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  • Question 1 - A patient presents to the General Practice (GP) Clinic, seeking advice regarding driving...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents to the General Practice (GP) Clinic, seeking advice regarding driving following two unprovoked seizures in 48 hours. What advice do you give the patient regarding their ability to drive their car?

      Your Answer: They are fit to drive, unless they have another seizure, but must inform the DVLA

      Correct Answer: They must inform the DVLA and will be unfit to drive for at least six months

      Explanation:

      If an individual experiences a seizure, they must inform the DVLA. Depending on the circumstances, they may be unfit to drive for six months or up to five years if they drive a bus or lorry. It is important to note that the DVLA must always be informed of any neurological event that could affect driving ability. An assessment by a DVLA medical examiner is not conducted, but a private or NHS neurologist should evaluate the individual’s fitness to drive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old married shop assistant presents to the Emergency Department with a presumed...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old married shop assistant presents to the Emergency Department with a presumed seizure, where her hands and feet shook and she bit her tongue. This is the second such event in the past 6 months and she was due to see a neurologist in a month’s time. Computed tomography (CT) brain was normal. Electroencephalogram (EEG) was normal, albeit not performed during the ‘seizure’ activity. Her doctor believes she has epilepsy and is keen to commence anticonvulsive therapy. She is sexually active and uses only condoms for protection.
      Which one of the following drugs would be most suitable for this particular patient?

      Your Answer: Levetiracetam

      Correct Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Antiepileptic Medications and Pregnancy: Considerations for Women of Childbearing Age

      When it comes to treating epilepsy in women of childbearing age, there are important considerations to keep in mind. Lamotrigine is a good choice for monotherapy, but it can worsen myoclonic seizures. Levetiracetam is preferred for myoclonic seizures, while carbamazepine has an increased risk of birth defects. Sodium valproate is the first-line agent for adults with generalized epilepsy, but it has been linked to neural tube defects in babies. Phenytoin is no longer used as a first-line treatment, but may be used in emergency situations. Clinicians should be aware of these risks and consult resources like the UK Epilepsy and Pregnancy Registry to make informed decisions about treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      92.5
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  • Question 3 - The on-call consultant is testing the junior members of the team on how...

    Correct

    • The on-call consultant is testing the junior members of the team on how to distinguish between the various types of dementia based on symptoms during the medical post-take ward round. What is a typical clinical characteristic of Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: Agnosia

      Explanation:

      Common Symptoms of Different Types of Dementia

      Dementia is a group of disorders that affect cognitive abilities, including memory, thinking, and communication. While Alzheimer’s disease is the most common form of dementia, there are other types that have distinct symptoms. Here are some common symptoms of different types of dementia:

      Agnosia: The inability to perceive and utilize information correctly despite retaining the necessary, correct sensory inputs. It is a common feature of Alzheimer’s disease and leads to patients being unable to recognize friends and family or to use everyday objects, e.g. coins or keys.

      Pseudobulbar palsy: This is where people are unable to control their facial movements. This does not typically occur in Alzheimer’s disease and is seen in conditions such as progressive supranuclear palsy, Parkinson’s disease, and multiple sclerosis.

      Emotional lability: This is a common feature of fronto-temporal dementia (otherwise known as Pick’s dementia).

      Apathetic mood: This is typically a feature of Lewy body disease, but it can also present in other forms of dementia.

      Marche à petits pas: It is a short, stepping (often rapid) gait, characteristic of diffuse cerebrovascular disease. It is common to patients with vascular dementia, as is pseudobulbar palsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 48-year-old man presents with slurred speech. Upon examination, he displays bilateral partial...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man presents with slurred speech. Upon examination, he displays bilateral partial ptosis and frontal balding. Additionally, he experiences difficulty releasing his grip after shaking hands. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Duchenne muscular dystrophy

      Correct Answer: Myotonia dystrophica

      Explanation:

      Myotonic Dystrophy: A Progressive Multi-System Disorder

      Myotonic dystrophy is a genetic disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. It is caused by a mutation in the DMPK gene on chromosome 19, which leads to a CTG repeat. The length of this repeat determines the age of onset and severity of symptoms. Myotonic dystrophy can affect skeletal muscles, the heart, gastrointestinal and uterine smooth muscles, the eyes, and the endocrine and central nervous systems.

      Symptoms of myotonic dystrophy include ptosis, frontal balding, cataracts, cardiomyopathy, impaired intellect, testicular atrophy, diabetes mellitus, and dysarthria. The age of onset can range from birth to old age, with some patients presenting with symptoms in late adulthood. There is no cure for the weakness that is the main cause of disability, but medications such as phenytoin, quinine, or procainamide may be helpful for myotonia.

      It is important to differentiate myotonic dystrophy from other conditions that present with similar symptoms. Myotonia congenita, for example, presents in childhood with myotonia but does not have the other features associated with myotonic dystrophy. Duchenne muscular dystrophy also presents in childhood and has a much shorter life expectancy. Eaton-Lambert syndrome and myasthenia gravis are other conditions that can cause weakness but do not have the characteristic features of myotonic dystrophy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      29.9
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  • Question 5 - A woman presents to Accident and Emergency with a decreased level of consciousness....

    Incorrect

    • A woman presents to Accident and Emergency with a decreased level of consciousness. Her conscious state is formally assessed. She withdraws to a painful stimulus and is mumbling incoherent words randomly, irrespective of people attempting to speak to her in conversation, and her eyes open only in response to painful stimuli.
      What is the breakdown of this patient’s Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?

      Your Answer: Motor response 3/6, verbal response 3/5, eye opening response 2/4

      Correct Answer: Motor response 4/6, verbal response 3/5, eye opening response 2/4

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale: Interpreting a Patient’s Level of Consciousness

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess a patient’s level of consciousness. It consists of three scores: best motor response, best verbal response, and eye opening response. Each score is given a value out of a maximum score, and the total score is used to determine the patient’s level of consciousness.

      In this case, the patient’s motor response is a score of 4 out of 6, indicating a withdrawal response to pain. The verbal response is a score of 3 out of 5, indicating mumbling words or nonsense. The eye opening response is a score of 2 out of 4, indicating opening to pain. Therefore, the patient’s total GCS score is 9, indicating a comatose state.

      It is important to understand the GCS and how to interpret the scores in order to properly assess a patient’s level of consciousness and provide appropriate medical care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      23.1
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  • Question 6 - A 60-year-old driver is admitted with a left-sided facial droop, dysphasia and dysarthria....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old driver is admitted with a left-sided facial droop, dysphasia and dysarthria. His symptoms slowly improve and he is very keen to get back to work as he is self-employed.
      Following a stroke, what is the minimum time that patients are advised not to drive a car for?

      Your Answer: 6 months

      Correct Answer: 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      Driving Restrictions After Stroke or TIA

      After experiencing a transient ischaemic attack (TIA) or stroke, it is important to be aware of the driving restrictions set by the DVLA. For at least 4 weeks, patients should not drive a car or motorbike. If the patient drives a lorry or bus, they must not drive for 1 year and must notify the DVLA. After 1 month of satisfactory clinical recovery, drivers of cars may resume driving, but lorry and bus drivers must wait for 1 year before relicensing may be considered. Functional cardiac testing and medical reports may be required. Following stroke or single TIA, a person may not drive a car for 2 weeks, but can resume driving after 1 month if there has been a satisfactory recovery. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure safe driving and prevent further health complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      40.7
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  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old student presents to her general practitioner because of a tremor she...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old student presents to her general practitioner because of a tremor she has noticed in her left hand over the past few months. On examination, she has subtle dysarthria and a wide-based gait. When the doctor passively moves her left elbow, he notices hypertonia which is independent of whether he moves her elbows slowly or briskly. She has a history of bipolar disorder and was started on olanzapine by her psychiatrist 2 weeks ago.
      Which of the following diagnostic tests is most appropriate to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) brain

      Correct Answer: 24-h urine collection

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Wilson’s Disease: Understanding the Different Tests

      Wilson’s disease is a rare disorder of copper metabolism that affects young people and can cause neurologic and psychiatric symptoms, as well as hepatic damage. To confirm a diagnosis of Wilson’s disease, a 24-hour urine collection is the investigation of choice. This test quantifies copper excretion, and a value of >0.64 μmol in a 24-hour period is suggestive of Wilson’s disease. Additionally, a Dat scan can be used as an ancillary test to confirm a diagnosis of Parkinson’s disease, but it is less likely to be useful in cases of Wilson’s disease. Urine toxicology is a reasonable test to perform on almost anyone presenting with neurologic symptoms, but toxic ingestion is less likely to account for Wilson’s disease. A CT brain is useful for looking for evidence of haemorrhage, trauma or large intracranial mass lesions, but an MRI brain is the neuroimaging of choice for Wilson’s disease as it provides greater soft tissue detail. EEG is not useful as a confirmatory test for Wilson’s disease, but it can be used to look for evidence of seizure activity or to look for areas of cortical hyperexcitability that might predispose to future seizures.

