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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old is set to have a proctocolectomy for ulcerative colitis. They are...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old is set to have a proctocolectomy for ulcerative colitis. They are currently on a daily dose of prednisolone 10 mg to manage their condition. They do not take any other regular medications. Are there any necessary adjustments to their medication regimen prior to the surgery?

      Your Answer: Supplement with dexamethasone

      Correct Answer: Supplement with hydrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Prior to surgery, patients taking prednisolone require additional steroid supplementation with hydrocortisone to prevent an Addisonian crisis. This is especially important for those taking the equivalent of 10 mg or more of prednisolone daily, as their adrenals may be suppressed and unable to produce enough cortisol to meet the body’s increased requirements during surgery. Without supplementation, the risk of Addisonian crisis is higher, and stopping prednisolone peri-operatively can further increase this risk. Hydrocortisone is preferred for supplementation as it is shorter acting than dexamethasone and prednisolone.

      Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      37.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You are examining the blood test results of a middle-aged pregnant woman. What...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining the blood test results of a middle-aged pregnant woman. What result would suggest the requirement for regular antenatal administration of anti-D prophylaxis at 28 weeks?

      Your Answer: Rhesus negative mothers who are sensitised

      Correct Answer: Rhesus negative mothers who are not sensitised

      Explanation:

      Rhesus negative pregnancies can lead to the formation of anti-D IgG antibodies in the mother if she delivers a Rh +ve child, which can cause haemolysis in future pregnancies. Prevention involves testing for D antibodies and giving anti-D prophylaxis to non-sensitised Rh -ve mothers at 28 and 34 weeks. Anti-D immunoglobulin should be given within 72 hours in various situations. Tests should be done on all babies born to Rh -ve mothers, and affected fetuses may experience various complications and require treatment such as transfusions and UV phototherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of feeling down. She finds it...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of feeling down. She finds it difficult to work with her colleagues and believes they are not performing up to par. Consequently, she declines to delegate tasks and has become exhausted.
      Upon further inquiry, she adheres to a strict daily routine and tries to avoid deviating from it as much as possible. If she fails to follow this plan, she becomes anxious and spends her free time catching up on tasks.
      What is the most suitable course of action in managing her probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing

      Correct Answer: Dialectical behaviour therapy

      Explanation:

      The female librarian seeking advice exhibits inflexible behavior in her work and becomes easily annoyed when her routines are disrupted. She prefers to work alone, relying on lists and rules to structure her day, which are indicative of obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD). Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) is the recommended approach for managing personality disorders, including OCPD. Exposure and response prevention (ERP) and eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) are not appropriate for her condition, as they are used to manage obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) and post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), respectively. Prescribing fluoxetine may be considered for any associated depression, but addressing the underlying cause with DBT is the initial priority.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 22-year-old man is struck on the left side of his face while...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old man is struck on the left side of his face while playing rugby. He reports experiencing double vision when both eyes are open and finds it painful to open his mouth.
      What is the likely explanation for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Rupture of the globe

      Correct Answer: Depressed fracture of the zygoma

      Explanation:

      Facial trauma can result in fractures of the facial bones, which are often caused by assaults or accidents. The location of the impact can determine the type of injury, with a punch to the cheek bone or eye area commonly resulting in a fractured zygoma. If the globe is ruptured, there will be a significant loss of vision. Monocular visual blurring may indicate a hyphaema, which can be diagnosed through inspection. A ramus fracture can cause difficulty opening the mouth, but will not affect vision. A maxillary antrum rupture may occur as a result of a comminuted maxillary fracture or blowout fracture of the orbit. If a patient has binocular vision and facial trauma, it may suggest a depressed fracture of the zygoma. Inspection and palpation of the orbital margins can reveal a step deformity or depressed contour of the cheek.

      Patients with head injuries should be managed according to ATLS principles and extracranial injuries should be managed alongside cranial trauma. There are different types of traumatic brain injuries, including extradural hematoma, subdural hematoma, and subarachnoid hemorrhage. Primary brain injury may be focal or diffuse, and secondary brain injury can occur due to cerebral edema, ischemia, infection, or herniation. Management may include IV mannitol/furosemide, decompressive craniotomy, and ICP monitoring. Pupillary findings can provide information on the location and severity of the injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 12-year-old girl is diagnosed with Marfan syndrome after visiting the optometrist due...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl is diagnosed with Marfan syndrome after visiting the optometrist due to a left sided lens dislocation. The optometrist observed other characteristics indicative of the condition and referred her to the paediatric team for additional evaluation.

      What is the most accurate description of Marfan syndrome?

      Your Answer: Aortic stenosis commonly occurs

      Correct Answer: Scoliosis commonly occurs

      Explanation:

      Marfan Syndrome: A Connective Tissue Disorder with Variable Expression

      Marfan syndrome is a genetic disorder inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, caused by a mutation in the fibrillin-1 gene on chromosome 15. This results in reduced elasticity in connective tissue and excess growth factor release, leading to various clinical features such as tall and thin stature, long limbs and fingers, chest deformity, joint hypermobility, aortic aneurysm and regurgitation, lens dislocation, and facial characteristics such as a long narrow face and high-arched palate. Marfan syndrome is associated with a normal life expectancy, but patients have a reduced life expectancy due to cardiovascular complications. It is important to note that one in four cases are due to a de novo mutation, and the severity of the disease can vary depending on the specific mutation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old man visited his GP complaining of a gradual blurring of vision...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man visited his GP complaining of a gradual blurring of vision in his right eye. He underwent cataract surgery on the same eye five years ago. Despite wearing reading glasses, he noticed no improvement. During the examination, his left eye had a visual acuity of 6/18, while his right eye had a visual acuity of 6/9. What possible diagnosis could explain his symptoms in the right eye?

      Your Answer: Anterior capsule opacification

      Correct Answer: Posterior capsule opacification

      Explanation:

      Understanding Common Eye Conditions and Refraction

      Posterior Capsule Opacification
      Posterior capsule opacification is a common complication after cataract surgery. It can cause blurring of vision, but is harmless and can be treated with a laser procedure called YAG laser capsulotomy.

