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Question 1
Incorrect
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Concerning the anterior pituitary gland, one of following is true.
Your Answer: Produces hormones which share a common beta sub-unit
Correct Answer: Produces glycoproteins
Explanation:The posterior pituitary and the hypothalamus are connected by the pituitary stalk. It contains in the pituitary sella and has the optic chiasm and hypothalamus as superior relations.
The anterior pituitary produces thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) . These hormones are Glycoproteins and share a common alpha subunit with unique beta subunits.
The secretion of pituitary hormones are pulsatile. Examples are LH, adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and growth hormone (GH).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 2
Correct
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Regarding adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) one of these is true.
Your Answer: Is increased in the maternal plasma in pregnancy
Explanation:ACTH production is stimulated through the secretion of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) from the hypothalamic nuclei.
ACTH secretion has a circadian rhythm. A high level of cortisol in the body stops its production. ACTH is secreted maximally in the morning and concentrations are lowest at midnight.
ACTH can be expressed in the placenta, the pituitary and other tissues.
Conditions where ACTH concentrations rise include: stress, disease and pregnancy.
Glucocorticoids (not mineralocorticoids – aldosterone) switch off ACTH production through a negative feedback loop .
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 3
Correct
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Which of the following descriptions best describes enflurane and isoflurane?
Your Answer: Have the same molecular formula but different structural formulae
Explanation:Structural isomers have a similar molecular formula, but they have a different structural formula as their atoms are arranged in a different manner. Such small changes lead to the differential pharmacological activity. Enflurane and isoflurane are two prime examples of structural isomers.
Stereoisomers are those substances that have a similar molecular and structural formula, but the arrangement spatially of atoms are different and have optical activity.
Enantiomers are a pair of stereoisomers, which are non-superimposable mirror images of each other. They also have chiral centres of molecular symmetry. Ketamine is considered as an example of racemic mixture (contain 50% R and 50% S enantiomers)
Geometric isomers contain a carbon-carbon double bond (i.e. C=C) or a rigid carbon-carbon single bond in a heterocyclic ring. Cis-atracurium is one example.
Dynamic isomers or Tautomers are a pait of unstable structural isomers, which are present in equilibrium. One isomer can easily change after the change in pH. Midazolam and thiopentone are their examples.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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What is the primary purpose of funnel plots?
Your Answer: Demonstrate the heterogeneity of a meta-analysis
Correct Answer: Demonstrate the existence of publication bias in meta-analyses
Explanation:Funnel plot is essentially a scatterplot of the effect of treatment against a particular measure of study precision. Its primal purpose is to serve as a visual aid and help in detection of bias or systematic heterogenity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 5
Correct
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The following are the pharmacodynamic properties of a neuromuscular blocking agent: Effective dose 95 (ED95) - 0.3 mg/kg, Time to 95% depression of first twitch of train of four (ToF) - 75 seconds, Time to 25% recovery of first twitch of train of four (ToF) - 33 minutes. Which of the following statements about this neuromuscular blocking agent is the most accurate?
Your Answer: Can be reversed by a modified gamma-cyclodextrin
Explanation:The aminosteroid rocuronium is the neuromuscular blocking agent in question.
0.3 mg/kg is the effective dose 95 (ED95) (the dose required to depress the twitch height by 95 percent )
The dose for intubation is 0.6 mg/kg.
75 seconds is the time it takes to reach 95 percent depression of the first twitch of the train of four (ToF) or the onset time.
The clinical duration or time to 25% recovery of the first twitch of the train of four (ToF) is 33 minutes.A modified cyclodextrin can quickly reverse both rocuronium and vecuronium (sugammadex).
It is more fat-soluble than vecuronium, with the liver absorbing the majority of the drug and excreting it in the bile. The only metabolite found in the blood (17-desacetylrocuronium) is 20 times less potent than the parent drug and is unlikely to cause neuromuscular block.
Despite its quick onset of action (60-90 seconds), suxamethonium arguably is still the neuromuscular blocker of choice for a quick sequence induction. Rocuronium is becoming increasingly popular for this purpose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Correct
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Over the course of 10 minutes, a normally fit and well 22-year-old male receives a 1 litre intravenous bolus of 20% albumin. Which of the following primary physiological responses in this patient has the highest chance to influence a change in urine output?
