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  • Question 1 - What is the hormone that controls the levels of calcium in the blood?...

    Correct

    • What is the hormone that controls the levels of calcium in the blood?

      Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Parathyroid Hormone in Regulating Blood Calcium Levels

      Calcium plays a crucial role in various bodily functions, including bone support, blood clotting, muscle contraction, nervous transmission, and hormone production. However, excessively high or low levels of calcium in the blood and interstitial fluid can lead to serious health issues such as arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. This is where parathyroid hormone comes in.

      Parathyroid hormone is responsible for regulating blood calcium levels. It works directly on the bone, stimulating bone production or resorption depending on the concentration and duration of exposure. It also acts on the kidney, increasing the loss of phosphate in the urine, decreasing the loss of calcium in the urine, and promoting the activity of the enzyme 1-alpha hydroxylase, which activates vitamin D. Additionally, parathyroid hormone indirectly affects the gut through the action of activated vitamin D.

      Overall, the regulation of blood calcium levels is crucial for maintaining optimal bodily functions. Parathyroid hormone plays a vital role in this process by directly and indirectly affecting various organs and systems in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the enzyme necessary for the degradation of glycogen (glycogenolysis)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the enzyme necessary for the degradation of glycogen (glycogenolysis)?

      Your Answer: Phosphofructokinase

      Correct Answer: Glycogen phosphorylase

      Explanation:

      Enzymes Involved in Glycogen Degradation and Production

      Glycogen degradation is a process that requires several enzymes. One of these enzymes is glycogen phosphorylase, which plays a role in releasing glucose molecules from the polysaccharide chain by removing α1-4 glycosidic linkages. Another enzyme required for glycogen degradation is the debranching enzyme, which removes the α1-6 glycosidic linkages that occur only at the branch points. This enzyme accomplishes this by removing a short row of glucose molecules near a branch point and attaching it to the end of a glucose chain. Once this is done, glucose phosphorylase can remove the glucose units one by one.

      It is important to note that the debranching enzyme and glycogen phosphorylase are both used in the breakdown of glycogen, while the branching enzyme and glycogen synthase are involved in glycogen production. Additionally, phosphofructokinase is an enzyme in the glycolysis pathway, while pyruvate carboxylase is required for gluconeogenesis. the roles of these enzymes is crucial in the complex processes involved in glycogen metabolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the location of pancreatic beta-cells? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the location of pancreatic beta-cells?

      Your Answer: At the periphery of islets of Langerhans

      Correct Answer: At the centre of islets of Langerhans

      Explanation:

      The Pancreas and its Beta-Cells

      The pancreas is a gland with both exocrine and endocrine functions. The exocrine part of the pancreas is made up of acini and ducts that secrete digestive enzymes into the small intestine. The endocrine part of the pancreas is composed of the islets of Langerhans, which are clusters of cells scattered throughout the pancreas. These islets contain alpha-cells, beta-cells, and delta-cells.

      Beta-cells are the most abundant cells in the islets of Langerhans and are located in the center of the islets. They are responsible for producing and secreting insulin, a hormone that regulates blood sugar levels. Alpha-cells, on the other hand, produce glucagon, which raises blood sugar levels. Delta-cells produce somatostatin, which inhibits the release of insulin and glucagon.

      In summary, the pancreas is a gland with both exocrine and endocrine functions. The endocrine part of the pancreas is made up of the islets of Langerhans, which contain alpha-cells, beta-cells, and delta-cells. Beta-cells are the most numerous cells in the islets and are responsible for producing and secreting insulin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the enzyme responsible for catalyzing the rate limiting step in glycolysis?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the enzyme responsible for catalyzing the rate limiting step in glycolysis?

      Your Answer: Isomerase

      Correct Answer: Phosphofructokinase

      Explanation:

      The Rate Limiting Step of Glycolysis

      The conversion of fructose 6 phosphate to fructose 1,6,bisphosphate is the main rate limiting step of the glycolysis pathway. This conversion is catalysed by the enzyme phosphofructokinase in the presence of ATP. However, excessive cellular concentrations of ATP can inhibit the activity of phosphofructokinase. This inhibition encourages the storage of excess glucose as glycogen instead of making excessive ATP in times of abundance. On the other hand, when there is cellular abundance of ATP but it is undergoing rapid degradation to AMP, the rising levels of AMP reduce the effect of high concentrations of ATP on the inhibition of the enzyme. Although several other steps in the glycolysis pathway are under control or inhibition in times of cellular ATP abundance or due to an accumulation of the products of glycolysis, phosphofructokinase is considered the main rate limiting step of glycolysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the leading reason for hypoglycemia in adults? ...

