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  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old man with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is struggling to manage his...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is struggling to manage his symptoms through dietary changes alone. He is primarily bothered by abdominal discomfort and bloating.
      What is the most suitable next step in his treatment plan?

      Your Answer: Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) (eg amitriptyline)

      Correct Answer: Mebeverine hydrochloride

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological Management of Irritable Bowel Syndrome

      Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common gastrointestinal disorder that affects 10-20% of the population, with women being more susceptible than men. The condition is characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and altered bowel habits without any specific organic pathology. Management of IBS involves psychological support, dietary measures, and pharmacological treatment for symptom relief.

      Antispasmodics, such as mebeverine hydrochloride, are commonly used to alleviate pain and bloating in IBS patients. Loperamide is the first choice of antimotility agent for diarrhea, while laxatives are recommended for constipation. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs), such as amitriptyline, are considered a second-line treatment option for IBS patients who do not respond to other medications. However, the use of opioids, such as tramadol, is not recommended due to the risk of constipation, dependence, and tolerance.

      In conclusion, pharmacological management of IBS should be tailored to the individual patient’s symptoms and needs, with a focus on providing relief from pain, bloating, and altered bowel habits. Regular review and adjustment of medication dosages are necessary to ensure optimal treatment outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old woman with atrial fibrillation and hypertension is prescribed amiodarone.
    Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with atrial fibrillation and hypertension is prescribed amiodarone.
      Which of the following blood tests is crucial for monitoring amiodarone use?

      Your Answer: LFTs, TFTs (monthly)

      Correct Answer: LFTs, TFTs (6-monthly)

      Explanation:

      Drug Monitoring in Primary Care

      Drug monitoring is an essential aspect of patient care, particularly for medications with potential side effects. In primary care, drug monitoring is becoming increasingly common, especially for patients managed through shared-care with specialty care.

      Amiodarone is a medication that requires ongoing monitoring for potential side effects, including pulmonary toxicity, thyroid dysfunction, abnormal liver function, and corneal microdeposits. Monitoring includes checking LFTs and TFTs every six months, a chest radiograph and ECG every 12 months, and an annual ophthalmological examination.

      Azathioprine requires monitoring of FBC and LFTs every three months, while lithium requires monitoring of U&Es, TFTs, and lithium plasma levels every six months. Methotrexate requires monitoring of FBC, U&Es, and LFTs every two to three months.

      In conclusion, drug monitoring is crucial in primary care to ensure patient safety and prevent potential adverse effects. Regular monitoring of blood tests can help detect any changes in a patient’s health and allow for timely intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 6 cm erythematous...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 6 cm erythematous skin lesion on her upper arm after experiencing a high fever of 39ºC, headache, and vomiting for the past 48 hours. A skin biopsy revealed a beta-haemolytic group A streptococcal infection in the upper dermis. What is the most appropriate term to describe this condition?

      Your Answer: Erysipelas

      Explanation:

      Erysipelas is mainly caused by Streptococcus pyogenes, which belongs to the beta-haemolytic group A streptococci. The rash is a result of an endotoxin produced by the bacteria, rather than the bacteria itself. The absence of subcutaneous tissue involvement is a distinguishing feature of erysipelas.

      Antibiotic Guidelines for Common Infections

      Respiratory infections, urinary tract infections, skin infections, ear, nose, and throat infections, genital infections, and gastrointestinal infections are some of the most common infections that require antibiotic treatment. The British National Formulary (BNF) provides guidelines for the appropriate use of antibiotics for these infections.

      For respiratory infections such as chronic bronchitis, community-acquired pneumonia, and hospital-acquired pneumonia, antibiotics such as amoxicillin, tetracycline, clarithromycin, co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, piperacillin with tazobactam, ceftazidime, or ciprofloxacin are recommended depending on the severity and type of infection.

      For urinary tract infections, lower urinary tract infections can be treated with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, while acute pyelonephritis requires broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone. Acute prostatitis can be treated with quinolone or trimethoprim.

      Skin infections such as impetigo, cellulitis, erysipelas, and animal or human bites require antibiotics such as topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin, erythromycin, doxycycline, clarithromycin, or metronidazole depending on the severity and type of infection.

      Ear, nose, and throat infections such as throat infections, sinusitis, otitis media, otitis externa, periapical or periodontal abscess, and acute necrotising ulcerative gingivitis require antibiotics such as phenoxymethylpenicillin, amoxicillin, erythromycin, or flucloxacillin depending on the severity and type of infection.