Your Answer: Stimulation of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) secretion
Explanation:The renal effects of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) secretion are as follows:
Increased glomerular filtration rate by dilating the afferent glomerular arteriole. Moreover, it constricts the efferent glomerular arteriole, and relaxes the mesangial cells.
Reduces sodium reabsorption in the collecting ducts and distal convoluted tubule.
The renin-angiotensin system (RAS) is inhibited.
Blood flow in the vasa recta is increased.Because plasma osmolality is unlikely to change, hypothalamic osmoreceptors are unaffected.
The plasma protein has a molecular weight of 66 kDa, is not normally filtered into the proximal convoluted tubule, and has no osmotic diuretic effect.
The following are some basic assumptions:
Extracellular fluid (ECF) makes up one-third of total body water (TBW), while intracellular fluid makes up the other two-thirds (ICF)
One-quarter plasma and three-quarters interstitial fluid make up ECF (ISF)
The volume receptors in the atria have a 7-10% blood volume change threshold.
The osmoreceptors are sensitive to changes in osmolality of 1-2 percent.
The normal plasma osmolality before the transfusion is 287-290 mOsm/kg.
The plasma protein solution is a colloid that is only delivered to the intravascular compartment. The tonicity remains unchanged.
The blood volume increases by 20%, from 5,000 mls to 6,000 mls. This is higher than the volume receptor threshold of 7 to 10%. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 7
Correct
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A man suffers damage to his vagus nerve during surgery on his neck. The vagus nerve is cut near its exit from the skull. The man loses his parasympathetic tone raising his heart rate and blood pressure. What other feature will be likely present with a vagus nerve injury?
Your Answer: Hoarse voice
Explanation:The vagus nerve is a mixed nerve with both autonomic and somatic effects. Its most important somatic effect is the motor supply to the larynx via recurrent laryngeal nerves. If one vagus nerve is damaged, the result will be the same as damage to a single recurrent laryngeal nerve, leading to hoarseness of voice.
The vagus exits the skull via the jugular foramen, accompanied by the accessory nerve.
Anal tone, erections, and urination are all controlled by the sacral parasympathetic and would not be affected by the loss of the vagus. Parasympathetic controlled pupillary constriction is via the oculomotor nerve and would not be affected by the loss of the vagus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 8
Correct
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A common renal adverse effect of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs is?
Your Answer: Haemodynamic renal insufficiency
Explanation:Prostaglandins do not play a major role in regulating RBF in healthy resting individuals. However, during pathophysiological conditions such as haemorrhage and reduced extracellular fluid volume (ECVF), prostaglandins (PGI2, PGE1, and PGE2) are produced locally within the kidneys and serve to increase RBF without changing GFR. Prostaglandins increase RBF by dampening the vasoconstrictor effects of both sympathetic activation and angiotensin II. These effects are important because they prevent severe and potentially harmful vasoconstriction and renal ischemia. Synthesis of prostaglandins is stimulated by ECVF depletion and stress (e.g. surgery, anaesthesia), angiotensin II, and sympathetic nerves.
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), such as ibuprofen and naproxen, potently inhibit prostaglandin synthesis. Thus administration of these drugs during renal ischemia and hemorrhagic shock is contraindicated because, by blocking the production of prostaglandins, they decrease RBF and increase renal ischemia. Prostaglandins also play an increasingly important role in maintaining RBF and GFR as individuals age. Accordingly, NSAIDs can significantly reduce RBF and GFR in the elderly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 77-year-old man, is scheduled for an angiogram to investigate gastro-intestinal bleeding. The radiologist performing the angiogram inserts the catheter into the coeliac axis. What level of the vertebrae does the coeliac axis normally arise from the aorta?
Your Answer: T12
Explanation:The coeliac axis refers to one of the splanchnic arteries located within the abdomen.
It arises from the aorta almost horizontally at the level of the T12 vertebrae.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 10
Correct
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A 64-year old male has shortness of breath on exertion and presented to the cardiology clinic. He has a transthoracic echo performed to help in assessing the function of his heart. How can this echo aid in calculating cardiac output?