    Correct

    • What is the leading reason for hypoglycemia in adults?

      Your Answer: Treated diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Hypoglycaemia in Adults

      Hypoglycaemia is a condition where the blood glucose level falls below the typical fasting level, which is around <4 mmol/L for an adult. This condition can cause various symptoms, including tremors, sweating, nausea, lightheadedness, hunger, and disorientation. Severe hypoglycaemia can even lead to confusion, aggressive behaviour, and reduced consciousness. Drug-treated diabetes mellitus is the most common cause of hypoglycaemia in adults, especially due to insulin or hypoglycaemia drugs like sulphonylureas. Type 1 diabetes patients are at a higher risk of hypoglycaemia due to hypoglycaemia unawareness and blunted glucagon response. However, mild hypoglycaemia is common during fasting, pregnancy, and minor illness. Apart from diabetes, other causes of hypoglycaemia in adults include non-diabetic drugs, alcohol, hepatic failure, critical illness, hormone deficiency, malignancy, insulinoma, non-insulinoma pancreatogenous hypoglycaemia syndrome (NIPHS), and bariatric surgery. It is essential to understand the causes and symptoms of hypoglycaemia to manage the condition effectively. Early diagnosis and treatment can prevent severe complications and improve the quality of life for individuals with hypoglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 17-year-old girl is scheduled for surgery to remove a thyroglossal cyst, which...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old girl is scheduled for surgery to remove a thyroglossal cyst, which will involve removing a part of the hyoid bone. Can you identify the cervical level where the hyoid bone is located?

      Your Answer: C3

      Explanation:

      Levels of Hyoid Bone, Thyroid Cartilage, and Cricoid Cartilage in the Neck

      The neck contains several important structures, including the hyoid bone, thyroid cartilage, and cricoid cartilage. These structures are located at specific levels in the cervical spine. The hyoid bone is situated at the level of the third cervical vertebrae (C3). The thyroid cartilage, which forms the Adam’s apple in males, is located at the level of the fourth and fifth cervical vertebrae (C4 and C5). Finally, the cricoid cartilage, which is the only complete ring of cartilage in the trachea, is situated at the level of the sixth cervical vertebrae (C6). the location of these structures is important for medical professionals who may need to perform procedures or surgeries in the neck region.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - At 3 days old, a newborn receives a routine check and is discovered...

    Correct

    • At 3 days old, a newborn receives a routine check and is discovered to have a murmur. The following week, an echo reveals the most prevalent congenital heart defect. What is the specific abnormality present?

      Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      Common Congenital Cardiac Defects

      The most frequent congenital cardiac defect is a ventricular septal defect (VSD), which can be classified into different types depending on its location within the intraventricular septum. The perimuscular VSD is the most common type and is located at the apex of the septum. VSDs that are closer to the base of the heart, such as perimembranous or sub-aortic VSDs, are less likely to close spontaneously. However, most VSDs can be monitored and do not require surgery.

      Atrial septal defects (ASD) are the second most common abnormality and result in a murmur due to increased flow through the pulmonary trunk. Atrioventricular septal defects (AVSD) cross the atrioventricular septum and can cause mixing between the right and left sides of the heart. AVSDs range from minor defects that behave like a VSD to complete AVSDs that cause congenital cyanosis. They are strongly associated with Down syndrome.

      Patent ductus arteriosus is another non-cyanotic congenital cardiac malformation that typically causes a continuous murmur. Tetralogy of Fallot is the most common congenital cyanotic heart disease, characterized by right ventricular hypertrophy, pulmonary infundibular stenosis, ventricular septal defect, and an overriding aorta. Although many children with Tetralogy of Fallot are not grossly cyanosed in the first few days, it is often diagnosed antenatally. When associated with an ASD, it is known as the pentad of Fallot.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old female patient has come to your clinic with worries about her...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient has come to your clinic with worries about her selenium levels. She has recently begun taking a selenium supplement.

      What is the primary function of selenium in the human body?

      Your Answer: Synthesis of sulphur-containing amino acids

      Correct Answer: Production of thyroid hormone, T3

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Selenium in the Body

      Selenium plays a crucial role in various bodily functions. One of its primary functions is the conversion of thyroid hormone T4 to T3, which requires a selenium-based enzyme called deiodinase. Additionally, selenium is an essential component of certain antioxidant enzymes, such as glutathione peroxidases, which help protect the body from oxidative damage. It also regulates cytokine production and cellular immune function, making it vital for maintaining a healthy immune system.