      Anterior Capsule Opacification
      Anterior capsule opacification does not occur after cataract surgery as most of the anterior capsule would have been removed during the procedure.

      Hypermetropia and Myopia
      Hypermetropia, also known as long-sightedness, and myopia, also known as short-sightedness, can cause blurring of vision if spectacles of the correct refraction were not prescribed. Hypermetropia requires a convex spectacle lens, while myopia requires a concave spectacle lens.

      Presbyopia
      Presbyopia is the normal loss of near focusing ability that occurs with age. However, if wearing reading glasses does not improve blurring of vision, presbyopia may not be the correct diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      29.5
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  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old plumber presents to the Emergency department with a saw injury to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old plumber presents to the Emergency department with a saw injury to his right thumb. On examination, there is a 1.5 cm laceration on the ulnar aspect of the thumb. The neurovascular supply is intact, and there is no evidence of injury to other structures. What is the suitable local anaesthetic to use for exploring the wound and suturing the laceration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lidocaine 1% - 20 ml

      Explanation:

      Anaesthetics for Wound Management in the Emergency Department

      For wound management in the Emergency department, 1% lidocaine is the most commonly used anaesthetic for cleaning, exploring, and suturing wounds. However, adrenaline should not be used in areas supplied by end arteries, such as fingers and toes.

      The maximum dose of plain lidocaine in a healthy adult is 3 mg/kg or 200 mg (20 ml of 1%). It is important to note that 1% lidocaine is equivalent to 10 mg/ml. On the other hand, if lidocaine with adrenaline is used, the maximum dose is 7 mg/kg or 500 mg (50 ml of 1%). The duration of action for plain lidocaine is 30-60 minutes, while lidocaine with adrenaline lasts approximately 90 minutes.

      Another topical anaesthetic that can be used is ethyl chloride, which is sprayed onto the skin and causes rapid cooling. However, it is very short-acting and lasts less than 60 seconds, making it inadequate for providing sufficient analgesia in most cases.

      In summary, the choice of anaesthetic for wound management in the Emergency department depends on the location and severity of the wound, as well as the patient’s overall health. It is important to follow the recommended maximum doses and duration of action to ensure safe and effective pain management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 8 - What are the expected urinalysis results for a 23-year-old patient with abdominal pain,...

    Incorrect

    • What are the expected urinalysis results for a 23-year-old patient with abdominal pain, dehydration, anorexia, and marked hyperglycemia who may have a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes?

      A) Haemoglobin: Negative
      Urobilinogen: Negative
      Bilirubin: Negative
      Protein: Positive
      Glucose: Positive (+++)
      Nitrites: Negative
      Leucocytes: Positive

      B) Haemoglobin: Negative
      Urobilinogen: Negative
      Bilirubin: Negative
      Protein: Negative
      Glucose: Positive
      Nitrites: ++
      Leucocytes: ++

      C) Haemoglobin: Negative
      Urobilinogen: Negative
      Bilirubin: Negative
      Protein: Negative
      Glucose: +
      Nitrites: +++
      Leucocytes: +++

      D) Haemoglobin: Negative
      Urobilinogen: Negative
      Bilirubin: Negative
      Protein: Negative
      Glucose: Negative
      Nitrites: Negative
      Leucocytes: Negative

      E) Haemoglobin: +++
      Urobilinogen: +
      Bilirubin: +
      Protein: Negative
      Glucose: Negative
      Nitrites: Negative
      Leucocytes: Negative

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: B

      Explanation:

      Diabetic Ketoacidosis and Urinary Tract Infection

      This patient is exhibiting symptoms that are commonly associated with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), a serious complication of diabetes. The presence of high levels of glucose and ketones in the urine, as indicated by the urinalysis, further supports this diagnosis. DKA can occur in both new and established type 1 diabetic patients and is often triggered by an infection. In this case, it is likely that a urinary tract infection (UTI) was the precipitating factor.

      It is important to recognize the signs and symptoms of DKA, as prompt treatment is necessary to prevent serious complications. Patients with DKA may experience symptoms such as excessive thirst, frequent urination, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and confusion. If left untreated, DKA can lead to coma or even death. In addition to treating the underlying infection, treatment for DKA typically involves insulin therapy, fluid replacement, and electrolyte management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old man is exhibiting changes in mental status. He has been staying...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man is exhibiting changes in mental status. He has been staying up most nights for the past month, working on four different novels simultaneously. He has not left his home or eaten in the last week and refuses to do so. Additionally, he has started gambling. During the consultation, he appears easily distracted and responds to questions with nonsensical sentences made up of random words. A collateral history was necessary to gather information. There is no evidence of drug misuse, and he is currently being treated for depression. When his family attempts to understand his behavior, he accuses them of trying to hold him back from achieving fame. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bipolar disorder (type I)

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely suffering from bipolar disorder (type I) due to their elevated mood and energy following treatment for depression, which can often be a sign of bipolar disorder unmasked by antidepressants. The presence of disorganized speech in the form of ‘word salad’ is evidence of psychosis, which is a characteristic of bipolar I. The patient has also not slept or eaten in the last week, indicating severe functional impairment and the need for hospitalization, which is another DSM-V criteria for bipolar I. Additionally, the patient exhibits decreased need for sleep, increased risky activities, increased goal-directed behavior, and distractibility, which are all symptoms of bipolar I.

      Bipolar disorder (type II) is unlikely as the patient’s disorganized speech suggests psychosis, which is more commonly associated with bipolar I. Schizoaffective disorder is also unlikely as the patient’s elevated mood and history of depression do not fit the diagnostic criteria. Schizophrenia is less likely as it typically presents with negative symptoms followed by delusions and hallucinations, whereas the patient’s symptoms are primarily manic in nature.

