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  • Question 1 - A 62-year-old woman, presents to emergency department with an ischaemic left colon. Multiple...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman, presents to emergency department with an ischaemic left colon. Multiple arteries arise from the aorta at the level of the L3 vertebrae, which is most likely to be involved in this pathology?

      Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The inferior mesenteric artery arises from the abdominal aorta at the level of the L3 vertebrae and supplies blood to the final third of the transverse colon, the descending colon, the sigmoid colon and the uppermost part of the rectum.

      It is the artery most likely to affect the left colon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An 82-year-old male has severe abdominal pain that is out of proportion to...

    Correct

    • An 82-year-old male has severe abdominal pain that is out of proportion to the examination. He is a known case of atrial fibrillation and diverticulitis. Suspecting mesenteric ischemia, he was thoroughly investigated, and a mesenteric angiography shows ischemia of the left colic flexure. Which artery gives off branches that supply this region directly?

      Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery (IMA)

      Explanation:

      Mesenteric ischemia is ischemia of the blood vessels of the intestines. It can be life-threatening, especially if the small intestine is involved.

      The inferior mesenteric artery originates 3-4 cm above the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta.
      The left colic artery branches off the inferior mesenteric artery to supply the following:
      – distal 1/3 of the transverse colon
      – descending colon

      At approximately the left colic flexure (splenic flexure), a transition occurs in the blood supply of the GI tract. The SMA supplies the proximal part to the flexure, and the IMA supplies the part distal to the flexure. This is why the left colic flexure is a watershed area and is prone to ischemia exacerbated by atherosclerotic changes or hypotension. The dominant arterial supply of the splenic flexure is usually from the left colic artery, but it may also get collaterals from the left branch of the middle colic artery.

      The AMA and PMA do not exist.
      The splenic artery directly supplies the spleen and has branches that supply the stomach and the pancreas.
      The proximal two-thirds of the transverse colon is supplied by the middle colic artery, a branch of the SMA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What part of the male urethra is completely surrounded by Bucks fascia? ...

    Correct

    • What part of the male urethra is completely surrounded by Bucks fascia?

      Your Answer: Spongiosa part

      Explanation:

      Bucks fascia refers to the layer of loose connective tissue, nerves and blood vessels that encapsulates the penile erectile bodies, the corpa cavernosa and the anterior part of the urethra, including the entirety of the spongiose part of the urethra.

      It runs with the external spermatic fascia and the penile suspensory ligament.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You decide to conduct research on the normal rates of gastric emptying in...

    Incorrect

    • You decide to conduct research on the normal rates of gastric emptying in healthy people. The strategy is to give a drug orally and measure plasma concentrations at predetermined intervals. Which of the following drugs would you choose to use?

      Your Answer: Propranolol

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Because of the low pH in the stomach, paracetamol absorption is minimal (pKa value is 9.5). Paracetamol is absorbed quickly and completely in the alkaline environment of the small intestine. Oral bioavailability is approaching 100%. As a result, measuring paracetamol levels in plasma after an oral paracetamol dose has been used as a surrogate marker of gastric emptying. This method has been used to investigate the effects of drugs on gastric emptying. At clinically used doses, paracetamol is ideal because it has very few side effects.

      Scintigraphic imaging is the gold standard for determining gastric emptying.

      Although aspirin (acetyl salicylic acid) is absorbed primarily in the small intestine, some may also be absorbed in the stomach. The oral bioavailability ranges from 70 to 100 percent, making it less reliable than paracetamol.

      Propranolol is a lipophilic drug that is rapidly absorbed after administration. However, it is highly metabolised by the liver in the first pass, and only about 25% of propranolol reaches the systemic circulation. It’s not the best indicator of gastric emptying.

      Oral bioavailability of gentamicin and vancomycin is low. Only antibiotic-induced pseudomembranous colitis is treated with oral vancomycin.

      Erythromycin is a pro-kinetic agent that acts as a motilin receptor agonist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the primary purpose of funnel plots? ...

    Correct

    • What is the primary purpose of funnel plots?

      Your Answer: Demonstrate the existence of publication bias in meta-analyses

      Explanation:

      Funnel plot is essentially a scatterplot of the effect of treatment against a particular measure of study precision. Its primal purpose is to serve as a visual aid and help in detection of bias or systematic heterogenity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which of the following statements is true about data analysed from a new...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true about data analysed from a new drug trial?

