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Question 1
Incorrect
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A patient in their 70s is anaesthetised for an exploratory laparotomy. They were found to have perforated from a septic appendix. This has resulted in part of their bowel being removed and a stoma formation. The patient has been on the table for two and a half hours. Their core temperature at the end of the operation is 35.1 °C.
Which mechanism accounts for most heat lost?Your Answer: Respiration
Correct Answer: Radiation
Explanation:Understanding Heat Loss During Surgery: The Role of Radiation, Convection, Conduction, Evaporation, and Respiration
During surgery, the body can lose heat through various mechanisms. Radiation, which accounts for 40% of heat loss, depends on factors such as body temperature and the environment. To combat this, patients are covered with warming methods like the Bair Hugger™. Convection, or air movement, contributes to 30% of heat loss, while conduction (5%) occurs through contact with the operating table and surrounding air. Evaporation (15%) is higher if the abdomen is open, and humidity is kept at 50% in the theatre to reduce it. Finally, respiration accounts for 10% of heat loss. Understanding these mechanisms can help healthcare professionals better manage patient temperature during surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthetics & ITU
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Question 2
Incorrect
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How should neuropathic pain be managed?
Your Answer: The analgesic response to amitriptyline occurs after three to four weeks
Correct Answer: Anticonvulsants are prescribed in similar doses to the treatment of epilepsy
Explanation:Neuropathic Pain and Treatment Options
Neuropathic pain is a chronic condition that affects neuronal membrane excitability and often results in allodynia, hyperalgesia, and hyperpathia. Unlike nociceptive pain, neuropathic pain is less responsive to opioids and can be more difficult to treat. To manage this type of pain, coanalgesics such as antidepressants, anticonvulsants, and antiarrhythmics are commonly prescribed. Anticonvulsants are typically administered at similar doses and schedules as in the treatment of epilepsy. The analgesic response to mexiletine can be predicted by evaluating the improvement in pain after an intravenous lidocaine infusion. Amitriptyline, on the other hand, has a faster analgesic response than its antidepressant effect, with pain relief occurring within a week of treatment. Overall, managing neuropathic pain requires a multifaceted approach that may involve a combination of medications and other therapies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthetics & ITU
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Question 3
Correct
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A 32-year-old cyclist, who was in a car accident, needs to have a central venous line (CVL) inserted. Which of the following statements is the most precise?
Your Answer: CVL placement is required for the administration of adrenaline infusion
Explanation:Central Venous Lines: Placement, Uses, and Complications
Central venous lines (CVLs) are commonly used in medical settings for various purposes, including the administration of inotropes such as adrenaline, parenteral nutrition, blood products, fluids, and measurement of central venous pressures. However, the use of CVLs is not without risks and complications, which include local site and systemic infection, arterial puncture, haematomas, catheter-related thrombosis, air embolus, dysrhythmias, atrial wall puncture, lost guidewire, anaphylaxis, and chylothorax.
When it comes to the placement of CVLs, the site of choice is the subclavian vein, although the complication risk is higher. Femoral lines are more susceptible to infection due to the flora within the groin area. Consideration of the age of all lines should be made on daily review within the Intensive Care Unit/High Dependency Unit environment, as routine replacement of a CVL every fortnight is uncommon.
Lastly, a check radiograph for placement is recommended on insertion of both subclavian and internal jugular lines to confirm correct placement within the superior vena cava and to exclude a procedural pneumothorax. However, this does not need to be repeated on removal, as there are no needles or incisions involved in the removal of the line.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthetics & ITU
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Question 4
Correct
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To visualize the vocal cords, where should the tip of a Macintosh laryngoscope be inserted?
Your Answer: Into the vallecula
Explanation:Macintosh Laryngoscope: A Tool for Visualizing the Vocal Cords
The Macintosh laryngoscope is a medical instrument designed to aid in the visualization of the vocal cords. Its curved blade is specifically shaped to fit into the oral and oropharyngeal cavity. To use it, the blade is inserted through the right side of the mouth and gradually advanced, pushing the tongue to the left and out of view. The blade has a small bulbous tip that is intended to sit in the vallecula, a small depression between the base of the tongue and the epiglottis.
By lifting the laryngoscope up and forwards, the larynx is elevated, allowing for a clear view of the vocal cords. This tool is commonly used in medical settings, such as during intubation procedures or when examining the airway. Its design allows for a safe and effective way to visualize the vocal cords, aiding in the diagnosis and treatment of various medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthetics & ITU
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You are requested to attend to a 65-year-old male patient who has just returned from surgery in the high dependency unit. He underwent a left hemicolectomy to remove colon cancer. Your task is to prescribe the appropriate intravenous fluids for him.
What is the most effective way to determine the infusion rate for the fluids?Your Answer: Measure a single central venous pressure (CVP) from his central line
Correct Answer: Measure his urine output and adjust accordingly
Explanation:Importance of Adequate Hydration in Monitoring Organ Perfusion
Hourly urine output is a reliable indicator of organ perfusion, which is directly linked to hydration levels. However, if there is a urological obstruction, this measure may not be accurate. While a trend in central venous pressure (CVP) can be helpful, a single reading is not a reliable indicator of hydration status. Late signs of hypovolemia include dry mucous membranes and hypotension. Therefore, it is crucial to maintain adequate hydration levels to ensure proper organ perfusion and prevent hypovolemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthetics & ITU
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Question 6
Correct
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What is the correct information about Entonox?
Your Answer: Is an effective short term analgesic
Explanation:Entonox: A Mixture of Nitrous Oxide and Oxygen
Entonox is a gas mixture of 50% nitrous oxide and 50% oxygen that is stored in cylinders. The cylinders have a French blue body with blue and white quarters at the top. It is important to note that if the gas mixture cools below its pseudocritical temperature of −6°C, the nitrous oxide and oxygen may separate out through a process called lamination. This can result in a potentially dangerous and hypoxic gas being administered.
