failure may be a more likely explanation for their symptoms. While COPD and pulmonary fibrosis can also cause breathlessness, they would not account for the peripheral oedema and hyponatraemia.
SIADH is a condition where the body retains too much water, leading to low sodium levels in the blood. This can be caused by a variety of factors, including malignancies such as small cell lung cancer, neurological conditions like stroke or meningitis, infections such as tuberculosis or pneumonia, and certain drugs like sulfonylureas and SSRIs. Other causes may include positive end-expiratory pressure and porphyrias. Treatment for SIADH involves slowly correcting the sodium levels to avoid complications like central pontine myelinolysis. This can be done through fluid restriction, the use of demeclocycline to reduce responsiveness to ADH, or the use of ADH receptor antagonists. It is important to note that certain drugs, such as glimepiride and glipizide, have been reported to cause SIADH according to the BNF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 17
Correct
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A 45-year-old man presents with worsening dyspnea. He has been a smoker for the past 20 years. Upon conducting pulmonary function tests, the following results were obtained:
- FEV1: 1.3 L (predicted 3.6 L)
- FVC: 1.6 L (predicted 4.2 L)
- FEV1/FVC: 80% (normal > 75%)
What respiratory disorder is most likely causing these findings?Your Answer: Neuromuscular disorder
Explanation:Pulmonary function tests reveal a restrictive pattern in individuals with neuromuscular disorders, while obstructive patterns may be caused by other conditions.
Understanding Pulmonary Function Tests
Pulmonary function tests are a useful tool in determining whether a respiratory disease is obstructive or restrictive. These tests measure the amount of air a person can exhale forcefully and the total amount of air they can exhale. The results of these tests can help diagnose conditions such as asthma, COPD, bronchiectasis, and pulmonary fibrosis.
Obstructive lung diseases are characterized by a significant reduction in the amount of air a person can exhale forcefully (FEV1) and a reduced FEV1/FVC ratio. Examples of obstructive lung diseases include asthma, COPD, bronchiectasis, and bronchiolitis obliterans.
On the other hand, restrictive lung diseases are characterized by a significant reduction in the total amount of air a person can exhale (FVC) and a normal or increased FEV1/FVC ratio. Examples of restrictive lung diseases include pulmonary fibrosis, asbestosis, sarcoidosis, acute respiratory distress syndrome, infant respiratory distress syndrome, kyphoscoliosis, and neuromuscular disorders.
Understanding the results of pulmonary function tests can help healthcare professionals diagnose and manage respiratory diseases more effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 18
Correct
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Patients with severe pneumonia may face various risk factors that increase their chances of death. Which of the following factors does not contribute to this risk?
Your Answer: Age 49 years
Explanation:Understanding the CURB-65 Score for Mortality Prediction in Pneumonia
Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that can lead to mortality, especially in older patients. Several factors can increase the risk of death, including elevated urea levels, low blood pressure, leukopenia, and atrial fibrillation. To predict mortality in pneumonia, healthcare professionals use the CURB-65 score, which considers five parameters: confusion, urea >7 mmol/l, respiratory rate >30/min, systolic blood pressure <90 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure <60 mmHg, and age >65 years. Each parameter scores a point, and the higher the total score, the higher the associated mortality.
Based on the CURB-65 score, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions about treatment and admission to hospital. Patients with a score of 0 or 1 can be treated at home with oral antibiotics, while those with a score of 2 should be considered for hospital admission. Patients with a score of 3 or higher should be admitted to hospital, and those with a score of 4-5 may require high dependency or intensive therapy unit admission. However, individual circumstances, such as the patient’s performance status, co-morbidities, and social situation, should also be considered when making treatment decisions.
In summary, the CURB-65 score is a valuable tool for predicting mortality in pneumonia and guiding treatment decisions. By considering multiple factors, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for patients with this serious infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 19
Correct
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A 65-year-old man with known chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents to the Emergency Department with sudden shortness of breath, a productive cough and feeling generally unwell. He reports that he has not traveled recently and has been practicing social distancing.
What is the most probable reason for this patient's exacerbation?
Choose the SINGLE most likely cause from the options provided.
Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae
Explanation:Bacterial Causes of Acute COPD Exacerbation
Acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) can be caused by various bacterial pathogens. Among them, Haemophilus influenzae is the most common, followed by Streptococcus pneumoniae and Moraxella catarrhalis. Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis are less likely to cause COPD exacerbation unless there is an underlying immunodeficiency. Symptoms of bacterial infection include breathlessness, productive cough, and malaise. Treatment with doxycycline can effectively manage Haemophilus influenzae infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 20
Correct
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Which one of the following statements regarding elderly advanced life support is accurate?
Your Answer: Chest compressions should continue whilst the defibrillator is charged
Explanation:The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath. Upon examination, reduced breath sounds and dullness to percussion are noted in the right axilla. His heart rate is 98 bpm, blood pressure is 100/75 mmHg, respiratory rate is 30 per minute, and his oxygen saturation is 93% on room air. Blood tests, including an arterial blood gas with the patient on 2L/minute oxygen via a nasal cannula, reveal the following results:
Hb 142 g/l Na+ 140 mmol/l
Platelets 502 * 109/l K+ 4.2 mmol/l
WBC 15.8 * 109/l Urea 6.9 mmol/l
Neuts 14.2 * 109/l Creatinine 90 µmol/l
Lymphs 1.6 * 109/l CRP 205.4 mg/l
pH 7.29
pO2 12.5 kPa
pCO2 2.2 kPa
HCO3- 13 mmol/l
Base excess -7.2
Lactate 3.1 mmol/l
A chest x-ray shows consolidation of the right middle zone with blunting of the right costophrenic angle. The left lung field is clear. Based on these findings, what is the most likely acid-base disorder present in this patient?Your Answer: A mixed acidosis
Correct Answer: A partially compensated metabolic acidosis
Explanation:The patient in this scenario has an acute sepsis with a right middle lobe pneumonia as the likely cause. The blood gas results show an acidosis with low bicarbonate and high lactate, indicating a metabolic cause. However, the pCO2 is low due to tachypnea, which suggests respiratory compensation for the metabolic acidosis. If the pH were normal, it would be considered a fully compensated acidosis, but since the patient is still acidotic, it is classified as a partial compensation. Normal blood gas ranges for pH, pO2, pCO2, and HCO3- are 7.35-7.45, 10.0-14.0 kPa, 4.5-6.0 kPa, and 22-26 mmol/l, respectively. A mixed acidosis would show both low bicarbonate and high pCO2, while an uncompensated metabolic acidosis would have low bicarbonate and normal pCO2, and an uncompensated respiratory acidosis would have high pCO2 and normal bicarbonate.
Arterial Blood Gas Interpretation Made Easy
Arterial blood gas interpretation can be a daunting task for healthcare professionals. However, the Resuscitation Council (UK) has provided a simple 5-step approach to make it easier. The first step is to assess the patient’s overall condition. The second step is to determine if the patient is hypoxaemic, which is indicated by a PaO2 level of less than 10 kPa on air. The third step is to check if the patient is acidaemic or alkalaemic, which is determined by the pH level. A pH level of less than 7.35 indicates acidaemia, while a pH level of more than 7.45 indicates alkalaemia.