      Your Answer: A Student's t test could be used

      Correct Answer: The data could be evaluated using the chi square test

      Explanation:

      The data is ideal for chi square test evaluation as it will help determine if observed outcomes are in line with expected outcomes, and also if results are significant or due to chance.

      The student’s t test is not ideal as it requires comparison of means from different populations, rather than proportions.

      Pearson’s coefficient of linear regression is not ideal as it requires the plotting of a linear regression.

      The numbers should be analysed before determining if there are any statistical conclusions that can be drawn from the population.

      Statistical analysis is always required to determine the performance of any treatment during a clinical drug trial. Conclusions cannot be drawn simply by looking at the data.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Useful diagnostic information can be obtained from measuring the osmolality of biological fluids....

    Correct

    • Useful diagnostic information can be obtained from measuring the osmolality of biological fluids. Of the following physical principles, which is the most accurate and reliable method of measuring osmolality?

      Your Answer: Depression of freezing point

      Explanation:

      Colligative properties are properties of solutions that depend on the number of dissolved particles in solution. They do not depend on the identities of the solutes.

      All of the above have colligative properties with the exception of depression of melting point.

      The osmolality from the concentration of a substance in a solution is measured by an osmometer. The freezing point of a solution can determines concentration of a solution and this can be measured by using a freezing point osmometer. This is applicable as depression of freezing point is directly correlated to concentration.

      Vapour pressure osmometers, which measure vapour pressure, may miss certain volatiles such as CO2, ammonia and alcohol that are in the solution

      The use of a freezing point osmometer provides the most accurate and reliable results for the majority of applications.

      Colligative properties does not include melting point depression . Mixtures of substances in which the liquid phase components are insoluble, display a melting point depression and a melting range or interval instead of a fixed melting point.

      The magnitude of the melting point depression depends on the mixture composition.

      The melting point depression is used to determine the purity and identity of compounds. EMLA (eutectic mixture of local anaesthetics) cream is a mixture of lidocaine and prilocaine and is used as a topical local anaesthetic. The melting point of the combined drugs is lower than that individually and is below room temperature (18°C).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - The Medical Admissions unit receives a 71-year-old woman. She has type 2 diabetes,...

    Correct

    • The Medical Admissions unit receives a 71-year-old woman. She has type 2 diabetes, which she manages with diet, but she has been feeling ill for the past 48 hours. Her pulse rate is 110 beats per minute, her blood pressure is 90/50 mmHg, and she is clinically dehydrated. Her respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute, and chest auscultation reveals no focal signs. The following are the lab results: Glucose 27.4 mmol/L (3.5-5.5), Ketones 2.5 mmol/L (<0.1), Urinary glucose is zero (dipstick) with ketones. A random blood glucose of 15.3 mmol/L was measured during a visit to the diabetic clinic one month prior to admission, according to her notes, and a urinary dipstick registered a high glucose and ketones++. The discrepancy between plasma and urinary glucose measurements is best explained by which of the following physiological mechanisms?

      Your Answer: The glomerular filtration rate is abnormally low

      Explanation:

      The glucose molecule enters the Bowman’s capsule freely and becomes part of the filtrate.

      All glucose is reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule when blood glucose concentrations are below a certain threshold (approximately 11 mmol/L) (PCT). Active transportation makes this possible. In the proximal tubular cells, sodium/glucose cotransporters (SGLT1 and SGLT2) are the proteins responsible.

      Glucose does not normally appear in the urine below the renal threshold.

      The renal glucose threshold is not set in stone and is affected by a variety of factors, including GFR, TmG, and the quantity of splay.

      The different absorptive and filtering capacities of individual nephrons cause splay, which is the rounding of a glucose reabsorption curve.

      The SGLT proteins have a high affinity for glucose, but not an infinite affinity. As a result, some glucose may escape reabsorption before the TmG. A decrease in renal threshold may be caused by an increase in splay.

      Because the filtered glucose load is reduced and the PCT can reabsorb all of the filtered glucose despite hyperglycaemia, a low GFR causes an increase in TmG. In contrast, lowering the TmG lowers the threshold because the tubules’ ability to reabsorb glucose is reduced.

      A reduction in GFR caused by severe dehydration and reduced perfusion pressure is the most obvious cause of the discrepancy between plasma and urinary glucose in this scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      50.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following options will best reflect the adequacy of preoxygenation prior...

    Correct

    • Which of the following options will best reflect the adequacy of preoxygenation prior to rapid sequence induction of a patient?

