00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old woman with a history of multiple gallstones is presenting with jaundice...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with a history of multiple gallstones is presenting with jaundice due to a common bile duct obstruction caused by a large stone. What biochemical abnormalities are expected to be observed in this patient?

      Your Answer: Decreased plasma conjugated bilirubin

      Correct Answer: Decreased stercobilin in the stool

      Explanation:

      Effects of Biliary Tree Obstruction on Bilirubin Metabolism

      Biliary tree obstruction can have various effects on bilirubin metabolism. One of the consequences is a decrease in stercobilin in the stool, which can lead to clay-colored stools. Additionally, there is an increase in urobilinogen in the urine due to less bilirubin in the intestine. However, there is a decrease in urobilinogen in the urine due to reduced excretion. The plasma bilirubin level is increased, leading to jaundice. Finally, there is an increase in plasma conjugated bilirubin, which is water-soluble and can be excreted by the kidneys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - As a doctor in the emergency department, you are asked to assess a...

    Incorrect

    • As a doctor in the emergency department, you are asked to assess a 37-year-old man who is experiencing worsening pain in his left knee. He is unable to bear weight on the affected leg and reports no injury or trauma. The patient is a known IV drug user and has no known drug allergies or regular medications. On examination, the knee is swollen and hot to touch. His vital signs are heart rate 107 bpm, respiratory rate 18 breaths/minute, oxygen saturations 95%, blood pressure 106/65mmHg, and temperature 38.9ºC. Blood tests reveal elevated levels of Hb, WBC, CRP, and ESR. The synovial fluid culture grows Staphylococcus aureus. What is the most appropriate first-line IV antibiotic therapy for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vancomycin

      Correct Answer: Flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      Septic arthritis is likely in an intravenous drug user presenting with an acute, swollen and hot knee, accompanied by fever, inability to weight-bare, and raised inflammatory markers. The Kocher criteria can assist in confirming this diagnosis. According to the BNF, the preferred initial intravenous antibiotic is flucloxacillin, which targets gram-positive cocci and is commonly used for musculoskeletal and soft tissue infections in patients without allergies. Clindamycin may be an alternative, but only for those with a penicillin allergy.

      Septic Arthritis in Adults: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Septic arthritis is a condition that occurs when bacteria infect a joint, leading to inflammation and pain. The most common organism that causes septic arthritis in adults is Staphylococcus aureus, but in young adults who are sexually active, Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most common organism. The infection usually spreads through the bloodstream from a distant bacterial infection, such as an abscess. The knee is the most common location for septic arthritis in adults. Symptoms include an acute, swollen joint, restricted movement, warmth to the touch, and fever.

      To diagnose septic arthritis, synovial fluid sampling is necessary and should be done before administering antibiotics if necessary. Blood cultures may also be taken to identify the cause of the infection. Joint imaging may also be used to confirm the diagnosis.

      Treatment for septic arthritis involves intravenous antibiotics that cover Gram-positive cocci. Flucloxacillin or clindamycin is recommended if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Antibiotic treatment is typically given for several weeks, and patients are usually switched to oral antibiotics after two weeks. Needle aspiration may be used to decompress the joint, and arthroscopic lavage may be required in some cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      73.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 61-year-old man undergoes a laparotomy for bowel obstruction. On postoperative day 2,...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man undergoes a laparotomy for bowel obstruction. On postoperative day 2, while walking in the hallway he experiences a sudden sharp pain and tearing sensation in his lower abdomen. Physical examination of the abdomen reveals separated wound margins with a tiny gaping area and splitting of the sutures in the lower half of the incision. His vital measurements indicate a blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg, and a heart rate of 96 beats per minute.