      Understanding Psychosis

      Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in various ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. Associated features may include agitation/aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm. Psychotic symptoms can occur in a range of conditions, such as schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions, and drug use. The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 10 - A 72-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents to the hospital with a neck of femur...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents to the hospital with a neck of femur fracture after slipping at her local supermarket. The orthopaedic SHO takes her medical history, which reveals that she has a history of ischaemic heart disease and rheumatoid arthritis. She went through menopause at 55 and was an avid jogger until the fall. Following surgical management of the fracture, a DEXA scan is performed, which shows a T score of -2.9, indicating osteoporosis. What aspect of the patient's medical history is most strongly linked to an increased risk of osteoporosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Explanation:

      The inclusion of rheumatoid arthritis in the FRAX assessment tool highlights its significance as a risk factor for osteoporosis. This connection is likely due to various factors, such as increased use of corticosteroids, limited mobility caused by joint pain, and the impact of systemic inflammation on bone remodelling. Conversely, engaging in high-impact exercise, experiencing menopause later in life, and being of black ethnicity are all associated with a lower risk of developing osteoporosis. Additionally, recent research suggests that osteoporosis may actually increase the risk of ischaemic heart disease, rather than the other way around.

      Understanding the Causes of Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a condition that affects the bones, making them weak and brittle. It is more common in women and older adults, with the prevalence increasing significantly in women over the age of 80. However, there are many other risk factors and secondary causes of osteoporosis that should be considered. Some of the most important risk factors include a history of glucocorticoid use, rheumatoid arthritis, alcohol excess, parental hip fracture, low body mass index, and smoking. Other risk factors include a sedentary lifestyle, premature menopause, certain ethnicities, and endocrine disorders such as hyperthyroidism and diabetes mellitus.

      There are also medications that may worsen osteoporosis, such as SSRIs, antiepileptics, and proton pump inhibitors. If a patient is diagnosed with osteoporosis or has a fragility fracture, further investigations may be necessary to identify the cause and assess the risk of subsequent fractures. Recommended investigations include blood tests, bone densitometry, and other procedures as indicated. It is important to identify the cause of osteoporosis and contributory factors in order to select the most appropriate form of treatment. As a minimum, all patients should have a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, bone profile, CRP, and thyroid function tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 11 - What is the correct vertebral level and corresponding structure? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct vertebral level and corresponding structure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C4 and bifurcation of the carotid artery

      Explanation:

      Anatomy Landmarks and Openings

      The human body has several anatomical landmarks and openings that are important to know for medical professionals. The carotid artery, which supplies blood to the brain, bifurcates at the level of C4. The manubriosternal joint, also known as the angle of Louis, is located at the T4/5 intervertebral disk level. The aortic opening, which allows the aorta to pass through the diaphragm, is located at T12. The caval opening, which allows the inferior vena cava to pass through the diaphragm, is located at T8. Finally, the oesophageal opening of the diaphragm is located at T10. To remember the order of these openings, medical professionals often use the mnemonic Voice Of America – Vena cava at T8, Oesophagus at T10, and Aorta at T12. these landmarks and openings is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment of various medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old man has suffered a left-sided pneumothorax. A chest drain has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has suffered a left-sided pneumothorax. A chest drain has been inserted through the left fifth intercostal space at the mid-axillary line.
      As well as the intercostal muscles, which other muscle is likely to have been pierced?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serratus anterior

      Explanation:

      Muscles and Chest Drains: Understanding the Anatomy

      The human body is a complex system of muscles, bones, and organs that work together to keep us alive and functioning. When it comes to chest drains, understanding the anatomy of the surrounding muscles is crucial for successful placement and management. Let’s take a closer look at some of the key muscles involved.

      Serratus Anterior
      The serratus anterior muscle is located on the lateral chest and plays a vital role in protracting the scapula and contributing to rotation. It is likely to be pierced with most chest drains due to its position, with its lower four segments attaching to the fifth to eighth ribs anterior to the mid-axillary line.

      Latissimus Dorsi
      The latissimus dorsi muscle is a back muscle involved in adduction, medial rotation, and extension of the shoulder. It is not pierced by a chest drain.

      External Oblique
      The external oblique muscle is located in the anterior abdomen and is not involved with a chest drain.

      Pectoralis Major
      The pectoralis major muscle is situated in the anterior chest and is not affected by a chest drain, as it does not overlie the fifth intercostal space at the mid-axillary line. It flexes, extends, medially rotates, and adducts the shoulder.

      Pectoralis Minor
      The pectoralis minor muscle lies inferior to the pectoralis major on the anterior chest. It is a small muscle and is not usually pierced with a chest drain, as it does not overlie the fifth intercostal space at the mid-clavicular line.

      In conclusion, understanding the anatomy of the muscles surrounding the chest is essential for successful chest drain placement and management. Knowing which muscles are likely to be pierced and which are not can help healthcare professionals provide the best possible care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 13 - A 29-year-old G1P0 woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her husband...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old G1P0 woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her husband at 12 weeks’ gestation because she has been experiencing severe morning sickness, palpitations and heat intolerance. Ultrasound of her uterus reveals a ‘snow storm’ appearance and complete absence of fetal tissue.
      What is the most suitable parameter to monitor for effective treatment of this patient’s condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beta human chorionic gonadotropin (β-HCG)

      Explanation:

      Common Tumor Markers and their Clinical Significance

      Beta human chorionic gonadotropin (β-HCG)
      β-HCG levels are monitored in cases of molar pregnancy, which can present with morning sickness and symptoms of hyperthyroidism due to high levels of HCG. Monitoring levels of β-HCG is important to ensure that no fetal tissue remains after treatment to minimise the risk of developing choriocarcinoma or a persistent mole.

      Alpha fetoprotein (AFP)
      AFP is a marker used to screen for neural tube defects, hepatocellular carcinoma and endodermal sinus tumours.

      CA-125
      CA-125 is a marker of ovarian malignancy. Although it is used to monitor response to chemotherapy and tumour recurrence, it has not been widely used as a screening tool.

      Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
      Increased LDH is strongly associated with dysgerminomas.

      Oestriol
      Urine unconjugated oestriol is measured as part of the quadruple screen for trisomy 21. Low levels of oestriol are suggestive of Down syndrome.