      Your Answer: Expired fraction of oxygen (FEO2)

      Explanation:

      The most important determinant of preoxygenation adequacy is expired fraction of oxygen. Denitrogenating of the functional residual capacity is the purpose of preoxygenation. This is dependent on three vital factors: (1) respiratory rate; (2) inspired volume, and; (3) inspired oxygen concentration (FiO2).

      Arterial oxygen saturation does not efficiently determine adequacy of preoxygenation because of its inability to measure tissue reserves. Arterial partial pressure of oxygen is also unsuitable for determining preoxygenation adequacy. Moreover, the absence of central cyanosis is a very crude sign of low tissue oxygenation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 40-year-old obese woman has complaints of heartburn and regurgitation that is worse...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old obese woman has complaints of heartburn and regurgitation that is worse on lying flat. The doctor suspects gastroesophageal reflux due to a hiatus hernia. Lifestyle modifications to lose weight and antacids are prescribed to her. At which level of the diaphragm will you find an opening for this problem?

      Your Answer: T10

      Explanation:

      Hiatus is an opening in the diaphragm. A hiatal hernia is a protrusion of the upper part of the stomach through an opening in the diaphragm, the oesophageal hiatus, into the thorax. The oesophageal hiatus occurs at the level of T10 in the right crus of the diaphragm.

      Other important openings in the diaphragm:
      T8: vena cava, terminal branches of the right phrenic nerve
      T10: oesophagus, vagal trunks, left anterior phrenic vessels, oesophageal branches of the left gastric vessels
      T12: descending aorta, thoracic duct, azygous and hemi-azygous vein

      An opening in the diaphragm is called a hiatus. The oesophageal hiatus is at vertebral level T10. A hiatus hernia is where the stomach bulges through the oesophageal hiatus hence the name – hiatus hernia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The following statements are about burns patients. Which one is true? ...

    Correct

    • The following statements are about burns patients. Which one is true?

      Your Answer: High protein diets may improve survival

      Explanation:

      Patients who have sustained thermal injuries are at high risk of becoming hypercatabolic with larger cardiac outputs and oxygen consumptions.

      The hypermetabolic states increase with an increase in the burn severity and surface area of the skin affected. A patient with thermal injuries affecting 60% of the total surface area of the body will have twice the normal metabolic rate.

      The optimal temperature for nursing patients with burn injuries is 30°C to conserve the energy usage. The areas affected by the burn injuries should be covered to reduce loss of fluid via evaporation. Resetting hypothalamic thermoregulation will cause a 1-2°C increase in core temperature.

      Burn injuries will have an immediate effect on the intestine, destroying the barrier function and allowing for the movement of bacteria and endotoxins within hours.

      Enteral nutrition allows for the delivery of nutrients directly to the stomach or intestine. It has correlation with a dampened hypermetabolic response to a thermal and injury, especially when initiated early as it helps to protect the integrity of the mucosal lining and prevents the movement of bacteria into circulation.

      Diet changes have been linked to reduced mortality due to burn injuries. Diets high in protein especially (calorie: nitrogen ratio of 100: 1), have the highest correlation with improved survival rates.

      Parenteral feeds may be required alongside enteral nutrition, even with the increased risks of infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Seven days after undergoing an inguinal hernia repair, a 24-year old male presents...

    Correct

    • Seven days after undergoing an inguinal hernia repair, a 24-year old male presents with a wound that is erythematous, tender and has a purulent discharge. The most likely cause of this is which of the following?

      Your Answer: Infection with Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Staphylococcus aureus infection is the most likely cause.

      Surgical site infections (SSI) occur when there is a breach in tissue surfaces and allow normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. They are a major cause of morbidity and mortality.

      SSI comprise up to 20% of healthcare associated infections and approximately 5% of patients undergoing surgery will develop an SSI as a result.
      The organisms are usually derived from the patient’s own body.

      Measures that may increase the risk of SSI include:
      -Shaving the wound using a single use electrical razor with a disposable head
      -Using a non iodine impregnated surgical drape if one is needed
      -Tissue hypoxia
      -Delayed prophylactic antibiotics administration in tourniquet surgery, patients with a prosthesis or valve, in clean-contaminated surgery of in contaminated surgery.

      Measures that may decrease the risk of SSI include:
      1. Intraoperatively
      – Prepare the skin with alcoholic chlorhexidine (Lowest incidence of SSI)
      -Cover surgical site with dressing

      In contrast to previous individual RCT’s, a recent meta analysis has confirmed that administration of supplementary oxygen does not reduce the risk of wound infection and wound edge protectors do not appear to confer benefit.

