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Question 1
Correct
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A mother brings her 4-year-old child in to receive the DTP booster. Which one of the following would make it inappropriate to give the vaccination today?
Your Answer: Recent onset of a seizure disorder currently being investigated
Explanation:Guidelines for Safe Immunisation
Immunisation is an important aspect of public health, and the Department of Health has published guidelines to ensure its safe administration. The guidelines, titled ‘Immunisation against infectious disease’, outline general contraindications to immunisation, situations where vaccines should be delayed, and specific contraindications to live vaccines.
General contraindications include confirmed anaphylactic reactions to previous doses of a vaccine containing the same antigens or to another component in the relevant vaccine, such as egg protein. Vaccines should also be delayed in cases of febrile illness or intercurrent infection.
Live vaccines should not be administered to pregnant women or individuals with immunosuppression. In the case of the DTP vaccine, vaccination should be deferred in children with an evolving or unstable neurological condition.
However, there are several situations where immunisation is not contraindicated. These include asthma or eczema, a history of seizures (unless associated with fever), being breastfed, a previous history of natural infection with pertussis, measles, mumps, or rubella, a history of neonatal jaundice, a family history of autism, neurological conditions such as Down’s or cerebral palsy, low birth weight or prematurity, and patients on replacement steroids.
Overall, these guidelines aim to ensure the safe administration of vaccines and protect individuals from infectious diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 2
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman with longstanding rheumatoid arthritis presents with fatigue and loss of appetite of recent origin. Her serum creatinine is 230 µmol/l (50-120 µmol/l) and urea is 13.5 mmol/l (2.5-6.5 mmol/l). She has taken diclofenac for pain relief for several years.
Select from the list the single correct statement about this side-effect of diclofenac.Your Answer: It is likely to be reversible if the drug is stopped
Explanation:The Renal Risks of NSAIDs
One of the most common renal problems is sodium retention, which leads to water retention and oedema. This issue is particularly concerning for patients with pre-existing heart failure, as it can worsen their condition. Additionally, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can cause hyperkalaemia by inhibiting aldosterone, especially in patients with diabetes, heart failure, or multiple myeloma. If the patient is taking potassium-sparing diuretics or ACE inhibitors, the hyperkalaemia may be more severe.
NSAIDs can cause two types of acute renal failure. The first is haemodynamically mediated, where inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis can lead to reversible renal ischemia, a fall in GFR, and acute renal failure. The second is direct toxic effects on the kidney, such as acute tubular necrosis and acute interstitial nephritis. Adverse renal effects are generally reversible upon discontinuation of NSAID treatment. Glomerulosclerosis, typically caused by diabetes, can also be caused by drug-induced glomerular disease, including that caused by NSAIDs.
High-dose NSAID use may significantly increase the risk of accelerated renal function decline in patients with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, caution should always be exercised when using NSAIDs, and they should be given at the lowest effective dose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man presents with symptoms of urgency of urine and urinary incontinence. He denies any voiding symptoms or post-micturition symptoms. There is no evidence of haematuria.
On examination, his abdomen is soft and non-tender with no evidence of a distended bladder and his prostate feels normal. Blood tests for renal function, fasting glucose and PSA were all normal. Urinalysis is also reported as normal as well as MSU.
He was sent for bladder training which didn't help his symptoms and tolterodine and darifenacin haven't helped his symptoms. He became confused with oxybutynin.
Which of the following options would you offer next?Your Answer: Mirabegron
Correct Answer: Refer to urology
Explanation:Management of Overactive Bladder in Frail Older Men
When dealing with an overactive bladder in frail older men, it is important to rule out other diagnoses and try bladder training before considering medication. Oxybutynin is not recommended due to potential risks, while solifenacin is unlikely to work. Duloxetine is not recommended for overactive bladder in men, but may be used for stress incontinence in women. Desmopressin has no role in overactive bladder in men. Urology referral may be an option, but mirabegron can be used prior to referral and its effectiveness can be reviewed at 4-6 weeks. It is important to note that mirabegron is a ‘black triangle’ drug and is subject to intensive post-marketing safety surveillance. For more information on managing overactive bladder in men, visit the link provided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 50-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of numbness and pain in his left thigh. He reports feeling unsteady on his feet and has gained more than 6 kg in weight over the past six months. He also has chronic lower back pain. His family has a history of a neurological condition, with his uncle having multiple sclerosis (MS). He has no other medical conditions.
During the examination, the patient is found to be overweight. He has reduced pinprick sensation over the anterior part of his left thigh, but no motor signs. His tendor reflexes are normal and there are no cerebellar signs.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Meralgia paraesthetica
Explanation:Differentiating between causes of lower limb pain: A brief overview
Lower limb pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, each with their own unique symptoms and diagnostic criteria. Here, we will briefly discuss four potential causes of lower limb pain and how they can be differentiated.
Meralgia paraesthetica is a condition characterized by numbness, paraesthesia, and pain in the anterolateral thigh. It is caused by either an entrapment neuropathy or a neuroma of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve. The pain can be reproduced by deep palpation just below the anterior superior iliac spine and by extension of the hip. Obesity and weight gain are risk factors.
Diabetic lumbosacral plexopathy is a condition in which patients develop severe pain in the hip and thigh, followed by weakness and wasting of the thigh muscles. This often occurs asymmetrically and is accompanied by distal sensory neuropathy. However, this patient has no diagnosis of diabetes.
