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  • Question 1 - Isabella is an 82-year-old female who visits the cardiology clinic for a check-up....

    Correct

    • Isabella is an 82-year-old female who visits the cardiology clinic for a check-up. She experienced a heart attack half a year ago and has been experiencing swollen ankles and difficulty breathing when lying down. You suspect heart failure and arrange for an echocardiogram, prescribe diuretic medications, and conduct a blood test. What blood marker can indicate excessive stretching of the heart muscle?

      Your Answer: Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)

      Explanation:

      BNP is produced by the ventricles of the heart when the cardiomyocytes are excessively stretched. Its overall effect is to reduce blood pressure by decreasing systemic vascular resistance and increasing natriuresis.

      Troponin is a protein that plays a role in cardiac muscle contraction and is a specific and sensitive marker for myocardial damage in cases of myocardial infarction.

      Creatine kinase and LDH can be used as acute markers for myocardial infarction.

      Myoglobin is released after muscle damage, but it is not specific to acute myocardial infarction and is typically measured in cases of rhabdomyolysis.

      B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a hormone that is primarily produced by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Although heart failure is the most common cause of elevated BNP levels, any condition that causes left ventricular dysfunction, such as myocardial ischemia or valvular disease, may also raise levels. In patients with chronic kidney disease, reduced excretion may also lead to elevated BNP levels. Conversely, treatment with ACE inhibitors, angiotensin-2 receptor blockers, and diuretics can lower BNP levels.

      BNP has several effects, including vasodilation, diuresis, natriuresis, and suppression of both sympathetic tone and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Clinically, BNP is useful in diagnosing patients with acute dyspnea. A low concentration of BNP (<100 pg/mL) makes a diagnosis of heart failure unlikely, but elevated levels should prompt further investigation to confirm the diagnosis. Currently, NICE recommends BNP as a helpful test to rule out a diagnosis of heart failure. In patients with chronic heart failure, initial evidence suggests that BNP is an extremely useful marker of prognosis and can guide treatment. However, BNP is not currently recommended for population screening for cardiac dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 64-year-old woman is being monitored in the nurse-led heart failure clinic. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old woman is being monitored in the nurse-led heart failure clinic. She has left-sided heart failure and her recent echo revealed a reduced ejection fraction. She complains of nocturnal breathlessness and needing multiple pillows to sleep.

      She is prescribed bisoprolol and another medication with the explanation that it will help decrease mortality.

      What is the probable medication she has been prescribed?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      In the treatment of heart failure, medications are used to improve the heart’s ability to pump blood effectively. Beta blockers, such as bisoprolol, are commonly prescribed to slow the heart rate and improve filling. The first-line drugs for heart failure are beta blockers and ACE inhibitors. Therefore, the patient in question will be prescribed an ACE inhibitor, such as ramipril, as the second drug. Ramipril works by reducing venous resistance, making it easier for the heart to pump blood out, and lowering arterial pressures, which increases the heart’s pre-load.

      Carvedilol is not the correct choice for this patient. Although it can be used in heart failure, the patient is already taking a beta blocker, and adding another drug from the same class could cause symptomatic bradycardia or hypotension.

      Digoxin is not the appropriate choice either. While it can be used in heart failure, it should only be initiated by a specialist.

      Sacubitril-valsartan is also not the right choice for this patient. Although it is becoming more commonly used in heart failure patients, it should only be prescribed by a specialist after first and second-line treatment options have been exhausted.

      Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug treatment, according to updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is a combination of an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are recommended as second-line treatment, but potassium levels should be monitored as both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia. Third-line treatment should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenzae and one-off pneumococcal vaccines. Those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or chronic kidney disease may require a booster every 5 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 67-year old man with a history of cardiovascular disease and COPD visits...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year old man with a history of cardiovascular disease and COPD visits his GP. During a routine blood test, the GP observes that the patient has mild hyponatraemia. Which medication could have played a role in causing his hyponatraemia?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Thiazide diuretics have been linked to the adverse effect of hyponatremia, while caution is advised when using β2-agonists like salbutamol in patients with hypokalemia due to their potential to decrease serum potassium. In cases of hyperkalemia, β2-agonists may be used as a temporary treatment option. Bendroflumethiazide, a thiazide diuretic, can cause electrolyte imbalances such as hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, and hypochloremic alkalosis. On the other hand, ACE inhibitors like ramipril may lead to hyperkalemia, especially in patients with renal impairment, diabetes mellitus, or those taking potassium-sparing diuretics, potassium supplements, or potassium-containing salts. Atenolol, however, is not directly associated with electrolyte disturbances.

      Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlorthalidone.

      Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.

      It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A newborn with Down's syndrome presents with a murmur at birth. Upon performing...

    Incorrect

    • A newborn with Down's syndrome presents with a murmur at birth. Upon performing an echocardiogram, what is the most probable congenital cardiac abnormality that will be detected?