      Selenium can be found in various food sources, including tuna, sardines, liver, meat, fish, and wholegrain bread. However, some parts of the world have selenium-deficient soils, which can lead to a deficiency in crops and, subsequently, in individuals who consume them. Patients with inflammatory bowel diseases or pancreatic disorders are also at a higher risk of selenium deficiency than healthy individuals.

      A deficiency in selenium can result in poor immune strength, an increased risk of infection, heart failure, and muscle weakness. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure that the body receives an adequate amount of selenium to maintain optimal health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 78-year-old man recovering in hospital from a knee replacement experiences increasing difficulty...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old man recovering in hospital from a knee replacement experiences increasing difficulty breathing. He also has a fever and has started coughing. The medical team suspects he may have a lower respiratory tract infection.
      Which of the following anatomical features is not susceptible to a lower respiratory tract infection?

      Your Answer: Pharynx

      Explanation:

      The Respiratory Tract and its Infections

      The respiratory tract can be divided into two parts: the upper and lower respiratory tract. The upper respiratory tract consists of the nose, nasal passages, paranasal sinuses, pharynx, and larynx. On the other hand, the lower respiratory tract includes the bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli, which are all located distal to the trachea.

      Acute upper respiratory tract infections are usually caused by viruses and can affect the nose, sinuses, pharynx, and larynx. These infections include rhinosinusitis, pharyngitis, and laryngitis. Symptoms of these infections may include coughing, sneezing, sore throat, and nasal congestion.

      Lower respiratory tract infections, on the other hand, are more severe and can affect the bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli. These infections include pneumonia, bronchitis, and lung abscesses. Symptoms of lower respiratory tract infections may include coughing, chest pain, shortness of breath, and fever.

      It is important to understand the different parts of the respiratory tract and the infections that can affect them. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent complications and promote recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - During a surgical procedure, the anaesthetist administers an intravenous antibiotic to a patient...

    Correct

    • During a surgical procedure, the anaesthetist administers an intravenous antibiotic to a patient in their 60s. Later on, the anaesthetist observes a sudden drop in the patient's blood pressure. The patient's pulse rate increases to over 120, and their extremities appear pale. Capillary refill takes more than 2 seconds, indicating slow blood flow. Despite minimal blood loss during the operation, the anaesthetist suspects the patient is experiencing circulatory shock. What type of shock is the patient likely to be suffering from?

      Your Answer: Anaphylactic

      Explanation:

      Shock and its Causes

      Shock is a condition where the circulation fails to adequately perfuse the body’s tissues. There are various types of shock, each with specific causes. Hypovolaemic shock may occur if there is an unidentified internal bleed, while cardiogenic shock may result from an increased risk of myocardial infarction during surgery. Septic shock is unlikely to occur during surgery as there is not enough time for an infection to establish itself in the circulation. The most probable cause of shock during surgery is anaphylactic shock, which may result from the administration of an anaesthetic agent. The components that are most likely to cause intra-operative anaesthesia are muscle relaxants, latex gloves, and intravenous antibiotics. the different types of shock and their causes is crucial in identifying and treating the condition promptly. Proper management of shock can help prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      35.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A clinical research group is conducting a study on diabetes epidemiology. As part...

    Incorrect

    • A clinical research group is conducting a study on diabetes epidemiology. As part of the study, researchers are collecting data on the age profile of a sample population in India.

      Among the various data collected, one of the variables was the age of a person. This was divided into four categories: under 18, 18-30, 30-50, and over 50. Respondents were asked to select one of these four options.

      What is this type of variable called?

      Your Answer: Discrete metric data

      Correct Answer: Ordinal categorical variable

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Data

      When analyzing data, it is important to understand the different types of variables that can be encountered. One such variable is socio-economic status, which is not a numerical value but can be categorized into four ordinal categories. Ordinal categorical data has a logical order to its categorization, but mathematical functions cannot be performed with the numbers assigned to each category.

      Continuous metric data, on the other hand, can take any value and allows for mathematical functions to be performed. Examples of continuous data include height and weight. Discrete metric data is numerical but only takes certain values, such as the number of children in a family. Nominal categorical data has no hierarchy or gradation, such as blood group or yes/no questions.

      Normal parametric data assumes that variables are normally distributed, but this may not be the case for small sample populations. It is important to note that data can often fall into multiple categories. For example, systolic blood pressure can be considered continuous metric data, but in practice, it is often recorded as integers, making it somewhat like a discrete variable. Additionally, if a cut-off point is used, such as 140 mmHg, the data may become dichotomous and fall into the nominal category. the different types of data is crucial for accurate analysis and interpretation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      35.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What is a frequent reason for mortality in individuals with severe malnutrition? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a frequent reason for mortality in individuals with severe malnutrition?