      Understanding Tumor Markers and their Clinical Implications

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 14 - A 27-year-old woman is in the second stage of labour. The fetal head...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman is in the second stage of labour. The fetal head is not descending, and the obstetrician decides to perform a ventouse extraction. He injects local anaesthetic into a nerve that crosses the ischial spine. This nerve then passes along the lateral wall of the ischiorectal fossa embedded in the obturator internus fascia in Alcock’s canal.
      Which of the following is this nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pudendal nerve

      Explanation:

      Nerve Pathways in the Pelvic Region

      The pelvic region contains several important nerves that play a crucial role in the functioning of the lower body. Here are some of the key nerve pathways in this area:

      Pudendal Nerve: This nerve exits the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen and re-enters via the lesser sciatic foramen. It passes through Alcock’s canal and is responsible for the sensation and movement of the perineum.

      Sciatic Nerve: The sciatic nerve emerges from the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen and descends between the femur and ischial tuberosity. It is prone to injury during deep intramuscular injections.

      Perineal Branch of S4: This nerve passes between the levator ani and coccygeus muscles and supplies the perianal skin.

      Genital Branch of the Genitofemoral Nerve: This nerve descends on the psoas major muscle and supplies the cremaster muscle and labial or scrotal skin.

      Obturator Nerve: The obturator nerve emerges from the psoas major muscle and runs along the lateral wall of the true pelvis. It exits the pelvis through the superior aspect of the obturator foramen to enter the thigh.

      Understanding these nerve pathways is important for medical professionals who work in the pelvic region, as it can help them diagnose and treat various conditions related to these nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old man with a past medical history of internal hemorrhoids presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man with a past medical history of internal hemorrhoids presents with a recent exacerbation of symptoms. He reports having to manually reduce his piles after bowel movements. What grade of hemorrhoids is he experiencing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Grade III

      Explanation:

      Understanding Haemorrhoids

      Haemorrhoids are a normal part of the anatomy that contribute to anal continence. They are mucosal vascular cushions found in specific areas of the anal canal. However, when they become enlarged, congested, and symptomatic, they are considered haemorrhoids. The most common symptom is painless rectal bleeding, but pruritus and pain may also occur. There are two types of haemorrhoids: external, which originate below the dentate line and are prone to thrombosis, and internal, which originate above the dentate line and do not generally cause pain. Internal haemorrhoids are graded based on their prolapse and reducibility. Management includes softening stools through dietary changes, topical treatments, outpatient procedures like rubber band ligation, and surgery for large, symptomatic haemorrhoids. Acutely thrombosed external haemorrhoids may require excision if the patient presents within 72 hours, but otherwise can be managed with stool softeners, ice packs, and analgesia.

      Overall, understanding haemorrhoids and their management is important for individuals experiencing symptoms and healthcare professionals providing care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 16 - A 30-year-old man visits his GP complaining of ear pain, itch and pus-like...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man visits his GP complaining of ear pain, itch and pus-like discharge that has been present for 3 days. He reports no fever and no hearing loss. The patient has a history of psoriasis. On examination, the doctor observes a raised red lesion on the ear with thick, silvery-white adherent scales. The tympanic membrane is intact and there is no visible mucous. The external auditory canal shows mild erythema and swelling. There is no palpable lymphadenopathy. What is the most appropriate treatment for this man's acute ear condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Otitis Externa

      Otitis externa, commonly known as swimmer’s ear, is an infection of the outer ear canal. It can be caused by breaks in the skin, such as those seen in psoriasis. Treatment options depend on the severity of the infection and may include topical antibiotics, topical steroids, intravenous antibiotics, oral antibiotics, or topical antifungal agents.

      Topical Antibiotics
      The first line of treatment for otitis externa is topical antibacterial therapy. This may include 2% acetic acid, neomycin, or aminoglycosides. If swelling is severe, a wick may be inserted after cleaning the ear canal. Steroids may also be added to the ear drops to decrease inflammation and swelling, but their effectiveness is not always clear. Drops should be given for three days beyond the cessation of symptoms.

      Topical Steroids
      In addition to antibiotics, steroids may be added to ear drops to reduce inflammation and swelling. However, they should be used in conjunction with antibiotics.

      Intravenous Antibiotics
      If the infection is severe or unresponsive to oral antibiotics, intravenous antibiotics may be necessary. Topical cultures may be recommended to guide treatment in severe cases.

      Oral Antibiotics
      Oral antibiotics are rarely needed for otitis externa but may be used if the infection is persistent, if associated otitis media is present, or if there is local or systemic spread. Signs of systemic spread include a temperature over 38.3 °C, severe initial pain, or lymphadenopathy.

      Topical Antifungal Agents
      Fungal infections may present with white to off-white discharge or black, grey, bluish-green, or yellow discharge. Aspergillus spp. may be identified by small black or white conidiophores on white hyphae. Suspected fungal otitis externa can be treated with topical antifungal agents such as clotrimazole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 17 - A 55-year-old man with a history of paranoid schizophrenia experiences a recurrence of...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of paranoid schizophrenia experiences a recurrence of symptoms due to irregular medication intake, leading to his admission under section 2 of the Mental Health Act following a formal mental state assessment. He had been taking Risperidone orally once daily for several years, which had effectively stabilized his mental state while living in the community. Considering his non-adherence, what treatment option would be most appropriate for this individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Switching to a once monthly IM anti-psychotic depo injection

      Explanation:

      Patients who struggle with taking their antipsychotic medication as prescribed may benefit from receiving a once monthly intramuscular depo injection. It is important to maintain a stable mental state and overall well-being for these patients, and switching medications can increase the risk of relapse and recurring symptoms. The goal is to provide the least restrictive treatment possible and minimize hospitalization time as outlined by the Mental Health Act. While daily visits from a home treatment team to administer medication may be a temporary solution, it is not a sustainable long-term option. Similarly, a once-daily intramuscular injection may not be practical or feasible for the patient.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.

      Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 18 - An overweight 56-year-old Caucasian male patient attends for the results of a health...

    Incorrect

    • An overweight 56-year-old Caucasian male patient attends for the results of a health check arranged by your surgery. He smokes 12 cigarettes a day and is trying to cut down. Alcohol intake is 8 units per week. He tells you that his father underwent a ‘triple bypass’ aged 48 years. His results are as follows: Total cholesterol : HDL ratio 6 HbA1c: 39 mmol/mol Urea and electrolytes: normal Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR): 97 ml/min/1.73m2 Liver function tests: normal Blood pressure (daytime average on 24-h ambulatory monitor): 140/87 Body mass index (BMI): 25 His QRISK2 10-year cardiovascular risk is calculated at 22.7%. In addition to assisting with smoking cessation and providing lifestyle advice, what is the most appropriate means of managing his risk?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commence atorvastatin 20 mg once a night and start a calcium channel blocker, review after three months

      Explanation:

      This patient has high cholesterol and hypertension, both of which require immediate attention.

      Medications:
      The patient will start taking atorvastatin 20 mg once a night to address their high cholesterol. After three months, their cholesterol and full lipid profile will be rechecked, and the therapy will be titrated to maintain a total cholesterol of <5. If necessary, the dose may be increased to 40 mg once a night.

      For hypertension, the patient will start taking a calcium channel blocker as they are over the age of 55. The blood pressure will be monitored regularly, and if it rises above 150/90, additional treatment may be necessary.

      Monitoring:
      The patient’s cholesterol and full lipid profile will be rechecked after three months of treatment with atorvastatin. The aim is to see a 40% reduction in non-HDL cholesterol. If this is not achieved, a discussion of adherence, lifestyle measures, and the possibility of increasing the dose will take place.

      The patient’s blood pressure will also be monitored regularly. If it rises above 150/90, additional treatment may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 19 - Which one of the following statements regarding lidocaine is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding lidocaine is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Preparations mixed with adrenaline should not be used for minor surgery involving the finger

      Explanation:

      Minor Surgery: Local Anaesthetic and Suture Material

      Minor surgery often requires the use of local anaesthetic (LA) to numb the area being operated on. Lidocaine is the most commonly used LA due to its fast-acting properties and short duration of anaesthesia. The maximum safe dose of lidocaine is 3 mg/kg, with the recommended dose being 200mg (or 500 mg if mixed with adrenaline) for a 66 kg patient. This equates to 20 ml of 1% solution or 10 ml of 2% solution. Lidocaine mixed with adrenaline can also help reduce blood loss by constricting blood vessels, but should not be used near extremities to avoid the risk of ischaemia.

      Suture material is also an important consideration in minor surgery. Non-absorbable sutures, such as silk, Prolene, and Ethilon, need to be removed after 7-14 days depending on the location of the wound. Absorbable sutures, such as Vicryl, Dexon, and PDS, dissolve on their own after 7-10 days. The removal times for non-absorbable sutures vary depending on the area of the body, with the face requiring removal after 3-5 days, the scalp, limbs, and chest after 7-10 days, and the hand, foot, and back after 10-14 days. Proper use of LA and suture material can help ensure a successful and safe minor surgery procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 20 - A 15-year-old boy presents with a 4-month history of lower back and left...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presents with a 4-month history of lower back and left heel pain, making walking painful and difficult. He reports experiencing morning stiffness lasting for about an hour, which improves with exercise throughout the day. He denies any prior history of similar symptoms and reports that they suddenly started about 4 months ago.

      During examination, the patient exhibits reduced lateral and forward flexion of the spine, tenderness upon palpation of the sacroiliac joints, and decreased chest expansion. What other conditions may be associated with this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Apical fibrosis

      Explanation:

      The patient presents with a 3-month history of sudden-onset back pain that worsens in the morning and improves with exercise. He has reduced lateral and forward flexion, chest expansion, and tenderness over the sacroiliac joints. Additionally, he experiences heel pain and difficulty walking, which could indicate plantar fasciitis or Achilles tendinopathy. These symptoms are indicative of ankylosing spondylitis (AS), which is the most likely diagnosis. AS is associated with apical fibrosis of the lungs, which may be due to reduced chest expansion and chronic interstitial inflammation over time.
      While aortic stenosis is not associated with AS, aortic regurgitation is. This is caused by the proliferation of smooth muscle cells or fibroblasts in AS, which occludes the proximal aorta vaso vasora, leading to aortitis and aortic regurgitation.
      Although conjunctivitis is commonly seen in patients with reactive arthritis, the ocular manifestation associated with AS patients is anterior uveitis. Keratoderma blennorrhagica, a rash that resembles psoriasis and occurs on the hands and feet, is associated with reactive arthritis, not AS.

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a lump in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a lump in his right groin that disappears when he lies down. He also experiences some discomfort. He has a history of chronic cough due to smoking and has undergone an appendicectomy in the past. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inguinal hernia

      Explanation:

      Inguinal Hernia as the Likely Cause of a Lump in the Right Groin

      In a patient of this age, a lump in the right groin is most likely caused by an inguinal hernia. This type of hernia occurs when a part of the intestine protrudes through the external inguinal ring. It may go unnoticed for some time, cause an ache, or resolve when lying flat. Femoral hernias, on the other hand, are more common in females.

      An epigastric hernia is an unlikely cause of the lump as the anatomical site is inconsistent. Similarly, an incisional hernia following appendicectomy would be very unusual. It is worth noting that this patient is at an increased risk of hernias due to his persistent cough, which is caused by smoking.

      Overall, an inguinal hernia is the most probable cause of the lump in the right groin of this patient. It is important to seek medical attention to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 22 - A third-grade student approaches you and asks you to explain the difference between...