      Your Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Correct Answer: Atrio-ventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      Congenital Cardiac Anomalies in Down Syndrome

      Down syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by a range of congenital abnormalities. One of the most common abnormalities associated with Down syndrome is duodenal atresia. However, Down syndrome is also frequently associated with congenital cardiac anomalies. The most common cardiac anomaly in Down syndrome is an atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD), followed by ventricular septal defect (VSD), patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), tetralogy of Fallot, and atrial septal defect (ASD). These anomalies can cause a range of symptoms and complications, including heart failure, pulmonary hypertension, and developmental delays. It is important for individuals with Down syndrome to receive regular cardiac evaluations and appropriate medical care to manage these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 67-year-old man is scheduled for surgery to treat transitional cell carcinoma of...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man is scheduled for surgery to treat transitional cell carcinoma of the left kidney. During the procedure, the surgeon needs to locate and dissect the left renal artery. Can you identify the vertebral level where the origin of this artery can be found?

      Your Answer: T12

      Correct Answer: L1

      Explanation:

      The L1 level is where the left renal artery is located.

      Located just below the superior mesenteric artery at L1, the left renal artery arises from the abdominal aorta. It is positioned slightly lower than the right renal artery.

      At the T10 vertebral level, the vagal trunk accompanies the oesophagus as it passes through the diaphragm.

      The T12 vertebral level marks the point where the aorta passes through the diaphragm, along with the thoracic duct and azygous veins. Additionally, this is where the coeliac trunk branches out.

      The aorta is a major blood vessel that carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body. At different levels along the aorta, there are branches that supply blood to specific organs and regions. These branches include the coeliac trunk at the level of T12, which supplies blood to the stomach, liver, and spleen. The left renal artery, at the level of L1, supplies blood to the left kidney. The testicular or ovarian arteries, at the level of L2, supply blood to the reproductive organs. The inferior mesenteric artery, at the level of L3, supplies blood to the lower part of the large intestine. Finally, at the level of L4, the abdominal aorta bifurcates, or splits into two branches, which supply blood to the legs and pelvis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old woman with confirmed heart failure visits her GP with swelling and...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman with confirmed heart failure visits her GP with swelling and discomfort in both legs. During the examination, the GP observes pitting edema and decides to prescribe a brief trial of a diuretic. Which diuretic targets the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle?

      Your Answer: Furosemide (loop diuretic)

      Explanation:

      Loop Diuretics: Mechanism of Action and Clinical Applications

      Loop diuretics, such as furosemide and bumetanide, are medications that inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. By doing so, they reduce the absorption of NaCl, resulting in increased urine output. Loop diuretics act on NKCC2, which is more prevalent in the kidneys. These medications work on the apical membrane and must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. Patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to ensure sufficient concentration in the tubules.

      Loop diuretics are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure, both acutely (usually intravenously) and chronically (usually orally). They are also indicated for resistant hypertension, particularly in patients with renal impairment. However, loop diuretics can cause adverse effects such as hypotension, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypochloremic alkalosis, ototoxicity, hypocalcemia, renal impairment, hyperglycemia (less common than with thiazides), and gout. Therefore, careful monitoring of electrolyte levels and renal function is necessary when using loop diuretics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of chest pain,...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of chest pain, dizziness, and palpitations. He has a medical history of mitral stenosis and denies any alcohol or smoking habits. Upon conducting an ECG, it is observed that lead I shows positively directed sawtooth deflections, while leads II, III, and aVF show negatively directed sawtooth deflections. What pathology does this finding suggest?

      Your Answer: Atrial flutter

      Explanation:

      Atrial flutter is identified by a sawtooth pattern on the ECG and is a type of supraventricular tachycardia. It occurs when electrical activity from the sinoatrial node reenters the atria instead of being conducted to the ventricles. Valvular heart disease is a risk factor, and atrial flutter is managed similarly to atrial fibrillation.

      Left bundle branch block causes a delayed contraction of the left ventricle and is identified by a W pattern in V1 and an M pattern in V6 on an ECG. It does not produce a sawtooth pattern on the ECG.

      Ventricular fibrillation is characterized by chaotic electrical conduction in the ventricles, resulting in a lack of normal ventricular contraction. It can cause cardiac arrest and requires advanced life support management.

      Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is caused by an accessory pathway between the atria and the ventricles and is identified by a slurred upstroke at the beginning of the QRS complex, known as a delta wave. It can present with symptoms such as palpitations, shortness of breath, and syncope.

      Atrial flutter is a type of supraventricular tachycardia that is characterized by a series of rapid atrial depolarization waves. This condition can be identified through ECG findings, which show a sawtooth appearance. The underlying atrial rate is typically around 300 beats per minute, which can affect the ventricular or heart rate depending on the degree of AV block. For instance, if there is a 2:1 block, the ventricular rate will be 150 beats per minute. Flutter waves may also be visible following carotid sinus massage or adenosine.

      Managing atrial flutter is similar to managing atrial fibrillation, although medication may be less effective. However, atrial flutter is more sensitive to cardioversion, so lower energy levels may be used. For most patients, radiofrequency ablation of the tricuspid valve isthmus is curative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old man with a history of rate-controlled atrial fibrillation (AF) presents with...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of rate-controlled atrial fibrillation (AF) presents with chest pain, palpitations, and dizziness. The patient has a past medical history of a transient ischemic episode and is taking warfarin to prevent further ischemic episodes. He also has a history of gout, low back pain, depression, and polymyalgia rheumatica.

      Upon immediate ECG, the patient is found to have an irregularly irregular rhythm consistent with fast AF. You decide to perform electrical cardioversion and prescribe a course of amiodarone to prevent recurrence.

      What drug interaction should you be cautious of in this patient?