      Your Answer: Liver failure

      Correct Answer: Infection

      Explanation:

      The Deadly Consequences of Severe Malnutrition

      Severe malnutrition is a widespread problem that affects millions of people worldwide. It is responsible for approximately 50% of deaths in childhood and infancy. One of the most common causes of death in malnourished individuals is severe infection. Malnutrition weakens the immune system, making it more difficult for the body to fight off infections. This is especially true for those living in poverty, with poor access to food, and in areas affected by famine, war, or conflict. These conditions often lead to poor water sanitation, disrupted infrastructure for sewerage, and close living quarters, which increase the likelihood of infection.

      In addition to infections, arrhythmias are also a significant cause of death in people with severe malnutrition. Malnutrition often leads to hypokalaemia, a condition where there is a low level of potassium in the blood. Refeeding a malnourished person can worsen this electrolyte disturbance, creating an arrhythmogenic environment that can be fatal.

      In conclusion, severe malnutrition has deadly consequences, with severe infection and arrhythmias being the leading causes of death. Addressing the root causes of malnutrition, such as poverty and poor access to food, is crucial in preventing these tragic outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 10-year-old boy comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy right ear...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy right ear that has been bothering him for the past five days. During the examination, he winces in pain when the outer ear is touched. Can you identify which part of the ear is considered the outer ear?

      Your Answer: Pinna

      Explanation:

      Earache: Types and Anatomy of the Ear

      Earache can be categorized into two types: otitis media and otitis externa. Otitis media refers to the inflammation of the middle ear, while otitis externa is the inflammation of the outer ear and/or canal. Pain on touch or gentle pulling of the outer ear is commonly associated with otitis externa.

      The outer ear is composed of the visible part of the ear, called the pinna, and the external auditory meatus near the tragus. The external auditory meatus extends from the pinna around 26 mm to the tympanic membrane. On the other hand, the middle ear reaches from the tympanic membrane to the oval window of the cochlea. This space contains three ossicles, namely the malleus, incus, and stapes, which transmit sound waves to the inner ear.

      The inner ear is made up of the cochlea, which is responsible for hearing, and the vestibular apparatus, which helps maintain balance. The vestibular apparatus consists of three semicircular canals and the vestibule.

      the anatomy of the ear and the different types of earache can help in identifying and treating ear problems. It is important to seek medical attention if experiencing ear pain or discomfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 16-year-old male patient is experiencing an acute asthma attack and is struggling...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old male patient is experiencing an acute asthma attack and is struggling to breathe. Which of the following options is not a correct description of anatomical dead space?

      Your Answer: Poorly perfused alveoli

      Explanation:

      Anatomical and Physiological Dead Space

      Anatomical dead space refers to the parts of the respiratory system that do not participate in gaseous exchange. These include the pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles. Although these structures fill with air during inhalation, the air is exhaled without ever being available for circulation. On the other hand, physiological dead space includes not only the anatomical dead space but also regions of alveoli that do not participate in gaseous exchange due to a ventilation/perfusion mismatch.

      In simpler terms, anatomical dead space is the portion of the respiratory system that does not contribute to gas exchange, while physiological dead space includes both the anatomical dead space and areas of the lungs that are not functioning properly. these concepts is important in diagnosing and treating respiratory disorders, as well as in monitoring the effectiveness of respiratory therapies. By identifying and addressing dead space, healthcare professionals can help improve a patient’s breathing and overall respiratory function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 45-year-old female patient complains of cough and difficulty breathing. During examination, a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female patient complains of cough and difficulty breathing. During examination, a mid-diastolic murmur is detected and the patient has a flushed face. What past infection could have caused these symptoms 10-20 years ago?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes

      Explanation:

      Rheumatic Heart Disease and Mitral Stenosis

      Rheumatic heart disease is the leading cause of mitral stenosis, a condition characterized by shortness of breath and a mid-diastolic murmur in the heart. This disease is an immune response to a Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection, such as streptococcus pyogenes. Acute rheumatic fever can occur within two weeks of the initial infection and can lead to a pan carditis, along with other symptoms like erythema marginatum and arthritis. If left untreated, chronic carditis may develop, which can result in mitral stenosis.

      Diphtheria is caused by Corynebacterium diptheriae, while Enterococcus faecalis is a group G streptococcal organism that can cause urinary tract and intra-abdominal infections. Neisseria meningitidis is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis, and Staphylococcus aureus can cause skin, bone, and joint infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Ms. Johnson is a 35-year-old asthmatic woman with severe community acquired pneumonia. She...