Familial MS is a form of multiple sclerosis that usually presents as intermittent episodic sensory, motor, or autonomic disturbances. While a family history of MS may be present, it is not a definitive diagnostic criterion.
Lumbar canal stenosis with nerve root entrapment typically causes pain in the buttocks or lower extremities, with or without back pain. Standing, walking, or lumbar extension often exacerbate the condition, while forward flexion, sitting, or lying flat often relieves the pain.
Finally, lumbar facet arthropathy is characterized by facet joints causing back pain that can radiate to the buttocks and legs. The pain is worsened by retroflexion and lateral flexion of the spine and prolonged standing or walking. However, facet syndrome would not usually cause reduced sensation.
In conclusion, a thorough clinical evaluation and diagnostic testing can help differentiate between these potential causes of lower limb pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You are asked to do a house call on a 35-year-old man with aching legs. Not unreasonably you suggest that a surgery consultation would be more appropriate. The wife is insistent that he cannot get there.
When you visit, you find a well-looking man lying in bed. He gives a story of having done a sponsored walk two days previously and halfway through after a mile uphill, he had to be carried back.
He is overweight. He doesn't normally take exercise and reports that he found exercise painful as a child. He also smokes. Since that episode he has been virtually unable to walk due to stiff legs. He is eating and drinking normally but his urine is a brownish colour. You confirm that, and the dipstick is positive for blood.
When you examine him, he is barely able to move his legs, and has absent knee and ankle jerks both sides. His thigh muscles feel quite solid in texture, and he has no sphincter disturbance. He is on no medication.
What is the diagnosis?Your Answer: He has rhabdomyolysis
Correct Answer: He is overweight and unfit
Explanation:Myoglobinuria: A Rare Condition Causing Muscle Breakdown
The texture of the muscles and brown urine are key indicators of myoglobinuria, a condition caused by catastrophic muscle breakdown. In this case, confirmation was made through a CK level beyond 16,000, a creatinine level of 360, and a urea level of 18. The large myoglobin molecules quickly compromised the glomerular filtration rate, leading to the need for dialysis within 24 hours. Further investigation revealed a rare congenital enzyme deficiency that causes rhabdomyolysis on exertion, which explains why the patient experienced pain during physical exercise as a child and adolescent.
It is important to note that a urine dipstick test can also be used to diagnose myoglobinuria. This test involves dipping a strip into a urine sample and checking for the presence of myoglobin. Early detection and treatment of myoglobinuria is crucial to prevent kidney damage and other complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man with a history of hypertension and ischaemic heart disease comes for a check-up. He had a heart attack two decades ago but has been stable since then. His current medications include bisoprolol, ramipril, atorvastatin, and clopidogrel. He has been experiencing dizziness lately, and an ECG reveals that he has atrial fibrillation. What is the appropriate antithrombotic medication for him now?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Switch to an oral anticoagulant
Explanation:Patients who have AF and stable CVD are typically prescribed anticoagulants while antiplatelets are discontinued. This is because such patients are at risk of stroke, as indicated by their CHADS-VASC score, which takes into account factors such as age, hypertension, and cardiovascular disease. Therefore, the patient in question needs to be treated accordingly. In this case, the patient should discontinue their antiplatelet medication and switch to oral anticoagulant monotherapy.
Managing Combination Antiplatelet and Anticoagulant Therapy
With the rise of comorbidity, it is becoming more common for patients to require both antiplatelet and anticoagulant therapy. However, this combination increases the risk of bleeding and may not be necessary in all cases. While there are no guidelines to cover every scenario, a recent review in the BMJ offers expert opinion on how to manage this situation.
For patients with stable cardiovascular disease who require an anticoagulant, it is recommended that they also receive an antiplatelet. However, if the patient has an indication for anticoagulant therapy, such as atrial fibrillation, it is best to prescribe anticoagulant monotherapy without the addition of antiplatelets.
In patients who have experienced an acute coronary syndrome or undergone percutaneous coronary intervention, there is a stronger indication for antiplatelet therapy. Typically, patients are given triple therapy (two antiplatelets and one anticoagulant) for four weeks to six months after the event, followed by dual therapy (one antiplatelet and one anticoagulant) for the remaining 12 months. However, the stroke risk in atrial fibrillation varies according to risk factors, so there may be variation in treatment from patient to patient.
If a patient on antiplatelets develops venous thromboembolism (VTE), they will likely be prescribed anticoagulants for three to six months. An ORBIT score should be calculated to determine the risk of bleeding. Patients with a low risk of bleeding may continue taking antiplatelets, while those with an intermediate or high risk of bleeding should consider stopping them.
Overall, managing combination antiplatelet and anticoagulant therapy requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual circumstances and risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old traveler comes back from a year of backpacking in a remote area of India. He has been experiencing diarrhea for two weeks and the laboratory confirms that he has giardiasis.
What is true about giardiasis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diagnosis is made by culture of stool
Explanation:Giardiasis: Causes, Symptoms, and Diagnosis
Giardiasis is a parasitic infection caused by Giardia lamblia. The incubation period for this infection is typically 1-2 weeks. Symptoms include diarrhea, but it is not bloody like in dysentery. The organism attaches to the small bowel but doesn’t invade it. Metronidazole and tinidazole are commonly used in treatment.