      Understanding the Different Investigations for Wilson’s Disease

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      24.2
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  • Question 8 - A 79-year-old man is brought to see his general practitioner by his daughter...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man is brought to see his general practitioner by his daughter who has noticed that he is becoming increasingly forgetful and unsteady on his feet. Unfortunately his daughter does not know anything about his previous medical history or whether he takes any medications. Routine investigations reveal:
      Investigation Result Normal Value
      Haemaglobin 105 g/l 135–175 g/l
      Mean corpuscular value 101 fl 76–98 fl
      White cell count 7.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 80 × 109/l 150–400 x 109/
      Sodium 132 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 1.3 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 78 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Random blood sugar 6.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      Given these results, which is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: B12 deficiency

      Correct Answer: Alcohol excess

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for Abnormal Blood Results: Alcohol Excess, Hypothyroidism, B12 Deficiency, Myelodysplasia, and Phenytoin Toxicity

      The patient’s blood results suggest a diagnosis of alcohol excess, which can cause confusion and increase the risk of subdural hematomas and recurrent falls. The macrocytosis, thrombocytopenia, mild hyponatremia, and low urea are all consistent with excess alcohol. Hypothyroidism can also cause macrocytosis and hyponatremia, but not thrombocytopenia or low urea. B12 deficiency may cause pancytopenia and marked macrocytosis, making it the next most likely option after alcohol excess. Myelodysplasia typically presents with shortness of breath and fatigue, and may show macrocytosis and thrombocytopenia on blood results. Phenytoin toxicity may cause macrocytosis and ataxia, as well as a range of other symptoms and signs such as fever and gingival hyperplasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      60.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 20-year-old female patient with a prolonged history of sinusitis complains of fever...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female patient with a prolonged history of sinusitis complains of fever and headache accompanied by a change in personality. During fundal examination, papilloedema is observed. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Encephalitis

      Correct Answer: Frontal lobe abscess

      Explanation:

      Sinusitis and Brain Abscess

      A previous occurrence of sinusitis can increase the likelihood of developing a brain abscess. Symptoms of a brain abscess include headache and fever, with papilloedema being present in most cases. Additionally, frontal lobe lesions can cause changes in personality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 36-year-old man is discharged from hospital after an episode of meningitis. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man is discharged from hospital after an episode of meningitis. The organism was diagnosed as being Streptococcus pneumoniae after a lumbar puncture and the patient was treated with ceftriaxone. On discharge, his observations were normal. He has a past medical history of asthma treated with salbutamol and low-dose inhaled corticosteroids. He has no known drug allergies.
      A few days following his discharge, he started experiencing postural headaches that were worse when sitting upright. He grades his pain as 7/10. He has been feeling nauseated, although has had no vomiting episodes. He also has some minor neck stiffness and is not confused. He attends A&E, as he is worried about his new symptoms. There is evidence of extrathecal cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Diagnosis is confirmed on a computed tomography (CT) myelogram.
      What is the most likely cause of this patient’s headache?

      Your Answer: Insufficiently treated meningitis

      Correct Answer: Spontaneous intracranial hypotension

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Spontaneous Intracranial Hypotension from Other Conditions

      Spontaneous intracranial hypotension (SIH) is a condition that affects around 5 per 100,000 of the general population, with a peak age at diagnosis of 40 years. It is more common in women and develops due to a weakness in the spinal dura, which could be congenital, iatrogenic, or due to calcification of spinal discs. Lumbar punctures, which are commonly performed to aid the diagnosis of meningitis, are a common cause of SIH.

      Clinically, SIH causes a postural headache that worsens when standing or sitting and improves when lying down. It is associated with leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and can be diagnosed with a CT myelogram. Interestingly, CSF opening pressure is often normal, making diagnosis by repeat lumbar puncture unhelpful. Treatment typically involves an epidural blood patch.

      It is important to distinguish SIH from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms. A subdural hematoma, for example, would be diagnosed on a CT head by the presence of concave opacity and typically has a slow onset with fluctuating confusion. Aseptic meningitis, which presents with symptoms similar to meningitis, would be confirmed on microscopy of lumbar puncture. Insufficiently treated meningitis would not cause a postural headache, and a subarachnoid hemorrhage would cause a sudden-onset thunderclap headache.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      64.6
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  • Question 11 - A 68-year-old man presents to the general practitioner (GP) with visual complaints in...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the general practitioner (GP) with visual complaints in the right eye. He intermittently loses vision in the right eye, which he describes as a curtain vertically across his visual field. Each episode lasts about two or three minutes. He denies eye pain, eye discharge or headaches.
      His past medical history is significant for poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia.
      On examination, his pupils are of normal size and reactive to light. There is no scalp tenderness. Blood test results are pending, and his electrocardiogram (ECG) shows normal sinus rhythm, without ischaemic changes.
      A provisional diagnosis of amaurosis fugax (AG) is being considered.
      Given this diagnosis, which of the following is the most appropriate treatment at this time?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Transient Vision Loss: Aspirin, Prednisolone, Warfarin, High-Flow Oxygen, and Propranolol

      Transient vision loss can be a symptom of various conditions, including giant-cell arthritis (temporal arthritis) and transient retinal ischaemia. The appropriate treatment depends on the underlying cause.

      For transient retinal ischaemia, which is typically caused by atherosclerosis of the ipsilateral carotid artery, antiplatelet therapy with aspirin is recommended. Patients should also be evaluated for cardiovascular risk factors and considered for ultrasound of the carotid arteries.

      Prednisolone is used to treat giant-cell arthritis, which is characterised by sudden mononuclear loss of vision, jaw claudication, and scalp tenderness. However, if the patient does not have scalp tenderness or jaw claudication, oral steroids would not be indicated.

      Warfarin may be considered in patients with underlying atrial fibrillation and a high risk of embolic stroke. However, it should typically be bridged with a heparin derivative to avoid pro-thrombotic effects in the first 48-72 hours of use.

      High-flow oxygen is used to treat conditions like cluster headaches, which present with autonomic manifestations. If the patient does not have any autonomic features, high-flow oxygen would not be indicated.

      Propranolol can be used in the prophylactic management of migraines, which can present with transient visual loss. However, given the patient’s atherosclerotic risk factors and description of visual loss, transient retinal ischaemia is a more likely diagnosis.

      In summary, the appropriate treatment for transient vision loss depends on the underlying cause and should be tailored to the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      36.5
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  • Question 12 - A 36-year-old man came to the Emergency Department complaining of a severe headache,...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old man came to the Emergency Department complaining of a severe headache, neck stiffness, and photophobia. He had not experienced any recent foreign travel or trauma. Upon examination, he had a fever but no rash or focal neurology. The medical team suspected bacterial meningitis and began treatment. They also requested a lumbar puncture. What is the appropriate spinal level and dural space for the needle to be advanced to during a lumbar puncture?

      Your Answer: Between L3 and L4, advanced to the subarachnoid space

      Explanation:

      Proper Placement for Lumbar Puncture

      The ideal location for a lumbar puncture is between L3 and L4, as this avoids the risk of piercing the spinal cord. To locate this area, a line is drawn across the superior aspect of the posterior iliac crests. The purpose of a lumbar puncture is to obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the subarachnoid space between the pia mater and the arachnoid mater. However, there are contraindications to this procedure, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, which can lead to coning and respiratory arrest.

      It is important to note that advancing the needle too high, such as between L1 and L2, can pose a risk to the spinal cord. Additionally, the epidural space is too superficial to obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid. Therefore, proper placement between L3 and L4, advanced to the subarachnoid space, is crucial for a safe and successful lumbar puncture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      18.1
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  • Question 13 - A 78-year-old retired pharmacist is diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease after being investigated for...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old retired pharmacist is diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease after being investigated for worsening memory problems and getting lost on his way home from the shops. What is associated with a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) brain scan = dilation of the sulci and ventricles

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests and Their Relevance in Alzheimer’s Disease

      Computed tomography (CT) brain scan can be used to exclude vascular disease, normal pressure hydrocephalus, and space-occupying lesions in patients with cognitive decline. In pure Alzheimer’s disease, changes consistent with cerebral atrophy, such as dilated sulci and ventricles, are observed.

      Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) protein levels of 0.5-1.0 g/l are not useful in diagnosing Alzheimer’s disease but may indicate bacterial or viral meningitis.

      An erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) greater than 100 mm/hour is not useful in diagnosing Alzheimer’s disease but may be significant in multiple myeloma or vasculitis.

      Hemoglobin levels of 85 g/l and mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 112 fl suggest macrocytic anemia, which requires further investigation and is most likely due to B12 or folate deficiency.

      CSF white cells of 100-150 neutrophils/mm3 are not useful in diagnosing Alzheimer’s disease but may indicate meningitis.

      Understanding the Relevance of Diagnostic Tests in Alzheimer’s Disease

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      28.7
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  • Question 14 - You see a 92-year-old lady in clinic. Over the past 3 months, her...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 92-year-old lady in clinic. Over the past 3 months, her family believes she is becoming more forgetful. She has also noticed a tremor in her right hand and is generally ‘slowing down’. She takes amlodipine for hypertension and a daily aspirin of her own volition. She has recently been treated for a urinary tract infection by her general practitioner. She also complains of confusion and seeing spiders climbing the walls of her bedroom. She has no other urinary complaints. Her abbreviated mental test score is 5/10. Lying and standing blood pressures are 138/76 and 127/70, respectively.
      Select the most likely diagnosis from the list below.

      Your Answer: Parkinson's disease

      Correct Answer: Lewy body dementia (LBD)

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing between Dementia Types: Lewy Body Dementia, Parkinson’s Disease, Alzheimer’s Disease, Vascular Dementia, and Multisystem Atrophy

      Dementia is a complex condition that can have various underlying causes. Lewy body dementia (LBD) is a type of dementia that is characterized by cognitive impairment, parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, rapid eye movement (REM) sleep disorders, and autonomic disturbance. Treatment for LBD focuses on symptom management, including the use of cholinesterase inhibitors and antidepressants.

      Parkinson’s disease, on the other hand, typically presents with bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity, but not cognitive impairment in the initial stages. Autonomic dysfunction is also expected in Parkinson’s disease, which is not evident in the given case. Alzheimer’s disease may cause forgetfulness and slowing down, but visual hallucinations are not typical. Vascular dementia usually presents with a stepwise deterioration that correlates with small cerebrovascular events, but not visual hallucinations. Multisystem atrophy is a rare condition characterized by parkinsonism with autonomic dysfunction, but it is less likely in this case due to the lack of orthostatic hypotension.

      Therefore, distinguishing between different types of dementia is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 15 - A 16-year-old girl informs you during her appointment that her cousin was recently...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl informs you during her appointment that her cousin was recently diagnosed with Bell's palsy and she has some inquiries about it. Which cranial nerve is primarily impacted by Bell's palsy?

      Your Answer: Cranial nerve VII

      Explanation:

      Overview of Cranial Nerves and Their Functions in Eye and Facial Movement

      Cranial nerves play a crucial role in eye and facial movement. Cranial nerve VII, also known as the facial nerve, is affected in Bell’s palsy, causing a lower motor neuron VIIth nerve palsy that affects one side of the face. Cranial nerve IV, or the trochlear nerve, supplies the superior oblique muscle of the eye, and injury to this nerve causes vertical diplopia. Cranial nerve III, or the oculomotor nerve, supplies several muscles that control eye movement and the levator palpebrae superioris. Cranial nerve V, or the trigeminal nerve, provides sensation in the face and controls the muscles of mastication. Finally, cranial nerve VI, or the abducens nerve, supplies the lateral rectus muscle and lesions of this nerve cause lateral diplopia. Understanding the functions of these cranial nerves is essential in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect eye and facial movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      9.7
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  • Question 16 - What condition is Tinel's sign utilized to diagnose? ...

    Incorrect

    • What condition is Tinel's sign utilized to diagnose?

      Your Answer: Volkmann's ischaemic contracture

      Correct Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Tinel’s Sign for Median Nerve Compression

      Tinel’s sign is a diagnostic test used to identify median nerve compression. It involves tapping firmly over the ventral aspect of the wrist, specifically over the carpal tunnel, which produces an electric shock along the course of the median nerve. The test is performed by tapping over the creases on the inner side of the wrist between the two bones on either side of the base of the palm.

      The specificity of Tinel’s sign is high at 94%, meaning that it accurately identifies those with median nerve compression. However, the sensitivity of the test ranges from 44-70%, indicating that it may not identify all cases of median nerve compression. Despite this limitation, Tinel’s sign remains a useful tool for diagnosing median nerve compression and should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 72-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis, hypertension and depression has...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis, hypertension and depression has been experiencing severe pins and needles in her hands upon waking in the morning. The patient has worked as a stenographer for the last 25 years, and this sensation has been increasing in intensity over the past 7 years.
      What would be the anticipated findings for this patient based on her medical history and symptoms?

      Your Answer: Inability to abduct the thumb

      Correct Answer: Flattening of the thenar eminence

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Symptoms of Median Nerve Compression in Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve is compressed within the carpal tunnel of the wrist. This can lead to a variety of symptoms, including numbness, weakness, and pain in the affected hand and fingers. Here are some common symptoms of median nerve compression in carpal tunnel syndrome and what they mean:

      Flattening of the thenar eminence: The thenar eminence is the fleshy area at the base of the thumb. When the median nerve is compressed, the muscles in this area may undergo wasting, leading to a flattened appearance.

      Numbness over the medial aspect of the ring finger: The median nerve supplies sensation to the lateral three and a half digits of the hand, including the ring finger. Numbness in this area may be a sign of median nerve compression.

      Inability to abduct the thumb: The abductor pollicis brevis muscle, which is innervated by the median nerve, is responsible for abducting the thumb. When the median nerve is compressed, this movement may be weakened.

      Numbness over the proximal palm: The median nerve gives off a palmar cutaneous branch before entering the carpal tunnel. This branch supplies sensation to the proximal palm and is therefore unaffected by median nerve compression.

      Normal sensation over the radial aspect of the ring finger: Despite supplying sensation to the lateral three and a half digits of the hand, the median nerve does not supply sensation to the dorsal aspect of the interdigital web between the thumb and index finger or the radial aspect of the ring finger. Therefore, sensation in this area would not be affected by median nerve compression.

      Understanding these symptoms can help individuals recognize the signs of carpal tunnel syndrome and seek appropriate treatment. Treatment options may include medication, wrist splints, and surgery to release the compressed nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      45.5
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  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old patient presents with progressive weakness of the arms and legs over...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient presents with progressive weakness of the arms and legs over 1 week. Three weeks earlier, she had an episode of diarrhoea lasting 5 days. Examination confirms distal weakness and ‘glove-and-stocking’ sensory loss.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis (MS)

      Correct Answer: Guillain–Barré syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Ascending Paralysis and Glove-and-Stocking Weakness

      The patient presents with acute progressive ascending paralysis and glove-and-stocking weakness, which is typical of Guillain–Barré syndrome. However, cranial nerve palsies can also occur. It is important to consider other potential diagnoses, such as multiple sclerosis, subacute combined degeneration of the cord, diabetic neuropathy, and acute intermittent porphyria. MS is characterised by lesions separated in both space and time, while subacute combined degeneration of the cord is secondary to a deficiency of vitamin B12 and presents with progressive limb weakness, paraesthesiae, and visual disturbances. Diabetic neuropathy usually causes sensory impairment, not motor impairment, and acute intermittent porphyria manifests with a constellation of symptoms, including abdominal pain, peripheral and autonomic neuropathies, and proximal motor weakness. A thorough evaluation and diagnostic workup are necessary to determine the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      20.6
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  • Question 19 - A 16-year-old girl was stabbed with a knife during a robbery attempt and...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl was stabbed with a knife during a robbery attempt and taken to the Emergency Department of a local hospital. Physical examination revealed a single horizontal stab wound located on the skin 4 mm to the right of the umbilicus.
      In which dermatome was the stab wound located?

      Your Answer: T11

      Correct Answer: T10

      Explanation:

      Dermatomes and Pain Referral in the Abdomen

      The human body is divided into dermatomes, which are areas of skin that are mainly supplied by a single spinal nerve. In the abdomen, the T8-T12 dermatomes are important to understand as they can help identify the source of pain referral.

      T8 dermatome is located at the epigastrium, which is approximately at the level of the subcostal margin. T9 dermatome lies just superior to the umbilicus, while T10 dermatome lies at the level of the umbilicus. Pain originating from the small bowel may be referred to the T10 dermatome.