Your Answer: (end diastolic LV volume - end systolic LV volume) x heart rate
Explanation:Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate
Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%
Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume
Pulse pressure = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure
Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
-a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
-increased stroke volume -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 11
Correct
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Which of the following statements is true regarding dopamine?
Your Answer: It can increase or decrease cAMP levels
Explanation:Dopamine (DA) is a dopaminergic (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic α and β1 (but not β2 ) agonist.
The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of a low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP). This increases g.f.r. In addition, DA exerts a natriuretic effect by D1 receptors on proximal tubular cells.
Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (direct β1 and D1 action + that due to NA release), but the little chronotropic effect on the heart.
Vasoconstriction (α1 action) occurs only when large doses are infused.
At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP. It has practically no effect on nonvascular α and β receptors; does not penetrate the blood-brain barrier€”no CNS effects.
Dopamine is used in patients with cardiogenic or septic shock and severe CHF wherein it increases BP and urine outflow.
It is administered by i.v. infusion (0.2€“1 mg/min) which is regulated by monitoring BP and rate of urine formation
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Correct
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In a normal healthy adult breathing 100 percent oxygen, which of the following is the most likely cause of an alveolar-arterial (A-a) oxygen difference of 30 kPa?
Your Answer: Atelectasis
Explanation:The ‘ideal’ alveolar PO2 minus arterial PO2 is the alveolar-arterial (A-a) oxygen difference.
The ‘ideal’ alveolar PO2 is derived from the alveolar air equation and is the PO2 that the lung would have if there was no ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) inequality and it was exchanging gas at the same respiratory exchange ratio as real lung.
The amount of oxygen in the blood is measured directly in the arteries.
The A-a oxygen difference (or gradient) is a useful measure of shunt and V/Q mismatch, and it is less than 2 kPa in normal adults breathing air (15 mmHg). Because the shunt component is not corrected, the A-a difference increases when breathing 100 percent oxygen, and it can be up to 15 kPa (115 mmHg).
An abnormally low or abnormally high V/Q ratio within the lung can cause an increased A-a difference, though the former is more common. Atelectasis, which results in a low V/Q ratio, is the most likely cause of an A-a difference in a healthy adult breathing 100 percent oxygen.
Hypoventilation may cause an increase in alveolar (and thus arterial) CO2, lowering alveolar PO2 according to the alveolar air equation.
The alveolar PO2 is also reduced at high altitude.
Healthy people are unlikely to have a right-to-left shunt or an oxygen transport diffusion defect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 13
Correct
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The clavipectoral fascia is penetrated by the cephalic vein to terminate in which of the listed veins?
Your Answer: Axillary
Explanation:The cephalic vein is a superficial vein that runs through the forearm and the arm, before draining into the axillary vein where it terminates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 14
Correct
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What is the number of valves between the superior vena cava and the right atrium?
Your Answer: None
Explanation:The inflow of blood from the superior vena cava is directed towards the right atrioventricular orifice. It returns deoxygenated blood from all structures superior to the diaphragm, except the lungs and heart.
There are no valves in the superior vena cava which is why it is relatively easy to insert a CVP line from the internal jugular vein into the right atrium. The brachiocephalic vein is similar as it also has no valves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 15
Correct
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Conclusive evidence suggests that rate for the prevalence of schizophrenia in United Kingdom is around 1%. Which term can be used to describe that?
Your Answer: Endemic
Explanation:An epidemic is declared when the increase in a give disease is above a certain level in a specific interval of time.
An endemic is the general, usual level of a disease in a population at a particular time.
A pandemic is an epidemic that is spread across many countries and continents.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 16
Correct
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The following statements are about burns patients. Which one is true?
Your Answer: High protein diets may improve survival
Explanation:Patients who have sustained thermal injuries are at high risk of becoming hypercatabolic with larger cardiac outputs and oxygen consumptions.
The hypermetabolic states increase with an increase in the burn severity and surface area of the skin affected. A patient with thermal injuries affecting 60% of the total surface area of the body will have twice the normal metabolic rate.
The optimal temperature for nursing patients with burn injuries is 30°C to conserve the energy usage. The areas affected by the burn injuries should be covered to reduce loss of fluid via evaporation. Resetting hypothalamic thermoregulation will cause a 1-2°C increase in core temperature.