To diagnose giardiasis, stool samples are examined microscopically for cysts, not cultures. It may be necessary to collect several samples to confirm the diagnosis as cysts may not be present in every stool. Infection can be contracted from any contaminated water, whether it is still or running. It is important to practice good hygiene and avoid drinking untreated water to prevent giardiasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man with a history of migraine and asthma seeks medical attention for worsening migraine symptoms. He is experiencing one debilitating migraine attack every two weeks, lasting approximately 24 hours, and only partially relieved by zolmitriptan. This has resulted in frequent work absences. His current medication regimen includes zolmitriptan, salbutamol, and Clenil. What is the most suitable medication to prescribe for reducing the frequency of his migraine attacks?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topiramate
Explanation:For the prophylaxis of migraines, NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol. However, propranolol is not suitable for this patient due to his asthma. As for acute treatment, a combination of triptan and NSAID or triptan and paracetamol is recommended.
Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.
For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.
For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.
It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to your urgent clinic with a red eye that he noticed upon waking up this morning. He reports that his eye appeared normal before going to bed last night and denies any pain, discharge, or itching. He has no history of regular medication use and has no visual acuity issues or contact lens use.
During examination, his blood pressure is measured at 132/88 mmHg. The medial inferior quadrant of his eye shows uniform redness, but his cornea and pupil are unaffected. Based on these findings, you suspect a subconjunctival haemorrhage. The patient expresses concern about the healing time as he has an important business meeting scheduled for next week.
How long can the patient expect for his subconjunctival haemorrhage to resolve?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2 weeks
Explanation:Subconjunctival haemorrhages typically clear up on their own within two weeks and do not require any treatment. However, it is important to check the patient’s blood pressure as these haemorrhages can be linked to high blood pressure. Additionally, it should be noted that the cornea is not affected by a subconjunctival haemorrhage.
Subconjunctival haemorrhages occur when blood vessels in the subconjunctival space bleed. These vessels typically supply the conjunctiva or episclera. Trauma is the most common cause, followed by spontaneous idiopathic cases, Valsalva manoeuvres, and several systemic diseases. While subconjunctival haemorrhages can look alarming, they are rarely an indicator of anything serious. They are more common in women than men, and the risk increases with age. Newborns are also more susceptible. The incidence of both traumatic and non-traumatic subconjunctival haemorrhages is 2.6%.
Risk factors for subconjunctival haemorrhages include trauma, contact lens usage, idiopathic causes, Valsalva manoeuvres, hypertension, bleeding disorders, certain drugs, diabetes, arterial disease, and hyperlipidaemia. Symptoms include a red eye, usually unilateral, and mild irritation. Signs include a flat, red patch on the conjunctiva with well-defined edges and normal conjunctiva surrounding it. The patch’s size can vary depending on the size of the bleed and can involve the whole conjunctiva. Traumatic haemorrhages are most common in the temporal region, with the inferior conjunctiva as the next most commonly affected area. Vision should be normal, including acuity, visual fields, and range of eye movements. On examination, the fundus should be normal.
The diagnosis of a subconjunctival haemorrhage is clinical. If there is no obvious traumatic cause, check the patient’s blood pressure. If raised, refer the patient appropriately. If the patient is taking warfarin, check the INR. If raised, refer for appropriate adjustments to the dose to bring the INR back into the target range. If you cannot see the whole border of the haemorrhage, it may be associated with an intracranial bleed or an orbital roof fracture. Further appropriate investigations should then be done, including a full cranial nerve exam looking for neurological signs as well as a CT head, after discussion with a senior. Recurrent or spontaneous, bilateral subconjunctival haemorrhages warrant investigations for bleeding disorders or other pathology.
Reassure the patient that subconjunctival haemorrhages are a benign condition that will resolve on their own in 2 to 3 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 6 week-old infant is presented to your clinic as the mother has observed a white spot in the baby's mouth. Upon examination, a small white papule of around 1 mm size is visible on the lower gum. The baby is being breastfed and feeding without any issues. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Epstein's pearl
Explanation:Understanding Epstein’s Pearl
Epstein’s pearl is a type of cyst that is present in the mouth from birth. It is commonly found on the hard palate, but can also be seen on the gums. Parents may mistake it for a tooth that is about to erupt. However, there is no need for concern as it tends to resolve on its own within a few weeks. Treatment is not usually required.
In summary, Epstein’s pearl is a harmless cyst that is commonly found in the mouth of newborns. It is important for parents to be aware of its presence and not mistake it for a dental issue. With time, it will naturally disappear without any intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 11
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of lower back pain and right hip pain. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results are obtained:
Calcium 2.20 mmol/l
Phosphate 0.8 mmol/l
ALP 890 u/L
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paget's disease
Explanation:Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone
Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting around 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities.
Several factors can predispose an individual to Paget’s disease, including increasing age, male sex, living in northern latitudes, and having a family history of the condition. Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. In untreated cases, patients may experience bowing of the tibia or bossing of the skull.
To diagnose Paget’s disease, doctors may perform blood tests to check for elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP), a marker of bone turnover. Other markers of bone turnover, such as procollagen type I N-terminal propeptide (PINP), serum C-telopeptide (CTx), urinary N-telopeptide (NTx), and urinary hydroxyproline, may also be measured. X-rays and bone scintigraphy can help identify areas of active bone lesions.