      T11 dermatome lies just inferior to the umbilicus, and pain originating from the large bowel may be referred to the T11-T12 area. T12 dermatome lies at the suprapubic level, and pain originating from the large bowel may also be referred to the T11-T12 area.

      It is important to note that confusion between the dermatomes and the spinal vertebrae level at which structures lie should be avoided. Understanding the dermatomes and pain referral patterns in the abdomen can aid in the diagnosis and management of abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      13.6
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  • Question 20 - A 10-year-old child is brought to the general practitioner by his mother. He...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old child is brought to the general practitioner by his mother. He complains of loss of sensation over the dorsal aspect of his right forearm and hand for the last few days. His mother also states that he cannot extend his fingers and wrist after she pulled her son’s right hand gently while crossing a street 4 days ago. He had pain in his right elbow at that time but did not see a doctor immediately. On examination, there is loss of sensation and muscle weakness over the extensor surface of his right forearm and hand.
      Which of the following nerves is most likely to be injured in this patient?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries and their Effects on Movement and Sensation

      Radial nerve: Nursemaid’s elbow is a common injury in children that can cause damage to the deep branch of the radial nerve. This can result in wrist drop due to paralysis of the extensors of the forearm and hand.

      Long thoracic nerve: The long thoracic nerve supplies the serratus anterior muscle, which is used in all reaching and pushing movements. Injury to this nerve causes winging of the scapula.

      Musculocutaneous nerve: Injury to the musculocutaneous nerve causes a loss of elbow flexion, weakness in supination, and sensation loss on the lateral aspect of the forearm.

      Axillary nerve: The axillary nerve supplies the deltoid muscle and teres minor. Injury to this nerve presents with flattening of the deltoid muscle after injury, loss of lateral rotation, abduction of the affected shoulder due to deltoid muscle weakness, and loss of sensation over the lateral aspect of the arm.

      Middle subscapular nerve: The middle subscapular nerve supplies the latissimus dorsi, which adducts and extends the humerus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - You are the pediatric doctor on call. The nurses ask you to come...

    Incorrect

    • You are the pediatric doctor on call. The nurses ask you to come and review a patient, as she is acting ‘odd’. Her eyes are open spontaneously, she is withdrawing to pain and she is making incomprehensible sounds.
      What is this patient’s Glasgow Coma Score (GCS)?

      Your Answer: 7

      Correct Answer: 11

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess a patient’s level of consciousness. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a total possible score of 15.

      A patient with a GCS score of 11 is showing M5 (localising response to pain), E4 (incomprehensible speech), and V2 (eye opening in response to pain). This indicates that the patient is obeying commands, oriented, and has spontaneous eye opening.

      It is important to note that the GCS score is just one aspect of a patient’s overall assessment and should be used in conjunction with other clinical findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 67-year-old patient comes in with a spastic hemiparesis on the left side,...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old patient comes in with a spastic hemiparesis on the left side, a positive Babinski sign on the left, and facial paralysis on the left lower two-thirds. However, the patient's speech is fluent and they have normal comprehension of verbal and written commands. Which cerebral artery is likely blocked?

      Your Answer: Left middle meningeal

      Correct Answer: Left lenticulostriate

      Explanation:

      Pure Motor Stroke

      A pure motor stroke is a type of stroke that results in a right hemiparesis, or weakness on one side of the body. This type of stroke is caused by a lesion in the left cerebral hemisphere, which is likely to be a lacunar infarct. The symptoms of a pure motor stroke are purely motor, meaning that they only affect movement and not speech or comprehension.

      If the stroke had affected the entire territory of the left middle cerebral artery, then speech and comprehension would also be affected. However, in this case, the lesion is likely to be in the lenticulostriate artery, which has caused infarction of the internal capsule. This leads to a purely motor stroke, where the patient experiences weakness on one side of the body.

      the type of stroke a patient has is important for determining the appropriate treatment and management plan. In the case of a pure motor stroke, rehabilitation and physical therapy may be necessary to help the patient regain strength and mobility on the affected side of the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      54.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 65-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of frequent falls and unsteadiness...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of frequent falls and unsteadiness on her feet for the past 2 days. During the examination, the GP observes weakness and loss of sensation in the muscles of her right lower limb, while her upper limbs and face show no sensory deficit or weakness. The GP refers her to the nearest stroke unit for further evaluation and treatment. A CT scan confirms a thromboembolic cerebrovascular accident.

      Which vessel is the most probable culprit?

      Your Answer: The left anterior cerebral artery distal to the anterior communicating branch

      Explanation:

      Identifying the Correct Artery in a Case of Peripheral Weakness

      In cases of peripheral weakness, identifying the correct artery involved is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. In this case, the weakness is on the right side, with involvement of the lower limb but not the upper limb or face. This suggests a problem with the left anterior cerebral artery distal to the anterior communicating branch, which supplies the medial aspect of the frontal and parietal lobes, including the primary motor and sensory cortices for the lower limb and distal trunk.

      Other potential arteries that could be involved include the left middle cerebral artery, which would present with right-sided upper limb and facial weakness, as well as speech and auditory comprehension difficulties. The right anterior cerebral artery distal to the anterior communicating branch is unlikely, as it would be associated with left-sided weakness and sensory loss in the lower limb. The right posterior cerebral artery proximal occlusion would result in visual field defects and contralateral weakness in both upper and lower limbs, as well as contralateral loss of sensation, which does not match the current presentation. The left posterior cerebral artery is also unlikely, as the upper limb is spared and there are no visual symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 58-year-old man visits his GP complaining of constant fatigue and frontal hair...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man visits his GP complaining of constant fatigue and frontal hair loss. He has a medical history of high blood pressure and asthma and takes salbutamol, amlodipine, and simvastatin. He appears to be in good health, and his neurological examination is unremarkable. The auto-antibody screen is negative, and his creatine kinase (CK) level is 1,000 U/l (normal range: 22-198 U/l). What is the most likely cause of this man's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Statin therapy

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Differential Diagnosis of Elevated CK Levels

      Elevated creatine kinase (CK) levels can indicate a variety of underlying conditions. When considering an elevated CK, it is important to take a detailed medication history as statin therapy, which is a common medication, can cause CK levels to rise in up to 5% of patients. Other common causes of mildly elevated CK include hypothyroidism, steroid use, and alcohol excess.

      Polymyositis is a potential differential diagnosis for a patient with elevated CK and fatigue, but it typically presents with objective proximal muscle weakness. The CK levels are often considerably higher than in the scenario described. Dermatomyositis, which features dermatological features alongside myositis, may present with papules on the hands, periorbital edema, flagellate erythema, or nailfold hemorrhages, none of which are present in this history.

      Extensive exercise can cause elevated CK levels, but it does not usually raise levels to the extent seen in this scenario. Rhabdomyolysis, which is a common cause of elevated CK, often occurs in elderly patients who have experienced a fall and long lie. However, there is no such history in this case, and CK levels in these patients are usually significantly higher.

      In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis of elevated CK levels requires a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, medication use, and presenting symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      27.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 72-year-old woman who has smoked her entire life presents with a complaint...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman who has smoked her entire life presents with a complaint of drooping of the left eyelid. Upon examination, there is ptosis of the left eyelid and a small pupil that responds to light but does not dilate. The right eye appears normal.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Left fifth cranial nerve palsy

      Correct Answer: Left Horner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Common Cranial Nerve Palsies and Horner Syndrome

      Horner’s syndrome is a condition that affects the sympathetic trunk and causes ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis. This syndrome is commonly associated with an apical lung lesion, especially in lifelong smokers. On the other hand, cranial nerve palsies affect the third, fifth, and seventh nerves, each with distinct symptoms.

      Third nerve palsy causes ptosis and mydriasis, while trigeminal nerve palsy affects sensation and mastication but leaves the pupil unaffected. Facial nerve palsy, on the other hand, results in facial paralysis and the inability to close the affected eyelid, but it does not affect the pupil.

      It is important to differentiate between these conditions as they have different underlying causes and treatments. A thorough neurological examination is necessary to determine the specific cranial nerve affected and the appropriate management plan.

      In summary, understanding the differences between Horner’s syndrome and cranial nerve palsies is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing optimal care for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - In what way does an ion affect the overall membrane potential of a...

    Correct

    • In what way does an ion affect the overall membrane potential of a neuron?

