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  • Question 1 - Which of the following combination of symptoms is most consistent with digoxin toxicity?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following combination of symptoms is most consistent with digoxin toxicity?

      Your Answer: Gynaecomastia + blue vision

      Correct Answer: Nausea + yellow / green vision

      Explanation:

      Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and can cause toxicity even when the concentration is within the therapeutic range.

      Toxicity may present with symptoms such as lethargy, nausea, vomiting, confusion, and yellow-green vision. Arrhythmias and gynaecomastia may also occur. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor as it increases the inhibitory effects of digoxin. Other factors include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, and various electrolyte imbalances. Certain drugs, such as amiodarone and verapamil, can also contribute to toxicity.

      If toxicity is suspected, digoxin concentrations should be measured within 8 to 12 hours of the last dose. However, plasma concentration alone doesn’t determine toxicity. Management includes the use of Digibind, correcting arrhythmias, and monitoring potassium levels.

      In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, monitoring, and potential toxicity of digoxin is crucial for its safe and effective use in clinical practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 12-year-old girl presents with a six-month history of intermittent nosebleeds from both...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl presents with a six-month history of intermittent nosebleeds from both nostrils. She has prominent Little’s area vessels on both sides of her nasal septum. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Ear, nose and throat specialist referral

      Correct Answer: Unilateral nasal cautery and antibiotic cream

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Epistaxis (Nosebleeds)

      Epistaxis, or nosebleeds, can be a common occurrence and can often be managed with simple interventions. Here are some treatment options:

      Unilateral Nasal Cautery and Antibiotic Cream
      Chemical cautery using a silver nitrate stick can be used to produce local chemical damage in the mucosa. After cautery, Naseptin® cream should be applied to the nostrils four times daily for ten days. This treatment option is effective for most cases of epistaxis.

      Ear, Nose, and Throat Specialist Referral
      Referral to an ear, nose, and throat specialist should be considered if the person has recurrent episodes of epistaxis and is at high risk of having a serious underlying cause.

      Anterior Nasal Packing
      If bleeding continues despite cautery or if a bleeding point cannot be seen, the nose can be packed with nasal sponges or ribbon gauze.

      Bilateral Nasal Cautery
      Only one side of the septum should be cauterized, as there is a small risk of septal perforation resulting from decreased vascularization to the septal cartilage. A 4–6-week interval between cautery treatments is recommended.

      Iron Tablets
      Iron tablets are not appropriate without a diagnosis of anemia.

      Managing Epistaxis: Treatment Options to Consider

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the primary factor in determining the majority of deaths? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary factor in determining the majority of deaths?

      Your Answer: The absence of vital signs

      Correct Answer: Brain stem tests

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Death: Common Methods

      The diagnosis of death is typically determined by the absence of vital signs, which includes the absence of a pulse, heart sounds, respiratory function, and pupillary light reflex. Brain stem tests are typically only used in cases where organ transplantation may be necessary and the patient is on a ventilator. It is important to note that doctors are typically the ones who diagnose death, not the coroner who provides a verdict on the cause of death. By using these methods, medical professionals can accurately determine when a patient has passed away.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old woman has a two-month history of pain in her right hip...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman has a two-month history of pain in her right hip radiating to her buttock, thigh, calf and ankle. She has a good range of movement in the hip and no focal tenderness.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tronchanteric bursitis (greater trochanteric pain syndrome)

      Correct Answer: Sciatica

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Sciatica from Other Causes of Leg Pain

      Leg pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, and it is important to accurately diagnose the underlying issue in order to provide appropriate treatment. Sciatica is a common cause of leg pain, but it is not a diagnosis in itself. Rather, it is a description of symptoms that can be caused by pressure on the sciatic nerve. Other conditions that can cause leg pain include osteoarthritis of the hip, polymyalgia rheumatica, sacroiliitis, and trochanteric bursitis. Each of these conditions presents with unique symptoms and requires a different approach to treatment. By carefully evaluating a patient’s symptoms and conducting appropriate diagnostic tests, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose the underlying cause of leg pain and provide effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      27.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 12-year-old girl presents with symptoms that meet the criteria for a diagnosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl presents with symptoms that meet the criteria for a diagnosis of mild attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). You are considering referring the child to the Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services (CAMHS). Her father would like information about managing this condition.
      What is the most suitable advice to provide regarding the management of ADHD?