      What is the best initial step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Surgical management in theatre

      Correct Answer: Cover with sterile saline-soaked gauze + IV antibiotics

      Explanation:

      The initial management of abdominal wound dehiscence involves covering the wound with saline impregnated gauze and administering IV broad-spectrum antibiotics. Bedside suturing should be avoided to prevent further infections. Blood grouping and cross-match followed by blood transfusion is not necessary at this stage as the patient is not actively bleeding and vital measurements are stable. Manual reduction with sterile gloves is not recommended as it can cause damage to the gut loops. If necessary, arrangements for a return to the operation theatre should be made.

      Abdominal wound dehiscence is a serious issue that surgeons who perform abdominal surgery frequently encounter. It occurs when all layers of an abdominal mass closure fail, resulting in the protrusion of the viscera externally. This condition is associated with a 30% mortality rate and can be classified as either superficial or complete, depending on the extent of the wound failure.

      Several factors increase the risk of abdominal wound dehiscence, including malnutrition, vitamin deficiencies, jaundice, steroid use, major wound contamination (such as faecal peritonitis), and poor surgical technique. To prevent this condition, the preferred method is the mass closure technique, also known as the Jenkins Rule.

      When sudden full dehiscence occurs, the wound should be covered with saline impregnated gauze, and the patient should receive IV broad-spectrum antibiotics, analgesia, and IV fluids. Arrangements should also be made for a return to the operating theatre.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      51.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 38-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations that began...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations that began a few hours ago. Her heart rate is 180/min and an ECG reveals atrial fibrillation. The attending cardiologist plans to use flecainide to pharmacologically convert the patient back to sinus rhythm. What pre-treatment measure should be taken before administering flecainide?

      Your Answer: Urea and electrolytes

      Correct Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      Before using flecainide for atrial fibrillation, signs of structural heart disease should be checked.

      Understanding Flecainide: A Class 1c Antiarrhythmic

      Flecainide is a type of antiarrhythmic medication that belongs to the Vaughan Williams class 1c. It works by blocking the Nav1.5 sodium channels, which slows down the conduction of the action potential. This can cause the QRS complex to widen and the PR interval to prolong. Flecainide is commonly used to treat atrial fibrillation and SVT associated with accessory pathway, such as Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.

      However, it is important to note that Flecainide is contraindicated in certain situations. For example, it should not be used in patients who have recently experienced a myocardial infarction or have structural heart disease, such as heart failure. It is also not recommended for patients with sinus node dysfunction or second-degree or greater AV block, as well as those with atrial flutter.

      While Flecainide can be effective in treating certain arrhythmias, it can also have adverse effects. It may cause negative inotropic effects, which can affect the heart’s ability to contract. It can also cause bradycardia, or a slow heart rate, and may even lead to proarrhythmic effects. Some patients may also experience oral paraesthesia or visual disturbances.

      In summary, Flecainide is a class 1c antiarrhythmic medication that works by blocking sodium channels. It is commonly used to treat atrial fibrillation and SVT associated with accessory pathway. However, it is contraindicated in certain situations and can have adverse effects. Patients should always consult with their healthcare provider before taking any medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 49-year-old woman has been newly diagnosed with breast cancer. She receives a...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman has been newly diagnosed with breast cancer. She receives a wide-local excision and subsequently undergoes whole-breast radiotherapy. The pathology report reveals that the tumour is negative for HER2 but positive for oestrogen receptor. She has a medical history of hypertension and premature ovarian failure. What adjuvant treatment is she expected to receive?

      Your Answer: Tamoxifen

      Correct Answer: Anastrozole

      Explanation:

      Anastrozole is the correct adjuvant hormonal therapy for postmenopausal women with ER+ breast cancer. This is because the tumour is positive for oestrogen receptors and negative for HER2 receptors, and aromatase inhibitors are the preferred treatment for postmenopausal women due to the majority of oestrogen production being through aromatisation. Goserelin is used for ovarian suppression in premenopausal women, while Herceptin is used for HER2 positive tumours. Imatinib is not used in breast cancer management.