      Genital infections such as gonorrhoea, chlamydia, pelvic inflammatory disease, syphilis, and bacterial vaginosis require antibiotics such as intramuscular ceftriaxone, doxycycline, azithromycin, ofloxacin, metronidazole, or benzathine benzylpenicillin depending on the severity and type of infection.

      Gastrointestinal infections such as Clostridioides difficile, Campylobacter enteritis, Salmonella (non-typhoid), and Shigellosis require antibiotics such as oral vancomycin, oral fidaxomicin, clarithrom

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old known to be HIV positive comes to the clinic complaining of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old known to be HIV positive comes to the clinic complaining of diarrhoea that has been ongoing for 2 days. What is the probable cause of his diarrhoea?

      Your Answer: Cryptosporidium

      Explanation:

      Patients with HIV infection commonly experience diarrhoea as a result of Cryptosporidium, while respiratory infection may be caused by Histoplasmosis.

      Diarrhoea in HIV Patients: Causes and Management

      Diarrhoea is a common symptom experienced by patients with HIV. It can be caused by the virus itself, known as HIV enteritis, or by opportunistic infections. The most common infective cause of diarrhoea in HIV patients is Cryptosporidium, an intracellular protozoa with an incubation period of 7 days. Symptoms can range from mild to severe diarrhoea, and diagnosis is made through a modified Ziehl-Neelsen stain of the stool. Unfortunately, treatment is difficult, and supportive therapy is the mainstay of management.

      Other possible causes of diarrhoea in HIV patients include Cytomegalovirus, Mycobacterium avium intracellulare, and Giardia. Mycobacterium avium intracellulare is an atypical mycobacteria that is typically seen when the CD4 count is below 50. Symptoms include fever, sweats, abdominal pain, and diarrhoea, and diagnosis is made through blood cultures and bone marrow examination. Management involves the use of rifabutin, ethambutol, and clarithromycin.

      In summary, diarrhoea is a common symptom experienced by HIV patients, and it can be caused by a variety of opportunistic infections. While treatment can be difficult, supportive therapy can help manage symptoms. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential causes of diarrhoea in HIV patients and to work with their patients to develop an appropriate management plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - As a foundation doctor in the endocrine department, if you were to assess...

    Correct

    • As a foundation doctor in the endocrine department, if you were to assess a patient with hypoparathyroidism resulting in hypocalcaemia, what findings may you discover during your investigation?

      Your Answer: Chvostek's sign: percussion over the facial nerve

      Explanation:

      Hypocalcaemia: Symptoms and Signs

      Hypocalcaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of calcium in the blood. Since calcium is essential for proper muscle and nerve function, many of the symptoms and signs of hypocalcaemia are related to neuromuscular excitability. The most common features of hypocalcaemia include muscle twitching, cramping, and spasms, as well as perioral paraesthesia. In chronic cases, patients may experience depression and cataracts.

      An electrocardiogram (ECG) may show a prolonged QT interval, while Trousseau’s sign may be present when the brachial artery is occluded by inflating the blood pressure cuff and maintaining pressure above systolic. This causes wrist flexion and fingers to be drawn together, and is seen in around 95% of patients with hypocalcaemia and around 1% of normocalcaemic people. Chvostek’s sign, which is seen in around 70% of patients with hypocalcaemia and around 10% of normocalcaemic people, involves tapping over the parotid gland to cause facial muscles to twitch.

      In summary, hypocalcaemia can cause a range of symptoms and signs related to neuromuscular excitability, including muscle twitching, cramping, and spasms, as well as perioral paraesthesia, depression, and cataracts. Trousseau’s sign and Chvostek’s sign are also commonly observed in patients with hypocalcaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 78-year-old man is undergoing evaluation for a possible cognitive impairment and movement...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old man is undergoing evaluation for a possible cognitive impairment and movement disorder. Various scans have been ordered to aid in the assessment. The scan results are as follows: MRI head shows normal age-related changes, while the SPECT scan reveals decreased dopaminergic activity in the substantia nigra. Based on this information, what is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Parkinson's disease

      Explanation:

      Neurodegenerative diseases are characterized by the progressive loss of neurons in the brain, leading to a range of symptoms. Parkinson’s disease is a common example, which affects the basal ganglia and causes movement disorders such as bradykinesia, muscle rigidity, tremor, and postural instability. Alzheimer’s dementia, on the other hand, is associated with atrophy of the medial temporal lobe and temporoparietal cortex, but does not typically involve movement disorders. Huntington’s disease primarily affects the striatum, leading to a loss of striatal volume and the characteristic symptom of chorea – jerky, uncontrollable limb movements. Multi-system atrophy is a rare condition that affects both the basal ganglia and cerebellum, leading to autonomic dysfunction, ataxia, and Parkinsonism, but cognitive impairment is not typically seen.