      Your Answer: Warfarin and amiodarone

      Explanation:

      The metabolism of warfarin is reduced by amiodarone, which can increase the risk of bleeding. However, there are no known interactions between amiodarone and naproxen, paracetamol, codeine, or allopurinol. It should be noted that the patient in question is not diabetic and therefore should not be taking metformin.

      Amiodarone is a medication used to treat various types of abnormal heart rhythms. It works by blocking potassium channels, which prolongs the action potential and helps to regulate the heartbeat. However, it also has other effects, such as blocking sodium channels. Amiodarone has a very long half-life, which means that loading doses are often necessary. It should ideally be given into central veins to avoid thrombophlebitis. Amiodarone can cause proarrhythmic effects due to lengthening of the QT interval and can interact with other drugs commonly used at the same time. Long-term use of amiodarone can lead to various adverse effects, including thyroid dysfunction, corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis/pneumonitis, liver fibrosis/hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a ‘slate-grey’ appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, and bradycardia. Patients taking amiodarone should be monitored regularly with tests such as TFT, LFT, U&E, and CXR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which one of the following is not considered a major branch of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not considered a major branch of the ascending thoracic aorta?

      Your Answer: Posterior intercostal artery

      Correct Answer: Inferior thyroid artery

      Explanation:

      The thyrocervical trunk, which is a branch of the subclavian artery, is typically the source of the inferior thyroid artery.

      Anatomy of the Thoracic Aorta

      The thoracic aorta is a major blood vessel that originates from the fourth thoracic vertebrae and terminates at the twelfth thoracic vertebrae. It is located in the chest cavity and has several important relations with surrounding structures. Anteriorly, it is related to the root of the left lung, the pericardium, the oesophagus, and the diaphragm. Posteriorly, it is related to the vertebral column and the azygos vein. On the right side, it is related to the hemiazygos veins and the thoracic duct, while on the left side, it is related to the left pleura and lung.

      The thoracic aorta has several branches that supply blood to different parts of the body. The lateral segmental branches are the posterior intercostal arteries, which supply blood to the muscles and skin of the back. The lateral visceral branches are the bronchial arteries, which supply blood to the bronchial walls and lung, excluding the alveoli. The midline branches are the oesophageal arteries, which supply blood to the oesophagus.

      In summary, the thoracic aorta is an important blood vessel that supplies blood to various structures in the chest cavity. Its anatomy and relations with surrounding structures are crucial for understanding its function and potential clinical implications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The T wave in a typical electrocardiogram is mainly generated by what mechanisms?...

    Incorrect

    • The T wave in a typical electrocardiogram is mainly generated by what mechanisms?

      Your Answer: Ventricular depolarization

      Correct Answer: Ventricular repolarization

      Explanation:

      The Glasgow coma scale is a widely used tool to assess the severity of brain injuries. It is scored between 3 and 15, with 3 being the worst and 15 the best. The scale comprises three parameters: best eye response, best verbal response, and best motor response. The verbal response is scored from 1 to 5, with 1 indicating no response and 5 indicating orientation.

      A score of 13 or higher on the Glasgow coma scale indicates a mild brain injury, while a score of 9 to 12 indicates a moderate injury. A score of 8 or less indicates a severe brain injury. Healthcare professionals rely on the Glasgow coma scale to assess the severity of brain injuries and determine appropriate treatment. The score is the sum of the scores as well as the individual elements. For example, a score of 10 might be expressed as GCS10 = E3V4M3.

      Best eye response:
      1- No eye opening
      2- Eye opening to pain
      3- Eye opening to sound
      4- Eyes open spontaneously

      Best verbal response:
      1- No verbal response
      2- Incomprehensible sounds
      3- Inappropriate words
      4- Confused
      5- Orientated

      Best motor response:
      1- No motor response.
      2- Abnormal extension to pain
      3- Abnormal flexion to pain
      4- Withdrawal from pain
      5- Localizing pain
      6- Obeys commands

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old man presents to the vascular clinic with bilateral buttock claudication that...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the vascular clinic with bilateral buttock claudication that spreads down the thigh and erectile dysfunction. The vascular surgeon is unable to palpate his left femoral pulse and the right is weakly palpable. The patient is diagnosed with Leriche syndrome, which is caused by atherosclerotic occlusion of blood flow at the abdominal aortic bifurcation. He has been consented for aorto-iliac bypass surgery and is currently awaiting the procedure.

      What is the vertebral level of the affected artery that requires bypassing?

      Your Answer: L4

      Explanation:

      The aorta is a major blood vessel that carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body. At different levels along the aorta, there are branches that supply blood to specific organs and regions. These branches include the coeliac trunk at the level of T12, which supplies blood to the stomach, liver, and spleen. The left renal artery, at the level of L1, supplies blood to the left kidney. The testicular or ovarian arteries, at the level of L2, supply blood to the reproductive organs. The inferior mesenteric artery, at the level of L3, supplies blood to the lower part of the large intestine. Finally, at the level of L4, the abdominal aorta bifurcates, or splits into two branches, which supply blood to the legs and pelvis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A mother brings her 8-year-old son to the GP with a history of...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 8-year-old son to the GP with a history of intermittent fevers, severe joint pain and feeling fatigued. Other than a recent absence from school for a sore throat, he has been well with no other past medical history of note.