      Breast cancer management varies depending on the stage of the cancer, type of tumor, and patient’s medical history. Treatment options may include surgery, radiotherapy, hormone therapy, biological therapy, and chemotherapy. Surgery is typically the first option for most patients, except for elderly patients with metastatic disease who may benefit more from hormonal therapy. Prior to surgery, an axillary ultrasound is recommended for patients without palpable axillary lymphadenopathy, while those with clinically palpable lymphadenopathy require axillary node clearance. The type of surgery offered depends on various factors, such as tumor size, location, and type. Breast reconstruction is also an option for patients who have undergone a mastectomy.

      Radiotherapy is recommended after a wide-local excision to reduce the risk of recurrence, while mastectomy patients may receive radiotherapy for T3-T4 tumors or those with four or more positive axillary nodes. Hormonal therapy is offered if tumors are positive for hormone receptors, with tamoxifen being used in pre- and perimenopausal women and aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole in postmenopausal women. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer, venous thromboembolism, and menopausal symptoms. Biological therapy, such as trastuzumab, is used for HER2-positive tumors but cannot be used in patients with a history of heart disorders. Chemotherapy may be used before or after surgery, depending on the stage of the tumor and the presence of axillary node disease. FEC-D is commonly used in the latter case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old female patient complains of a painful red eye with a tearing...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female patient complains of a painful red eye with a tearing sensation. On a scale of 1 to 10, she rates the pain as 7. She mentions that she wears contact lenses regularly. What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Same-day ophthalmology referral

      Explanation:

      If a contact lens wearer experiences a painful red eye, it is important to refer them to an eye casualty immediately to rule out microbial keratitis. Due to the complexity of assessing red eye in contact lens wearers, a specialist should assess the patient on the same day to determine the cause and provide appropriate treatment. While acyclovir is effective in treating viral keratitis, other microbes may be responsible for this condition. Therefore, specialist referral is necessary. The patient should be advised to temporarily discontinue contact lens use and practice good hygiene. Reassurance is not appropriate as microbial keratitis can lead to vision loss if left untreated. It is important to make an urgent referral, which is typically offered to suspected cancer patients within two weeks.

      Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea

      Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.

      Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.

      Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old patient presents to her doctor with complaints of excessive sweating and...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old patient presents to her doctor with complaints of excessive sweating and feeling very warm. Upon examination, no significant thyroid nodule is observed. The patient's blood tests reveal the following results:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) < 0.1 µU/l 0.4–4.0 µU/l
      Free thyroxine (T4) 30 pmol/l 10–20 pmol/l
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Graves’ disease

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Disorders: Causes and Symptoms

      Thyroid disorders are common and can cause a range of symptoms. Here are some of the most common thyroid disorders and their associated symptoms:

      1. Graves’ disease: This is the most common cause of thyrotoxicosis in the UK. Symptoms include a low TSH and an elevated T4.

      2. De Quervain’s thyroiditis: This is a subacute thyroiditis that can cause hypothyroidism.

      3. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis: This is an autoimmune disorder that is associated with hypothyroidism.

      4. Toxic multinodular goitre: There is insufficient information to suggest that the patient has this condition.

      5. Thyroid adenoma: Patients usually present with a neck lump, which is not seen in this case.

      If you are experiencing any symptoms of a thyroid disorder, it is important to speak with your healthcare provider for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      31.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of worsening upper abdominal pain, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. The pain is exacerbated by meals, and he is unable to tolerate oral intake.
      Upon examination, the patient appears distressed and in pain. His vital signs are as follows:
      Temperature: 38.2 ℃
      Heart rate: 110 beats/minute
      Respiratory rate: 20/min
      Blood pressure: 130/90 mmHg
      Oxygen saturation: 98% on room air
      There is tenderness in the right upper quadrant of his abdomen, but no distension, guarding, or rigidity on light palpation. Murphy's sign is negative. The sclera of his eyes has a yellow tinge.
      Blood lab results are as follows:
      Hb 130 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 180 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 15 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Bilirubin 30 µmol/L (3 - 17)
      ALP 360 u/L (30 - 100)
      ALT 40 u/L (3 - 40)
      γGT 50 u/L (8 - 60)
      Albumin 38 g/L (35 - 50)
      An ultrasound of the right upper quadrant reveals dilated intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts and multiple hyperechoic spheres within the gallbladder. The patient is started on IV antibiotics and fluid resuscitation, but his condition remains critical.
      What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Laparoscopic cholecystectomy