Treatment for Paget’s disease is typically reserved for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fractures, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, such as oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are commonly used to manage the condition. Calcitonin may also be used in some cases. Complications of Paget’s disease can include deafness, bone sarcoma, fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 30 year old female smoker presents with painful aphthous ulcers and has been using a topical analgesic (benzydamine hydrochloride gel) for 3 weeks without relief. There is no indication of joint or bowel issues in her medical history or physical examination. She is in good health otherwise. What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer urgently to secondary care
Explanation:If an oral ulcer persists for more than 3 weeks without explanation, it is important to refer the patient to secondary care urgently to rule out the possibility of malignancy. While smoking is a risk factor for both oral malignancy and aphthous ulcers, it is not a reason for referral. Interestingly, quitting smoking can actually make aphthous ulcers worse. Over-the-counter local analgesics like Difflam (benzydamine hydrochloride) and Bonjela can provide relief from symptoms, but there is no evidence that they can reduce the frequency or duration of ulceration. Some evidence suggests that antibacterial mouthwashes (such as chlorhexidine) and topical corticosteroids (such as hydrocortisone oromucosal tablets) can help to shorten the duration and severity of symptoms, but they do not reduce the frequency of recurrence.
Aphthous mouth ulcers are painful sores that are circular or oval in shape and are found only in the mouth. They are not associated with any systemic disease and often occur repeatedly, usually starting in childhood. These ulcers can be caused by damage to the mouth, such as biting the cheek or brushing too hard, or may be due to a genetic predisposition. Other factors that can trigger these ulcers include stress, certain foods, stopping smoking, and hormonal changes related to the menstrual cycle.
Aphthous ulcers are characterized by their round or oval shape, a clearly defined margin, a yellowish-grey slough on the floor, and a red periphery. They usually appear on non-keratinized mucosal surfaces, such as the inside of the lips, cheeks, floor of the mouth, or undersurface of the tongue. In most cases, investigations are not necessary, but they may be considered if an underlying systemic disease is suspected.
Treatment for aphthous ulcers involves avoiding any factors that may trigger them and providing symptomatic relief for pain, discomfort, and swelling. This may include using a low potency topical corticosteroid, an antimicrobial mouthwash, or a topical analgesic. Most ulcers will heal within two weeks without leaving any scars. However, if a mouth ulcer persists for more than three weeks, it is important to seek urgent referral to a specialist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male comes to the clinic with a deep wound on his hand caused by a terrier bite. The wound is accompanied by swelling. After receiving tetanus immunisation and wound cleaning, what would be the most suitable antibiotic regimen for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trimethoprim oral
Explanation:Prophylactic Antibiotics in Dog Bites
The use of prophylactic antibiotics in dog bites is a controversial topic. However, evidence supports their use in deep wounds, bites to the hands, and signs of infection. It is also important to consider immune compromise as an indication, along with involvement of deep structures such as joints or tendons, or in the presence of prosthetic joints.
For complicated animal bites, including those from cats or humans, co-amoxiclav is recommended as the first-line treatment. It is important to note that the treatment of animal bites, especially those on the hand, may require more than just antibiotics. Seeking the advice of a plastic surgeon for debridement or tendon repair may also be necessary. Proper treatment and care can help prevent further complications and promote healing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old male comes to his GP complaining of experiencing dull pain in the orbital area, redness in the eye, tearing, and sensitivity to light for the past 4 days. During the examination, the doctor notices an irregular, constricted pupil. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Steroid + cycloplegic eye drops
Explanation:Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. This condition is often associated with HLA-B27 and may be linked to other conditions such as ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small and irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness in the eye, tearing, and a ring of redness around the cornea. In severe cases, pus and inflammatory cells may accumulate in the front chamber of the eye, leading to a visible fluid level. Treatment for anterior uveitis involves urgent evaluation by an ophthalmologist, cycloplegic agents to relieve pain and photophobia, and steroid eye drops to reduce inflammation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old female with rheumatoid arthritis presents with proteinuria during her yearly check-up. Which medication is most commonly linked to the occurrence of proteinuria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gold
Explanation:Causes of Nephrotic Syndrome
Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by the presence of protein in the urine, low levels of protein in the blood, high levels of cholesterol, and swelling in different parts of the body. The causes of nephrotic syndrome can be classified into primary glomerulonephritis, systemic disease, drugs, and others.
Primary glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome, accounting for around 80% of cases. The different types of primary glomerulonephritis include minimal change glomerulonephritis, membranous glomerulonephritis, focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, and membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis.
Systemic diseases such as diabetes mellitus, systemic lupus erythematosus, and amyloidosis can also cause nephrotic syndrome, accounting for about 20% of cases. Certain drugs like gold and penicillamine can also lead to the development of nephrotic syndrome.
Other causes of nephrotic syndrome include congenital factors, neoplasia such as carcinoma, lymphoma, leukaemia, myeloma, and infections like bacterial endocarditis, hepatitis B, and malaria.