      Your Answer: By its valence, concentration gradient and membrane permeability

      Explanation:

      The causes of clubbing are varied and complex. Clubbing is a medical condition that affects the fingers and toes, causing them to become enlarged and rounded. Although the exact cause of clubbing is not fully understood, it is commonly associated with respiratory, gastrointestinal, and cardiovascular disorders.

      Among the cardiovascular causes of clubbing, two main conditions stand out: infective endocarditis and tetralogy of Fallot. Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital heart disorder that is characterized by four malformations in the heart. These include ventricular septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, over-riding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy.

      As a result of these malformations, oxygenated and deoxygenated blood mix in the patient’s body, leading to low blood oxygen saturation. This can cause a range of symptoms, including sudden cyanosis followed by syncope, which is commonly referred to as tet spells in children. In older children, squatting can help relieve these symptoms by reducing circulation to the legs and relieving syncope.

      Understanding the causes of clubbing is important, particularly for medical examinations, as it can help identify underlying conditions that may require further investigation and treatment. By recognizing the signs and symptoms of clubbing, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care and support to patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 48-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of painful tingling over the...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of painful tingling over the lateral side of her left hand upon awakening in recent weeks. She also reports experiencing clumsiness in her hand. Upon examination, the doctor notes reduced sensation on the palmar aspects of her left thumb, index, and middle and ring fingers, leading to a suspicion of carpal tunnel syndrome. What clinical examination would be most effective in confirming this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Abduction of the thumb with palpation of the thenar eminence

      Explanation:

      Testing for Carpal Tunnel Syndrome: Thumb Abduction and Thenar Eminence Palpation

      When testing for carpal tunnel syndrome, one method involves abducting the thumb and palpating the thenar eminence, where the abductor pollicis brevis muscle is located. If this muscle cannot be palpated while the thumb is abducted, it suggests that the abduction is due to contraction of the abductor pollicis longus muscle only, which is supplied by the radial nerve. This indicates a possible issue with the median nerve, which can be compressed in carpal tunnel syndrome. Symptoms of this condition include pain, numbness, and weakness in the hand. Other testing methods, such as opposition of the thumb or palpation of the dorsal interossei muscle, are not as helpful in diagnosing carpal tunnel syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 20-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of fever, headache, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of fever, headache, and feeling generally unwell for the past two days. She denies having a rash, neck stiffness, photophobia, or vomiting. Her vital signs are within normal limits. The medical team suspects she may have viral encephalitis and orders a computed tomography head scan and lumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis.

      The initial CSF results confirm the suspected diagnosis, showing a normal opening pressure and CSF glucose level, with a slightly elevated white cell count, mostly lymphocytes, and a protein level of 0.6 g/l (normal value < 0.45 g/l). While waiting for the CSF culture results, what is the most appropriate management for this 20-year-old woman?

      Your Answer: Dexamethasone

      Correct Answer: acyclovir

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Suspected Encephalitis or Meningitis

      Encephalitis is a condition where the brain parenchyma is infected, while meningitis is characterized by inflammation of the meninges. A patient with symptoms of fever, headache, and altered mental state may have viral encephalitis, which is commonly caused by herpes simplex virus type I. In such cases, acyclovir should be started immediately, as it has been proven to improve morbidity and mortality. On the other hand, empirical ceftriaxone is often used for suspected bacterial meningitis, while benzylpenicillin is recommended for patients with a non-blanching rash. Dexamethasone is used to reduce inflammation in certain cases of bacterial meningitis. However, supportive management alone with analgesia is not appropriate for suspected encephalitis or meningitis. It is important to consider the patient’s symptoms and initial CSF results before deciding on the appropriate treatment option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - An 85-year-old man presents with a short history of increasing confusion. Preceding this,...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old man presents with a short history of increasing confusion. Preceding this, he fell four weeks ago in the bathroom. In the afternoon he was examined by his GP and he was alert with a normal physical examination. The patient has a history of hypertension for which he takes bendroflumethiazide.

      Four weeks later the patient was visited at home because the dazed state had returned. He is afebrile, has a pulse of 80 per minute regular and blood pressure of 152/86 mmHg. His response to questions is slightly slowed, he is disoriented in time and there is some deficit in recent memory.

      The patient moves slowly, but muscle strength is preserved. Neurologic examination shows slight hyperactivity of the tendon reflexes on the right. Plantar responses are unclear because of bilateral withdrawal. That gives him a GCS score of 14.

      What would be the most appropriate next investigation for this 85-year-old man?

      Your Answer: Electromyography and nerve conduction testing

      Correct Answer: Computed tomograms of the head

      Explanation:

      Chronic Subdural Haematoma in the Elderly

      The confusion and neurological symptoms that developed after a fall in the past suggest that the patient may have chronic subdural haematoma. The best way to investigate this condition is through a CT scan, which is the preferred diagnostic tool. A skull x-ray may also be useful in detecting any fractures.

      Chronic subdural haematoma is a condition that commonly affects elderly individuals. It occurs when blood accumulates between the brain and the outermost layer of the brain’s protective covering. This can cause pressure on the brain, leading to a range of symptoms such as confusion, headaches, and difficulty with balance and coordination.

      It is important to diagnose and treat chronic subdural haematoma promptly, as it can lead to serious complications if left untreated. Treatment may involve draining the blood from the affected area, and in some cases, surgery may be necessary. Early diagnosis and treatment can greatly improve the patient’s chances of a full recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      54
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old male complains of weakness in his right hand. He was diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male complains of weakness in his right hand. He was diagnosed with type 1 diabetes 5 years ago and has been in good health otherwise. He has noticed over the past week that he is unable to raise his right hand at the wrist without any pain. Upon examination, a right-sided wrist drop is observed. Which nerve is being affected?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries and Their Effects

      Wrist drop is a condition that occurs when the radial nerve is injured, resulting in the inability to extend the wrist. In addition to this, there is also a loss of sensation over the dorsum of the hand. Another nerve injury that affects the shoulder muscles is axillary nerve palsy. This condition can cause weakness in the shoulder and difficulty lifting the arm.

      Long thoracic nerve injury is another common nerve injury that causes winging of the scapula. This condition occurs when the nerve that controls the muscles of the scapula is damaged, resulting in the shoulder blade protruding from the back. Median nerve palsy affects the sensation to the lateral palmar three and a half fingers and involves the muscles of the thenar eminence. This condition can cause weakness in the hand and difficulty with fine motor skills.

      Finally, ulnar nerve palsy causes a claw hand, which is characterized by the inability to extend the fingers and a claw-like appearance of the hand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 35-year-old man complains of severe headaches behind his right eye that last...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man complains of severe headaches behind his right eye that last for 1-2 hours at a time. These headaches can occur daily for up to 6 weeks, but then he can go for months without experiencing one. He also experiences eye redness and runny nose alongside his headaches. Despite trying paracetamol and tramadol prescribed by another doctor, he has not found any relief. The pain is so intense that he cannot sleep and if he gets a headache during the day, he is unable to work or socialize. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Migraine headache

      Correct Answer: Cluster headache

      Explanation:

      Cluster headache is a type of headache that mainly affects young men. It is characterized by severe pain behind one eye that can last for up to two hours and occurs repeatedly for a certain period before disappearing for up to a year. Treatment options include inhaled oxygen or sumatriptan, as simple painkillers are usually ineffective.

      Tension-type headache, on the other hand, is a headache that feels like a tight band around the head and is not accompanied by sensitivity to light, nausea, or functional impairment. It can be treated with simple painkillers like paracetamol.

      Migraine is a recurring headache that may be preceded by an aura and is often accompanied by sensitivity to light, nausea, and functional impairment. Treatment options include simple painkillers and triptans for more severe attacks.

      Subarachnoid hemorrhage is a medical emergency that presents as a sudden, severe headache often described as the worst of someone’s life. It requires urgent evaluation with CT brain and possible lumbar puncture to assess the cerebrospinal fluid. A ruptured berry aneurysm is a common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage.

      Meningitis, on the other hand, is associated with fever and systemic symptoms and does not present episodically over a chronic period.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 16-year-old student presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of headache, neck...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old student presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of headache, neck stiffness, and photophobia. During the examination, a purpuric rash is observed on the trunk and limbs.

      What condition is this patient at risk for?

      Your Answer: Fitz–Hugh–Curtis syndrome

      Correct Answer: Waterhouse–Friderichsen syndrome

      Explanation:

      Medical Syndromes and Their Characteristics

      Waterhouse–Friderichsen Syndrome: This syndrome is caused by acute meningococcal sepsis due to Neisseria meningitidis. It can lead to sepsis, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), endotoxic shock, and acute primary adrenal failure.