Burn injuries will have an immediate effect on the intestine, destroying the barrier function and allowing for the movement of bacteria and endotoxins within hours.
Enteral nutrition allows for the delivery of nutrients directly to the stomach or intestine. It has correlation with a dampened hypermetabolic response to a thermal and injury, especially when initiated early as it helps to protect the integrity of the mucosal lining and prevents the movement of bacteria into circulation.
Diet changes have been linked to reduced mortality due to burn injuries. Diets high in protein especially (calorie: nitrogen ratio of 100: 1), have the highest correlation with improved survival rates.
Parenteral feeds may be required alongside enteral nutrition, even with the increased risks of infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 17
Correct
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Which of the following best explains the statement Epinephrine is formulated as 1 in 1000 solution
Your Answer: 1000 mg per 1000 ml solution
Explanation:The statement Epinephrine is formulated as 1 in 1000 solution means 1 gm epinephrine is present in 1000 ml of solution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 4-year-old boy with status epilepticus was brought to ER and has already received two doses of intravenous lorazepam but is still continuing to have seizures. Which of the following drug would be best for his treatment?
Your Answer: Phenytoin 20 mg/kg IV
Explanation:When the convulsion lasts for five or more than five minutes, or if there are recurrent episodes of convulsions in a 5 minute period without returning to the baseline, it is termed as Status Epilepticus.
The first priority in the patient with seizures is maintaining the airway, breathing, and circulation.Guideline for the management of Status Epilepticus in children by Advanced Life Support Group is as follow:
Step 1 (Five minutes after the start of seizures):
If intravascular access is available start treatment with lorazepam 0.1 mg/kg IV
If no intravascular access then give buccal midazolam 0.5 mg/kg or rectal diazepam 0.5 mg/kg.Step 2 (Ten minutes after the start of seizure):
If the convulsions continue then a second dose of benzodiazepine should be given. Senior should be called on-site and phenytoin should be prepared.
No more than two doses or benzodiazepines should be given (including any doses given before arrival at the hospital)
If still no IV access then obtain intraosseous access (IO).Step 3 (Ten minutes after step 2)
Senior help along with anaesthetic/ICU help should be sought
Phenytoin 20 mg/kg IV over 20 minutes
If the seizure stops before the full dose of phenytoin is given then the infusion should be completed as this provides up to 24 hours of anticonvulsant effect
In children already receiving phenytoin as treatment for epilepsy then an alternative is phenobarbitone 20 mg/kg IV over five minutes
Once the phenytoin is started, senior staff may wish to give rectal paraldehyde 0.4 mg/kg although this is no longer included in the routine algorithm recommended by APLS.Step 4 (20 minutes after step 3)
If 20 minutes after starting phenytoin the child remains in status epilepticus then rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia with thiopentone and a short acting paralysing agent is needed and the child transferred to paediatric intensive care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of the following antiplatelet drugs would be best for rapid offset action?
Your Answer: Tirofiban
Correct Answer: Epoprostenol
Explanation:Epoprostenol has a half-life of only 42 seconds and has rapid offset. It is used for the treatment of pulmonary hypertension.
Aspirin inhibits the COX enzyme irreversibly. It inhibits thromboxane synthesis but does not inhibit the enzyme thromboxane synthetase.
Ticlopidine, clopidogrel and prasugrel act as irreversible antagonists of P2 Y12 receptor of Adenosine Diphosphate (ADP). These drugs interfere with the activation of platelets by ADP and fibrinogen. Both aspirin and clopidogrel act irreversibly so they are not correct.
Paclitaxel is a long-acting antiproliferative agent used for the prevention of restenosis (recurrent narrowing) of coronary and peripheral stents and is not the correct answer.
Tirofiban has the next shortest duration of action after epoprostenol. If epoprostenol is not given in the question, it would be the best answer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Correct
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A normal woman at term, not in labour, has her arterial blood gas analysed. Which set of results is most likely her own? Option - pH - PaCO2 - HCO3 - PaO2. A: 7.35 - 28 mmHg (3.73 kPa) - 27 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa), B: 7.43 - 32 mmHg (4.27 kPa) - 21 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa), C: 7.44 - 36 mmHg (4.8 kPa) - 27 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa), D: 7.45 - 40 mmHg (5.33 kPa) - 21 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa), E - 7.46 - 44 mmHg (5.87kPa) - 21 mmol/L - 104 mmHg (13.8kPa).