      On examination, there is a pansystolic murmur heard over the left 5th intercostal space.

      Which organism is the most probable cause for the aforementioned symptoms?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes

      Explanation:

      An immunological reaction is responsible for the development of rheumatic fever.

      Rheumatic fever is a condition that occurs as a result of an immune response to a recent Streptococcus pyogenes infection, typically occurring 2-4 weeks after the initial infection. The pathogenesis of rheumatic fever involves the activation of the innate immune system, leading to antigen presentation to T cells. B and T cells then produce IgG and IgM antibodies, and CD4+ T cells are activated. This immune response is thought to be cross-reactive, mediated by molecular mimicry, where antibodies against M protein cross-react with myosin and the smooth muscle of arteries. This response leads to the clinical features of rheumatic fever, including Aschoff bodies, which are granulomatous nodules found in rheumatic heart fever.

      To diagnose rheumatic fever, evidence of recent streptococcal infection must be present, along with 2 major criteria or 1 major criterion and 2 minor criteria. Major criteria include erythema marginatum, Sydenham’s chorea, polyarthritis, carditis and valvulitis, and subcutaneous nodules. Minor criteria include raised ESR or CRP, pyrexia, arthralgia, and prolonged PR interval.

      Management of rheumatic fever involves antibiotics, typically oral penicillin V, as well as anti-inflammatories such as NSAIDs as first-line treatment. Any complications that develop, such as heart failure, should also be treated. It is important to diagnose and treat rheumatic fever promptly to prevent long-term complications such as rheumatic heart disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe chest pain that spreads to his left arm. He also experiences nausea and excessive sweating. After conducting an ECG, you observe ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF, leading to a diagnosis of an inferior ST-elevation MI. Can you identify the primary coronary vessel that supplies blood to the base of the heart?

      Your Answer: Left anterior descending

      Correct Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The heart has several arteries that supply blood to different areas. The right coronary artery supplies the right side of the heart and can cause a heart attack in the lower part of the heart, which can lead to abnormal heart rhythms. The left anterior descending artery and left circumflex artery supply the left side of the heart and can cause heart attacks in different areas, which can be detected by changes in specific leads on an ECG. The left marginal artery branches off the left circumflex artery and supplies blood to the outer edge of the heart.

      The following table displays the relationship between ECG changes and the affected coronary artery territories. Anteroseptal changes in V1-V4 indicate involvement of the left anterior descending artery, while inferior changes in II, III, and aVF suggest the right coronary artery is affected. Anterolateral changes in V4-6, I, and aVL may indicate involvement of either the left anterior descending or left circumflex artery, while lateral changes in I, aVL, and possibly V5-6 suggest the left circumflex artery is affected. Posterior changes in V1-3 may indicate a posterior infarction, which is typically caused by the left circumflex artery but can also be caused by the right coronary artery. Reciprocal changes of STEMI are often seen as horizontal ST depression, tall R waves, upright T waves, and a dominant R wave in V2. Posterior infarction is confirmed by ST elevation and Q waves in posterior leads (V7-9), usually caused by the left circumflex artery but also possibly the right coronary artery. It is important to note that a new LBBB may indicate acute coronary syndrome.

      Diagram showing the correlation between ECG changes and coronary territories in acute coronary syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which one of the following is typically not provided by the right coronary...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is typically not provided by the right coronary artery?

      Your Answer: The circumflex artery

      Explanation:

      The left coronary artery typically gives rise to the circumflex artery.

      The walls of each cardiac chamber are made up of the epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium. The heart and roots of the great vessels are related anteriorly to the sternum and the left ribs. The coronary sinus receives blood from the cardiac veins, and the aortic sinus gives rise to the right and left coronary arteries. The left ventricle has a thicker wall and more numerous trabeculae carnae than the right ventricle. The heart is innervated by autonomic nerve fibers from the cardiac plexus, and the parasympathetic supply comes from the vagus nerves. The heart has four valves: the mitral, aortic, pulmonary, and tricuspid valves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is the most suitable pathological explanation for the initial processes that occur...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most suitable pathological explanation for the initial processes that occur in an abdominal aortic aneurysm in a 67-year-old male with hypertension who is otherwise healthy?

      Your Answer: Loss of collagen from the adventitia

      Correct Answer: Loss of elastic fibres from the media

      Explanation:

      Aneurysmal disease is characterized by the expansion of all layers of the arterial wall and the depletion of both elastin and collagen. The initial occurrence involves the breakdown of elastic fibers, which leads to the deterioration of collagen fibers.

      Understanding the Pathology of Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm

      Abdominal aortic aneurysms occur when the elastic proteins within the extracellular matrix fail, resulting in the dilation of all layers of the arterial wall. This degenerative disease is primarily caused by the loss of the intima and elastic fibers from the media, which is associated with increased proteolytic activity and lymphocytic infiltration. Aneurysms are typically considered aneurysmal when the diameter of the infrarenal aorta is 3 cm or greater, which is significantly larger than the normal diameter of 1.5cm in females and 1.7cm in males after the age of 50 years.