      Zollinger–Ellison Syndrome: This syndrome results from a gastrinoma, which leads to recurrent peptic ulcers.

      Osler–Weber–Rendu Disease: Also known as hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia, this disease results in multiple telangiectasias and arteriovenous shunting of blood.

      Fitz–Hugh–Curtis Syndrome: This is a rare complication of pelvic inflammatory disease, resulting in liver capsule inflammation.

      Cushing Syndrome: This syndrome is due to excess cortisol, which causes hypertension, central obesity, striae, a moon face, and muscle weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 42-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of drooling from one side...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of drooling from one side of her mouth and inability to raise the left corner of her mouth when she smiles. During the examination, the doctor observes dryness and scaling on her left cornea. Which nerve is likely affected in this case?

      Your Answer: Facial nerve

      Explanation:

      The Facial Nerve: Anatomy and Function

      The facial nerve is a crucial nerve responsible for controlling the muscles of facial expression. It originates from the pons as two separate motor and sensory roots before joining to form the facial nerve. Along its path, it gives off branches that provide parasympathetic fibers to glands, motor fibers to muscles, and sensory fibers to the tongue. The nerve exits the cranium through the stylomastoid foramen and branches into various muscles of the face, controlling facial expression. A lesion to the facial nerve can result in loss of motor control of facial muscles. It is important to differentiate the facial nerve from other nerves, such as the trigeminal nerve, maxillary nerve, occipital nerve, and lacrimal nerve, which have different functions and innervations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 35-year-old man presents to the doctor’s office with complaints of double vision,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the doctor’s office with complaints of double vision, drooping eyelids, and difficulty with speaking, chewing, and swallowing. He reports feeling well in the morning without weakness, but as the day progresses, he experiences increasing fatigue and weakness. Additionally, he notes muscle weakness after exercise that improves with rest. On physical examination, there is no muscle fasciculation, atrophy, or spasticity, and all reflexes are normal. Sensation is intact, and his pupils are equal and reactive to light. What autoantibodies are responsible for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Myelin

      Correct Answer: Acetylcholine receptors

      Explanation:

      Autoimmune Diseases and Associated Antibodies

      Myasthenia gravis, systemic lupus erythematosus, Becker and Duchenne muscular dystrophy, multiple sclerosis, and Lambert-Eaton syndrome are all autoimmune diseases that involve the production of specific antibodies. Myasthenia gravis is characterised by the presence of acetylcholine receptor antibodies, while SLE is associated with antibodies to double-stranded DNA and anti-Smith antibodies. Antibodies to dystrophin are linked to muscular dystrophy, and those to myelin are involved in multiple sclerosis. Finally, antibodies to the presynaptic calcium receptor are associated with Lambert-Eaton syndrome. Understanding the specific antibodies involved in these diseases can aid in their diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - What do muscarinic receptors refer to? ...

    Incorrect

    • What do muscarinic receptors refer to?

      Your Answer: Dopaminergic receptors

      Correct Answer: Cholinergic receptors

      Explanation:

      Muscarinic Receptors: A Subclass of Cholinergic Receptors

      Muscarinic receptors are a type of cholinergic receptors that are responsible for a variety of functions in the body. They are divided into five subclasses based on their location, namely M1-5. M1, M4, and M5 are found in the central nervous system and are involved in complex functions such as memory, analgesia, and arousal. M2 is located on cardiac muscle and helps reduce conduction velocity at the sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes, thereby lowering heart rate. M3, on the other hand, is found on smooth muscle, including bronchial tissue, bladder, and exocrine glands, and is responsible for a variety of responses.

      It is important to note that muscarinic receptors are a subclass of cholinergic receptors, with the other subclass being nicotinic receptors. Adrenergic receptors, on the other hand, bind to adrenaline, while dopaminergic receptors bind to dopamine. Glutamatergic receptors bind to glutamate, and histamine receptors bind to histamine. the different types of receptors and their functions is crucial in the development of drugs and treatments for various medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A patient attends the neurology clinic following a referral from the GP due...

    Incorrect

    • A patient attends the neurology clinic following a referral from the GP due to difficulty with eating and chewing food. A neurologist performs a cranial nerve assessment and suspects a lesion of the right trigeminal nerve.
      Which of the following is a clinical feature of a trigeminal nerve palsy in an elderly patient?

      Your Answer: Hyperacusis

      Correct Answer: Bite weakness on the right

      Explanation:

      Common Symptoms of Cranial Nerve Lesions

      Cranial nerves are responsible for various functions in the head and neck region. Damage to these nerves can result in specific symptoms that can help identify the location and extent of the lesion. Here are some common symptoms of cranial nerve lesions:

      1. Bite weakness on the right: The masticatory muscles are served by the motor branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve. Therefore, weakness in biting on the right side can indicate damage to this nerve.

      2. Loss of taste in anterior two-thirds of the tongue: The facial nerve carries taste fibers from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. Damage to this nerve can result in a loss of taste sensation in this region.

      3. Paralysis of the right buccinator muscle: The muscles of facial expression, including the buccinator, are supplied by the motor fibers carried in the facial nerve. Paralysis of this muscle on the right side can indicate damage to the facial nerve.

      4. Hyperacusis: The stapedius muscle, which is innervated by the facial nerve, helps dampen down loud noise by attenuating transmission of the acoustic signal in the middle ear. Damage to the facial nerve can result in hyperacusis, a condition where sounds are perceived as too loud.

      5. Loss of taste in posterior third of the tongue: The glossopharyngeal nerve supplies the posterior third of the tongue. Damage to this nerve can result in a loss of taste sensation in this region.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - What type of receptor utilizes G protein for downstream signaling? ...

    Correct

    • What type of receptor utilizes G protein for downstream signaling?

      Your Answer: Metabotropic

      Explanation:

      Classification of Receptors Based on Downstream Signalling Mechanisms

      Receptors are classified based on their mechanism for downstream signalling. There are two main types of receptors: inotropic and metabotropic. Inotropic receptors, such as glutamate receptors, are ion channel receptors that bind to neurotransmitters and cause a direct change in ion flow. On the other hand, metabotropic receptors, such as adrenoreceptors, are coupled to G proteins or enzymes and cause a cascade of intracellular events.

      Metabotropic receptors can be further subdivided into G-protein coupled receptors or enzyme-associated receptors. Some neurotransmitters, like acetylcholine, can bind to both inotropic and metabotropic receptors. However, only metabotropic receptors are used in receptor classification.

      Examples of inotropic receptors include glutamate receptors, GABA-A receptors, 5-HT3 receptors, nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, AMPA receptors, and glycine receptors. Examples of metabotropic receptors include adrenoreceptors, GABA-B receptors, 5-HT1 receptors, muscarinic acetylcholine receptors, dopaminergic receptors, and histaminergic receptors.

      In summary, receptors are classified based on their downstream signalling mechanisms. Inotropic receptors cause a direct change in ion flow, while metabotropic receptors cause a cascade of intracellular events. Only metabotropic receptors are used in receptor classification, and they can be further subdivided into G-protein coupled receptors or enzyme-associated receptors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 76-year-old retired teacher is being evaluated for progressive memory impairment. Based on...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old retired teacher is being evaluated for progressive memory impairment. Based on the information provided by the patient's spouse, the clinician suspects that the patient may have vascular dementia.
      What are the typical features of vascular dementia?

      Your Answer: Agnosia

      Correct Answer: Unsteadiness and falls

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Symptoms of Vascular Dementia

      Vascular dementia is a type of dementia that is characterized by a stepwise, step-down progression. This type of dementia is associated with vascular events within the brain and can cause a range of symptoms. One of the early symptoms of vascular dementia is unsteadiness and falls, as well as gait and mobility problems. Other symptoms may include visuospatial problems, motor dysfunction, dysphasia, pseudobulbar palsy, and mood and personality changes.

      Vascular dementia is commonly seen in patients with increased vascular risk and may have a cross-over with Alzheimer’s disease. Brain scanning may reveal multiple infarcts within the brain. To manage vascular dementia, it is important to address all vascular risks, including smoking, diabetes, and hypertension. Patients may also be placed on appropriate anti-platelet therapy and a statin.

      Compared to Alzheimer’s dementia, vascular dementia has a more stepwise progression. Additionally, it can cause pseudobulbar palsy, which results in a stiff tongue rather than a weak one. However, agnosia, which is the inability to interpret sensations, is not typically seen in vascular dementia. Visual hallucinations are also more characteristic of Lewy body dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A man in his early 50s presents with a painless lump in the...