      Your Answer: Methylphenidate (Ritalin®) can be prescribed immediately

      Correct Answer: You can arrange referral to a parent-training programme even before a formal diagnosis

      Explanation:

      Managing Attention-Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD): Myths and Facts

      Attention-Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) is a common neurodevelopmental disorder that affects children and adults. Managing ADHD can be challenging, and there are many myths and misconceptions about the condition and its treatment. Here are some common myths and facts about managing ADHD:

      Myth: Referral to a parent-training program should wait for a formal diagnosis.
      Fact: If the problems are having an adverse impact on development or family life, a General Practitioner should consider referral to a parent-training and/or education program even before a formal diagnosis. The parent program may include skills to manage problem behavior and communicate with the child and help to understand the child’s emotions and behavior.

      Myth: Eliminating artificial coloring and additives from the diet is important.
      Fact: NICE doesn’t recommend this unless there seems to be a link between deterioration in behavior and consumption of artificial additives.

      Myth: A food diary to seek a relationship between specific foods and symptoms is unhelpful.
      Fact: The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) advises that if there seems to be a clear relationship between specific foods and symptoms, parents should keep a diary recording food and drinks taken and behavior. If the diary supports a relationship, then referral to a dietician should be offered.

      Myth: Dietary fatty acid supplements (omega 3 and omega 6) are beneficial.
      Fact: Many parents have experimented with these supplements, but according to NICE guidelines, these should not be routinely recommended.

      Myth: Methylphenidate (Ritalin®) can be prescribed immediately.
      Fact: In more severe attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder or where other measures have not been successful, medication is usually recommended. Drug treatment should not be started in primary care. Methylphenidate (Ritalin®) is the most commonly used drug.

      In conclusion, managing ADHD requires a comprehensive approach that includes parent training, dietary changes, and medication when necessary. It is important to separate myths from facts to ensure that individuals with ADHD receive the best possible care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the accurate statement about the utilization of long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT)...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accurate statement about the utilization of long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) in individuals suffering from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

      Your Answer: Oxygen cylinders should be used to provide LTOT

      Correct Answer: Patients receiving LTOT should breathe supplemental oxygen for at least 15 hours a day

      Explanation:

      Long-Term Oxygen Therapy for COPD Patients

      Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is recommended for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who have severe or very severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, or oxygen saturations less than or equal to 92% on room air. LTOT involves breathing supplementary oxygen for at least 15 hours a day using oxygen concentrators.

      To assess patients for LTOT, arterial blood gases are measured on two occasions at least three weeks apart in patients with stable COPD on optimal management. Patients with a pO2 of less than 7.3 kPa or those with a pO2 of 7.3-8 kPa and secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension should be offered LTOT. However, LTOT should not be offered to people who continue to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation advice and treatment, and referral to specialist stop smoking services.

      Before offering LTOT, a structured risk assessment should be carried out to evaluate the risks of falls from tripping over the equipment, the risks of burns and fires, and the increased risk of these for people who live in homes where someone smokes (including e-cigarettes).

      Overall, LTOT is an important treatment option for COPD patients with severe or very severe airflow obstruction or other related symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
      28.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 40-year-old woman has chronic diarrhoea and is suspected to have irritable bowel...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman has chronic diarrhoea and is suspected to have irritable bowel syndrome. What is the most suitable test to diagnose bile acid malabsorption?

      Your Answer: SeHCAT (tauroselcholic [75 selenium] acid) test

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Bile Acid Malabsorption and Coeliac Disease

      Bile acids play a crucial role in the absorption of lipids, and their malabsorption can lead to gastrointestinal symptoms such as diarrhoea, bloating, and faecal incontinence. Bile acid malabsorption can be classified into three types, with primary idiopathic malabsorption being particularly common in patients with irritable bowel syndrome. Crohn’s disease and certain surgeries or diseases can also cause bile acid malabsorption.

      The SeHCAT test is a diagnostic tool that tracks the retention and loss of bile acids through the enterohepatic circulation. A capsule containing radiolabeled 75 SeHCAT is ingested, and the percentage retention of SeHCAT at seven days is calculated. A value less than 15% indicates excessive bile acid loss and suggests bile acid malabsorption.

      Faecal fat estimation is a standard test for malabsorption, but it is not specific for bile acids. Anti-transglutaminase antibodies are found in coeliac disease, and higher levels of these antibodies suggest a diagnosis of that condition. Small bowel biopsy is performed to confirm a diagnosis of coeliac disease. The urea breath test is a rapid diagnostic procedure used in retesting for infections by Helicobacter pylori, which requires the triple-therapy regimen for treatment.