      Parkinson’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative condition that occurs when dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra degenerate. This leads to a classic triad of symptoms, including bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity, which are typically asymmetrical. The disease is more common in men and is usually diagnosed around the age of 65. Bradykinesia is characterized by a poverty of movement, shuffling steps, and difficulty initiating movement. Tremors are most noticeable at rest and typically occur in the thumb and index finger. Rigidity can be either lead pipe or cogwheel, and other characteristic features include mask-like facies, flexed posture, and micrographia. Psychiatric features such as depression, dementia, and sleep disturbances may also occur. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but if there is difficulty differentiating between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease, 123I‑FP‑CIT single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 43-year-old man, David, visits you after his 72-year-old father passed away due...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old man, David, visits you after his 72-year-old father passed away due to a heart attack. David has a history of asthma, which he occasionally manages with his salbutamol inhaler, and was diagnosed with type 1 diabetes at the age of 20. His diabetes is well-controlled, and his last cholesterol test, conducted three months ago, was within the normal range. David has been reading about the connection between cholesterol and heart attacks in the news and is curious if he should take medication to lower his cholesterol levels.

      Which of the following options is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Repeat cholesterol in 5 years time

      Correct Answer: Start atorvastatin 20mg today

      Explanation:

      For primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, individuals with type 1 diabetes who do not have established risk factors should be prescribed atorvastatin 20mg if they are over 40 years old, have had diabetes for more than 10 years, have established nephropathy, or have other risk factors such as obesity and hypertension. As this patient has had type 1 diabetes for over 10 years, they should be offered statins.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of an enzyme called HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for producing cholesterol in the liver. However, they can cause some adverse effects such as myopathy, which includes muscle pain, weakness, and damage, and liver impairment. Myopathy is more common in lipophilic statins than in hydrophilic ones. Statins may also increase the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients who have had a stroke before. Therefore, they should be avoided in these patients. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy and should be stopped if the patient is taking macrolides.

      Statins are recommended for people with established cardiovascular disease, those with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or more, and patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago, are over 40 years old, or have established nephropathy should also take statins. It is recommended to take statins at night as this is when cholesterol synthesis takes place. Atorvastatin 20mg is recommended for primary prevention, and the dose should be increased if non-HDL has not reduced for 40% or more. Atorvastatin 80 mg is recommended for secondary prevention. The graphic shows the different types of statins available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      29
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old male presents with a 2-day history of feeling unwell and abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male presents with a 2-day history of feeling unwell and abdominal pain. Upon examination, you note a distended abdomen with guarding and absent bowel sounds. The patient's blood pressure is 88/42 mmHg, and heart rate is 120 bpm. A CT scan reveals a perforation of the sigmoid colon due to a large lesion causing bowel obstruction. The patient undergoes emergency laparotomy. What surgical procedure is most likely to have been performed?

      Your Answer: Total colectomy

      Correct Answer: End colostomy

      Explanation:

      When dealing with an emergency situation where a colonic tumour has caused perforation, it is riskier to perform a colon-colon anastomosis. This is because it could result in an anastomotic leak, which would release bowel contents into the abdomen. Therefore, it is safer to perform an end colostomy, which can be reversed at a later time. Ileostomy, both end and loop, is not suitable for this patient as the perforation is located in the distal colon. Ileocolic anastomoses are generally safe in emergency situations and do not require de-functioning. However, in this case, an ileocolic anastomosis would not be appropriate as the obstructing lesion is in the distal colon rather than the proximal colon.

      Colorectal cancer is typically diagnosed through CT scans and colonoscopies or CT colonography. Patients with tumors below the peritoneal reflection should also undergo MRI to evaluate their mesorectum. Once staging is complete, a treatment plan is formulated by a dedicated colorectal MDT meeting.

      For colon cancer, surgery is the primary treatment option, with resectional surgery being the only cure. The procedure is tailored to the patient and tumor location, with lymphatic chains being resected based on arterial supply. Anastomosis is the preferred method of restoring continuity, but in some cases, an end stoma may be necessary. Chemotherapy is often offered to patients with risk factors for disease recurrence.

      Rectal cancer management differs from colon cancer due to the rectum’s anatomical location. Tumors can be surgically resected with either an anterior resection or an abdomino-perineal excision of rectum (APER). A meticulous dissection of the mesorectal fat and lymph nodes is integral to the procedure. Neoadjuvant radiotherapy is often offered to patients prior to resectional surgery, and those with obstructing rectal cancer should have a defunctioning loop colostomy.