    Incorrect

    • Ms. Johnson is a 35-year-old asthmatic woman with severe community acquired pneumonia. She has been admitted to the intensive care unit for cardiovascular support. Currently, her blood pressure is 80/64 mmHg, heart rate is 128 bpm, and cardiac output is 3.2 L/min. Ms. Johnson is receiving 15 L/min of oxygen through a facemask and has oxygen saturations of 88% with a respiratory rate of 16. Her temperature is 39.6°C. What is the estimated stroke volume for Ms. Johnson?

      Your Answer: 40 ml

      Correct Answer: 25 ml

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Output and its Relationship to Health Conditions

      Cardiac output is the product of heart rate and stroke volume. Stroke volume can be calculated by dividing cardiac output by heart rate. The average cardiac output is 5 liters per minute, with a normal stroke volume ranging from 50-85 milliliters per beat, depending on heart rate.

      When a person experiences poor oxygen saturation and a normal respiratory rate, it may indicate that they are becoming exhausted and unable to breathe rapidly. This, combined with low blood pressure, tachycardia, and a failure to maintain cardiac output, can be indicative of shock. Additionally, a high temperature may suggest severe sepsis secondary to pneumonia.

      cardiac output and its relationship to various health conditions can help medical professionals diagnose and treat patients more effectively. By monitoring heart rate, stroke volume, and other vital signs, healthcare providers can identify potential issues and intervene before they become life-threatening. Proper management of cardiac output is crucial for maintaining overall health and preventing serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      61.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 72-year-old male with a BMI of 31 kg/m2 presents with bilateral lower...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old male with a BMI of 31 kg/m2 presents with bilateral lower limb cellulitis. A urine dipstick shows glycosuria ++. What test would be most effective in diagnosing type 2 diabetes?

      Your Answer: Fasting blood glucose and HbA1c

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Diabetes

      An infection can often lead to the diagnosis of diabetes. To determine if a patient has diabetes, a standard 75 gram glucose load is given and an oral glucose tolerance test is carried out after random and fasting blood glucose tests. It is important to note that a random blood glucose sample may not provide accurate results, and the best way to diagnose type 2 diabetes in a patient is through a fasting glucose test. However, an HbA1c test is now widely accepted as a standard test for diagnosing diabetes and is used in place of fasting blood glucose by some healthcare professionals. It is important to accurately diagnose diabetes in patients to ensure proper treatment and management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 45-year-old female patient complains of symptoms suggestive of thyroid disease that have...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old female patient complains of symptoms suggestive of thyroid disease that have been ongoing for six months. These symptoms include weight loss, diarrhea, heat intolerance, and irritability. Upon examination, a small goiter and exophthalmos are observed. What is the most probable cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Grave's disease

      Explanation:

      Thyrotoxicosis and Its Causes

      Thyrotoxicosis is a medical condition characterized by symptoms such as weight loss, diarrhoea, heat intolerance, and irritability. These symptoms suggest an overactive thyroid gland, which produces too much thyroid hormone. The most common cause of thyrotoxicosis is Graves’ disease, an autoimmune disorder in which the body’s immune system produces autoantibodies that stimulate the thyroid TSH receptor. This leads to an overproduction of thyroid hormone, resulting in thyrotoxicosis.

      While Hashimoto’s thyroiditis can also cause thyrotoxic symptoms in its early stages, it is important to note that all symptoms except those caused by Graves’ disease are recognized as symptoms of thyroid insufficiency rather than thyrotoxicosis. In Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, the immune system attacks the thyroid gland, leading to inflammation and damage. This can cause the thyroid gland to release excess thyroid hormone, leading to thyrotoxicosis. However, as the disease progresses, the thyroid gland becomes damaged and unable to produce enough thyroid hormone, leading to hypothyroidism.

      In summary, the causes of thyrotoxicosis is important in diagnosing and treating this condition. While Graves’ disease is the most common cause, it is important to consider other potential causes such as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help manage symptoms and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      37.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the cofactor needed for pyruvate dehydrogenase to operate during the conversion...

    Incorrect

    • What is the cofactor needed for pyruvate dehydrogenase to operate during the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA at the end of glycolysis?