      2. Post operatively
      Tissue viability advice for management of surgical wounds healing by secondary intention

      Use of diathermy for skin incisions
      In the NICE guidelines the use of diathermy for skin incisions is not advocated. Several randomised controlled trials have been undertaken and demonstrated no increase in risk of SSI when diathermy is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - An 85-year old female is being investigated and treated for pancytopenia of unknown...

    Correct

    • An 85-year old female is being investigated and treated for pancytopenia of unknown origin. Her most recent blood test is shown below which shows that he has a low platelet count. Hb-102 g/l, WBC - 2.9* 109/l, Platelets - 7 * 109/l. Which of the following normally stimulates platelet production?

      Your Answer: Thrombopoietin

      Explanation:

      Interleukin-4 is a cytokine which acts to regulate the responses of B and T cells.

      Erythropoietin is responsible for the signal that initiated red blood cell production.

      Granulocyte-colony stimulating factor stimulates the bone marrow to produce granulocytes.

      Interleukin-5 is a cytokine that stimulates the proliferation and activation of eosinophils.

      Thrombopoietin is the primary signal responsible for megakaryocyte and thus platelet production.
      Platelets are also called thrombocytes. They, like red blood cells, are also derived from myeloid stem cells. The process involves a megakaryocyte developing from a common myeloid progenitor cell. A megakaryocyte is a large cell with a multilobulated nucleus, this grows to become massive where it will then break up to form platelets.

      Immune cells are generated from haematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow. They generate two main types of progenitors, myeloid and lymphoid progenitor cells, from which all immune cells are derived.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - The incidence and prevalence of a diabetes in a locality are being measured...

    Incorrect

    • The incidence and prevalence of a diabetes in a locality are being measured by a health care professional. This is what he found: Year: People with Diabetes vs New Cases 2017: 150,000 vs 2000 2018: 150,000 vs 4000. What can be stated regarding the incidence and prevalence of the disease in that area?

      Your Answer: Incidence equal, prevalence increasing

      Correct Answer: Incidence increasing, prevalence equal

      Explanation:

      Incidence tells us about the number of new cases that have been reported while prevalence gives us the idea of existing cases.

      In this particular instance, the parameter of the study i.e. the total number of cases has not changed thus the prevalence of the disease remains same. Although, more cases have been reported in the second instance as a result of which incidence has increased.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      36.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Gentamicin is a drug used for the treatment of bronchiectasis. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Gentamicin is a drug used for the treatment of bronchiectasis. Which of the following is true regarding the mechanism of action of gentamicin?

      Your Answer: Inhibit the 50S subunit of ribosomes

      Correct Answer: Inhibit the 30S subunit of ribosomes

      Explanation:

      Gentamicin is a broad-spectrum antibiotic whose mechanism of action involves inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to 30s ribosomes. Its major adverse effect is nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity

      Aminoglycoside bind to 30s subunit of ribosome causing misreading of mRNA

      Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.

      Chloramphenicol binds to the 50s subunit and inhibits peptidyl transferase

      Clindamycin binds to the 50s ribosomal subunit of bacteria and disrupts protein synthesis by interfering with the transpeptidation reaction, which thereby inhibits early chain elongation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - All the following statements are false regarding local anaesthetic except ...

    Incorrect

    • All the following statements are false regarding local anaesthetic except

      Your Answer: The onset of action is unrelated to pKa

      Correct Answer: Potency is directly related to lipid solubility

      Explanation:

      The potency of local anaesthetics is directly proportional to lipid solubility because they need to penetrate the lipid-soluble membrane to enter the cell.

      Protein binding has a direct relationship with the duration of action because the higher the ability of the drug to bind with membrane protein, the higher is the duration of action.

      Higher the pKa of a drug, slower the onset of action. Because a drug with higher pKa will be more ionized than the one with lower pKa at a given pH. Local anaesthetics are weak bases, and unionized form diffuses more rapidly across the nerve membrane than the protonated form. As a result drugs with higher pKa will be more ionized will diffuse less across the nerve membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old female is having her central venous pressure (CVP) measured. A long...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female is having her central venous pressure (CVP) measured. A long femoral line was inserted that passes from the common iliac vein into the inferior vena cava. At which level of vertebra does this occur?