Your Answer: B
Explanation:Due to an increased tidal volume with little change or slight increase in respiratory rate, Minute ventilation at term is increased by about 50%. Hypothalamic function are thought to influence by Progesterone, oestradiol and prostaglandins. This causes a mild compensated respiratory alkalosis.
Maternal PaCO2 is usually decreased to about 32 mmHg (4.27 kPa) as a result of this increased alveolar ventilation at term . A compensatory decrease in serum bicarbonate from 27 to 21 mmol/L by renal excretion lessens the impact of maternal alkalosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 21
Correct
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Which of the following options is correct regarding the coagulation pathway?
Your Answer: Tissue factor released by damaged tissue initiates the extrinsic pathway
Explanation:The extrinsic pathway is considered as the main pathway of coagulation cascade.
Heparin is known to inhibit the activation of coagulation factors 2,9,10, and 11.
The extrinsic and intrinsic pathways meet at the activation of coagulation factor 10.
Fibrinogen is converted into Fibrin in the presence of Thrombin. Plasminogen is converted into plasmin during fibrinolysis to breakdown fibrin clot.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 22
Correct
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Which one of the following causes vasoconstriction?
Your Answer: Angiotensin II
Explanation:Prostacyclin is a strong vasodilator. It is administered as an intravenous infusion for critical ischemia. Commercially, it is available as sodium epoprodtenol.
Atrial Natriuretic peptide (ANP) hormone secreted from the atria, kidney, and neural tissues. It primarily acts on renal vessel to maintain normal blood pressure and reduce plasma volume by: increasing the renal excretion of salt and water, glomerular filtration rate, vasodilation, and by increasing the vascular permeability. It also inhibits the release of renin and aldosterone.
Indoramin is an alpha-adrenoceptor blocking agent. which act selectively on post-synaptic-alpha adrenoreceptor, leading to decease in peripheral resistance.
Angiotensin II is a vasoconstrictor, causing high sodium retention. It also increases the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and aldosterone level.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 57-year old woman, presents to her general practitioner. She has a 2 week history of a vaginal hysterectomy for which she was placed under general anaesthesia. On examination, she has notable weakness of dorsiflexion of her left foot and a high stepping gait. Which nerve was most likely injured during her surgery?
Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve
Explanation:The common peroneal (fibular) nerve is a peripheral nerve in the lower limb. It arises of the L4-S2 nerve roots and has sensory and motor innervations:
Sensory: Provides innervation of the lateral leg and foot dorsum.
Motor: Provides innervation of the short head of the biceps femoris, as well as muscles of the anterior and lateral leg compartments.
It is the most commonly damaged nerve in the lower extremity, as it is easily compressed by a plaster cast or injured when the fibula is fractured.
Damage to the common peroneal nerve will result in loss of dorsiflexion at ankle (footdrop, as feet are permanently plantarflexed), with the accompanying high stepping gait.
The saphenous and sural nerve only provide sensory innervation.
The tibial nerve arises from the sciatic nerve (like the common peroneal), but it provides motor innervation to the posterior leg compartments and intrinsic foot muscles. Injury to the tibial nerve will cause loss of plantar flexion, toe flexion and weakened foot inversion.
Extreme hip flexion into the lithotomy or Lloyd-Davies position can result in stretch damage to the neurones (sciatic and obturator nerves) or by applying direct pressure (femoral nerve compression).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 24
Correct
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Following a near drowning accident, a 5-year-old child is admitted to the emergency department and advanced paediatric life support is started. What is the child's approximate weight, according to the preferred formulae of the Resuscitation Council (UK), the European Resuscitation Council, and the Royal College of Anaesthetists?
Your Answer: 20-25kg
Explanation:For estimating a child’s weight, the Resuscitation Council (UK) and European Resuscitation Council teach the following formula:
Weight = (age + 4) × 2
The weight of the child will be around 20 kg.
This formula is used in the Primary FRCA exam by the Royal College of Anaesthetists.