    Incorrect

    • A man in his early 50s presents with a painless lump in the right posterior triangle of his neck. He undergoes an excision biopsy under general anaesthetic. After the procedure, he experiences difficulty shrugging his right shoulder.
      Which nerve is most likely to have been affected during the surgery?

      Your Answer: Cervical plexus

      Correct Answer: Accessory

      Explanation:

      Nerves of the Neck: Functions and Effects of Damage

      The neck is home to several important nerves that control various muscles and sensory functions. Understanding the functions of these nerves and the effects of damage can help diagnose and treat neurological conditions.

      Accessory Nerve: This nerve supplies motor innervation to the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles. Damage to this nerve can result in the inability to shrug the shoulder due to loss of innervation to the trapezius.

      Cervical Plexus: Arising deep to the sternocleidomastoid, the cervical plexus innervates the skin to the back of the head, neck, and collarbones, as well as some anterior neck muscles such as the omohyoid. Damage to this nerve would not cause issues with shoulder movement.

      Hypoglossal Nerve: The hypoglossal nerve innervates all intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue. Damage to this nerve would not cause issues with shoulder movement.

      Vagus Nerve: The vagus nerve is the longest autonomic nerve in the body and interfaces with the parasympathetic control of the heart, lungs, and gastrointestinal tract.

      Long Thoracic Nerve of Bell: This nerve innervates the serratus anterior muscle. Damage to this nerve leads to winging of the scapula but no issues with shoulder movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 70-year-old former miner is referred to the psycho-geriatrician by his general practitioner....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old former miner is referred to the psycho-geriatrician by his general practitioner. His daughter is concerned over his increasingly poor memory and difficulty looking after himself particularly in the last month. Two years previously, he was well and an active member of the local Rotary Club. His past medical history includes a myocardial infarction aged 68 years, osteoarthritis of the knees and peripheral vascular disease.
      On examination: bibasal fine inspiratory crepitations; right inguinal hernia; left renal bruit.
      What is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms?

      Your Answer: Normal pressure hydrocephalus

      Correct Answer: Multi-infarct dementia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Dementia: Multi-Infarct Dementia, Alzheimer’s Disease, and More

      Dementia is a condition characterized by cognitive decline and disability, affecting memory, personality, and intellect. One type of dementia is multi-infarct dementia, which is caused by repeated small cerebrovascular accidents in the brain. This leads to a stepwise deterioration in cognitive status and is often accompanied by a history of arterial disease. Other types of dementia include frontotemporal dementia (Pick’s disease), Alzheimer’s disease, normal pressure hydrocephalus, and sporadic Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD). Each type has its own characteristic features, such as frontal lobe features in Pick’s disease, amyloid plaques and tau protein neurofibrillary tangles in Alzheimer’s disease, and urinary incontinence and gait abnormalities in normal pressure hydrocephalus and sporadic CJD. It is important to identify a reversible cause for dementia at the time of presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 41 - Through which opening is the structure transmitted that passes through the base of...

    Incorrect

    • Through which opening is the structure transmitted that passes through the base of the skull?

      Your Answer: Mandibular nerves

      Correct Answer: Spinal accessory nerves

      Explanation:

      The Foramen Magnum and its Contents

      The foramen magnum is a large opening at the base of the skull that allows for the passage of various structures. These structures include the medulla, which is the lower part of the brainstem responsible for vital functions such as breathing and heart rate. The meninges, which are the protective membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord, also pass through the foramen magnum.

      In addition, the foramen magnum transmits the vertebral arteries, which supply blood to the brainstem and cerebellum. The anterior and posterior spinal arteries, which provide blood to the spinal cord, also pass through this opening. The spinal accessory nerves, which control certain muscles in the neck and shoulders, and the sympathetic plexus, which regulates involuntary functions such as blood pressure and digestion, also pass through the foramen magnum.

      Overall, the foramen magnum plays a crucial role in allowing for the passage of important structures that are essential for the proper functioning of the brain, spinal cord, and other vital organs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 42 - An 85-year-old man with a history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and smoking presents to...

    Correct

    • An 85-year-old man with a history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and smoking presents to the Emergency Department with left-sided weakness and numbness. On examination, he has a drooping left face, decreased strength in his left arm and leg (4/5), and reduced sensation on the left side of his body. His pulse is regular at 70 bpm, and his blood pressure is 180/100 mmHg. The initial diagnosis is a possible ischemic stroke.
      What proportion of strokes are ischemic rather than hemorrhagic?

      Your Answer: 80-85%

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Prevalence and Causes of Ischaemic and Haemorrhagic Strokes

      Ischaemic strokes are the most common type of stroke, accounting for 80-85% of all cases. They are characterized by a sudden onset of neurological deficits, such as hemiplegia, and are usually caused by thromboembolic disease secondary to atherosclerosis. Risk factors for ischaemic stroke include smoking, diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, heart disease, and previous medical history of myocardial infarction, stroke or embolism.

      Haemorrhagic strokes, on the other hand, account for only 10-20% of all strokes and usually result from the rupture of a blood vessel within the brain. While they are less common than ischaemic strokes, they can be more severe and have a higher mortality rate.

      It is important to understand the prevalence and causes of both types of strokes in order to prevent and treat them effectively. By addressing risk factors such as smoking and heart disease, we can reduce the incidence of ischaemic strokes. And by recognizing the symptoms of haemorrhagic strokes and seeking immediate medical attention, we can improve outcomes for those affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 43 - A 45-year-old accountant presents to the GP with concerns about progressive difficulty in...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old accountant presents to the GP with concerns about progressive difficulty in walking. He first noticed the onset of symptoms around eight months ago and has been finding it increasingly difficult to walk, although he has no problems in standing still. He has also noticed that he often loses his balance and feels rather unsteady of late. He has been researching his symptoms online and is worried that he may have Parkinson's disease.
      With regard to Parkinson's disease, which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) occurs as a result of degeneration of the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord and upper motor neurones in the motor cortex

      Explanation:

      Understanding Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) and Motor Neurone Disease (MND)

      Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is a type of motor neurone disease (MND) that affects the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord and upper motor neurones in the motor cortex. MND is a progressive disorder that leads to only motor deficits and affects middle-aged individuals, with a slight predominance in males. Neuronal loss occurs at all levels of the motor system, from the cortex to the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord. The prognosis for MND is poor, with a mean survival of 3-5 years from disease onset. Management is mainly symptomatic and requires a multidisciplinary approach, with early involvement of palliative care. The only licensed pharmacological agent in the UK is riluzole, which can increase survival by 3 months. Physical signs include both upper and lower motor neurone signs, with patients often developing prominent fasciculations. Sensation remains entirely intact, as this disease only affects motor neurones.

      Understanding Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) and Motor Neurone Disease (MND)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 44 - An 81-year-old man comes to your clinic with his wife. He has been...

    Correct

    • An 81-year-old man comes to your clinic with his wife. He has been experiencing memory loss for recent events and has gotten lost while out shopping. His cognitive abilities seem to fluctuate frequently, but overall, they appear to be declining. Additionally, he reports seeing small, fairy-like creatures running around, although he knows they are not real. He has also had several unexplained falls. Apart from increased muscle tone in all limbs, there are no other neurological symptoms. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dementia with Lewy bodies

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Dementia: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Dementia is a progressive cognitive impairment that affects millions of people worldwide. There are several types of dementia, each with its own set of symptoms and diagnostic criteria. Here are some of the most common types of dementia:

      Dementia with Lewy bodies
      This type of dementia is characterized by a progressive decline in cognitive function, with a particular emphasis on memory loss and disorientation. It is caused by the presence of Lewy bodies in the brain, which are distributed more widely than in Parkinson’s disease. Diagnosis requires the presence of dementia, as well as two out of three core features: fluctuating attention and concentration, recurrent visual hallucinations, and spontaneous parkinsonism.

      Huntington’s disease
      Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that typically presents in middle age. It causes a deterioration in mental ability and mood, as well as uncoordinated movements and jerky, random motions. Diagnosis is made through genetic testing.

      Multi-infarct dementia
      This type of dementia is caused by a history of interrupted blood supply to the brain, such as multiple strokes. Risk factors include hypertension, diabetes, smoking, hypercholesterolemia, and cardiovascular disease.

      Pick’s disease
      Also known as fronto-temporal dementia, Pick’s disease is characterized by a loss of inhibitions and other behavioral changes.