      Segmental resections based on blood supply and lymphatic drainage are the primary operations for cancer. The type of resection and anastomosis depend on the site of cancer. In emergency situations where the bowel has perforated, an end colostomy is often safer. Left-sided resections are more risky, but ileo-colic anastomoses are relatively safe even in the emergency setting and do not need to be defunctioned.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old man is brought to the Accident and Emergency Department after having...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man is brought to the Accident and Emergency Department after having a blackout. He was walking down the street when he felt nauseated, dizzy and sweaty. He collapsed and lost consciousness for one minute. A friend says that he was pale and had some jerking of his limbs for 10 seconds, but he did not bite his tongue and there was no history of urinary incontinence. He recovered immediately, with no confusion or disorientation. Examination and the electrocardiogram (ECG) are normal. He is otherwise usually fit and well and on no regular medications.
      What further investigation is required to make a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: No investigation

      Explanation:

      When to Investigate Transient Loss of Consciousness: A Guide for Clinicians

      Transient loss of consciousness (LOC) can be a concerning symptom for patients and clinicians alike. However, not all cases require extensive investigation. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, patients presenting with a transient LOC should undergo a thorough history, examination, and electrocardiogram (ECG). If these are normal and the patient meets certain criteria, further work-up may not be necessary.

      For example, uncomplicated vasovagal syncope can be diagnosed if there are no features suggesting an alternative diagnosis and if the patient experiences the 3 Ps of posture-prolonged standing, provoking factors, and prodromal symptoms. Doppler ultrasonography of the carotids would only be indicated if there was suspicion of carotid artery stenosis, while a single syncopal episode is not an indication for a computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain.

      Electroencephalogram (EEG) may be considered if the history is suggestive of epilepsy, but it should not be routinely used in the work-up for transient LOC. Features strongly suggestive of epilepsy include a bitten tongue, head turning to one side during transient LOC, no memory of abnormal behavior witnessed by someone else, unusual posturing, prolonged limb jerking, confusion following the event, and prodromal déjà vu or jamais vu. If any of these are present, the patient should be reviewed by a specialist within 2 weeks, who would then make a decision regarding EEG.

      In summary, a thorough evaluation is necessary for all patients presenting with a transient LOC. However, if the patient meets certain criteria and there are no features suggesting an alternative diagnosis, further investigation may not be required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 30-year-old woman presents with a swollen first finger and wrist pain associated...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with a swollen first finger and wrist pain associated with a 5 month history of generalised fatigue. She has no other symptoms including no skin changes, and no previous medical history. Her mother suffers from psoriasis. She had the following blood tests as part of her investigations.

      Hb 125 g/l

      Platelets 390 * 109/l

      WBC 9.5 * 109/l

      ESR 78 mm/h

      Rheumatoid Factor Negative

      Antinuclear Antibody Negative

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Although females in this age group can be affected by SLE and rheumatoid arthritis, the most probable diagnosis for this patient is psoriatic arthritis due to the presence of dactylitis and a first-degree relative with psoriasis. Furthermore, rheumatoid factor and antinucleur antibody are typically positive in rheumatoid arthritis, while antinucleur antibody is mainly positive in SLE. Gout usually targets the first metatarsophalangeal joint of the first toe.

      Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is known to have a poor correlation with cutaneous psoriasis. In fact, it often precedes the development of skin lesions. This condition affects both males and females equally, with around 10-20% of patients with skin lesions developing an arthropathy.

      The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with different patterns of joint involvement. The most common type is symmetric polyarthritis, which is very similar to rheumatoid arthritis and affects around 30-40% of cases. Asymmetrical oligoarthritis is another type, which typically affects the hands and feet and accounts for 20-30% of cases. Sacroiliitis, DIP joint disease, and arthritis mutilans (severe deformity of fingers/hand) are other patterns of joint involvement. Other signs of psoriatic arthropathy include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, enthesitis, tenosynovitis, dactylitis, and nail changes.

      To diagnose psoriatic arthropathy, X-rays are often used. These can reveal erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as periostitis and a pencil-in-cup appearance. Management of this condition should be done by a rheumatologist, and treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis. However, there are some differences, such as the use of monoclonal antibodies like ustekinumab and secukinumab. Mild peripheral arthritis or mild axial disease may be treated with NSAIDs alone, rather than all patients being on disease-modifying therapy as with RA. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      21.8
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology/Nutrition (0/2) 0%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (0/1) 0%
Infectious Diseases (2/2) 100%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (1/1) 100%
Neurology (2/2) 100%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Passmed