In ‘developed’ countries, the traditional ‘APLS formula’ for estimating weight in children based on age (wt in kg = [age+4] x 2) is acknowledged as underestimating weight by 33.4 percent on average, with the degree of underestimation increasing with increasing age.
However, more recently, the APLS formula ‘Weight=3(age)+7’ has been found to provide a mean underestimate of only 6.9%. This formula is applicable to children aged 1 to 13 years.
The estimated weight based on age using this formula is 25 kg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 25
Correct
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Given the following values: Expired tidal volume = 800 ml, Plateau pressure = 50 cmH2O, PEEP = 10 cmH2O. Compute for the static pulmonary compliance.
Your Answer: 20 ml/cmH2O
Explanation:Compliance of the respiratory system describes the expandability of the lungs and chest wall. There are two types of compliance: dynamic and static.
Dynamic compliance describes the compliance measured during breathing, which involves a combination of lung compliance and airway resistance. Defined as the change in lung volume per unit change in pressure in the presence of flow.
Static compliance describes pulmonary compliance when there is no airflow, like an inspiratory pause. Defined as the change in lung volume per unit change in pressure in the absence of flow.
For example, if a person was to fill the lung with pressure and then not move it, the pressure would eventually decrease; this is the static compliance measurement. Dynamic compliance is measured by dividing the tidal volume, the average volume of air in one breath cycle, by the difference between the pressure of the lungs at full inspiration and full expiration. Static compliance is always a higher value than dynamic
Static compliance can be computed using the formula:
Cstat = Tidal volume/Plateau pressure – PEEP
Substituting the values given,
Cstat = 800/50-10
Cstat = 20 ml/cmH2O -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 26
Correct
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A peripheral nerve stimulator is used to stimulate the ulnar nerve at the wrist to indicate the degree of neuromuscular blockade. Which single muscle or group of muscles of the hand supplied by the ulnar nerve is best for monitoring the twitch function during neuromuscular blockade?
Your Answer: Adductor pollicis
Explanation:In anaesthesia, adductor pollicis neuromuscular monitoring with ulnar nerve stimulation is commonly used. It is the gold standard for measuring the degree of block and comparing neuromuscular blocking drugs and their effects on other muscles.
Electrodes are usually placed over the ulnar nerve at the wrist to monitor the adductor pollicis.
Neuromuscular blocking drugs have different sensitivity levels in different muscle groups.
To achieve the same level of blockade, the diaphragm requires 1.4 to 2 times the amount of neuromuscular blocking agent as the adductor pollicis muscle. The small muscles of the larynx and the ocular muscles are two other respiratory muscles that are less resistant than the diaphragm (especially corrugator supercilii).
The abdominal muscles, Orbicularis oculi, peripheral muscles of the limbs, Geniohyoid, Masseter, and Upper airway muscles are the most sensitive to neuromuscular blocking agents.
The C8-T1 nerve roots, which are part of the medial cord of the brachial plexus, form the ulnar nerve. It enters the hand via the ulnar canal, superficial to the flexor retinaculum, after following the ulnar artery at the wrist.
The nerve then splits into two branches: superficial and deep. The palmaris brevis is supplied by the superficial branch, which also provides palmar digital nerves to one and a half fingers. The dorsal surface of the medial/ulnar 1.5 fingers, as well as the corresponding skin over the hand, are also supplied by it (as well as the palmar surface).
The ulnar nerve’s deep branch runs between the abductor and flexor digiti minimi, which it supplies. It also innervates the opponens, and with the deep palmar arch, it curves around the hook of the hamate and laterally across the palm. All of the interossei, the medial two lumbricals, the adductor pollicis, and, in most cases, the flexor pollicis brevis are supplied there.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 27
Correct
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An 82-year-old male has severe abdominal pain that is out of proportion to the examination. He is a known case of atrial fibrillation and diverticulitis. Suspecting mesenteric ischemia, he was thoroughly investigated, and a mesenteric angiography shows ischemia of the left colic flexure. Which artery gives off branches that supply this region directly?
Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery (IMA)
Explanation:Mesenteric ischemia is ischemia of the blood vessels of the intestines. It can be life-threatening, especially if the small intestine is involved.
The inferior mesenteric artery originates 3-4 cm above the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta.