      Correct Answer: Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)

      Explanation:

      Ascending cholangitis patients are typically recommended to undergo ERCP within 24-48 hours of diagnosis to alleviate any obstructions. This patient displays Charcot’s triad, leukocytosis, and elevated markers of cholestasis, as well as an ultrasound confirming acute ascending cholangitis. ERCP is the preferred treatment for acute cholangitis, with elective ERCP being performed after clinical improvement in mild cases and immediate ERCP in severe cases. While MRCP can assess biliary tree obstructions, it does not provide therapeutic drainage. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy is not recommended for septic patients and is only indicated once sepsis has been resolved, as it does not remove gallstones in the common bile duct.

      Understanding Ascending Cholangitis

      Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.

      To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.

      Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      139.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old male presents with persistent hypertension, with a blood pressure consistently above...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male presents with persistent hypertension, with a blood pressure consistently above 170/100 mmHg. He has a history of asthma and is currently being treated with PRN salbutamol and Seretide. Which of the following antihypertensive medications should be avoided due to contraindications?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Correct Answer: Atenolol

      Explanation:

      Beta Blockers and Bronchospasm

      Bronchospasm is a known adverse effect of beta-adrenoceptor blocking medications. The British National Formulary (BNF) advises against administering beta blockers, even those classified as cardioselective, to patients with a history of asthma or bronchospasm. This recommendation is based on the potential for beta blockers to exacerbate bronchospasm, which can lead to respiratory distress and other complications.

      To summarise, beta blockers should be used with caution in patients with a history of asthma or bronchospasm due to the risk of worsening respiratory symptoms. Healthcare providers should carefully evaluate the potential benefits and risks of beta blocker therapy in these patients and consider alternative treatments if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - As a healthcare professional in a bustling emergency department, a concerned mother rushes...

    Incorrect

    • As a healthcare professional in a bustling emergency department, a concerned mother rushes in with her 4-year-old son. The child has been crying excessively for the past 12 hours and has experienced bilious vomiting multiple times. Additionally, he passed a stool containing small amounts of blood about 2 hours ago. What initial investigation would you conduct to determine the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: X-Ray

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Intussusception is best diagnosed using ultrasound, which is the preferred method due to its non-invasive nature, patient comfort, and high sensitivity.

      Understanding Intussusception

      Intussusception is a medical condition that occurs when one part of the bowel folds into the lumen of the adjacent bowel, usually around the ileo-caecal region. This condition is most common in infants between 6-18 months old, with boys being affected twice as often as girls. The symptoms of intussusception include severe, crampy abdominal pain that comes and goes, inconsolable crying, vomiting, and blood stained stool, which is a late sign. During a paroxysm, the infant will typically draw their knees up and turn pale, and a sausage-shaped mass may be felt in the right upper quadrant.

      To diagnose intussusception, ultrasound is now the preferred method of investigation, as it can show a target-like mass. Treatment for intussusception involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation under radiological control, which is now widely used as a first-line treatment instead of the traditional barium enema. If this method fails, or the child shows signs of peritonitis, surgery is performed.

      In summary, intussusception is a medical condition that affects infants and involves the folding of one part of the bowel into the lumen of the adjacent bowel. It is characterized by severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and blood stained stool, among other symptoms. Ultrasound is the preferred method of diagnosis, and treatment involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation or surgery if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      23.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Surgery (0/3) 0%
Pharmacology (0/2) 0%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Passmed