The fourth step is to assess the respiratory component by checking the PaCO2 level. A PaCO2 level of more than 6.0 kPa suggests respiratory acidosis, while a PaCO2 level of less than 4.7 kPa suggests respiratory alkalosis. The fifth and final step is to evaluate the metabolic component by checking the bicarbonate level or base excess. A bicarbonate level of less than 22 mmol/l or a base excess of less than -2mmol/l indicates metabolic acidosis, while a bicarbonate level of more than 26 mmol/l or a base excess of more than +2mmol/l indicates metabolic alkalosis.
To make it easier to remember, healthcare professionals can use the ROME acronym. Respiratory is opposite, which means that low pH and high PaCO2 indicate acidosis, while high pH and low PaCO2 indicate alkalosis. Metabolic is equal, which means that low pH and low bicarbonate indicate acidosis, while high pH and high bicarbonate indicate alkalosis. By following this simple approach, healthcare professionals can easily interpret arterial blood gas results and provide appropriate treatment for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 73-year-old man presents with dyspnoea, cough and wheeze that have been ongoing for a few days. He experiences similar episodes frequently, particularly during the winter months. The patient has a medical history of COPD and osteoarthritis and takes regular inhalers. During examination, an audible wheeze is detected upon chest auscultation, and the patient appears mildly dyspnoeic. A sputum sample is collected for culture, and the patient is started on a course of doxycycline and prednisolone. What is the most probable organism to be identified?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae
Explanation:The most frequent bacterial organism responsible for infective exacerbations of COPD is Haemophilus influenzae. This patient’s symptoms of dyspnoea, productive cough, and wheeze on a background of known COPD indicate an infective exacerbation. Nebulisers may be added to the treatment plan if the patient is significantly wheezy. Legionella pneumophila is not a common cause of COPD exacerbation, as it typically causes atypical pneumonia with desaturation on exertion and hyponatraemia. Moraxella catarrhalis is another organism that can cause infective exacerbations of COPD, but it is less common than Haemophilus influenzae. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of pneumonia following influenza infection and can sometimes cause infective exacerbations of COPD, but it is not as common as Haemophilus influenzae.
Acute exacerbations of COPD are a common reason for hospital visits in developed countries. The most common causes of these exacerbations are bacterial infections, with Haemophilus influenzae being the most common culprit, followed by Streptococcus pneumoniae and Moraxella catarrhalis. Respiratory viruses also account for around 30% of exacerbations, with human rhinovirus being the most important pathogen. Symptoms of an exacerbation include an increase in dyspnea, cough, and wheezing, as well as hypoxia and acute confusion in some cases.
NICE guidelines recommend increasing the frequency of bronchodilator use and giving prednisolone for five days. Antibiotics should only be given if sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia. Admission to the hospital is recommended for patients with severe breathlessness, acute confusion or impaired consciousness, cyanosis, oxygen saturation less than 90%, social reasons, or significant comorbidity.
For severe exacerbations requiring secondary care, oxygen therapy should be used with an initial saturation target of 88-92%. Nebulized bronchodilators such as salbutamol and ipratropium should also be administered, along with steroid therapy. IV hydrocortisone may be considered instead of oral prednisolone, and IV theophylline may be used for patients not responding to nebulized bronchodilators. Non-invasive ventilation may be used for patients with type 2 respiratory failure, with bilevel positive airway pressure being the typical method used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with shortness of breath that has been worsening over the past two days. The patient is experiencing wheezing and is unable to speak in full sentences. Upon examination, the patient has widespread wheezing and crackles. Vital signs are as follows: respiratory rate 30/min, oxygen saturation 92% on FiO2 0.24, heart rate 100/min, blood pressure 115/66 mmHg. A chest x-ray reveals no pneumothorax. The patient is administered nebulized salbutamol and ipratropium bromide driven by air, as well as oral steroids. Intravenous amoxicillin and oral clarithromycin are also given. However, the patient fails to improve after an hour of treatment and is extremely fatigued. An arterial blood gas is performed with the patient on 24% O2, which shows:
pH 7.30
PCO2 8 kPa
PO2 8.4 kPa
Bicarbonate 29 mEq/l
What is the next course of action?Your Answer: Continue current treatment
Correct Answer: BIPAP
Explanation:Patient has exacerbation of COPD with maximal treatment for an hour. Remains acidotic with high PCO2 and respiratory acidosis. BTS guidelines suggest starting NIV.
Guidelines for Non-Invasive Ventilation in Acute Respiratory Failure
The British Thoracic Society (BTS) and the Royal College of Physicians have published guidelines for the use of non-invasive ventilation (NIV) in acute respiratory failure. NIV can be used in patients with COPD and respiratory acidosis with a pH of 7.25-7.35. However, patients with a pH lower than 7.25 require greater monitoring and a lower threshold for intubation and ventilation. NIV is also recommended for type II respiratory failure due to chest wall deformity, neuromuscular disease, or obstructive sleep apnea, as well as for cardiogenic pulmonary edema unresponsive to continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) and weaning from tracheal intubation.
For patients with COPD, the recommended initial settings for bi-level pressure support include an expiratory positive airway pressure (EPAP) of 4-5 cm H2O, an inspiratory positive airway pressure (IPAP) of 10-15 cm H2O, a back-up rate of 15 breaths/min, and a back-up inspiration-to-expiration ratio of 1:3. These guidelines aim to improve patient outcomes and reduce the need for invasive mechanical ventilation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 24
Incorrect
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In the diagnosis of asthma, which statement is the most appropriate?
Your Answer: 15% reversibility by bronchial dilators is an essential diagnostic test in making this diagnosis
Correct Answer: Cough is an important diagnostic feature
Explanation:Myths and Facts about Asthma Diagnosis and Treatment
Cough is a crucial diagnostic feature in asthma, especially if it occurs at night. However, it is not the only symptom, and other factors must be considered to reach a diagnosis. While asthma often presents in childhood, it can also appear later in life, and some patients may experience a recurrence of symptoms after a period of remission. The 15% reversibility test is useful but not essential for diagnosis, and there is no single test that can definitively diagnose asthma. Inhaled corticosteroids are not bronchodilators and do not have an immediate effect, but they are essential for managing inflammation and preventing irreversible airway damage. Finally, family history is a crucial factor in asthma diagnosis, as there is a strong genetic component to the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 25
Correct
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A new mother in her early thirties, who has asthma, has just given birth to her first child. She experienced a sudden worsening of her asthma symptoms and was prescribed 30mg of oral prednisolone. She is now concerned about the safety of taking prednisolone while breastfeeding and wonders if she should switch to a different medication.
Your Answer: It is safe to continue 30mg prednisolone and breastfeed
Explanation:When a mother who is breastfeeding takes prednisolone, the amount of the drug that is transferred to the breast milk is minimal. Therefore, it is unlikely to have any negative impact on the baby.
Management of Acute Asthma
Acute asthma is classified by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) into three categories: moderate, severe, and life-threatening. Patients with any of the life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. A fourth category, Near-fatal asthma, is also recognized. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen saturation levels below 92%. A chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless the patient has life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment.