      Smoking and hypertension are major risk factors for the development of aneurysms, while rare but important causes include syphilis and connective tissue diseases such as Ehlers Danlos type 1 and Marfan’s syndrome. Understanding the pathology of abdominal aortic aneurysm is crucial in identifying and managing the risk factors associated with this condition. By addressing these risk factors, individuals can reduce their likelihood of developing an aneurysm and improve their overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 49-year-old man named Mr. Johnson visits his GP surgery to review his...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old man named Mr. Johnson visits his GP surgery to review his blood pressure as he has been diagnosed with type II diabetes mellitus. His blood pressure is 150/112 mmHg and his heart rate is 82 bpm. Mr. Johnson smokes 20 cigarettes a day, drinks three pints of beer most nights, and has a diet high in saturated fat. He drives to work, even though his office is only one mile away from his house. He appears anxious and worried about having a heart attack soon. What would be your first step in treating his hypertension?

      Your Answer: Lifestyle advice and review

      Explanation:

      Importance of Confirming Persistent High Blood Pressure

      While reducing high blood pressure is crucial, it is important to confirm that it is persistent and not just a one-time occurrence. Anxiety or other factors could artificially elevate blood pressure readings. Therefore, it is necessary to conduct multiple tests to confirm the diagnosis. Additionally, lifestyle changes such as exercise, healthy eating, and stress reduction can help lower blood pressure and improve overall health. Prescribing medication should only be done when necessary, as it can lead to side effects, drug interactions, and poor adherence. It is important to consider the risks and benefits before prescribing medication and to prioritize non-pharmacological interventions whenever possible. For more information, refer to the NICE guidelines on hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - An 80-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department reporting painless loss of vision...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department reporting painless loss of vision on the right side that started 30 minutes ago. Based on the history and examination, it is probable that she has experienced an ophthalmic artery stroke. Which branch of the Circle of Willis is likely affected?

      Your Answer: Internal carotid artery

      Explanation:

      The ophthalmic artery originates from the internal carotid artery, which is part of the Circle of Willis, a circular network of arteries that supply the brain. The anterior cerebral arteries, which supply the frontal and parietal lobes, as well as the corpus callosum and cingulate cortex of the brain, also arise from the internal carotid artery. A stroke of the ophthalmic artery or its branch, the central retinal artery, can cause painless loss of vision. The basilar artery, which forms part of the posterior cerebral circulation, is formed from the convergence of the two vertebral arteries and gives rise to many arteries, but not the ophthalmic artery. The posterior cerebral artery, which supplies the occipital lobe, arises from the basilar artery.

      The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.

      The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.

      The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 60-year-old woman complains of persistent diarrhoea, wheezing, and flushing. During the physical...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman complains of persistent diarrhoea, wheezing, and flushing. During the physical examination, an irregular pulsatile hepatomegaly and a pansystolic murmur that is most pronounced during inspiration are detected. What diagnostic test could provide insight into the probable underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Echocardiogram

      Correct Answer: Urinary 5-HIAA (5-hydroxyindole acetic acid)

      Explanation:

      Carcinoid Syndrome and its Diagnosis

      Carcinoid syndrome is characterized by the presence of vasoactive amines such as serotonin in the bloodstream, leading to various clinical features. The primary carcinoid tumor is usually found in the small intestine or appendix, but it may not cause significant symptoms as the liver detoxifies the blood of these amines. However, systemic effects occur when malignant cells spread to other organs, such as the lungs, which are not part of the portal circulation. One of the complications of carcinoid syndrome is damage to the right heart valves, which can cause tricuspid regurgitation, as evidenced by a pulsatile liver and pansystolic murmur.

      To diagnose carcinoid syndrome, the 5-HIAA test is usually performed, which measures the breakdown product of serotonin in a 24-hour urine collection. If the test is positive, imaging and histology are necessary to confirm malignancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old man has a cannula inserted into his cephalic vein. What is...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man has a cannula inserted into his cephalic vein. What is the structure through which the cephalic vein passes?

      Your Answer: Clavipectoral fascia

      Explanation:

      Preserving the cephalic vein is important for creating an arteriovenous fistula in patients with end stage renal failure, as it is a preferred vessel for this purpose. The vein travels through the calvipectoral fascia, but does not pass through the pectoralis major muscle, before ending in the axillary vein.

      The Cephalic Vein: Path and Connections

      The cephalic vein is a major blood vessel that runs along the lateral side of the arm. It begins at the dorsal venous arch, which drains blood from the hand and wrist, and travels up the arm, crossing the anatomical snuffbox. At the antecubital fossa, the cephalic vein is connected to the basilic vein by the median cubital vein. This connection is commonly used for blood draws and IV insertions.

      After passing through the antecubital fossa, the cephalic vein continues up the arm and pierces the deep fascia of the deltopectoral groove to join the axillary vein. This junction is located near the shoulder and marks the end of the cephalic vein’s path.

      Overall, the cephalic vein plays an important role in the circulation of blood in the upper limb. Its connections to other major veins in the arm make it a valuable site for medical procedures, while its path through the deltopectoral groove allows it to contribute to the larger network of veins that drain blood from the upper body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Each of the following increases the production of endothelin, except for which one?...

    Incorrect

    • Each of the following increases the production of endothelin, except for which one?

      Your Answer: ADH

      Correct Answer: Prostacyclin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Endothelin and Its Role in Various Diseases

      Endothelin is a potent vasoconstrictor and bronchoconstrictor that is secreted by the vascular endothelium. Initially, it is produced as a prohormone and later converted to ET-1 by the action of endothelin converting enzyme. Endothelin interacts with a G-protein linked to phospholipase C, leading to calcium release. This interaction is thought to be important in the pathogenesis of many diseases, including primary pulmonary hypertension, cardiac failure, hepatorenal syndrome, and Raynaud’s.

