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Question 1
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A health-conscious 29-year-old woman attends a drop-in Genito-urinary Medicine Clinic for a routine sexual transmitted infection (STI) screen. Her results indicate that she has contracted Chlamydia.
Which of the following would be the most suitable antibiotic treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Doxycycline 100 mg 12 hourly for 7 days
Explanation:Common Antibiotics for Chlamydia Treatment: Dosage and Suitability
Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis. Antibiotics are the primary treatment for chlamydial infection. However, not all antibiotics are suitable for treating this infection. Here are some common antibiotics used for chlamydia treatment, their recommended dosage, and their suitability for this infection.
Doxycycline 100 mg 12 hourly for 7 days
This is the recommended treatment for Chlamydia in adults/children over 13 years, according to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines and British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) guidance.Doxycycline 100 mg 12-hourly for 3 days
Even though doxycycline is used to treat infection with Chlamydia, a course of 100 mg 12-hourly over 3 days is not sufficient. Doxycycline 100 mg 12-hourly for 7 days is the recommended course.Amoxicillin 500 mg every 8 hours for 7 days
Amoxicillin targets Gram-positive bacteria and is hence an unsuitable antibiotic for chlamydial infection.Azithromycin 3 g orally single dose
A dose of 3 g per day is much too high. The recommended dose for azithromycin to treat chlamydial infection is 1 g orally per day.Clarithromycin 250 mg for 14 days
Clarithromycin is not typically used to treat infection with C. trachomatis. It is most commonly used to treat respiratory tract infections, soft tissue infections and as part of the treatment for H. pylori eradication. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician seeking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease and had an ectopic pregnancy that was treated with methotrexate a year ago. Additionally, she is a heavy smoker, consuming 20 cigarettes per day. Her family history is significant for BRCA1 mutation in her mother and sister, but she declines genetic testing. What would be an absolute contraindication for the COCP in this patient?
Your Answer: History of pelvic inflammatory disease
Correct Answer: Smoker
Explanation:The combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is a popular form of birth control, but it is not suitable for everyone. There are absolute contraindications, which mean that the COCP should not be used under any circumstances, and relative contraindications, which require careful consideration before prescribing.
Absolute contraindications include smoking 15 or more cigarettes a day and being over 35 years old, hypertension, major surgery with prolonged immobilization, secondary Raynaud’s disease, systemic lupus erythematosus, positive for antiphospholipid syndrome, current or history of venous thromboembolism, migraine with aura, current breast cancer, liver cirrhosis, viral hepatitis, and diabetic nephropathy/retinopathy/neuropathy.
Relative contraindications include smoking less than 15 cigarettes a day and being over 35 years old, being 6 weeks to 6 months postpartum and breastfeeding, being less than 21 days postpartum and not breastfeeding, having a body mass index of 35 or higher, having a family history of venous thromboembolism in a first-degree relative, having migraines without aura, having a history of breast cancer without recurrence for 5 years, using certain anticonvulsants, having dyslipidemia, undergoing rifampicin therapy, and having a previous use of methotrexate.
A history of pelvic inflammatory disease or prior ectopic pregnancy is not considered a contraindication to the use of the COCP. The possibility of a BRCA mutation is a controversial topic, and while there is evidence of a small increase in breast cancer risk with COCP use, it is not an absolute contraindication. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best form of birth control for individual circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 3
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A 20-year-old student visits the Genitourinary Medicine (GUM) Clinic with concerns about a recent sexual encounter. He had unprotected sex with a woman and has since developed a purulent urethral discharge and painful urination. Gram-negative diplococci were identified in specimens taken from him. What is the probable causative organism for this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Explanation:Diagnosing and Differentiating Sexually Transmitted Infections
Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are a common health concern, and prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and further transmission. One such STI is gonorrhoeae, caused by the bacterium N. gonorrhoeae. Symptoms include purulent discharge, dysuria, and frequency, and if left untreated, can lead to infertility.
Herpes simplex, another STI, typically presents with ulceration, which is not seen in this patient. Candida albicans, a type of yeast, is an unlikely diagnosis in men and would present with balanitis and white discharge. Chlamydia trachomatis, while similar in presentation, does not show Gram-negative diplococci on microscopy. However, up to 50% of patients with gonorrhoeae may also have coexisting chlamydia infection, so antibiotic regimes should cover both. Ciprofloxacin is effective, but drug-resistant strains of N. gonorrhoeae are emerging, so alternative antibiotics may be necessary.
Finally, Trichomonas vaginalis, an anaerobic protozoan infection, is ruled out by the microscopy result. Accurate diagnosis and differentiation of STIs are essential for effective treatment and prevention of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man provides his general practitioner with a semen specimen, as part of an investigation for failure to conceive over a 2-year period.