The diagram shows the different types of glomerulonephritis and how they typically present. Understanding the underlying cause of nephrotic syndrome is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl is worried that she might have an underlying endocrine issue. She is a bright student and has secured a place at college. She weighs 37 kg (5 stone 11 pounds) and is 1.75 m (5ft 9 inches) tall. She appears malnourished, her skin is dry, and she has excessive growth of fine soft body hair. She has not had her period for six months. Her cortisol level is elevated, and her free thyroxine (T4) is normal. She is not anemic but has a decreased white cell and platelet count.
What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Endocrine Findings in Anorexia Nervosa Compared to Other Conditions
Anorexia nervosa is a condition characterized by severe weight loss due to self-imposed starvation. Endocrine findings in anorexia nervosa include decreased levels of follicular-stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinising hormone (LH), and oestrogens, as well as urinary 17-hydroxy-corticosteroids. However, T4 and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are usually normal, while growth hormone and cortisol levels may be elevated. Other possible findings include reduced white cell and platelet count, hypoglycaemia, metabolic alkalosis, hypocalcaemia, hypokalaemia, and hypomagnesaemia.
On the other hand, Addison’s disease, which also causes weight loss, is characterized by reduced cortisol levels. HIV infection may lead to endocrine disorders such as hypogonadism, hypothyroidism, and adrenal excess or insufficiency, but there is no information to support this diagnosis in the given case. Hypothyroidism, which may cause weight gain, is characterized by reduced T4 levels, but this is not the case in anorexia nervosa. Finally, occult carcinoma, which may cause weight loss, is not likely in this case, as the weight loss is chronic and typical of anorexia nervosa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a painful erythematous rash on the right side of her chest. She reports experiencing a sharp burning pain on her chest wall 48 hours ago. Upon examination, vesicles are present and the rash doesn't extend beyond the midline. The patient is given antiviral medication and follow-up is scheduled.
What is the primary benefit of administering antiviral therapy to this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It reduces the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia
Explanation:Antivirals can reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia in older people with shingles, but do not prevent the spread or recurrence of the condition. Analgesia should also be prescribed and bacterial superinfection is still possible.
Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The diagnosis is usually clinical and management includes analgesia, antivirals, and reminding patients they are potentially infectious. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, herpes zoster ophthalmicus, and herpes zoster oticus. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What is the next most appropriate management step for a 40-year-old man with erectile dysfunction and repeat reduced serum total testosterone levels?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe intramuscular Nebido
Explanation:Referral and Treatment for Reduced Serum Testosterone
Patients with low levels of serum testosterone should be referred to secondary care for further investigation and treatment. This may involve consulting with an endocrinologist, urologist, or andrologist, depending on the area. Testosterone replacement therapy can be administered through topical testogel or intramuscular nebido, but it requires counseling and monitoring by secondary care before initiation. Ongoing monitoring may include checking the full blood count, lipids, and prostate-specific antigen levels. Since the test has already been repeated, there is little benefit in repeating it again in four weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner for a consultation. The child's mother is worried about the appearance of her infant’s face. The back of the head appears flattened and the right side of the head appears pushed forward relative to the left side. The mother thinks the shape of the skull was normal at birth.
Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Positional plagiocephaly
Explanation:Pediatric Craniofacial Abnormalities: Causes and Characteristics
Craniofacial abnormalities in infants and children can arise from a variety of causes, ranging from positional factors to genetic syndromes. Here are some common types of abnormalities and their characteristics:
Positional Plagiocephaly: This occurs when a baby’s head becomes flattened on one side due to sleeping in the same position or pressure in the uterus. It can cause asymmetry in the head shape, such as misaligned ears and a parallelogram-like appearance.
Facial Nerve Palsy: While rare, facial palsy in infants can occur due to congenital factors or birth trauma. It may also develop during childhood, such as with Bell’s palsy.
Congenital Torticollis: This is a muscular condition in which one or more neck muscles are extremely tight, causing the head to tilt and the chin to point in the opposite direction. It can lead to the development of plagiocephaly.
Craniosynostosis: This occurs when one or more fibro sutures in the skull prematurely fuse, changing the growth pattern and resulting in an abnormal head shape and facial features. Surgery is often necessary.
Frontal Bossing: This is an unusually prominent forehead, sometimes associated with heavy brow ridges. It can be caused by conditions such as thalassaemia major and sickle cell anaemia, as well as rare syndromes like Russell-Silver dwarfism and Hurler syndrome.
Understanding these craniofacial abnormalities can help parents and healthcare providers identify and address them early on for optimal treatment and outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner seeking help to quit using illicit opioids but is struggling to achieve complete abstinence. He has recently been prescribed maintenance methadone by his local drug and alcohol withdrawal service.
What is the next best course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Have the patient collect their prescribed drugs daily from a nominated pharmacy
Explanation:Best Practices for Prescribing Methadone for Opioid Addiction Treatment
Methadone is a commonly prescribed medication for opioid addiction treatment. However, prescribing and dispensing methadone requires careful consideration and adherence to best practices. Here are some guidelines for prescribing methadone for opioid addiction treatment:
1. Have the patient collect their prescribed drugs daily from a nominated pharmacy.
2. Prescribe a week-long methadone regime, reducing the dosage on a daily basis.
3. Ask the patient whether they would prefer an oral or injectable form of methadone.
4. Give the patient a prescription which they can take to a pharmacy of their choice in order to collect their methadone.