    Incorrect

    • A third-grade student approaches you and asks you to explain the difference between primary and secondary prevention strategies to reduce disease burden. As part of your explanation, you decide to use an example of a secondary prevention measure to illustrate your description.
      Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention measure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Screening for breast cancer

      Explanation:

      Examples of Primary and Secondary Prevention Measures

      Primary and secondary prevention measures are important in maintaining good health and preventing diseases. Primary prevention measures aim to prevent the onset of a disease before it even starts, while secondary prevention measures aim to detect and treat a disease early to prevent its progression. Here are some examples of primary and secondary prevention measures:

      Introducing alcohol drinking guideline limits is a primary prevention measure that aims to reduce the health effects of excess alcohol consumption. This measure can help prevent alcohol-related diseases such as liver cirrhosis, pancreatitis, and certain types of cancer.

      Annual influenzae vaccination is a primary prevention measure that aims to prevent cases of influenzae in otherwise healthy individuals. This measure can help reduce the spread of the flu virus and prevent complications such as pneumonia, which can be life-threatening.

      Providing free condoms in general practice is a primary prevention measure that aims to prevent sexually transmitted diseases in otherwise healthy volunteers. This measure can help reduce the spread of sexually transmitted infections such as chlamydia, gonorrhea, and HIV.

      Offering smoking cessation services is a primary prevention measure that aims to prevent lung cancer. This measure can help individuals quit smoking and reduce their risk of developing lung cancer, as well as other smoking-related diseases such as heart disease and stroke.

      Breast cancer screening is a secondary prevention measure that aims to detect early breast cancer so that it can be treated early and lead to improved patient outcomes. This measure involves regular mammograms and clinical breast exams for women over a certain age or with certain risk factors. Early detection can help prevent the spread of breast cancer and increase the chances of successful treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistics
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  • Question 23 - You are a healthcare professional working in the emergency department during the winter...

    Incorrect

    • You are a healthcare professional working in the emergency department during the winter season. A patient, who is in his 50s, is brought in by air ambulance after being involved in a car accident. The trauma team assesses him and conducts the necessary tests. The patient is found to have a fracture in his right radius and small frontal contusions on his CT scan. Both injuries are treated conservatively, and he is admitted to the observation ward. However, after a few days of observation, the patient remains confused, and his family reports that he has not spoken a coherent sentence since his arrival. What investigation is the most appropriate given the possibility of diffuse axonal injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MRI brain

      Explanation:

      Diffuse axonal injury can be diagnosed most accurately through MRI scans, which are highly sensitive. To monitor the progression of contusions, repeat CT scans can be helpful. Electro-encephalograms are recommended for patients with epilepsy, while CT angiograms are useful in identifying the cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage. For detecting tumors or potential abscesses, CT scans with contrast are a valuable tool.

      Types of Traumatic Brain Injury

      Traumatic brain injury can result in primary and secondary brain injury. Primary brain injury can be focal or diffuse. Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing, which causes disruption and tearing of axons. intracranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural, or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to or contralateral to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury. The normal cerebral auto regulatory processes are disrupted following trauma rendering the brain more susceptible to blood flow changes and hypoxia. The Cushings reflex often occurs late and is usually a pre-terminal event.

      Extradural haematoma is bleeding into the space between the dura mater and the skull. It often results from acceleration-deceleration trauma or a blow to the side of the head. The majority of epidural haematomas occur in the temporal region where skull fractures cause a rupture of the middle meningeal artery. Subdural haematoma is bleeding into the outermost meningeal layer. It most commonly occurs around the frontal and parietal lobes. Risk factors include old age, alcoholism, and anticoagulation. Subarachnoid haemorrhage classically causes a sudden occipital headache. It usually occurs spontaneously in the context of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm but may be seen in association with other injuries when a patient has sustained a traumatic brain injury. Intracerebral haematoma is a collection of blood within the substance of the brain. Causes/risk factors include hypertension, vascular lesion, cerebral amyloid angiopathy, trauma, brain tumour, or infarct. Patients will present similarly to an ischaemic stroke or with a decrease in consciousness. CT imaging will show a hyperdensity within the substance of the brain. Treatment is often conservative under the care of stroke physicians, but large clots in patients with impaired consciousness may warrant surgical evacuation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 24 - A 78-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of vomiting and abdominal pain. He has a medical history of heart failure and COPD. Upon examination, his abdomen is soft and non-tender, and his vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 105/72 mmHg, pulse 94 bpm, respiratory rate 14/min, and temperature 36.9 deg C. His initial blood tests reveal hyponatremia with a sodium level of 123 mmol/L (135 - 145). What is the best approach to manage this patient's hyponatremia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV isotonic normal saline

      Explanation:

      Hypertonic saline is not the appropriate treatment for this patient as they do not have acute severe hyponatraemia with symptoms.

      Treating Hyponatremia: Factors to Consider

      Hyponatremia, if left untreated, can lead to cerebral edema and brain herniation. Therefore, it is crucial to identify and treat it promptly. However, the management of hyponatremia is complex and depends on several factors. These include the duration and severity of hyponatremia, the patient’s symptoms, and the suspected cause of hyponatremia. Over-rapid correction can also result in osmotic demyelination syndrome, which can cause irreversible symptoms.

      In all patients, initial steps include ruling out a spurious result and reviewing medications that may cause hyponatremia. For chronic hyponatremia without severe symptoms, the treatment approach depends on the suspected cause. If hypovolemic, normal saline may be given as a trial. If euvolemic, fluid restriction and medications such as demeclocycline or vaptans may be considered. If hypervolemic, fluid restriction and loop diuretics or vaptans may be used.

      For acute hyponatremia with severe symptoms, patients require close monitoring and may need hypertonic saline to correct the sodium level more quickly. However, over-correction can lead to osmotic demyelination syndrome, which can cause irreversible symptoms.

      Vasopressin/ADH receptor antagonists (vaptans) can be used in some cases but should be avoided in patients with hypovolemic hyponatremia and those with underlying liver disease. They can also stimulate thirst receptors, leading to the desire to drink free water.