Despite being a flammable mixture, Entonox is not considered explosive. It is effective in providing short-term analgesia and is safe for both infants and mothers. The onset of action occurs approximately 30 seconds after inhalation, and the duration of action after analgesia is approximately one minute.
It is important to distinguish nitrous oxide (N2O) from nitric oxide (NO) as they are not the same. Overall, Entonox is a useful gas mixture for providing short-term pain relief, but it must be stored and administered properly to avoid any potential risks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthetics & ITU
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Question 7
Correct
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What is the commonly used curved-blade laryngoscope in adult practice?
Your Answer: Macintosh
Explanation:Types of Laryngoscopes
Laryngoscopes are medical instruments used to visualize the larynx and facilitate intubation. There are several types of laryngoscopes, each with its own unique features. The Miller, Oxford, and Wisconsin laryngoscopes have straight blades, while the Macintosh and McCoy laryngoscopes have curved blades. The McCoy laryngoscope is typically used for difficult intubations, as its blade tip is hinged and can be operated by a lever mechanism on the handle. Overall, the choice of laryngoscope depends on the individual patient and the specific needs of the intubation procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthetics & ITU
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Question 8
Correct
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A 60kg woman with a functional residual capacity (FRC) of 2.5 l is pre-oxygenated adequately for 3 minutes. Oxygen extraction per minute is 250 ml.
How long will the patient have in theory before they begin to desaturate?Your Answer: 10 minutes
Explanation:Understanding Pre-Oxygenation and Desaturation Time
Pre-oxygenation is a crucial step in ensuring adequate oxygenation during medical procedures. In a 70-kg man, the functional residual capacity (FRC) is approximately 2.5 liters. If pre-oxygenated adequately, all of the FRC will be 100% oxygen, and oxygen extraction per minute is 250 ml. This means that the patient will have 10 minutes of adequate oxygenation in the absence of ventilation before desaturation occurs.
However, if only 21% (room air) was in the FRC, the patient would only have 2 minutes before they started to desaturate. It is important to note that the oxygen extraction rate is 250 ml per minute in a 70-kg male. A person who has been adequately preoxygenated will not start to desaturate until double this time period, which is 10 minutes.
Therefore, if the patient is oxygenated on room air only, the correct answer for desaturation time would be 2.5 minutes. However, if the patient has been adequately preoxygenated, they will desaturate well before 25 minutes is reached. Understanding pre-oxygenation and desaturation time is crucial in ensuring patient safety during medical procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthetics & ITU
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 98-year-old gentleman is admitted for an incarcerated hernia. He has a past medical history of chronic kidney disease stage 3, secondary to hypertension, and a background of transient ischaemic attacks (TIAs) and osteoarthritis of both knees.
He has four good twitches on train of four testing (normal response), following which reversal of his muscle relaxant was given. Intraoperatively, he received a total of 100 micrograms of fentanyl, 20 mg of morphine and 1 g of paracetamol for pain. He has an arterial line in situ. Blood gas prior to finishing the procedure showed a pH of 7.35, PaCO2 of 5.4 kPa, HCO3− of 21 mmol/l, with a blood sugar of 7.2.
You attempt to wean him off ventilation, but 20 minutes later he still does not want to breathe unsupported or wake up.
What should your next course of action be?Your Answer: Wait a little longer, he is old
Correct Answer: Give naloxone 100 micrograms iv
Explanation:Medical Interventions for a Post-Operative Patient with Reduced Consciousness
When dealing with a post-operative patient with reduced consciousness, it is important to rule out any reversible causes before administering any medical interventions. In the case of opiate toxicity, administering naloxone, an opiate antidote, can reverse the effects of the opiates. However, if the patient’s reduced Glasgow Coma Scale score and lack of respiratory effort are not caused by hypoglycemia, giving intravenous glucose is not necessary. It is also important to consider the patient’s age and wait a little longer to rule out any reversible causes. Administering a second dose of muscle relaxant reversal is unlikely to help if the patient has adequate contraction on train of four testing. Lastly, before re-sedating the patient for a CT head, it is necessary to rule out any reversible causes such as opiate toxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthetics & ITU
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Question 10
Correct
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You are requested to evaluate a 50-year-old individual who underwent a left total knee replacement two days ago. The patient reports experiencing weakness in the movement of their right foot since the surgery. They are curious if the spinal anesthesia administered during the procedure could be the cause, despite no complications being reported at the time. Apart from this issue, the patient is in good health. Upon clinical examination, you observe a suspected foot drop as there is a weakened dorsiflexion of the right foot. What is the probable reason for this?
Your Answer: Poor intra-operative positioning and padding
Explanation:Post-Operative Foot Drop Caused by Prolonged Pressure on Common Peroneal Nerve
Prolonged pressure on the common peroneal nerve during anaesthesia is a well-known cause of post-operative foot drop. It is important to ensure that patients are adequately padded on the fibula head when positioning them under general or regional anaesthesia for extended periods of time. While a central neurological cause is unlikely to cause such well-defined peripheral nerve lesions, it is essential to take precautions to prevent nerve damage during surgery.
Treatment for post-operative foot drop is typically conservative, and the transient neuropraxia can often pass. However, in some cases, this may result in permanent injury. It is crucial to monitor patients closely after surgery and provide appropriate care to prevent further complications. By taking preventative measures and providing proper post-operative care, healthcare professionals can help reduce the risk of post-operative foot drop and other nerve injuries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthetics & ITU
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