      Your Answer: Zinc

      Correct Answer: Thiamine

      Explanation:

      Pyruvate Dehydrogenase and its Enzyme Complex

      Pyruvate dehydrogenase is an enzyme complex that plays a crucial role in metabolism. It is composed of multiple copies of several enzymes, including E1, E2, and E3. E1, also known as pyruvate dehydrogenase, is located at the periphery of the molecule and requires thiamine pyrophosphate, a derivative of the vitamin thiamine, to function properly. E2, a transacetylase enzyme, is situated in the core of the molecule and requires lipoamide to work effectively. Lipoamide contains a thiol group that enables it to participate in redox reactions. E3, a dehydrogenase enzyme, is located at the periphery of the molecule and requires a molecule of FAD (flavin adenine dinucleotide) to function. Flavin structures are obtained from the vitamin riboflavin in the diet.

      Thiamine is essential for normal pyruvate dehydrogenase activity, and it must be obtained from the diet as the body can only store relatively small amounts. Thiamine deficiency is common and can lead to a range of potentially serious complications, including Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Korsakoff’s psychosis, and peripheral neurological symptoms. Overall, the pyruvate dehydrogenase enzyme complex is under strict metabolic control and plays a critical role in energy production and metabolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What is the lipoprotein with the least density? ...

    Correct

    • What is the lipoprotein with the least density?

      Your Answer: Chylomicron

      Explanation:

      Lipoproteins and Cholesterol

      Lipoproteins are particles that transport lipids (fats) in the bloodstream. They are classified based on their density and size. Chylomicrons are the largest and least dense lipoproteins, while HDL is the smallest and most dense. LDL and Lp(a) are in between in terms of size and density.

      LDL and Lp(a) are often referred to as bad cholesterol because they are associated with atherosclerosis, a condition that can lead to heart disease. On the other hand, HDL is known as good cholesterol because it helps remove excess cholesterol from the bloodstream.

      While it is not necessary to memorize the specific density and size of each lipoprotein, it is useful to know which ones are the largest/smallest and which have the highest/lowest density. lipoproteins and cholesterol can help individuals make informed decisions about their diet and lifestyle to maintain heart health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old female patient presents with a lump in her groin that appears...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female patient presents with a lump in her groin that appears and disappears. Upon consultation, it is determined that the hernia is protruding between the pectineal (Cooper's) ligament, lacunar ligament, and femoral vein. What type of hernia is being described by the consultant?

      Your Answer: Inguinal

      Correct Answer: Femoral

      Explanation:

      Types of Hernias and their Borders

      Hernias are a medical condition where an organ or tissue protrudes through a weak spot in the surrounding muscle or tissue. One type of hernia is the Femoral hernia, which protrudes through the femoral canal. This type of hernia is more common in women due to their pelvic structure and childbirth. The femoral ring is narrow, making it more likely for these hernias to become strangulated.

      Another type of hernia is the inguinal hernia, which protrudes through the inguinal canal. Petit’s hernia protrudes through the inferior lumbar triangle, Grynfeltt’s through the superior lumbar triangle, and obturator hernias through the obturator foramen. Each type of hernia has its own unique borders and characteristics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What is the accurate statement about Purkinje fibers in the myocardium? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accurate statement about Purkinje fibers in the myocardium?

      Your Answer: Are myelinated axons

      Correct Answer: Have a conduction velocity about four to six times the rate seen in heart muscle

      Explanation:

      Purkinje Fibres: Conductors of the Cardiac Impulse

      Purkinje fibres are specialized muscle fibres found in the ventricular myocardium of the heart. These fibres are responsible for conducting the cardiac impulse at a much faster rate than normal cardiac muscle, typically four to six times faster. Unlike neuronal axons, Purkinje fibres are not myelinated.

      Disorders of Purkinje fibres can lead to various arrhythmias, including ventricular fibrillation, even in patients with structurally normal hearts. It is important to understand the role of Purkinje fibres in the heart’s electrical conduction system to diagnose and treat these conditions effectively. Proper functioning of Purkinje fibres is crucial for maintaining a healthy heart rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      36
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 15-year-old male patient comes to the clinic with a skin rash and...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old male patient comes to the clinic with a skin rash and tremors. Upon conducting a urine chromatography test, it is found that he has elevated levels of neutral amino acids. The diagnosis is Hartnup disease. Can you identify which of the following options is an essential neutral amino acid?

      Your Answer: Histidine

      Correct Answer: Tryptophan

      Explanation:

      Essential Amino Acids

      Essential amino acids are those that the body cannot produce in sufficient quantities to meet the needs of cells. Therefore, they must be obtained through the diet. The essential amino acids include isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and valine. During childhood, arginine and histidine are also considered essential amino acids. Mnemonics can be used to help remember these essential amino acids. Aspartate and serine are not essential amino acids, while arginine and histidine are positively charged and therefore not essential. The only essential amino acid that is both neutral and essential is tryptophan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      38.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 25-year-old individual is undergoing testing for asthma. Prior to administering bronchodilators, their...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old individual is undergoing testing for asthma. Prior to administering bronchodilators, their FEV1/FVC ratio is measured at 0.85, with the FVC at 90% of normal. What does this indicate?