5. Nominate a representative who can collect the patient’s methadone on their behalf.It is important to note that prescribing and dispensing methadone should be done in consultation with the patient and their healthcare team. By following these best practices, patients can receive safe and effective treatment for opioid addiction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Barbara is a 44 year old woman with a diagnosis of metastatic ovarian cancer. She is a single mother of 3 children: John who is 14 years old, Michael who is 17 years old preparing for his A-Levels, and Sarah who is 20 years old and attending college. She seeks your guidance on child tax credits. Which of her children qualify for child tax credits?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lucy and Robert
Explanation:Understanding Child Tax Credits
Child tax credits are a form of financial assistance provided to families to help with the expenses of raising children. To be eligible for child tax credits, certain criteria must be met. Firstly, the age of the child is taken into consideration. Children under the age of 16 can be claimed for until the 31st of August following their 16th birthday. Additionally, children under the age of 20 who are in approved education or training can also be claimed for.
Secondly, responsibility for the child is also a factor in determining eligibility. If the child lives with you all the time, or if they normally live with you and you are their primary caregiver, you may be eligible for child tax credits. Other indicators of responsibility include the child keeping their toys and clothes at your home, you paying for their meals and giving them pocket money, or if they live in an EEA country or Switzerland but are financially dependent on you.
In summary, child tax credits are a helpful resource for families with children. By meeting the age and responsibility criteria, families can receive financial assistance to help with the costs of raising children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 22
Incorrect
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An 77-year-old-man presents to your clinic with complaints of persistent right ear pain and discharge. He was previously diagnosed with otitis externa and prescribed antibiotic ear drops by a colleague, followed by further antibiotic drops and tramadol by an out of hours doctor. However, his symptoms have not improved and the pain has become unbearable.
The patient has a medical history of type-2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension, and takes metformin, gliclazide, ramipril, and atorvastatin regularly. He has no known drug allergies and doesn't smoke or drink alcohol.
Upon examination, debris is observed in the right ear canal, but the tympanic membrane remains visible. There is no erythema of the pinna or mastoid swelling, and cranial nerve examination is normal.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer urgently to on-call ENT team
Explanation:If a patient with otitis externa experiences worsening pain that doesn’t respond to strong painkillers, it is important to refer them urgently to an ENT specialist. This is especially true if the patient has a history of diabetes, as they are at a higher risk of developing malignant (necrotising) otitis externa. In advanced stages, this condition can cause facial nerve palsy on the same side as the affected ear. Treatment typically involves a long course of intravenous antibiotics, which is why prompt ENT assessment is crucial.
While oral antibiotics such as ciprofloxacin may be prescribed alongside ear drops if there is concern about deep tissue infection, most patients will require IV antibiotics. However, the priority in this situation is to escalate the case to an ENT specialist rather than focusing on pain relief or swabbing the ear canal. It is also important to avoid syringing the ear, as this can worsen the condition.
Malignant Otitis Externa: A Rare but Serious Infection
Malignant otitis externa is a type of ear infection that is uncommon but can be serious. It is typically found in individuals who are immunocompromised, with 90% of cases occurring in diabetics. The infection starts in the soft tissues of the external auditory meatus and can progress to involve the soft tissues and bony ear canal, eventually leading to temporal bone osteomyelitis.
Key features in the patient’s history include diabetes or immunosuppression, severe and persistent ear pain, temporal headaches, and purulent otorrhea. In some cases, patients may also experience dysphagia, hoarseness, and facial nerve dysfunction.
Diagnosis is typically done through a CT scan, and non-resolving otitis externa with worsening pain should be referred urgently to an ENT specialist. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics that cover pseudomonas infections.
In summary, malignant otitis externa is a rare but serious infection that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Patients with diabetes or immunosuppression should be particularly vigilant for symptoms and seek medical attention if they experience persistent ear pain or other related symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Linda is a 35-year-old woman who is 19 weeks pregnant. She presents to the emergency department with a 2 day history of sharp abdominal pain. There is no vaginal bleeding. She also has a low grade fever of 37.8 ºC. Her pregnancy until now has been unremarkable.
On examination, she is haemodynamically stable, but there is tenderness on palpation of the right lower quadrant of her abdomen. Fetal heart rate was normal. An ultrasound scan was performed which showed a singleton pregnancy, and multiple large fibroids in the uterus. The ovaries appear normal and there was no appendix inflammation.
What is the most likely cause of Linda's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fibroid degeneration
Explanation:During pregnancy, fibroid degeneration can occur and may cause symptoms such as low-grade fever, pain, and vomiting. If an ultrasound scan shows no signs of inflammation in the appendix, it is unlikely that the patient has appendicitis. Given the presence of fibroids in the uterus, the patient is at risk of experiencing fibroid degeneration, particularly red degeneration, which can cause fever, pain, and vomiting. The absence of vaginal bleeding makes it unlikely that the patient is experiencing a threatened miscarriage. Ovarian torsion typically presents with pain and vomiting, but it is usually associated with risk factors such as ovarian cysts or enlargement.
Understanding Fibroid Degeneration
Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that can develop in the uterus. They are known to be sensitive to oestrogen and can grow during pregnancy. However, if the growth of the fibroids exceeds their blood supply, they can undergo a type of degeneration known as red or ‘carneous’ degeneration. This condition is characterized by symptoms such as low-grade fever, pain, and vomiting.