      Alzheimer’s disease
      The most common type of dementia, Alzheimer’s is characterized by a gradual decline in cognitive function, including memory loss and disorientation. However, the presence of visual hallucinations, parkinsonism, and a fluctuating course may indicate dementia with Lewy bodies instead.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types of dementia and their symptoms is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 45 - A 22-year-old student is admitted to hospital with symptoms of fever, headache, photophobia...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old student is admitted to hospital with symptoms of fever, headache, photophobia and vomiting. The general practitioner administers 1.2 g of intramuscular benzylpenicillin before transferring the patient to the hospital. On examination, the patient's temperature is 38.0 °C, pulse 100 bpm and blood pressure 150/80 mmHg. No rash is visible, but there is mild neck stiffness. A CT scan of the brain is performed and shows no abnormalities. A lumbar puncture is also performed, and the results are as follows:
      - Opening pressure: 20 cm H2O
      - Appearance: Clear
      - Red cell count: 25/mcl
      - Lymphocytes: 125/mcl
      - Polymorphs: 5/mcl
      - Glucose: 4.5 mmol/l (blood glucose 5.5 mmol/l)
      - Protein: 0.5 g/l
      - Gram stain: No organisms seen
      - Culture: No growth

      What diagnosis is consistent with these findings?

      Your Answer: Bacterial meningitis

      Correct Answer: Viral meningitis

      Explanation:

      Viral meningitis is a serious condition that should be treated as such if a patient presents with a headache, sensitivity to light, and stiffness in the neck. It is important to correctly interpret the results of a lumbar puncture to ensure that the appropriate treatment is administered. The appearance, cell count, protein level, and glucose level of the cerebrospinal fluid can help distinguish between bacterial, viral, and tuberculous meningitis. Bacterial meningitis is characterized by cloudy or purulent fluid with high levels of polymorphs and low levels of lymphocytes, while tuberculous meningitis may have a clear or slightly turbid appearance with a spider web clot and high levels of lymphocytes. Viral meningitis typically has clear or slightly hazy fluid with high levels of lymphocytes and normal protein and glucose levels. A subarachnoid hemorrhage may present with similar symptoms but would not have signs of infection and would show a large number of red blood cells and a color change in the cerebrospinal fluid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 46 - A 20-year-old female underwent an appendicectomy and was administered an antiemetic for her...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female underwent an appendicectomy and was administered an antiemetic for her nausea and vomiting. However, she is now experiencing an oculogyric crisis and has a protruding tongue. Which antiemetic is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Dolasetron

      Correct Answer: Metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal Effects of Antiemetic Drugs

      Anti-nausea medications such as metoclopramide, domperidone, and cyclizine can have extrapyramidal effects, which involve involuntary muscle movements. Metoclopramide is known to cause acute dystonic reactions, which can result in facial and skeletal muscle spasms and oculogyric crisis. These effects are more common in young girls and women, as well as the elderly. However, they typically subside within 24 hours of stopping treatment with metoclopramide.

      On the other hand, domperidone is less likely to cause extrapyramidal effects because it does not easily cross the blood-brain barrier. Cyclizine is also less likely to cause these effects, making it a safer option for those who are susceptible to extrapyramidal reactions. It is important to discuss any concerns about potential side effects with a healthcare provider before starting any new medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 47 - A 65-year-old man presents to your GP Surgery with worry about an incident...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to your GP Surgery with worry about an incident that occurred earlier in the day. He vaguely describes experiencing epigastric discomfort, followed by a tingling sensation down his arms and the scent of cooking bacon. Additionally, he reports feeling generally unwell. He did not lose consciousness during the episode. Upon further questioning, he mentions having experienced similar symptoms before. You observe that he has a medical history of ischaemic heart disease and had a stroke four months ago.
      What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Focal impaired awareness seizure

      Correct Answer: Focal aware seizure

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Focal Aware Seizures

      Focal aware seizures, also known as simple focal seizures or auras, are a type of seizure that do not result in loss of awareness. Patients may experience vague discomfort, unusual smells or tastes, tingling, or twitching in an arm or leg. It is important to note that these seizures can be a sign of another type of seizure to come. Risk factors include head trauma and previous stroke.

      Malingering, or feigning symptoms for secondary gain, should be considered but is a diagnosis of exclusion. It is important to thoroughly investigate the patient’s symptoms before making this diagnosis.

      Focal impaired awareness seizures, previously known as complex focal seizures, result in memory loss, loss of awareness, and automatic bodily movements. This is not the case for a patient with focal aware seizures.

      Gastritis may be a differential due to the patient’s epigastric pain, but it does not fit with the other neurological symptoms.

      Psychotic hallucinations should be considered but are less likely given the patient’s coherent description of events and lack of history or risk factors for mental illness.

      In summary, when presented with a patient experiencing focal aware seizures, it is important to consider other neurological conditions before making a diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 48 - A 20-year-old apprentice is referred by his general practitioner with a query of...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old apprentice is referred by his general practitioner with a query of bacterial meningitis. A computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain was normal. The patient complains of ongoing headache, photophobia and fever. A lumbar puncture (LP) is to be performed.
      Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to performing an LP?

      Your Answer: Normal cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) opening pressure ranges from 14 to 24 mmH2O

      Correct Answer: A concurrent plasma glucose sample should be taken

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Lumbar Puncture in Patients with Suspected Meningitis

      Lumbar puncture (LP) is a diagnostic procedure that involves the insertion of a needle into the spinal canal to obtain cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for analysis. LP is an essential tool in the diagnosis of bacterial meningitis, but it should be performed with caution and only in appropriate patients. Here are some guidelines for LP in patients with suspected meningitis:

      Concurrent plasma glucose sample should be taken to calculate the CSF: plasma glucose ratio, which is a key distinguishing feature of bacterial meningitis.

      Normal CSF opening pressure ranges from 7-18 mmH2O.

      Verbal consent for the procedure is sufficient, but written consent should be obtained from the patient if possible.

      LP is typically performed in the left lateral position, but it may be performed in the sitting position or with imaging guidance if necessary.

      Neuroimaging is required before an LP only in patients with a clinical suspicion of raised intracranial pressure, especially in immunocompromised patients.

      Possible complications of LP include post-dural puncture headache, transient paraesthesiae, spinal haematoma or abscess, and tonsillar herniation. These should be discussed with the patient before the procedure.

      LP should not be performed in patients with an acutely raised CSF pressure, as it may cause brainstem herniation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 49 - What is the ionic event that occurs just before the creation of fusion...

    Incorrect

    • What is the ionic event that occurs just before the creation of fusion pores during neurotransmitter synaptic release?

      Your Answer: Depolarisation

      Correct Answer: Calcium ion influx

      Explanation:

      The Process of Synaptic Neurotransmitter Release

      Synaptic neurotransmitter release is a complex process that involves the depolarization of the presynaptic membrane, opening of voltage-gated calcium channels, influx of calcium ions, and binding of vesicle-associated membrane proteins (VAMPs). This causes a conformational change that leads to the fusion of the neurotransmitter vesicle with the presynaptic membrane, forming a fusion pore. The neurotransmitter is then released into the synaptic cleft, where it can bind to target receptors on the postsynaptic cell.

      The postsynaptic density, which is an accumulation of specialized proteins, ensures that the postsynaptic receptors are in place to bind the released neurotransmitters. The only correct answer from the given options is calcium ion influx, as it is essential for the process of synaptic neurotransmitter release. this process is crucial for how neurons communicate with each other and how neurotransmitters affect behavior and cognition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 50 - A 65-year-old patient complains of back pain that extends to the left leg....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient complains of back pain that extends to the left leg. The patient reports decreased sensation on the lateral aspect of the left calf and lateral foot. Which nerve roots are likely to be affected in this case?

      Your Answer: L4-L5

      Correct Answer: L5-S1

      Explanation:

      L5 and S1 Radiculopathy

      L5 radiculopathy is the most common type of radiculopathy that affects the lumbosacral spine. It is characterized by back pain that radiates down the lateral aspect of the leg and into the foot. On the other hand, S1 radiculopathy is identified by pain that radiates down the posterior aspect of the leg and into the foot from the back.

      When examining a patient with S1 radiculopathy, there may be a reduction in leg extension (gluteus maximus), foot eversion, plantar flexion, and toe flexion. Sensation is also generally reduced on the posterior aspect of the leg and the lateral foot.

      It is important to note that both L5 and S1 radiculopathy can cause significant discomfort and affect a patient’s quality of life. Proper diagnosis and management are crucial in addressing these conditions. Patients are advised to seek medical attention if they experience any symptoms related to radiculopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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