Admission criteria include a previous near-fatal asthma attack, pregnancy, an attack occurring despite already using oral corticosteroid, and presentation at night. All patients with life-threatening asthma should be admitted to the hospital, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy should be started for hypoxaemic patients. Bronchodilation with short-acting betaâ‚‚-agonists (SABA) is recommended, and all patients should be given 40-50mg of prednisolone orally daily. Ipratropium bromide and IV magnesium sulphate may also be considered for severe or life-threatening asthma. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include stability on discharge medication, checked and recorded inhaler technique, and PEF levels above 75% of best or predicted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man has a 3-month history of weight loss, fatigue and difficulty breathing with a 20-pack-year smoking history. A chest X-ray reveals multiple rounded nodules of different sizes spread throughout both lungs.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Tuberculosis
Correct Answer: Pulmonary metastases
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of lung nodules on chest radiograph
Pulmonary metastases is a likely diagnosis for lung nodules on a chest radiograph, especially in patients with a history of cancer. Other possible causes of lung nodules include infections, such as lung abscesses or tuberculosis, occupational lung diseases, such as silicosis, and traumatic injuries, such as rib fractures. However, the clinical presentation and radiological features of these conditions differ from those of pulmonary metastases. Therefore, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, physical examination, laboratory tests, and imaging studies is necessary to establish the correct diagnosis and guide the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents to you with her husband. Her husband complains of frequently waking up in the middle of the night and experiencing difficulty in breathing. She also notes that he feels excessively tired during the day and often dozes off while reading the newspaper. You suspect moderate sleep apnoea and decide to refer him for further evaluation. The patient is curious about the treatment options available. What is the primary treatment for moderate sleep apnoea?
Your Answer: Salbutamol inhaler
Correct Answer: Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
Explanation:Understanding Obstructive Sleep Apnoea/Hypopnoea Syndrome
Obstructive sleep apnoea/hypopnoea syndrome (OSAHS) is a condition where the upper airway becomes partially or completely blocked during sleep, leading to interrupted breathing and reduced oxygen levels in the body. There are several predisposing factors for OSAHS, including obesity, macroglossia, large tonsils, and Marfan’s syndrome. The condition is often characterized by excessive snoring and periods of apnoea, which can be reported by the patient’s partner.
OSAHS can have several consequences, including daytime somnolence, compensated respiratory acidosis, and hypertension. To assess sleepiness, healthcare professionals may use tools such as the Epworth Sleepiness Scale or the Multiple Sleep Latency Test. Diagnostic tests for OSAHS include sleep studies, ranging from monitoring pulse oximetry to full polysomnography.
Management of OSAHS typically involves weight loss and continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) as the first line of treatment for moderate or severe cases. Intra-oral devices may be used if CPAP is not tolerated or for patients with mild OSAHS. It is important to inform the DVLA if OSAHS is causing excessive daytime sleepiness. While there is limited evidence to support the use of pharmacological agents, healthcare professionals may consider them in certain cases.
Overall, understanding OSAHS and its management is crucial for improving the quality of life for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male intravenous drug user (IVDU) presents with a productive cough and fever of 2–3 days’ duration. He had a cold last week. Other than a leukocytosis and high C-reactive protein (CRP), his blood results are normal. A chest radiograph shows bilateral cavitating pneumonia.
Which of the following is the most probable cause of his pneumonia?Your Answer: Klebsiella pneumonia
Correct Answer: Staphylococcal pneumonia
Explanation:Differentiating Types of Pneumonia: Causes and Characteristics
Pneumonia is a common respiratory infection that can be caused by various pathogens, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi. Among the bacterial causes, staphylococcal and pneumococcal pneumonia are two of the most prevalent types. However, they have distinct characteristics that can help clinicians differentiate them. In addition, other types of pneumonia, such as Pneumocystis jiroveci, Klebsiella, and fungal pneumonia, have specific risk factors and radiographic patterns that can aid in their diagnosis.
Staphylococcal pneumonia is often associated with a recent viral infection, intravenous drug use, or the presence of central lines. It typically presents as cavitating bronchopneumonia, which can be bilateral and complicated by pneumothorax, effusion, or empyema. Flucloxacillin is the drug of choice for treatment, although vancomycin can be used in penicillin-allergic patients.
Pneumococcal pneumonia, on the other hand, is more commonly acquired in the community and does not usually cause cavitating lesions. It can be suspected in patients with fever, cough, and chest pain, and is often treated with antibiotics such as penicillin or macrolides.
Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia is a type of fungal pneumonia that affects immunocompromised individuals, particularly those with HIV. It typically presents with an interstitial pattern on chest radiographs, rather than cavitating lesions.
Klebsiella pneumonia is another bacterial cause of cavitating pneumonia, often affecting elderly individuals or those with alcohol use disorders.
Fungal pneumonia, which can be caused by various fungi such as Aspergillus or Cryptococcus, tends to affect immunocompromised patients, but can also occur in healthy individuals exposed to contaminated environments. Its radiographic pattern can vary depending on the type of fungus involved.
In summary, understanding the different causes and characteristics of pneumonia can help clinicians make an accurate diagnosis and choose the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old engineer attended a business trip in France last weekend and developed a fever of up to 39°C that lasted for three days. He had associated shortness of breath and dry cough. In addition, he had loose motions for a day. His blood results showed deranged LFTs and hyponatraemia. His WBC count was 10.2 × 109/l. Bibasal consolidation was seen on his radiograph.
Which of the following would be the most effective treatment for his condition?Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Treatment options for Legionnaires’ disease
Legionnaires’ disease is a common cause of community- and hospital-acquired pneumonia, caused by Legionella pneumophila. The bacterium contaminates water containers and distribution systems, including air-conditioning systems, and can infect individuals who inhale it. Symptoms include fever, cough, dyspnoea, and systemic symptoms such as myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting and neurological signs. Diagnosis is usually confirmed by urinary antigen testing. Treatment options include macrolides, such as clarithromycin, which is the preferred choice, and quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin, which are used less frequently due to a less favourable side-effect profile. Amoxicillin, cefuroxime, and flucloxacillin are not effective against Legionella pneumophila. It is important to remember that the organism does not show up on Gram staining. Outbreaks are seen in previously fit individuals staying in hotels or institutions where the shower facilities and/or the cooling system is contaminated with the organism. The incubation period is 2–10 days. A clinical clue is the presence of otherwise unexplained hyponatraemia and deranged liver function tests in a patient with pneumonia. A chest radiograph can show bibasal consolidation, sometimes with a small pleural effusion.
Treatment options for Legionnaires’ disease
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old female with a history of acromegaly presents to the respiratory clinic with her husband for a routine follow-up. She has recently been diagnosed with obstructive sleep apnoea and has made several lifestyle changes such as losing weight and exercising regularly. However, she still complains of feeling tired after work and experiencing restless sleep with loud snoring that disturbs her husband. What further steps should be taken in managing her obstructive sleep apnoea?
Your Answer: Maxillomandibular advancement
Correct Answer: Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)
Explanation:After losing weight, the recommended initial treatment for moderate/severe obstructive sleep apnoea is CPAP.
CPAP is the most widely used treatment for obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) and is effective for both moderate and severe cases. However, lifestyle changes such as weight loss, quitting smoking, and avoiding alcohol should be attempted first. Although oral appliances can be used, they are not as effective as CPAP. Surgical treatments for OSA are not the first choice and have limited evidence.