Fortunately, fibroid degeneration can be managed conservatively with rest and analgesia. With proper care, the symptoms should resolve within 4-7 days. It is important to note that fibroid degeneration is a common occurrence and doesn’t necessarily indicate a serious underlying condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man has been diagnosed with Hodgkin's disease. He is being treated with radiotherapy and chemotherapy.
What is the most important factor influencing this patient's prognosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Response to treatment
Explanation:Hodgkin’s lymphoma can be cured in the majority of patients, especially those who respond well to treatment. A prompt and complete response to chemotherapy and/or radiotherapy is the most important factor in predicting a patient’s prognosis. Residual masses may not always indicate persisting disease, as fibrosis can persist after effective therapy. Patients who relapse after initial successful treatment can sometimes be treated with further chemotherapy, stem cell transplantation, and/or radiotherapy. The duration of initial remission is a factor in the success of retreatment. Bulky disease, a high ESR, male gender, and stage IV disease are associated with a poorer prognosis. Other adverse prognostic factors include age ≥ 45 years, low haemoglobin, low lymphocyte count, low albumin, high WCC, mixed-cellularity or lymphocyte-depleted histology, and B symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old Vietnamese woman has been feeling unwell for a few days with a sore throat. She visits her general practitioner who conducts a full blood count and finds the following results:
Haemoglobin
125 g/l (normal 115–155 g/l)
White blood cell count (WCC)
19 × 109/l (normal 4.0–11.0 × 109/l)
Neutrophil
14 × 109/l (normal 2.5–7.5 × 109/l)
Platelets
498 × 109/l (normal 150–400 × 109/l)
What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute bacterial infection
Explanation:Understanding Neutrophilia: Causes and Differential Diagnosis
Neutrophilia, an increase in absolute neutrophil count, can be acute or chronic and is often seen as an accompanying feature of various medical conditions. Acute bacterial infections, inflammatory response to shock, gout, vasculitis, and malignancies are some of the common causes of neutrophilia. Additionally, certain drugs, activities, pregnancy, myeloproliferative states, and splenectomy can also increase the neutrophil count.
However, it is important to note that neutrophilia alone cannot provide a definitive diagnosis. A thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, symptoms, and other laboratory tests is necessary to determine the underlying cause. For instance, in the case of a sore throat, acute bacterial infection is a likely cause of neutrophilia.
On the other hand, conditions such as cytomegalovirus infection, chronic myeloid leukaemia, pregnancy, and tuberculosis are unlikely to cause neutrophilia as a primary symptom. Instead, they may present with other characteristic features such as atypical lymphocytosis, raised WCC with granulocytes, elevated IgM antibodies, or normocytic anaemia and lymphopenia.
In summary, understanding the various causes and differential diagnosis of neutrophilia is crucial in providing accurate and timely medical care to patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female patient presents to the GP with a rash. She has a vivid red rash on her nose and cheeks. The patient complains that consuming alcohol exacerbates her rash, causing her great embarrassment. She also reports experiencing occasional pustules.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acne rosacea
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest acne rosacea, which is characterized by flushing, erythema, and telangiectasia on the nose, cheeks, and forehead, as well as the presence of papules and pustules. This condition is known to worsen with alcohol consumption. In contrast, acne vulgaris typically presents with comedones, papules, pustules, nodules, and/or cysts, and is less erythematous than rosacea. Erythema ab igne, on the other hand, is caused by exposure to high levels of heat or infra-red radiation, while psoriasis is characterized by a silver-scaly rash that typically appears on the knees and elbows. Although the patient’s symptoms could be mistaken for a butterfly rash, there is no evidence to suggest lupus.
Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a skin condition that is chronic in nature and its cause is unknown. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Telangiectasia, which are small blood vessels that are visible on the skin, are common, and the condition can progress to persistent erythema with papules and pustules. Rhinophyma, a condition where the nose becomes enlarged and bulbous, can also occur. Ocular involvement, such as blepharitis, can also be present, and sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.
Management of rosacea depends on the severity of the symptoms. For mild symptoms, topical metronidazole may be used, while topical brimonidine gel may be considered for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics such as oxytetracycline. It is recommended that patients apply a high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia, and those with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist for further management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Mrs. Evans is a 54-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes. She was unable to tolerate metformin due to nausea. She has been doing some of her own research into other options and suggests an SGLT-2 inhibitor, empagliflozin, because she has read it might help her lose weight and improve her blood pressure, as well as improve her blood sugar.
What is the mechanism of action of empagliflozin?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase urinary glucose excretion
Explanation:SGLT-2 inhibitors function by enhancing the urinary excretion of glucose, which is the root cause of their primary side effects such as increased urine output, weight loss, and UTI. Sulphonylureas like gliclazide, on the other hand, work by increasing insulin release from the pancreas. Acarbose, which is not commonly prescribed in the UK, reduces glucose absorption in the gut. DPP4-inhibitors, which reduce the breakdown of incretins, decrease glucagon secretion by reducing glucagon release from the pancreas. Empagliflozin, an SGLT-2 inhibitor, reduces glucose reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubule, leading to an additional excretion of approximately 70g of glucose per day. This not only improves blood sugar levels but also causes weight loss, unlike other diabetic medications such as sulphonylureas and insulin, which cause weight gain. The slight diuresis caused by increased glucose excretion may also improve blood pressure. However, the increased glucose in the urine can also lead to adverse events such as urinary tract or genital infections. SGLT-2 inhibitors do not slow gastric emptying.