      Your Answer: L4

      Correct Answer: L5

      Explanation:

      The inferior vena cava is formed by the union of the right and left common iliac veins. This occurs at the L5 vertebral level. The IVC courses along the right anterolateral side of the vertebral column and ascends through the central tendon of the diaphragm at the T8 vertebral level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - The liver plays a major role in drug metabolism. Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • The liver plays a major role in drug metabolism. Which of the following liver cells is most important in phase I of drug metabolism?

      Your Answer: Kupffer cells

      Correct Answer: Centrilobular cells

      Explanation:

      The metabolism of drugs in the liver occurs in 3 phases

      Phase I: This involves functionalization reactions, which are of 3 types, namely hydrolysis, oxidation and reduction reactions catalysed by the cytochrome P450 (CYP) enzymes.

      Phase II: This involves conjugation or acetylation reactions. The goal is to create water soluble metabolites that can be excreted from the body.

      The liver is the second largest organ. It’s smallest functional unit is the acinus which is divided into 3 zones:

      Zone I (periportal): This zone receives the largest amount of oxygen supply as it is the closest to the blood vessels. It is the site of plasma protein synthesis.

      Zone II (mediolobular): This is located between the portal triad and central vein.

      Zone III (centrilobular): This is closest to the central vein and receives the least amount of oxygen supply.

      Kupffer cells are specialized macrophages found in the periportal zone of the liver, and function to remove foreign particles and breakdown red blood cells via phagocytosis.

      Ito cells are fat-storing liver cells found in the space of Disse. Their function is to take-uo, store and secrete retinoids, as well as manufacture and release proteins that make up the extracellular matrix.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which statement is true with regards to the cardiac action potential? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is true with regards to the cardiac action potential?

      Your Answer: Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium initiates rapid repolarisation

      Correct Answer: Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close causes the relative refractory period to start

      Explanation:

      Cardiac conduction

      Phase 0 – Rapid depolarization. Opening of fast sodium channels with large influx of sodium

      Phase 1 – Rapid partial depolarization. Opening of potassium channels and efflux of potassium ions. Sodium channels close and influx of sodium ions stop

      Phase 2 – Plateau phase with large influx of calcium ions. Offsets action of potassium channels. The absolute refractory period

      Phase 3 – Repolarization due to potassium efflux after calcium channels close. Relative refractory period

      Phase 4 – Repolarization continues as sodium/potassium pump restores the ionic gradient by pumping out 3 sodium ions in exchange for 2 potassium ions coming into the cell. Relative refractory period

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      58.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - An inguinal hernia repair under general anaesthesia is scheduled for a fit 36-year-old...

    Correct

    • An inguinal hernia repair under general anaesthesia is scheduled for a fit 36-year-old man (75 kg). For perioperative and postoperative analgesia, you decide to perform an inguinal field block. Which of the following local anaesthetic solutions is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: 30 mL bupivacaine 0.5%

      Explanation:

      Perioperative and postoperative analgesia can both be provided by an inguinal hernia field block. The Iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal nerves, as well as the skin, superficial fascia, and deeper structures, must be blocked for maximum effectiveness. The local anaesthetic should ideally have a long duration of action, be highly concentrated, and have a volume of at least 30 mL.

      Plain bupivacaine has a maximum safe dose of 2 mg/kg body weight.

      Because the patient weighs 75 kg, 150 mg bupivacaine can be safely administered. Both 30 mL 0.5 percent bupivacaine (150 mg) and 60 mL 0.25 percent bupivacaine (150 mg) are acceptable doses, but 30 mL 0.5 percent bupivacaine represents the optimal volume and strength, potentially providing a denser and longer block.

      The maximum safe dose of plain lidocaine has been estimated to be between 3.5 and 5 mg/kg. The patient weighs 75 kg and can receive a maximum of 375 mg using the higher dosage regimen:

      There are 200 mg of lidocaine in 10 mL of 2% lidocaine (and therefore 11 mL contains 220 mg)
      200 mg of lidocaine is contained in 20 mL of 1% lidocaine.

      While alternatives are available, Although the doses of 11 mL lidocaine 2% and 20 mL lidocaine 1% are well within the dose limit, the volumes used are insufficient for effective field block for this surgery.

      With 1 in 200,000 epinephrine, the maximum safe dose of lidocaine is 7 mg/kg. The patient can be given 525 mg in this case. Even with epinephrine, 60 mL of 1% lidocaine is 600 mg, which could be considered an overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      31
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (4/5) 80%
Pharmacology (1/4) 25%
Statistical Methods (1/3) 33%
Physiology (1/1) 100%
Pathophysiology (3/4) 75%
Physiology And Biochemistry (2/3) 67%
Passmed