Understanding Obstructive Sleep Apnoea/Hypopnoea Syndrome
Obstructive sleep apnoea/hypopnoea syndrome (OSAHS) is a condition where the upper airway becomes partially or completely blocked during sleep, leading to interrupted breathing and reduced oxygen levels in the body. There are several predisposing factors for OSAHS, including obesity, macroglossia, large tonsils, and Marfan’s syndrome. The condition is often characterized by excessive snoring and periods of apnoea, which can be reported by the patient’s partner.
OSAHS can have several consequences, including daytime somnolence, compensated respiratory acidosis, and hypertension. To assess sleepiness, healthcare professionals may use tools such as the Epworth Sleepiness Scale or the Multiple Sleep Latency Test. Diagnostic tests for OSAHS include sleep studies, ranging from monitoring pulse oximetry to full polysomnography.
Management of OSAHS typically involves weight loss and continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) as the first line of treatment for moderate or severe cases. Intra-oral devices may be used if CPAP is not tolerated or for patients with mild OSAHS. It is important to inform the DVLA if OSAHS is causing excessive daytime sleepiness. While there is limited evidence to support the use of pharmacological agents, healthcare professionals may consider them in certain cases.
Overall, understanding OSAHS and its management is crucial for improving the quality of life for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man presents with a 4 weeks-history of productive cough, dyspnoea, and pleuritic chest pain. He has had associated lethargy, weight loss, a swinging fever and night sweats. He had a stroke two years ago.
Sputum and blood cultures are collected. After a chest x-ray revealed a fluid-filled space within an area of consolidation in his left lung, he was given IV antibiotics.
However, the patient's condition has not improved and instead appears to be worsening. What is the most appropriate next step in his management?Your Answer: Arrange bronchoscopy
Correct Answer: Arrange CT-guided percutaneous drainage
Explanation:If a lung abscess is not responding to intravenous antibiotics, percutaneous drainage should be considered as an option.
Correct: Arrange CT-guided percutaneous drainage. This is because the patient’s symptoms, such as swinging fevers, night sweats, pleuritic chest pain, dyspnoea, and cough, are consistent with a lung abscess. The chest x-ray also supports this diagnosis by showing a fluid-filled space within an area of consolidation. If IV antibiotics are not effective, percutaneous drainage can be guided by a CT scan or ultrasound. IV antibiotics may not be able to penetrate the abscess wall, which is why some patients do not respond to this treatment.
Incorrect: Arrange bronchoscopy. This is not commonly used for lung abscesses and is only indicated if an underlying tumour or foreign body is suspected. It is performed for diagnosis only, not drainage.
Incorrect: Arrange sputum cytology. Sputum cultures have already been collected, and a diagnosis of lung abscess has been established. This option could be considered later if the patient still does not respond to treatment to rule out an underlying malignancy.
Incorrect: Prescribe broad-spectrum IV antibiotics. This option is unlikely to be effective since the patient has already received IV antibiotics without success. The next step would be to manually drain the abscess.
Understanding Lung Abscess
A lung abscess is a localized infection that occurs within the lung tissue. It is commonly caused by aspiration pneumonia, which can be triggered by poor dental hygiene, reduced consciousness, or previous stroke. Other potential causes include haematogenous spread, direct extension, and bronchial obstruction. The infection is typically polymicrobial, with Staphylococcus aureus, Klebsiella pneumonia, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa being the most common monomicrobial causes.
The symptoms of lung abscess are similar to pneumonia, but they tend to develop more slowly over several weeks. Patients may experience fever, productive cough, foul-smelling sputum, chest pain, and dyspnea. Some may also have systemic features such as night sweats and weight loss, while a minority may experience haemoptysis. Physical examination may reveal dull percussion and bronchial breathing, as well as clubbing in some cases.
To diagnose lung abscess, a chest x-ray is usually performed, which shows a fluid-filled space within an area of consolidation. Sputum and blood cultures should also be obtained to identify the causative organism. Treatment typically involves intravenous antibiotics, but if the infection does not resolve, percutaneous drainage or surgical resection may be required in rare cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 32
Incorrect
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For a young adult who experiences occasional mild bronchoconstriction symptoms without any identified trigger or night-time symptoms and is not currently taking any medication, which drug therapy combination is appropriate? Please choose ONE option from the list provided.
Your Answer: Salbutamol and salmeterol inhaler
Correct Answer: Salbutamol and beclomethasone inhaler
Explanation:Understanding Asthma Treatment: BTS/SIGN Guidelines
Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition that affects millions of people worldwide. The British Thoracic Society/Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (BTS/SIGN) has developed a stepwise approach to managing asthma symptoms. The goal is to achieve complete control of symptoms while minimizing side effects from medication.
Step 1 involves using a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA) on an as-needed basis and a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) regularly. If symptoms persist, step 2 involves adding a long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) to the ICS. Step 3 involves increasing the ICS dose or adding a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) if the LABA is ineffective. Step 4 involves increasing the ICS dose or adding a fourth medication, such as a slow-release theophylline or a long-acting muscarinic receptor antagonist (LAMA). Step 5 involves using a daily steroid tablet in the lowest effective dose while maintaining high-dose ICS and considering other treatments to minimize the use of steroid tablets.
It is important to note that the management of asthma in children under 5 years of age is different. Patients at step 4 or 5 should be referred for specialist care. Complete control of asthma symptoms is defined as no daytime or nighttime symptoms, no need for rescue medication, no asthma attacks, no limitations on activity, and normal lung function with minimal side effects from medication.
In summary, the BTS/SIGN guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to managing asthma symptoms. By following these guidelines, patients can achieve complete control of their symptoms while minimizing the risk of side effects from medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 65 year old man presents to the emergency department with a productive cough that has been ongoing for three days. He has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath, weakness, and lethargy over the past two days. He also reports fevers and rigors. His wife brought him in as she is concerned about his rapid deterioration. On examination, his heart rate is 125 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 32 breaths per minute, Sa02 is 90% on room air, temperature is 38.9º, and blood pressure is 130/84 mmHg. He appears distressed but is not confused. Initial investigations show a Hb of 134 g/l, platelets of 550 * 109/l, WBC of 18 * 109/l, Na+ of 141 mmol/l, K+ of 3.7 mmol/l, urea of 9.2 mmol/l, and creatinine of 130 µmol/l. A CXR shows left lower zone consolidation. What is his CURB-65 score based on this information?
Your Answer: 5
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:The patient is currently in a room with normal air temperature of 38.9º and has a blood pressure reading of 130/84 mmHg. Although he appears distressed, he is not experiencing confusion. Initial tests reveal that his hemoglobin level is at 134 g/l and his platelet count is yet to be determined.
Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that requires prompt assessment and management. In the primary care setting, the CRB65 criteria are used to stratify patients based on their risk of mortality. Patients with a score of 0 are considered low risk and may be treated at home, while those with a score of 3 or 4 are high risk and require urgent admission to hospital. The use of a point-of-care CRP test can help guide antibiotic therapy. In the secondary care setting, the CURB65 criteria are used, which includes an additional criterion of urea > 7 mmol/L. Chest x-rays and blood and sputum cultures are recommended for intermediate or high-risk patients. Treatment for low-severity community acquired pneumonia typically involves a 5-day course of amoxicillin, while moderate and high-severity cases may require dual antibiotic therapy for 7-10 days. Discharge criteria and advice post-discharge are also provided, including information on expected symptom resolution timeframes and the need for a repeat chest x-ray at 6 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A woman in her early fifties presents to the Emergency Department with pleuritic chest pain, ten days post-hysterectomy. The medical team suspects pulmonary embolism. What is the typical chest x-ray finding in patients with this condition?