      Your Answer: Normal exam

      Explanation:

      The FEV1/FVC ratio is a measure used in lung function tests to assess the health of the lungs. In normal individuals, this ratio ranges from 0.75 to 0.85. If the ratio falls below 0.70, it suggests an obstructive problem that reduces the volume of air that can be expelled in one second (FEV1). However, in restrictive lung disease, the FVC is also reduced, which can result in a normal or high FEV1/FVC ratio.

      It is important to understand the FEV1/FVC ratio as it can help diagnose and monitor lung diseases such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and asthma. A low ratio indicates that the airways are obstructed, while a normal or high ratio suggests a restrictive lung disease. Lung function tests are often used to assess the severity of these conditions and to monitor the effectiveness of treatment. By the FEV1/FVC ratio, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care and management for patients with lung diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What is the molecule produced at the end of glycolysis that connects to...

    Correct

    • What is the molecule produced at the end of glycolysis that connects to the Kreb cycle?

      Your Answer: Acetyl CoA

      Explanation:

      The Process of Energy Production from Glucose

      The process of producing energy from glucose involves several steps. The first step is glycolysis, where glucose is converted into fructose 1,6 bisphosphate and split into two 3-carbon particles. These particles are then converted into acetyl CoA, which provides the link with the Kreb cycle. The Kreb cycle, also known as the tricarboxylic acid cycle, is a process where organic acids are modified in a series of steps to produce NADH. Succinate and oxaloacetate are intermediates in the Kreb cycle.

      The final step in the process is the electron transfer chain, which occurs inside mitochondria. The NADH generated during the Kreb cycle is used to produce energy in the form of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) by a series of redox reactions. This process is essential for the production of energy in the body, as ATP is the primary source of energy for cellular processes. By the process of energy production from glucose, we can better understand the importance of maintaining a healthy diet and lifestyle to ensure optimal energy production in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - You are asked to see a 4-year-old girl with severe chronic malnutrition.
    You are...

    Correct

    • You are asked to see a 4-year-old girl with severe chronic malnutrition.
      You are concerned about kwashiorkor.
      What clinical feature is typical in cases of kwashiorkor?

      Your Answer: Abdominal swelling

      Explanation:

      Protein-Energy Malnutrition

      Protein-energy malnutrition (PEM) or protein energy undernutrition (PEU) occurs when the body’s intake of energy and protein is insufficient to meet its requirements. This can happen due to inadequate intake or an increase in requirements without a corresponding increase in intake. The result is a range of health problems, including undernutrition, which is sadly common in many parts of the world.

      Undernutrition can take different forms, including kwashiorkor and marasmus. Kwashiorkor is characterized by inadequate protein intake, leading to oedema, abdominal swelling, and fat accumulation in the liver. Marasmus, on the other hand, involves inadequate consumption of both energy and protein, resulting in emaciation without oedema or abdominal swelling. The term ‘protein-energy undernutrition’ encompasses both of these scenarios.

      It’s worth noting that malnutrition can refer to both overnutrition (obesity) and undernutrition, both of which have negative effects on the body’s health. However, in common usage, malnutrition typically refers to undernutrition. Additionally, malnutrition can also result from isolated deficiencies in vitamins or minerals. Overall, protein-energy malnutrition is crucial for promoting and preserving good health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      50
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - In which organ is aldosterone hormone synthesized? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which organ is aldosterone hormone synthesized?

      Your Answer: Adrenal gland - zona reticularis of the cortex

      Correct Answer: Adrenal gland - zona glomerulosa of the cortex

      Explanation:

      Hormones Produced by the Adrenal Glands

      The adrenal glands are responsible for producing various hormones that are essential for the body’s proper functioning. The central core of the adrenal glands is called the medulla, where catecholamines such as adrenaline and noradrenaline are produced. On the other hand, the cortex surrounding the medulla is divided into three layers: zona glomerulosa, fasciculata, and reticularis. The zona glomerulosa is responsible for producing aldosterone, a mineralocorticoid hormone that promotes sodium retention and loss of potassium and hydrogen ions. Hyperaldosteronism, or excessive aldosterone production, is associated with hypertension.