      In summary, the SeHCAT test, faecal fat estimation, anti-transglutaminase antibodies, small bowel biopsy, and urea breath test are all diagnostic tools that can aid in the diagnosis of bile acid malabsorption and coeliac disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old woman presents to clinic for her routine cervical smear test. She...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to clinic for her routine cervical smear test. She reports no symptoms.
      Upon examination, the smear reveals no signs of dysplasia, however, the pathologist observes the presence of fusiform protozoa in the sample.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Trichomonas vaginalis infection

      Explanation:

      Trichomonas Vaginalis: The Most Common Non-Viral STI Worldwide

      Trichomonas vaginalis is a prevalent non-viral sexually transmitted infection that affects individuals worldwide. It is estimated that up to 20% of cases may be asymptomatic and can only be detected through routine cervical smear tests. However, typical symptoms include a copious frothy green/yellow vaginal discharge accompanied by pruritus. Symptoms tend to peak just after menses.

      Multiple sexual partners are a significant risk factor for contracting Trichomonas vaginalis. Pregnant women who contract the infection are at risk of delivering low birth weight babies and preterm delivery.

      The pathognomonic feature of Trichomonas vaginalis is the presence of fusiform protozoa on cytology. Treatment for this infection is with oral metronidazole. While other conditions can cause vaginitis, the presence of these protozoa is a clear indication of Trichomonas vaginalis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      27.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 2-week-old girl has her hearing checked through the Newborn Hearing Screening program....

    Correct

    • A 2-week-old girl has her hearing checked through the Newborn Hearing Screening program. She had a normal delivery at 40 weeks and was discharged home with her parents. The hearing screening was abnormal and a follow-up test is required to confirm.

      What is the follow-up test needed in this case?

      Your Answer: Auditory brainstem response test

      Explanation:

      If a baby is found to have an abnormal hearing test at birth, they will be offered an auditory brainstem response test as a follow-up. This test involves placing electrodes on the scalp to measure auditory evoked potentials after sounds are played, and can indicate reduced hearing ability if there is no response.

      It is not appropriate to use a distraction test on a newborn, as they are not yet developed enough for this type of testing. This test is typically used for toddlers aged 6-9 months, and requires two staff members to assess the loudness required for the baby to react to sounds produced out of their field of view.

      Newborn otoacoustic emission testing is the initial screening assessment for hearing loss, but further investigations are needed to confirm the diagnosis. This test involves generating a click sound through an earpiece and measuring for the presence of a soft echo that indicates a healthy cochlea.

      Pure tone audiometry is not an appropriate second-line hearing investigation for newborns, as it requires the input of the participant when they hear specific sounds and is typically used in school-aged children.

      Hearing Tests for Children

      Hearing tests are important for children to ensure that they are developing normally. There are several tests that may be performed on children of different ages. For newborns, an otoacoustic emission test is typically done as part of the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme. This test involves playing a computer-generated click through a small earpiece and checking for the presence of a soft echo, which indicates a healthy cochlea. If the results of this test are abnormal, an Auditory Brainstem Response test may be done.

      For infants between 6-9 months, a Distraction test may be performed by a health visitor with the help of two trained staff members. For children between 18 months to 2.5 years, a Recognition of familiar objects test may be used, which involves using familiar objects like a teddy or cup and asking the child simple questions like where is the teddy? For children over 2.5 years, Performance testing and Speech discrimination tests using similar-sounding objects like the Kendall Toy test or McCormick Toy Test may be used. Pure tone audiometry is typically done at school entry in most areas of the UK for children over 3 years old.

      In addition to these tests, there is also a questionnaire for parents in the Personal Child Health Records called Can your baby hear you? This questionnaire can help identify any potential hearing issues in children. Overall, hearing tests are an important part of ensuring that children are developing normally and can help identify any issues early on.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      47.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old patient has a 3-day history of general malaise associated with nausea,...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient has a 3-day history of general malaise associated with nausea, diarrhoea and headache. On examination the patient looks unwell and has red/bluish petechiae on the extensor surfaces of both legs that do not blanch on pressure.
      Select the single most important immediate management option.

      Your Answer: Treatment not indicated

      Correct Answer: Benzylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      Prehospital Antibiotic Treatment for Suspected Meningococcal Infection

      Health authorities in many countries recommend that general practitioners initiate prehospital antibiotic treatment, such as benzylpenicillin, in suspected cases of meningococcal infection. The primary objective of this strategy is to halt the rapid growth of meningococci in the bloodstream before intravascular inflammation becomes irreversible or causes severe complications. Patients who live far from the hospital and experience rapidly progressing symptoms, resulting in compromised circulation and extensive haemorrhagic skin lesions, are most likely to benefit from this approach if implemented early enough. Retrospective studies conducted in England and Wales indicate that prehospital penicillin treatment can reduce case fatality. In cases of penicillin allergy, cefotaxime is a viable alternative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      79.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular Health (0/1) 0%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (0/1) 0%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal Health (0/1) 0%
Children And Young People (1/2) 50%
People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology And Breast (1/1) 100%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (0/1) 0%
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