      Endothelin is known to promote the release of angiotensin II, ADH, hypoxia, and mechanical shearing forces. On the other hand, it inhibits the release of nitric oxide and prostacyclin. Raised levels of endothelin are observed in primary pulmonary hypertension, myocardial infarction, heart failure, acute kidney injury, and asthma.

      In recent years, endothelin antagonists have been used to treat primary pulmonary hypertension. Understanding the role of endothelin in various diseases can help in the development of new treatments and therapies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 70-year-old male inpatient, three days post myocardial infarction, has a sudden onset...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old male inpatient, three days post myocardial infarction, has a sudden onset of intense crushing chest pain.
      What is the most effective cardiac enzyme to determine if this patient has experienced a recurrent heart attack?

      Your Answer: Creatine kinase

      Explanation:

      The Most Useful Enzyme to Measure in Diagnosing Early Re-infarction

      In diagnosing early re-infarction, measuring the levels of creatine kinase is the most useful enzyme to use. This is because the levels of creatine kinase return to normal relatively quickly, unlike the levels of troponins which remain elevated at this stage post MI and are therefore not useful in diagnosing early re-infarction.

      The table above shows the rise, peak, and fall of various enzymes in the body after a myocardial infarction. As seen in the table, the levels of creatine kinase rise within 4-6 hours, peak at 24 hours, and fall within 3-4 days. On the other hand, troponin levels rise within 4-6 hours, peak at 12-16 hours, and fall within 5-14 days. This indicates that measuring creatine kinase levels is more useful in diagnosing early re-infarction as it returns to normal levels faster than troponins.

      In conclusion, measuring the levels of creatine kinase is the most useful enzyme to use in diagnosing early re-infarction. Its levels return to normal relatively quickly, making it a more reliable indicator of re-infarction compared to troponins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - As a medical student in a cardiology clinic, you encounter a 54-year-old woman...

    Correct

    • As a medical student in a cardiology clinic, you encounter a 54-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation by her GP after experiencing chest pain for 12 hours. She informs you that she had a blood clot in her early 30s following lower limb surgery and was previously treated with warfarin. Her CHA2DS2‑VASc score is 3. What is the first-line anticoagulant recommended to prevent future stroke in this patient?

      Your Answer: Edoxaban

      Explanation:

      According to the 2021 NICE guidelines on preventing stroke in individuals with atrial fibrillation, DOACs should be the first-line anticoagulant therapy offered. The correct answer is ‘edoxaban’. ‘Aspirin’ is not appropriate for managing atrial fibrillation as it is an antiplatelet agent. ‘Low molecular weight heparin’ and ‘unfractionated heparin’ are not recommended for long-term anticoagulation in this case as they require subcutaneous injections.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      51.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 36-year-old woman is scheduled for a parathyroidectomy to treat her hyperparathyroidism. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman is scheduled for a parathyroidectomy to treat her hyperparathyroidism. During the surgery, an enlarged inferior parathyroid gland is identified with a vessel located adjacent to it laterally. Which vessel is most likely to be in this location?

      Your Answer: External jugular vein

      Correct Answer: Common carotid artery

      Explanation:

      The inferior parathyroid is located laterally to the common carotid artery.

      Anatomy and Development of the Parathyroid Glands

      The parathyroid glands are four small glands located posterior to the thyroid gland within the pretracheal fascia. They develop from the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches, with those derived from the fourth pouch located more superiorly and associated with the thyroid gland, while those from the third pouch lie more inferiorly and may become associated with the thymus.

      The blood supply to the parathyroid glands is derived from the inferior and superior thyroid arteries, with a rich anastomosis between the two vessels. Venous drainage is into the thyroid veins. The parathyroid glands are surrounded by various structures, with the common carotid laterally, the recurrent laryngeal nerve and trachea medially, and the thyroid anteriorly. Understanding the anatomy and development of the parathyroid glands is important for their proper identification and preservation during surgical procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 50-year-old man undergoes carotid endarterectomy surgery after experiencing a transient ischaemic attack....

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man undergoes carotid endarterectomy surgery after experiencing a transient ischaemic attack. The procedure is successful with no complications. However, the patient develops new hoarseness of voice and loss of effective cough mechanism post-surgery. There are no notable findings upon examination of the oral cavity.

      Which structure has been affected by the surgery?

      Your Answer: Cranial nerve X

      Explanation:

      Speech is innervated by the vagus (X) nerve, so any damage to this nerve can cause speech problems. Injuries to one side of the vagus nerve can result in hoarseness and vocal cord paralysis on the same side, while bilateral injuries can lead to aphonia and stridor. Other symptoms of vagal disease may include dysphagia, loss of cough reflex, gastroparesis, and cardiovascular effects. The facial nerve (VII) may also be affected during carotid surgery, causing muscle weakness in facial expression. However, the vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII) is not involved in speech and would not be damaged during carotid surgery. The accessory nerve (XI) does not innervate speech muscles and is rarely affected during carotid surgery, causing weakness in shoulder elevation instead. Hypoglossal (XII) palsy is a rare complication of carotid surgery that causes tongue deviation towards the side of the lesion, but not voice hoarseness.