      Overall, treating hyponatremia requires careful consideration of various factors to avoid complications and ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
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  • Question 25 - A 65-year-old female complains of pain and redness in the back of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female complains of pain and redness in the back of her calf, near a varicose vein. An ultrasound reveals no signs of DVT, but a diagnosis of thrombophlebitis of the distal great saphenous vein is made. The patient is prescribed NSAIDs for anti-inflammatory pain relief. What other treatment should be considered for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Compression stockings

      Explanation:

      Compression stockings are the recommended treatment for superficial thrombophlebitis as they can reduce the risk of DVT and alleviate the condition. This is crucial as ongoing thrombophlebitis can significantly increase the risk of DVT. Endovenous laser ablation (EVLA), great saphenous vein biopsy, and superficial vein sclerotherapy are not appropriate treatments for thrombophlebitis as they are used for different purposes and can even be contraindicated in inflamed or thrombophlebitic veins.

      Superficial thrombophlebitis is inflammation associated with thrombosis of a superficial vein, usually the long saphenous vein of the leg. Around 20% of cases have an underlying deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and 3-4% may progress to a DVT if untreated. Treatment options include NSAIDs, topical heparinoids, compression stockings, and low-molecular weight heparin. Patients with clinical signs of superficial thrombophlebitis affecting the proximal long saphenous vein should have an ultrasound scan to exclude concurrent DVT. Patients with superficial thrombophlebitis at, or extending towards, the saphenofemoral junction can be considered for therapeutic anticoagulation for 6-12 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 26 - A young man seeks counselling because of marital discord. He and his wife...

    Incorrect

    • A young man seeks counselling because of marital discord. He and his wife have been having problems because he is uninterested in doing anything but playing video games. He has neglected his responsibilities at home and his work performance is beginning to suffer as well.

      Which one of the following best describes his behaviour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fixation

      Explanation:

      Defense Mechanisms: Understanding Fixation, Dissociation, Sublimation, Reaction Formation, and Splitting

      Defense mechanisms are psychological strategies that individuals use to cope with difficult situations or emotions. Here are some common defense mechanisms and their explanations:

      Fixation: This occurs when a person becomes stuck in a particular stage of development and fails to progress. For example, someone who is fixated on football may prioritize it over other aspects of their life, leading to an imbalance.

      Dissociation: This is a defense mechanism where a person temporarily disconnects from their thoughts, feelings, or memories to avoid distress. In extreme cases, dissociation can lead to dissociative identity disorder.

      Sublimation: This is a mature defense mechanism where a person channels an unacceptable trait or desire into a socially acceptable behavior. For example, someone with aggressive tendencies may become a successful athlete.

      Reaction Formation: This is an immature defense mechanism where a person represses unacceptable emotions and replaces them with their opposite. For instance, someone with repressed homosexual desires may become an outspoken advocate against homosexuality.

      Splitting: This is a defense mechanism where a person sees others as either all good or all bad, unable to reconcile both positive and negative traits. For example, someone who experiences a bad breakup may only see their ex-partner as a terrible person, ignoring any positive qualities they may have had.

      Understanding these defense mechanisms can help individuals recognize and address unhealthy patterns in their behavior and emotions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old man has a 10-week history of auditory hallucinations and delusions, on...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has a 10-week history of auditory hallucinations and delusions, on a background of a two-year history of personality change, low mood and disorganisation. He attends his GP with his mother but then refuses emergency psychiatric admission. His GP is concerned that he is at risk to himself and others in the community and does not have the capacity to make decisions about his medical care. Assessment with regard to need for involuntary admission is arranged to his local psychiatric unit.
      Which section of the Mental Health Act would apply to his admission for treatment following assessment by a mental health specialist?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Detainment under section 2 of the Mental Health Act

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Different Sections of the Mental Health Act

      The Mental Health Act provides a legal framework for the assessment and treatment of individuals with mental disorders. There are several sections within the act that allow for different forms of detainment and treatment.

      Detainment under section 2 of the Mental Health Act allows for a person to be detained in hospital for up to 28 days for assessment and treatment of their mental disorder. This section is applicable when the person is potentially suffering from a mental disorder that warrants their detention in hospital and it is in their best interest for their own health, safety, or the protection of others.

      Section 3 of the Mental Health Act, also known as a treatment order, allows for the detention of a service user for treatment in the hospital. This section is applicable when the person is suffering from a mental disorder that warrants their care and treatment in hospital and there is a risk to their health, safety, or the safety of others.

      Community treatment order under section 17 of the Mental Health Act allows for the Responsible Clinician to grant a detained patient leave of absence from the hospital. This is the only legal means by which a detained patient may leave the hospital site.

      Emergency detainment under section 4 of the Mental Health Act is an emergency application for detention in hospital for up to 72 hours. This section requires only one medical recommendation from a doctor and is usually applied by an Approved Mental Health Professional.

      Holding under section 5 of the Mental Health Act allows for nurses to detain someone in hospital for up to six hours and doctors for up to 72 hours. This section is applicable when an assessment is needed to determine if further detention under the Mental Health Act is necessary.

      Understanding the different sections of the Mental Health Act is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment for individuals with mental disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
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  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant presents with malaise, headaches and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant presents with malaise, headaches and vomiting. She is admitted to the obstetrics ward after a routine blood pressure measurement was 190/95 mmHg. Examination reveals right upper quadrant abdominal pain and brisk tendon reflexes. The following blood tests are shown:

      Hb 85 g/l
      WBC 6 * 109/l
      Platelets 89 * 109/l
      Bilirubin 2.8 µmol/l
      ALP 215 u/l
      ALT 260 u/l
      γGT 72 u/l
      LDH 846 u/I

      A peripheral blood film is also taken which shows polychromasia and schistocytes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HELLP syndrome

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of HELLP syndrome, a severe form of pre-eclampsia, include haemolysis (H), elevated liver enzymes (EL), and low platelets (LP). A patient with this condition may experience malaise, nausea, vomiting, and headache, as well as hypertension with proteinuria and epigastric and/or upper abdominal pain. The patient in this case meets the requirements for a diagnosis of HELLP syndrome.