Understanding SGLT-2 Inhibitors
SGLT-2 inhibitors are medications that work by blocking the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of glucose in the urine. This mechanism of action helps to lower blood sugar levels in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin.
However, it is important to note that SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have adverse effects. Patients taking these medications may be at increased risk for urinary and genital infections due to the increased glucose in the urine. Fournier’s gangrene, a rare but serious bacterial infection of the genital area, has also been reported. Additionally, there is a risk of normoglycemic ketoacidosis, a condition where the body produces high levels of ketones even when blood sugar levels are normal. Finally, patients taking SGLT-2 inhibitors may be at increased risk for lower-limb amputations, so it is important to closely monitor the feet.
Despite these potential risks, SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have benefits. Patients taking these medications often experience weight loss, which can be beneficial for those with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Overall, it is important for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of SGLT-2 inhibitors with their healthcare provider before starting treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What is the absolute risk reduction of stroke in elderly subjects receiving aspirin compared to those not receiving aspirin, and what is the number needed to treat to prevent one stroke?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50
Explanation:Understanding Number Needed to Treat
Number needed to treat (NNT) is a statistical measure used in medical research to estimate the number of patients who need to receive a particular treatment in order to prevent a specific outcome. For instance, if two out of every 100 patients are prevented from having a stroke by taking aspirin, then the NNT would be 50. This means that 50 patients would need to be treated with aspirin in order to prevent one stroke.
NNT is an important tool for healthcare professionals as it helps them to determine the effectiveness of a treatment and make informed decisions about patient care. It is also useful for patients as it provides a clear understanding of the potential benefits and risks associated with a particular treatment. By knowing the NNT, patients can make informed decisions about their healthcare and work with their healthcare provider to choose the best treatment option for their individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Samantha is a five-year-old caucasian girl who visits her GP due to her mother's concern about her swollen tummy. She has no previous medical history and was born at full term. During the examination, she seems a little pale. A smooth mass is palpable in the right upper quadrant of her abdomen. There is no tenderness in her abdomen, and her cardiovascular and respiratory examinations are normal. There is no significant family history to note.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent paediatric review within 48 hours
Explanation:A possible diagnosis for an unexplained enlarged abdominal mass in children is Wilms tumour, which is the most common renal malignancy in this age group. It typically presents as a unilateral mass in the abdomen. Therefore, it is crucial to arrange an urgent paediatric review within 48 hours for assessment and imaging, in accordance with NICE guidelines.
Delaying diagnosis by opting for an ultrasound scan within 2 weeks or a routine referral to paediatrics is not recommended. While a renal function test will be performed in secondary care, it will not alter the management of the patient.
It is worth noting that sickle cell disease can be diagnosed using haemoglobin electrophoresis, and it may present with splenomegaly (a left-sided mass). However, in the case of an unexplained enlarged abdominal mass in children, Wilms tumour should be considered as a potential diagnosis and prompt action should be taken.
Wilms’ Tumour: A Common Childhood Malignancy
Wilms’ tumour, also known as nephroblastoma, is a prevalent type of cancer in children, with a median age of diagnosis at 3 years old. It is often associated with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome, hemihypertrophy, and a loss-of-function mutation in the WT1 gene on chromosome 11. The most common presenting feature is an abdominal mass, which is usually painless, but other symptoms such as haematuria, flank pain, anorexia, and fever may also occur. In 95% of cases, the tumour is unilateral, and metastases are found in 20% of patients, most commonly in the lungs.
If a child presents with an unexplained enlarged abdominal mass, it is crucial to arrange a paediatric review within 48 hours to rule out Wilms’ tumour. The management of this cancer typically involves nephrectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy if the disease is advanced. Fortunately, the prognosis for Wilms’ tumour is good, with an 80% cure rate.
Histologically, Wilms’ tumour is characterized by epithelial tubules, areas of necrosis, immature glomerular structures, stroma with spindle cells, and small cell blastomatous tissues resembling the metanephric blastema. Overall, early detection and prompt treatment are essential for a successful outcome in children with Wilms’ tumour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old diabetic woman would like to discuss a copper IUCD device. She is a nulliparous lady who has had fertility problems and endometriosis in the past, but would like a reliable form of contraception after a recent divorce.
One week before seeing you, she mentioned to the nurse that she had been getting some intermenstrual bleeding and it was suggested that she makes an appointment to see you. You note that she had pelvic inflammatory disease when she was 20, but this was successfully treated as an inpatient.
Which one of the conditions given in the history is a contraindication to having a copper IUCD fitted?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endometriosis
Explanation:Contraception Contraindications and Cautions
Contraception questions are commonly featured in the MRCGP exam, and it is essential to have a good understanding of the contraindications and cautions listed in the British National Formulary (BNF). In the BNF, unexplained uterine bleeding is listed as a contraindication, while the other items mentioned in the history are listed as cautions. It is important to note that there are other contraindications not mentioned in the history, such as pregnancy, current sexually transmitted infection, current pelvic inflammatory disease, and distorted uterine cavity. Familiarizing oneself with these contraindications and cautions is crucial in providing safe and effective contraception to patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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