      The vagus nerve is responsible for a variety of functions and supplies structures from the fourth and sixth pharyngeal arches, as well as the fore and midgut sections of the embryonic gut tube. It carries afferent fibers from areas such as the pharynx, larynx, esophagus, stomach, lungs, heart, and great vessels. The efferent fibers of the vagus are of two main types: preganglionic parasympathetic fibers distributed to the parasympathetic ganglia that innervate smooth muscle of the innervated organs, and efferent fibers with direct skeletal muscle innervation, largely to the muscles of the larynx and pharynx.

      The vagus nerve arises from the lateral surface of the medulla oblongata and exits through the jugular foramen, closely related to the glossopharyngeal nerve cranially and the accessory nerve caudally. It descends vertically in the carotid sheath in the neck, closely related to the internal and common carotid arteries. In the mediastinum, both nerves pass posteroinferiorly and reach the posterior surface of the corresponding lung root, branching into both lungs. At the inferior end of the mediastinum, these plexuses reunite to form the formal vagal trunks that pass through the esophageal hiatus and into the abdomen. The anterior and posterior vagal trunks are formal nerve fibers that splay out once again, sending fibers over the stomach and posteriorly to the coeliac plexus. Branches pass to the liver, spleen, and kidney.

      The vagus nerve has various branches in the neck, including superior and inferior cervical cardiac branches, and the right recurrent laryngeal nerve, which arises from the vagus anterior to the first part of the subclavian artery and hooks under it to insert into the larynx. In the thorax, the left recurrent laryngeal nerve arises from the vagus on the aortic arch and hooks around the inferior surface of the arch, passing upwards through the superior mediastinum and lower part of the neck. In the abdomen, the nerves branch extensively, passing to the coeliac axis and alongside the vessels to supply the spleen, liver, and kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      37.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 67-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with an abrupt onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with an abrupt onset of intense chest pain that he describes as tearing through his body. He is promptly diagnosed with a Stanford Type A aortic dissection and immediately undergoes surgical repair. What embryonic structure is responsible for the region where the dissection occurred?

      Your Answer: Bulbus cordis

      Correct Answer: Truncus arteriosus

      Explanation:

      The truncus arteriosus is responsible for giving rise to both the ascending aorta and the pulmonary trunk during embryonic development.

      When a Stanford Type A aortic dissection occurs, it typically affects the ascending aorta, which originates from the truncus arteriosus.

      During fetal development, the ductus arteriosus allows blood to bypass the pulmonary circuit by shunting it from the pulmonary arteries back into the aortic arch. In adults, the remnant of this structure is known as the ligamentum arteriosum, which serves as an anchor for the aortic arch.

      The bulbus cordis plays a role in the formation of the ventricles, while the common cardinal vein ultimately becomes the superior vena cava.

      During cardiovascular embryology, the heart undergoes significant development and differentiation. At around 14 days gestation, the heart consists of primitive structures such as the truncus arteriosus, bulbus cordis, primitive atria, and primitive ventricle. These structures give rise to various parts of the heart, including the ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk, right ventricle, left and right atria, and majority of the left ventricle. The division of the truncus arteriosus is triggered by neural crest cell migration from the pharyngeal arches, and any issues with this migration can lead to congenital heart defects such as transposition of the great arteries or tetralogy of Fallot. Other structures derived from the primitive heart include the coronary sinus, superior vena cava, fossa ovalis, and various ligaments such as the ligamentum arteriosum and ligamentum venosum. The allantois gives rise to the urachus, while the umbilical artery becomes the medial umbilical ligaments and the umbilical vein becomes the ligamentum teres hepatis inside the falciform ligament. Overall, cardiovascular embryology is a complex process that involves the differentiation and development of various structures that ultimately form the mature heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A patient with chronic heart failure with reduced ejection fraction has been prescribed...

    Correct

    • A patient with chronic heart failure with reduced ejection fraction has been prescribed a new medication as part of their drug regimen. This drug aims to improve myocardial contractility, but it is also associated with various side effects, such as arrhythmias. Its mechanism of action is blocking a protein with an important role in the resting potential of cardiac muscle cells.

      What protein is the drug targeting?

      Your Answer: Na+/K+ ATPases

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Cardiac Action Potential and Conduction Velocity

      The cardiac action potential is a series of electrical events that occur in the heart during each heartbeat. It is responsible for the contraction of the heart muscle and the pumping of blood throughout the body. The action potential is divided into five phases, each with a specific mechanism. The first phase is rapid depolarization, which is caused by the influx of sodium ions. The second phase is early repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The third phase is the plateau phase, which is caused by the slow influx of calcium ions. The fourth phase is final repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The final phase is the restoration of ionic concentrations, which is achieved by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

      Conduction velocity is the speed at which the electrical signal travels through the heart. The speed varies depending on the location of the signal. Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibers at a speed of 1 m/sec. AV node conduction is much slower, at 0.05 m/sec. Ventricular conduction is the fastest in the heart, achieved by the large diameter of the Purkinje fibers, which can achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec. This allows for a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles, which is essential for the proper functioning of the heart. Understanding the cardiac action potential and conduction velocity is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 65-year-old woman is admitted with severe community-acquired pneumonia that progresses to sepsis...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman is admitted with severe community-acquired pneumonia that progresses to sepsis and sepsis-driven atrial fibrillation. During examination, her blood pressure is unrecordable and a weak pulse is detected in her left arm. She reports experiencing weakness, numbness, and pain in her left arm, leading doctors to suspect an embolus. What is the embolus' direction of travel from her heart to her left arm?