Your Answer: Dilatation of the pulmonary vessels proximal to the embolism
Correct Answer: Normal
Explanation:In most cases of pulmonary embolism, the chest x-ray appears normal.
Investigating Pulmonary Embolism: Key Features and Diagnostic Criteria
Pulmonary embolism (PE) can be challenging to diagnose as it can present with a wide range of cardiorespiratory symptoms and signs depending on its location and size. The PIOPED study in 2007 found that tachypnea, crackles, tachycardia, and fever were the most common clinical signs associated with PE. To aid in the diagnosis of PE, NICE updated their guidelines in 2020 to include the use of the pulmonary embolism rule-out criteria (PERC) and the 2-level PE Wells score. The PERC rule should be used when there is a low pre-test probability of PE, and a negative PERC result reduces the probability of PE to less than 2%. The 2-level PE Wells score should be performed if a PE is suspected, with a score of more than 4 points indicating a likely PE and a score of 4 points or less indicating an unlikely PE.
If a PE is likely, an immediate computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) should be arranged, and interim therapeutic anticoagulation should be given if there is a delay in getting the CTPA. If a PE is unlikely, a D-dimer test should be arranged, and if positive, an immediate CTPA should be performed. The consensus view from the British Thoracic Society and NICE guidelines is that CTPA is the recommended initial lung-imaging modality for non-massive PE. However, V/Q scanning may be used initially if appropriate facilities exist, the chest x-ray is normal, and there is no significant symptomatic concurrent cardiopulmonary disease.
Other diagnostic tools include age-adjusted D-dimer levels, ECG, chest x-ray, V/Q scan, and CTPA. It is important to note that a chest x-ray is recommended for all patients to exclude other pathology, but it is typically normal in PE. While investigating PE, it is crucial to consider other differential diagnoses and to tailor the diagnostic approach to the individual patient’s clinical presentation and risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old homeless man presents to the emergency department after collapsing on the street. He reports feeling increasingly lethargic over the past week and has been coughing up green sputum. He has a history of alcoholic pancreatitis.
His vital signs are as follows:
- Temperature: 38.4ºC
- Heart rate: 122 bpm
- Blood pressure: 106/54 mmHg
- Respiratory rate: 22 breaths/min
- Oxygen saturations: 94% on 2L nasal cannulae
Upon examination, coarse crackles are heard in the left upper lobe. His heart sounds are normal and his abdomen is soft and nontender.
What is the most likely causative organism?Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Correct Answer: Klebsiella pneumoniae
Explanation:Klebsiella pneumoniae is a gram-negative rod that commonly causes a cavitating pneumonia in the upper lobes, particularly in individuals with a history of diabetes and alcoholism. The presence of upper zone crackles is a sign of Klebsiella pneumoniae infection, while a history of alcoholic pancreatitis suggests chronic alcohol use.
Legionella pneumophila causes Legionnaire’s disease, an atypical pneumonia that typically spreads through contaminated water sources, such as air conditioner vents. Symptoms include fever, cough, and myalgia, with bilateral chest symptoms being more common. Other extra-pulmonary symptoms, such as hyponatremia and hepatitis, may also be present.
Mycoplasma pneumoniae is another cause of atypical pneumonia, with symptoms including coryza and a dry cough. This form of pneumonia is associated with extra-pulmonary symptoms such as haemolytic anaemia and erythema multiforme, which are not present in this case.
Staphylococcus aureus is the most likely cause of pneumonia following influenza virus infection. However, since there is no history of preceding coryza and the patient has upper zone crackles and alcoholism, Staphylococcus aureus is less likely to be the cause of this patient’s pneumonia.
Klebsiella Pneumoniae: A Gram-Negative Rod Causing Infections in Humans
Klebsiella pneumoniae is a type of Gram-negative rod that is typically found in the gut flora of humans. Although it is a normal part of the body’s microbiome, it can also cause a variety of infections in humans, including pneumonia and urinary tract infections. This bacterium is more commonly found in individuals who have diabetes or who consume alcohol regularly. In some cases, Klebsiella pneumoniae infections can occur following aspiration.
One of the distinctive features of Klebsiella pneumoniae infections is the presence of red-currant jelly sputum. This type of sputum is often seen in patients with pneumonia caused by this bacterium. Additionally, Klebsiella pneumoniae infections tend to affect the upper lobes of the lungs.
Unfortunately, Klebsiella pneumoniae infections can be quite serious and even life-threatening. They commonly lead to the formation of lung abscesses and empyema, and the mortality rate for these infections is between 30-50%. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential for Klebsiella pneumoniae infections, particularly in patients who are at higher risk due to underlying health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a history of recurrent lower respiratory tract infections has been diagnosed with bilateral bronchiectasis after undergoing a high resolution CT scan. What is the most crucial factor in managing his symptoms in the long run?
Your Answer: Inhaled corticosteroids
Correct Answer: Postural drainage
Explanation:To manage symptoms in individuals with non-CF bronchiectasis, a combination of inspiratory muscle training and postural drainage can be effective.
Managing Bronchiectasis
Bronchiectasis is a condition where the airways become permanently dilated due to chronic inflammation or infection. Before starting treatment, it is important to identify any underlying causes that can be treated, such as immune deficiency. The management of bronchiectasis includes physical training, such as inspiratory muscle training, which has been shown to be effective for patients without cystic fibrosis. Postural drainage, antibiotics for exacerbations, and long-term rotating antibiotics for severe cases are also recommended. Bronchodilators may be used in selected cases, and immunizations are important to prevent infections. Surgery may be considered for localized disease. The most common organisms isolated from patients with bronchiectasis include Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella spp., and Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Spacing:
Bronchiectasis is a condition where the airways become permanently dilated due to chronic inflammation or infection. Before starting treatment, it is important to identify any underlying causes that can be treated, such as immune deficiency.
The management of bronchiectasis includes physical training, such as inspiratory muscle training, which has been shown to be effective for patients without cystic fibrosis. Postural drainage, antibiotics for exacerbations, and long-term rotating antibiotics for severe cases are also recommended. Bronchodilators may be used in selected cases, and immunizations are important to prevent infections. Surgery may be considered for localized disease.
The most common organisms isolated from patients with bronchiectasis include Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella spp., and Streptococcus pneumoniae.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with gradually worsening exertional dyspnoea and a dry cough over the past year. He quit smoking 25 cigarettes/day about 25 years ago. Upon examination, his oxygen saturation is 96% on room air, respiratory rate is 16/min, and there are fine bibasal crackles. Finger clubbing is also present. The following investigations were conducted:
- B-type natriuretic peptide: 90 pg/ml (< 100pg/ml)
- ECG: sinus rhythm, 68/min
- Spirometry:
- FEV1: 1.6 L (51% of predicted)
- FVC: 1.7 L (40% of predicted)
- FEV1/FVC: 95%
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Primary pulmonary hypertension
Correct Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
Explanation:A common scenario for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis involves a man between the ages of 50 and 70 who experiences worsening shortness of breath during physical activity. Other symptoms may include clubbing of the fingers and a restrictive pattern on spirometry testing. However, a normal B-type natriuretic peptide level suggests that heart failure is not the cause of these symptoms.
Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is typically seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is more common in men.
The symptoms of IPF include progressive exertional dyspnoea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation. Diagnosis is made through spirometry, impaired gas exchange tests, and imaging such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scans.
Management of IPF includes pulmonary rehabilitation, but very few medications have been shown to be effective. Some evidence suggests that pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will eventually require supplementary oxygen and a lung transplant.
The prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years. CT scans can show advanced pulmonary fibrosis, including honeycombing. While there is no cure for IPF, early diagnosis and management can help improve quality of life and potentially prolong survival.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old HIV positive man presents to your clinic with complaints of haemoptysis and worsening shortness of breath after completing treatment for pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia. A chest x-ray shows an apical mass in the right lung lobe. He responds well to treatment with itraconazole and steroids. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Klebsiella pneumonia
Correct Answer: Aspergilloma
Explanation:Aspergilloma is a type of fungal growth that typically affects individuals with weakened immune systems or those who have pre-existing lung conditions like tuberculosis or emphysema. Common symptoms include coughing, fever, and coughing up blood. Treatment typically involves the use of antifungal medications like itraconazole.
Haemoptysis, or coughing up blood, can be caused by a variety of conditions. Lung cancer is a common cause, especially in individuals with a history of smoking. Symptoms of malignancy, such as weight loss and anorexia, may also be present. Pulmonary oedema, which is the accumulation of fluid in the lungs, can cause dyspnoea (shortness of breath) and is often accompanied by bibasal crackles and an S3 heart sound. Tuberculosis, a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs, can cause fever, night sweats, anorexia, and weight loss. Pulmonary embolism, a blockage in the pulmonary artery, can cause pleuritic chest pain, tachycardia (rapid heart rate), and tachypnoea (rapid breathing). Lower respiratory tract infections, such as pneumonia, typically have an acute onset and are characterized by a purulent cough. Bronchiectasis, a chronic lung condition, is often associated with a long history of cough and daily production of purulent sputum. Mitral stenosis, a narrowing of the mitral valve in the heart, can cause dyspnoea, atrial fibrillation, and a malar flush on the cheeks. Aspergilloma, a fungal infection that often occurs in individuals with a past history of tuberculosis, can cause severe haemoptysis and is characterized by a rounded opacity on chest x-ray. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis, an autoimmune disease, can affect both the upper and lower respiratory tracts and is associated with symptoms such as epistaxis (nosebleeds), sinusitis, dyspnoea, and haemoptysis. Goodpasture’s syndrome, another autoimmune disease, can cause haemoptysis and systemic symptoms such as fever and nausea, as well as glomerulonephritis (inflammation of the kidney’s filtering units).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department with difficulty breathing. Her pulmonary function tests show a peak expiratory flow rate that is 60% below the normal range for her age and height.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Whooping cough
Correct Answer: Asthma
Explanation:Understanding PEFR and Its Role in Diagnosing Asthma
Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is a valuable tool in both the diagnosis and management of asthma. It is measured by a maximal forced expiration through a peak-flow meter and correlates well with forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1), providing an estimate of airway calibre. Patients with asthma can monitor their PEFR at home to track disease control. A PEFR <80% of predicted is a strong indicator of obstructive airway disease, such as asthma. However, it’s important to note that PEFR is not affected by restrictive defects, such as those caused by kyphoscoliosis. Bronchial carcinoma itself does not cause airflow limitation, but a co-morbid obstructive lung disease, such as asthma or COPD, could produce abnormal PEFR readings. Bronchiectasis can cause an obstructive pattern on spirometry, but it would not typically cause a reduction in PEFR. Whooping cough, despite causing inflammation of the airways, would not typically result in the markedly reduced PEFR readings seen in asthma. In conclusion, understanding PEFR and its role in diagnosing asthma is crucial for both patients and healthcare providers. By monitoring PEFR at home and seeking medical attention when necessary, individuals with asthma can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female presents for follow-up. She was diagnosed with asthma four years ago and is currently utilizing a salbutamol inhaler 100mcg as needed in combination with beclometasone dipropionate inhaler 200 mcg twice daily. However, her asthma remains poorly controlled. Upon examination, her chest is clear and she demonstrates proper inhaler technique. In accordance with NICE recommendations, what is the most suitable course of action for further management?
Your Answer: Switch steroid to fluticasone propionate
Correct Answer: Add a leukotriene receptor antagonist
Explanation:According to NICE 2017 guidelines, if a patient with asthma is not effectively managed with a SABA + ICS, the first step should be to add a LTRA rather than a LABA.
The management of asthma in adults has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. One of the significant changes is in ‘step 3’, where patients on a SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled should be offered a leukotriene receptor antagonist instead of a LABA. NICE does not follow the stepwise approach of the previous BTS guidelines, but to make the guidelines easier to follow, we have added our own steps. The steps range from newly-diagnosed asthma to SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options, including increasing ICS to high-dose, a trial of an additional drug, or seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is a form of combined ICS and LABA treatment that is only available for ICS and LABA combinations in which the LABA has a fast-acting component. It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance. The definitions of what constitutes a low, moderate, or high-dose ICS have also changed, with <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a low dose, 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a moderate dose, and > 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a high dose for adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old patient was referred with a 2-year history of persistent cough productive of yellowish sputum throughout the year. He has been treated by his GP for frequent chest infections.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Sarcoidosis
Correct Answer: Bronchiectasis
Explanation:Bronchiectasis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Bronchiectasis is a condition characterized by permanent and irreversible dilatations of the bronchial walls. It can be caused by various factors, including cystic fibrosis, immune system deficiencies, lung infections, foreign body aspiration, and smoking. Common symptoms of bronchiectasis include high sputum production, recurrent chest infections, and frequent but usually not severe haemoptysis. Patients may also experience postnasal drip, chronic sinusitis, and undue tiredness. A high-resolution computed tomography (HR-CT) scan is usually used to diagnose bronchiectasis. Treatment involves a multidisciplinary approach, including chest physiotherapy, patient education on airway-clearing techniques, antibiotic treatment during infective exacerbations, and bronchodilators in case of airflow obstruction. While treatment of the underlying cause may be necessary, it does not provide reversal of the existing bronchiectasis. Other conditions, such as sarcoidosis, fibrosing alveolitis, lung cancer, and asthma, are unlikely to produce the same clinical picture as bronchiectasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of increasing shortness of breath, especially during physical activity. He has also been experiencing a persistent dry cough for the past 8 weeks. The doctor suspects pulmonary fibrosis and orders spirometry testing.
The patient's predicted spirometry values are as follows:
FEV1 4.25L
FVC 5.10L
Transfer capacity (TLCO) Normal
What are the probable spirometry findings for this individual?Your Answer: FEV1 = 2.65, FVC = 4.19, TLCO = Decreased
Correct Answer: FEV1 = 2.79, FVC = 3.34, TLCO = Decreased
Explanation:Once the predicted values are obtained, the FEV1:FVC ratio can be evaluated. If this ratio is less than 70, it indicates a potential issue.
Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is typically seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is more common in men.
The symptoms of IPF include progressive exertional dyspnoea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation. Diagnosis is made through spirometry, impaired gas exchange tests, and imaging such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scans.
Management of IPF includes pulmonary rehabilitation, but very few medications have been shown to be effective. Some evidence suggests that pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will eventually require supplementary oxygen and a lung transplant.
The prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years. CT scans can show advanced pulmonary fibrosis, including honeycombing. While there is no cure for IPF, early diagnosis and management can help improve quality of life and potentially prolong survival.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 43
Correct
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A 48-year-old male presents to the hospital with a productive cough and a temperature of 38.2 C. He has been feeling ill for the past 10 days with flu-like symptoms. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 96/60 mmHg and his heart rate is 102/min. A chest x-ray reveals bilateral lower zone consolidation. What is the probable pathogen responsible for this condition?
Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Prior infection with influenza increases the likelihood of developing pneumonia caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
Causes of Pneumonia
Pneumonia is a respiratory infection that can be caused by various infectious agents. Community acquired pneumonia (CAP) is the most common type of pneumonia and is caused by different microorganisms. The most common cause of CAP is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which accounts for around 80% of cases. Other infectious agents that can cause CAP include Haemophilus influenzae, Staphylococcus aureus, atypical pneumonias caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae, and viruses.
Klebsiella pneumoniae is another microorganism that can cause pneumonia, but it is typically found in alcoholics. Streptococcus pneumoniae, also known as pneumococcus, is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. It is characterized by a rapid onset, high fever, pleuritic chest pain, and herpes labialis (cold sores).
In summary, pneumonia can be caused by various infectious agents, with Streptococcus pneumoniae being the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. It is important to identify the causative agent to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old man presents to the emergency department following a motor vehicle accident. He has a medical history of COPD and is a heavy smoker, consuming 30 cigarettes per day. Upon arrival, his vital signs are as follows: temperature of 37ºC, heart rate of 128/min, respiratory rate of 27/min, blood pressure of 80/43 mmHg, and GCS of 15. Physical examination reveals tenderness and bruising on the right side of his chest, but chest movements are equal. His neck veins are distended but do not change with breathing, and his trachea is central with distant and quiet heart sounds. Additionally, he has cuts and grazes on his hands and legs.
What is the appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: CT scan of the chest
Correct Answer: Pericardial needle aspiration
Explanation:If a patient with chest wall trauma presents with elevated JVP, persistent hypotension, and tachycardia despite fluid resuscitation, cardiac tamponade should be considered. In such cases, pericardial needle aspiration is the correct course of action. Beck’s triad, which includes hypotension, muffled (distant) heart sounds, and elevated JVP, is a characteristic feature of cardiac tamponade. Urgent aspiration of the pericardium is necessary to prevent further haemodynamic compromise and save the patient’s life. Although the patient may have associated rib fractures, managing the cardiac tamponade should take priority as it poses the greatest threat in this scenario. CT scan of the chest, chest drain insertion into the triangle of safety, and needle decompression 2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line are not appropriate management options in this case.
Cardiac tamponade is a condition where there is an accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac, which puts pressure on the heart. This can lead to a range of symptoms, including hypotension, raised JVP, muffled heart sounds, dyspnoea, tachycardia, and pulsus paradoxus. One of the key features of cardiac tamponade is the absence of a Y descent on the JVP, which is due to limited right ventricular filling. Other diagnostic criteria include Kussmaul’s sign and electrical alternans on an ECG. Constrictive pericarditis is a similar condition, but it can be distinguished from cardiac tamponade by the presence of an X and Y descent on the JVP, the absence of pulsus paradoxus, and the presence of pericardial calcification on a chest X-ray. The management of cardiac tamponade involves urgent pericardiocentesis to relieve the pressure on the heart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 45
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman is being seen in the asthma clinic. She is currently on salbutamol inhaler 100mcg prn and beclometasone dipropionate inhaler 400 mcg bd, but is experiencing frequent asthma exacerbations and has recently undergone a course of prednisolone. In accordance with NICE guidelines, what would be the most suitable course of action for her management?
Your Answer: Add a leukotriene receptor antagonist
Explanation:According to NICE 2017 guidelines, if a patient with asthma is not effectively managed with a SABA + ICS, the first step should be to add a LTRA rather than a LABA.
The management of asthma in adults has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. One of the significant changes is in ‘step 3’, where patients on a SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled should be offered a leukotriene receptor antagonist instead of a LABA. NICE does not follow the stepwise approach of the previous BTS guidelines, but to make the guidelines easier to follow, we have added our own steps. The steps range from newly-diagnosed asthma to SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options, including increasing ICS to high-dose, a trial of an additional drug, or seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is a form of combined ICS and LABA treatment that is only available for ICS and LABA combinations in which the LABA has a fast-acting component. It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance. The definitions of what constitutes a low, moderate, or high-dose ICS have also changed, with <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a low dose, 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a moderate dose, and > 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a high dose for adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a cough that has been producing green sputum and shortness of breath for the past three days. During the examination, the GP detects the presence of rhonchi. The patient's vital signs are stable. Given his medical history of type 2 diabetes, which is being managed with metformin, and heart failure, for which he is taking ramipril, bisoprolol, and furosemide, the GP suspects acute bronchitis. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Supportive care
Correct Answer: Oral doxycycline
Explanation:Antibiotics may be prescribed for acute bronchitis if the patient has co-existing co-morbidities or is at high risk of complications. NICE guidelines advise against the use of antibiotics for those who are not systemically very unwell and not at high risk of complications. However, if the patient is very unwell or at risk of complications, antibiotics should be offered. In this case, the patient’s age, diabetes, and heart failure put him at high risk, so antibiotics should be offered in accordance with NICE guidelines. While local guidelines should be consulted, NICE recommends oral doxycycline as the first-line treatment. Inhaled bronchodilators should not be offered unless the patient has an underlying airway disease such as asthma. Oral flucloxacillin is not commonly used for respiratory tract infections, and IV co-amoxiclav is not necessary in this stable patient who can be managed without admission.
Acute bronchitis is a chest infection that typically resolves on its own within three weeks. It occurs when the trachea and major bronchi become inflamed, leading to swollen airways and the production of sputum. The primary cause of acute bronchitis is viral infection, with most cases occurring in the autumn or winter. Symptoms include a sudden onset of cough, sore throat, runny nose, and wheezing. While most patients have a normal chest examination, some may experience a low-grade fever or wheezing. It is important to differentiate acute bronchitis from pneumonia, which presents with different symptoms and chest examination findings.
Diagnosis of acute bronchitis is typically based on clinical presentation, but CRP testing may be used to determine if antibiotic therapy is necessary. Management involves pain relief and ensuring adequate fluid intake. Antibiotics may be considered for patients who are systemically unwell, have pre-existing health conditions, or have a CRP level between 20-100mg/L. Doxycycline is the recommended first-line treatment, but it cannot be used in children or pregnant women. Alternatives include amoxicillin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents for a review of his chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. He reports experiencing constant shortness of breath during physical activity, which has remained stable over the past year. He has a history of asbestos exposure and is currently under the care of a respiratory physician. During the examination, no abnormalities are detected, but a chest X-ray reveals the presence of pleural plaques. The patient expresses concern that these plaques may develop into cancer. What advice do you offer this patient regarding his test results?