      Cortisol, a glucocorticoid hormone that is essential for life, is produced in the zona fasciculata. It causes increased blood sugar levels, stabilizes membranes, stimulates appetite, and suppresses the immune/hypersensitivity response. Adrenal androgens, such as DHEA and androstenedione, are produced in the zona reticularis in both males and females. However, their production is low until the adrenarche, which occurs around the time of puberty.

      The renal juxtaglomerular apparatus is a specialized group of cells in the kidney that secretes renin and regulates the glomerular filtration rate to control sodium excretion. Overall, the adrenal glands play a crucial role in maintaining the body’s homeostasis by producing various hormones that regulate different physiological processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - In which mediastinal region is the heart located? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which mediastinal region is the heart located?

      Your Answer: The superior mediastinum

      Correct Answer: The middle mediastinum

      Explanation:

      The genetic basis of cystic fibrosis (CF) is a crucial factor in understanding this genetic disorder that affects the respiratory, digestive, and reproductive systems. CF is caused by mutations in a single gene located on chromosome 7, which encodes the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) protein. This protein plays a vital role in regulating the movement of salt and water in and out of cells, particularly in the lungs and pancreas.

      The likelihood of being a carrier of the CF gene is relatively high, with a chance of 1 in 20 for the general population. However, the chances of two carriers of the gene having a child with CF are much lower, at 1 in 80. This is because CF is a recessive disorder, meaning that an individual must inherit two copies of the mutated gene (one from each parent) to develop the disease.

      Understanding the genetic basis of CF is crucial for individuals and families who may be at risk of carrying the gene. Genetic testing and counseling can help identify carriers and provide information about the risks of passing on the gene to future generations. Advances in medical treatments and therapies have improved the outlook for individuals with CF, but ongoing research is needed to develop more effective treatments and ultimately find a cure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - What is the endocrine condition that is linked to low blood sugar levels?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the endocrine condition that is linked to low blood sugar levels?

      Your Answer: Hyperthyroidism

      Correct Answer: Hypoadrenalism

      Explanation:

      Hypoglycaemia in Adults

      Hypoglycaemia is a condition where the blood glucose level falls below the typical fasting level, which is around <4 mmol/L for adults. This condition can be caused by various endocrine factors such as hypoadrenalism, growth hormone deficiency, glucagon deficiency, and hypothyroidism. However, the most common cause of hypoglycaemia in adults is medication for diabetes, particularly insulin or sulphonylureas. Symptoms of hypoglycaemia are caused by sympathetic activity and disrupted central nervous system function due to inadequate glucose. These symptoms include tremors, sweating, nausea, lightheadedness, hunger, and disorientation. Severe hypoglycaemia can cause confusion, aggressive behaviour, and reduced consciousness. Mild hypoglycaemia is common during fasting, pregnancy, and minor illness. Apart from medication and endocrine factors, other causes of hypoglycaemia in adults include non-diabetic drugs, alcohol, hepatic failure, critical illness, hormone deficiency, malignancy, insulinoma, non-insulinoma pancreatogenous hypoglycaemia syndrome (NIPHS), and bariatric surgery. It is important to identify the underlying cause of hypoglycaemia to provide appropriate treatment. In summary, hypoglycaemia is a condition where the blood glucose level falls below the typical fasting level. It can be caused by various factors, including medication, endocrine factors, and other medical conditions. Recognizing the symptoms and identifying the underlying cause is crucial in managing hypoglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which hormone triggers the breakdown of glycogen in the liver during fasting? ...

    Correct

    • Which hormone triggers the breakdown of glycogen in the liver during fasting?

      Your Answer: Glucagon

      Explanation:

      Glycogen Formation and Degradation

      In normal circumstances, glucose in the blood is converted into glycogen by the liver with the help of insulin and rising glucose levels. This process requires several enzymes such as phosphoglucomutase, glucose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase, glycogen synthase, and branching enzyme. However, when glucose is scarce, glycogen must be broken down to release glucose into the blood. This process is mainly stimulated by the hormone glucagon and requires the enzymes glycogen phosphorylase and debranching enzyme. Defects in either glycogen formation or degradation can lead to fasting hypoglycemia, which is a common feature of many glycogen storage disorders (GSDs).

      One such disorder is glycogen synthase deficiency (GSD type 0), which typically presents in childhood with symptoms of hypoglycemia after an overnight fast. However, symptoms can be improved by administering glucose, and patients can be given corn starch to prevent symptoms in the morning. A liver biopsy will show very little glycogen, and the disease is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait. Overall, the balance between glycogen formation and degradation is crucial in maintaining normal blood sugar levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      17.7
      Seconds

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