      Your Answer: Left atrium → Left ventricle → aortic arch → left subclavian artery → left axillary artery → left brachial artery

      Explanation:

      The path of oxygenated blood is from the left atrium to the left ventricle, then through the aortic arch, left subclavian artery, left axillary artery, and finally the left brachial artery.

      Vascular disorders of the upper limb are less common than those in the lower limb. The upper limb circulation can be affected by embolic events, stenotic lesions, inflammatory disorders, and venous diseases. The collateral circulation of the arterial inflow can impact disease presentation. Conditions include axillary/brachial embolus, arterial occlusions, Raynaud’s disease, upper limb venous thrombosis, and cervical rib. Treatment varies depending on the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      43.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - The following result is obtained on a 48-year-old male who is admitted with...

    Correct

    • The following result is obtained on a 48-year-old male who is admitted with acute onset chest pain:
      Serum Cholesterol 7.3 mmol/L (<5.2)
      He has a strong family history of ischaemic heart disease.
      What abnormalities might be expected upon examination of this man?

      Your Answer: Tendon nodules

      Explanation:

      Familial Hypercholesterolaemia and its Manifestations

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of cholesterol in the blood. This condition is often indicated by the deposition of cholesterol in various parts of the body. The history of the patient suggests that they may be suffering from familial hypercholesterolaemia. The deposition of cholesterol can be observed around the corneal arcus, around the eye itself (xanthelasma), and in tendons such as achilles, knuckles or triceps tendons (tendon xanthomas).

      While dietary and lifestyle modifications are recommended, they are usually not enough to manage the condition. High dose lifelong statin therapy is often necessary to control the levels of cholesterol in the blood. It is important to seek medical attention and follow the recommended treatment plan to prevent further complications associated with familial hypercholesterolaemia. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends the use of statin therapy in conjunction with lifestyle modifications for the management of familial hypercholesterolaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 65-year-old man presents for a coronary angiogram due to worsening symptoms of...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents for a coronary angiogram due to worsening symptoms of unstable angina. The cardiologist observes multiple significant coronary stenoses, which are likely related to the patient's numerous risk factors, including hypertension, heavy smoking, hypercholesterolemia, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. What is the ultimate step in the development of this pathology?

      Your Answer: Smooth muscle proliferation and migration

      Explanation:

      Understanding Atherosclerosis and its Complications

      Atherosclerosis is a complex process that occurs over several years. It begins with endothelial dysfunction triggered by factors such as smoking, hypertension, and hyperglycemia. This leads to changes in the endothelium, including inflammation, oxidation, proliferation, and reduced nitric oxide bioavailability. As a result, low-density lipoprotein (LDL) particles infiltrate the subendothelial space, and monocytes migrate from the blood and differentiate into macrophages. These macrophages then phagocytose oxidized LDL, slowly turning into large ‘foam cells’. Smooth muscle proliferation and migration from the tunica media into the intima result in the formation of a fibrous capsule covering the fatty plaque.

      Once a plaque has formed, it can cause several complications. For example, it can form a physical blockage in the lumen of the coronary artery, leading to reduced blood flow and oxygen to the myocardium, resulting in angina. Alternatively, the plaque may rupture, potentially causing a complete occlusion of the coronary artery and resulting in a myocardial infarction. It is essential to understand the process of atherosclerosis and its complications to prevent and manage cardiovascular diseases effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - In phase 0 of the atrial cardiomyocyte action potential, the cell is rapidly...

    Correct

    • In phase 0 of the atrial cardiomyocyte action potential, the cell is rapidly depolarised.

      What ion influx causes this rapid depolarisation?

      Your Answer: Na+

      Explanation:

      Rapid depolarisation is caused by a rapid influx of sodium. This is due to the opening of fast Na+ channels during phase 0 of the cardiomyocyte action potential. Calcium influx during phase 2 causes a plateau, while chloride is not involved in the ventricular cardiomyocyte action potential. Potassium efflux occurs during repolarisation.

      Understanding the Cardiac Action Potential and Conduction Velocity

      The cardiac action potential is a series of electrical events that occur in the heart during each heartbeat. It is responsible for the contraction of the heart muscle and the pumping of blood throughout the body. The action potential is divided into five phases, each with a specific mechanism. The first phase is rapid depolarization, which is caused by the influx of sodium ions. The second phase is early repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The third phase is the plateau phase, which is caused by the slow influx of calcium ions. The fourth phase is final repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The final phase is the restoration of ionic concentrations, which is achieved by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

      Conduction velocity is the speed at which the electrical signal travels through the heart. The speed varies depending on the location of the signal. Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibers at a speed of 1 m/sec. AV node conduction is much slower, at 0.05 m/sec. Ventricular conduction is the fastest in the heart, achieved by the large diameter of the Purkinje fibers, which can achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec. This allows for a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles, which is essential for the proper functioning of the heart. Understanding the cardiac action potential and conduction velocity is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      6.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular System (18/30) 60%
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