The left colic artery branches off the inferior mesenteric artery to supply the following:
– distal 1/3 of the transverse colon
– descending colonAt approximately the left colic flexure (splenic flexure), a transition occurs in the blood supply of the GI tract. The SMA supplies the proximal part to the flexure, and the IMA supplies the part distal to the flexure. This is why the left colic flexure is a watershed area and is prone to ischemia exacerbated by atherosclerotic changes or hypotension. The dominant arterial supply of the splenic flexure is usually from the left colic artery, but it may also get collaterals from the left branch of the middle colic artery.
The AMA and PMA do not exist.
The splenic artery directly supplies the spleen and has branches that supply the stomach and the pancreas.
The proximal two-thirds of the transverse colon is supplied by the middle colic artery, a branch of the SMA. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 28
Correct
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Regarding laminar gas flow, which of the following options has the most influence on laminar flow?
Your Answer: Diameter of tube
Explanation:Laminar flow can be defined as the motion of a fluid where every particle in the fluid follows the same path of its previous particles. The following are properties of laminar flow of gas or fluids:
1. Smooth unobstructed flow of gas through a tube of relatively uniform diameter
2. Few directional changes
3. Slow, steady flow through straight smooth, rigid, large calibre, cylindrical tube
4. Outer layer flow slower than the centre due to friction, results in discrete cylindrical layers, or streamlines
5. Double flow by doubling pressure as long as the flow pattern remains laminarPoiseuille’s Law relates the factors that determine laminar flow. It indicates the degree of resistance to fluid flow through a tube. The resistance to fluid flow through a tube is directly related to the length, flow and viscosity; and inversely related to the radius of the tube to the fourth power. This means that, when the radius is doubled, there is increase in flow by a factor of 16.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 29
Correct
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When combined with a general anaesthetic or central neuraxial block, which of the following medications used to treat dementia involves the risk of significant hypotension?
Your Answer: Risperidone
Explanation:Atypical antipsychotic drugs include risperidone and quetiapine. They not only inhibit dopamine receptors in the limbic system, but also histamine (H1) and alpha2 adrenoreceptors. When combined with general and/or central neuraxial block, this might result in severe hypotension.
Donepezil (Aricept) is an acetylcholinesterase (AChE) inhibitor that increases the neurotransmitter acetylcholine in the cerebral cortex and hippocampus in a reversible, non-competitive manner. It is used to reduce the advancement of Alzheimer’s disease symptoms (AD). Rivastigmine and galantamine are two more drugs that work in the same way.
Ginkgo Biloba contains anti-oxidant characteristics and is used to treat early-stage Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and peripheral vascular disease. It lowers platelet adhesiveness and decreases platelet activating factor (PAF) increasing the risk f bleeding, especially in individuals who are also taking anticoagulants and antiplatelet medication.
Memantine is an antagonist of the NMDA receptor. Synaptic plasticity, which is thought to be a critical component of learning and memory, can be inhibited at high doses. The use of ketamine is a relative contraindication since antagonism of this receptor can cause a dissociative state.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 30
Correct
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It is safe to perform a central neuraxial block without an increased risk of developing a vertebral canal haematoma in?
Your Answer: A patient on clopidogrel 7 days after last dose
Explanation:The incidence of vertebral canal haematoma following neuraxial blockade was reported (third National Audit Project (NAP3)) as 0.85 per 100 000 (95% CI 0-1.8 per 100 000). The incidence following neuraxial blockade in coagulopathic patients is likely to be higher hence coagulopathy remains a relative contraindication for conducting a spinal or epidural. When indicate, risk and benefits are weighed, and it is only performed by experienced personnel in this case.
Acceptable time to perform a block after the last dose of rivaroxaban in a patient with a creatinine clearance of greater than 30mL/minute is 18 hours.
Acceptable time to perform a block after the last dose of subcutaneous LMWH as prophylaxis is 12 hours.
Acceptable time to perform a block after the last dose of subcutaneous UFH as prophylaxis is 4 hours.
Acceptable time to perform a block after the last dose of thrombolytic therapy (streptokinase or alteplase) is 10 days.
Clopidogrel should be stopped 7 days prior to surgery, particularly if a central neuraxial procedure is considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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