Your Answer: Premalignant and require yearly monitoring
Correct Answer: Benign and do not require follow-up
Explanation:Pleural plaques are benign and do not develop into cancerous growths, so there is no need for any follow-up. These plaques are the most common form of lung disease caused by asbestos exposure, but they do not increase the risk of lung cancer or mesothelioma. While ongoing monitoring of the patient’s lung disease is recommended, there is no need to specifically monitor the pleural plaques. It is important to note that pleural plaques are a sign of past asbestos exposure, which could increase the risk of mesothelioma, but the plaques themselves are not a cause for concern. Therefore, the patient does not require a specialist referral for the pleural plaques alone. However, if the patient experiences worsening shortness of breath or frequent exacerbations, a specialist referral may be necessary to assess for disease progression or malignancy.
Asbestos-Related Lung Diseases
Asbestos exposure can lead to various lung diseases, ranging from benign pleural plaques to malignant mesothelioma. Pleural plaques are non-cancerous and do not require any follow-up, but they are the most common form of asbestos-related lung disease and typically appear after a latent period of 20-40 years. Asbestos exposure may also cause diffuse pleural thickening, which is similar to the pattern seen after an empyema or haemothorax, but the underlying pathophysiology is not fully understood.
Asbestosis is a lung disease that is related to the length of exposure to asbestos. It causes lower lobe fibrosis and is typically characterized by dyspnea, reduced exercise tolerance, clubbing, bilateral end-inspiratory crackles, and a restrictive pattern with reduced gas transfer on lung function tests. Asbestosis is treated conservatively, as no interventions offer significant benefits. The latent period for asbestosis is typically 15-30 years.
Mesothelioma is a malignant disease of the pleura that is caused by asbestos exposure, with crocidolite (blue) asbestos being the most dangerous form. Possible features of mesothelioma include progressive shortness-of-breath, chest pain, and pleural effusion. Patients are usually offered palliative chemotherapy, and there is a limited role for surgery and radiotherapy. Unfortunately, the prognosis for mesothelioma is very poor, with a median survival from diagnosis of 8-14 months.
Although mesothelioma is often associated with asbestos exposure, lung cancer is actually the most common form of cancer related to asbestos exposure. It has a synergistic effect with cigarette smoke, which increases the risk of developing lung cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 48
Incorrect
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On presentation, what is the most frequently observed symptom of lung cancer?
Your Answer: Chest pain
Correct Answer: Cough
Explanation:Symptoms of Lung Cancer: What to Look Out For
Lung cancer is a serious condition that can be difficult to detect in its early stages. However, there are certain symptoms that may indicate the presence of lung cancer. The most common symptom is a persistent cough, which is present in about 40% of patients. If you have had a cough for three weeks or more, it is recommended that you seek medical attention to evaluate the possibility of lung cancer.
In addition to coughing, chest pain is another symptom that may indicate lung cancer. About 15% of patients present with both cough and chest pain, while chest pain alone is present in up to 22% of patients.
Coughing up blood, or haemoptysis, is another symptom that may suggest the presence of lung cancer. However, only 7% of patients with lung cancer actually present with this symptom.
Less common symptoms of lung cancer include shortness of breath, hoarseness, weight loss, and malaise. If you are experiencing any of these symptoms, it is important to seek medical attention as soon as possible to determine the cause and receive appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 49
Incorrect
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In which of the following respiratory diseases is clubbing not a feature?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchitis
Explanation:The Significance of Finger Clubbing in Respiratory and Non-Respiratory Diseases
Finger clubbing, the loss of the natural angle between the nail and the nailbed, is a significant clinical sign that can indicate underlying respiratory and non-respiratory diseases. Suppurative lung diseases such as long-standing bronchiectasis, acute lung abscesses, and empyema are commonly associated with finger clubbing. However, uncomplicated bronchitis and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) do not typically cause clubbing, and patients with COPD who develop clubbing should be promptly investigated for other causes, particularly lung cancer.
Finger clubbing is also commonly found in fibrosing alveolitis (idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis), asbestosis, and malignant diseases such as bronchial carcinoma and mesothelioma. In cases where finger clubbing is associated with hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy, a painful osteitis of the distal ends of the long bones of the lower arms and legs, it is designated grade IV.
Overall, finger clubbing is an important clinical sign that should prompt further investigation to identify underlying respiratory and non-respiratory diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with complaints of difficulty breathing. She has a medical history of left ventricular systolic dysfunction with an ejection fraction of 20%. A chest x-ray confirms acute pulmonary edema, which is immediately treated with high dose IV furosemide. Her vital signs on repeat assessment are as follows: oxygen saturation of 94% on 15L oxygen, heart rate of 124 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 74/50 mmHg. What is the next management option to consider?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inotropic support on the high dependency unit (HDU)
Explanation:For patients with severe left ventricular dysfunction who are experiencing potentially reversible cardiogenic shock with hypotension, inotropic support on the high dependency unit (HDU) should be considered. This is because diuresis, which is the primary aim of management in acute pulmonary oedema, could lower blood pressure further and worsen the shock. Inotropes can help increase cardiac contractility and support blood pressure while diuresis is ongoing.
Biphasic positive airway pressure (BiPAP) is not an immediate consideration for this patient as it is used primarily for non-invasive ventilation in hypoxic and hypercapnic patients. Pulmonary oedema does not typically lead to hypercapnia.
Giving IV fluid for hypotension would not be appropriate as the hypotension is secondary to cardiogenic shock, not hypovolaemic shock. Administering further fluid in this scenario would worsen the patient’s condition by contributing to fluid overload.
Bisoprolol is contraindicated in this scenario as it suppresses the compensatory tachycardia that occurs in acute heart failure to maintain cardiac output, which would worsen the cardiogenic shock. However, outside of an acute scenario, a patient can continue on their routine bisoprolol if they are already prescribed this for heart failure, unless they are bradycardic.
Heart failure requires acute management, with recommended treatments for all patients including IV loop diuretics such as furosemide or bumetanide. Oxygen may also be necessary, with guidelines suggesting oxygen saturations be kept at 94-98%. Vasodilators such as nitrates should not be routinely given to all patients, but may have a role in cases of concomitant myocardial ischaemia, severe hypertension, or regurgitant aortic or mitral valve disease. However, hypotension is a major side-effect/contraindication. Patients with respiratory failure may require CPAP, while those with hypotension or cardiogenic shock may require inotropic agents like dobutamine or vasopressor agents like norepinephrine. Mechanical circulatory assistance such as intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation or ventricular assist devices may also be necessary. Regular medication for heart failure should be continued, with beta-blockers only stopped in certain circumstances. Opiates should not be routinely offered to patients with acute heart failure due to potential increased morbidity.
In summary, acute management of heart failure involves a range of treatments depending on the patient’s specific condition. It is important to carefully consider the potential side-effects and contraindications of each treatment, and to continue regular medication for heart failure where appropriate. Opiates should be used with caution, and only in cases where they are likely to reduce dyspnoea/distress without causing harm. With appropriate management, patients with acute heart failure can receive the care they need to improve their outcomes and quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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