      Liver Complications During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, there are several liver complications that may arise. One of the most common is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which occurs in about 1% of pregnancies and is typically seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include intense itching, especially in the palms and soles, as well as elevated bilirubin levels. Treatment involves the use of ursodeoxycholic acid for relief and weekly liver function tests. Women with this condition are usually induced at 37 weeks to prevent stillbirth, although maternal morbidity is not typically increased.

      Another rare complication is acute fatty liver of pregnancy, which may occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. Severe cases may result in pre-eclampsia. ALT levels are typically elevated, and support care is the primary management until delivery can be performed once the patient is stabilized.

      Finally, conditions such as Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets, is a serious complication that can occur in the third trimester and requires immediate medical attention. Overall, it is important for pregnant women to be aware of these potential liver complications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 29 - A 27-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset, pleuritic chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset, pleuritic chest pain that worsens on inspiration. She also experiences shortness of breath. She has no significant medical history or family history. Upon examination, she appears dyspnoeic, and a positive D-dimer test leads to a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism, confirmed by a subsequent CT pulmonary angiogram. There is no clear cause for the embolism. As a result, she is started on anticoagulation therapy. How long should this treatment continue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 6 months

      Explanation:

      The typical duration of treatment for unprovoked pulmonary embolisms is 6 months, with first-line treatment now being direct oral anticoagulants. Patients are usually reviewed after 3 months, and if no cause was found, treatment is continued for a further 3 months. 3 months would be appropriate for provoked embolisms, but as there was no clear cause in this case, 6 months is more appropriate. 4 months is not a standard duration of treatment, and 12 months is not usual either, although the doctor may decide to extend treatment after review. In some cases, lifelong anticoagulation may be recommended if an underlying prothrombotic condition is found, but for this patient, 6 months is appropriate.

      Management of Pulmonary Embolism: NICE Guidelines

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious condition that requires prompt management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on the management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020, with some key changes. One of the significant changes is the recommendation to use direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as the first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including those with active cancer. Another change is the increasing use of outpatient treatment for low-risk PE patients, determined by a validated risk stratification tool.

      Anticoagulant therapy is the cornerstone of VTE management, and the guidelines recommend using apixaban or rivaroxaban as the first-line treatment following the diagnosis of a PE. If neither of these is suitable, LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban or LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA) can be used. For patients with active cancer, DOACs are now recommended instead of LMWH. The length of anticoagulation is determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked, with treatment typically stopped after 3-6 months for provoked VTE and continued for up to 6 months for unprovoked VTE.

      In cases of haemodynamic instability, thrombolysis is recommended as the first-line treatment for massive PE with circulatory failure. Patients who have repeat pulmonary embolisms, despite adequate anticoagulation, may be considered for inferior vena cava (IVC) filters. However, the evidence base for IVC filter use is weak.

      Overall, the updated NICE guidelines provide clear recommendations for the management of PE, including the use of DOACs as first-line treatment and outpatient management for low-risk patients. The guidelines also emphasize the importance of individualized treatment based on risk stratification and balancing the risks of VTE recurrence and bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
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  • Question 30 - A 30-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after being found collapsed on the streets. She appears confused, ataxic, and is slurring her speech. The patient is very emotional and does not respond to any questions. The initial assessment reveals tachycardia and hypertension. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score = 13 (E4V4M5). An ABCDE approach is taken to stabilize the patient, and an arterial blood gas (ABG) and blood test are carried out.

      The results of the blood test are as follows:
      - pH 7.28
      - pCO2 3.6 kPa
      - pO2 11.4 kPa
      - HCO3- 20 mmol/L
      - Na+ 132 mmol/L
      - K+ 4.1 mmol/L
      - Chloride 94 mmol/L
      - Glucose 4.1 mmol/L
      - Urea 7.7 mmol/L
      - Ethanol 20 mmol/L ( <17.4 mmol/L)
      - Serum osmolality 301 mOsm/kg (275-295 mOsm/kg)

      Note: The estimated serum osmolality can be calculated as 2 x (Na+ + K+) + urea + glucose + (ethanol/4). Normal osmolar gap = -3 to 10. Normal anion gap = 10-18 mmol/L (assuming K+ is used as part of the calculation).

      What is the most likely cause of this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ethylene glycol toxicity

      Explanation:

      A patient presenting with a metabolic acidosis, low pH, low bicarbonate, and partial respiratory compensation should have their anion gap calculated to determine the cause. In this case, the anion gap is raised, indicating a possible toxic alcohol ingestion. The serum osmolality should also be measured, and the expected serum osmolarity calculated. If the difference between the two is high, it indicates an abnormal, unmeasured solute, known as the osmolar gap. In this case, the osmolar gap is raised, further supporting the diagnosis of ethylene glycol poisoning. Other potential causes, such as methanol, renal failure, diabetic ketoacidosis, and lactic acidosis, can be ruled out based on the patient’s presentation and laboratory results. It is important to note that ethanol ingestion may be present in cases of ethylene glycol poisoning, but it alone would not explain the symptoms. Ethylene glycol is commonly found in antifreeze and can be used as a method of attempted suicide.

      Understanding Ethylene Glycol Toxicity and Its Management

      Ethylene glycol is a type of alcohol commonly used as a coolant or antifreeze. Its toxicity is characterized by three stages of symptoms. The first stage is similar to alcohol intoxication, with confusion, slurred speech, and dizziness. The second stage involves metabolic acidosis with high anion gap and high osmolar gap, as well as tachycardia and hypertension. The third stage is acute kidney injury.

      In the past, ethanol was the primary treatment for ethylene glycol toxicity. It works by competing with ethylene glycol for the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase, which limits the formation of toxic metabolites responsible for the haemodynamic and metabolic features of poisoning. However, in recent times, fomepizole, an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, has become the first-line treatment preference over ethanol. Haemodialysis also has a role in refractory cases.

      Overall, understanding the stages of ethylene glycol toxicity and the changing management options is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide effective treatment and prevent further harm to patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Surgery (0/2) 0%
Obstetrics (0/1) 0%
Genetics (0/1) 0%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
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