In semen analysis, which of the following is incompatible with normal fertility?Your Answer: 75% sperm viability by World Health Organisation (WHO) criteria
Correct Answer: Sperm count of 5 million per ml of ejaculate
Explanation:Understanding Semen Analysis: Normal Values for Sperm Count, Volume, pH, Viability, and Motility
Semen analysis is a crucial test to evaluate male fertility. The World Health Organisation (WHO) has established reference values for semen parameters, including sperm count, volume, pH, viability, and motility.
The normal sperm count is 15 million per ml of ejaculate, and a sample should be submitted to the lab within an hour of collection for accurate results. A sperm count of 5 million per ml of ejaculate is considered low and may indicate infertility.
The semen volume should be 1.5 ml or more, and a volume of 3 ml per ejaculation is considered normal. The ejaculate pH should be 7.2 or more, and a pH below 7.0 may indicate an infection or obstruction in the reproductive tract.
Sperm viability refers to the percentage of live sperm in the sample. The normal viability is 58% or more live sperm, and a lower percentage may indicate poor sperm quality or function.
Sperm motility refers to the ability of sperm to move and swim towards the egg. The normal sperm should be 40% or more motile, and 32% or more should have progressive motility. A motility of 55% four hours after ejaculation is considered normal.
In conclusion, understanding the normal values for semen analysis can help diagnose male infertility and guide appropriate treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 5
Correct
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You are investigating the mechanisms of action of the currently available treatments for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
Regarding HIV, which of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer: HIV may be transmitted by oral sex
Explanation:HIV: Transmission, Replication, and Types
HIV, or human immunodeficiency virus, is a virus that attacks the immune system and can lead to acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Here are some important facts about HIV transmission, replication, and types:
Transmission: HIV can be transmitted through certain body fluids, including blood, breast milk, and vaginal/seminal fluids. If these fluids come into contact with a mucous membrane or broken skin, HIV can be transmitted. This means that oral sex can also transmit HIV if vaginal/semen fluids come into contact with the oral cavity.
Replication: HIV is an RNA retrovirus that requires reverse transcriptase to replicate. It contains two copies of genomic RNA. When a target cell is infected, the virus is transcribed into a double strand of DNA and integrated into the host cell genome.
Types: HIV-1 is the most common type of HIV in the UK, whereas HIV-2 is common in West Africa. HIV-1 is more virulent and transmissible than HIV-2. Both types can be transmitted by blood and sexual contact (including oral sex).
Depletion of CD4 T cells: HIV principally targets and destroys CD4 T cells (helper T cells). As a result, humoral and cell-mediated responses are no longer properly regulated, and a decline in immune function results.
Overall, understanding how HIV is transmitted, replicates, and the different types can help in prevention and treatment efforts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 6
Correct
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A teenage patient has been diagnosed with a chlamydial infection following a recent sexually transmitted infection (STI) screen. The patient has agreed to treatment of the infection and has no known allergies, however, you are concerned about compliance.
Which of the following would be most appropriate?Your Answer: Azithromycin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Chlamydia: A Comparison of Antibiotics
Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium C.trachomatis. It can be asymptomatic, particularly in females, and if left untreated, can lead to fertility issues and pelvic inflammatory disease. To combat this, national campaigns are encouraging testing and awareness. The recommended treatment for chlamydia is azithromycin, which is safe for patients with a penicillin allergy and has a short course of treatment. Erythromycin is an alternative for pregnant patients, while doxycycline and ofloxacin have similar efficacy but concerns regarding compliance and antibiotic resistance. Amoxicillin is only recommended for use in pregnancy or breastfeeding. It is important to consider the appropriate antibiotic based on the patient’s clinical situation and therapeutic indications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman visits a gynaecologist to discuss her options for contraception. The doctor suggests the insertion of a copper-bearing intrauterine device (IUD) and explains its mechanism of action and potential risks. What is the frequency of uterine perforations as a complication of IUD placement?
Your Answer: 1 in 50 000
Correct Answer: 1 in 1000
Explanation:Understanding the Risks and Mechanisms of Copper-Bearing IUDs
Copper-bearing intrauterine devices (IUDs) are a popular form of reversible contraception that work through various mechanisms, including thickening cervical mucous, inhibiting sperm mobility, and reducing the likelihood of implantation. However, there are absolute contraindications to their use, such as pregnancy or recent childbirth, irregular vaginal bleeding, and gynecological cancer. Complications can include bleeding, pain, infection, discharge, and rare occurrences of uterine perforation, pelvic infection, expulsion, and ectopic pregnancy. The risk of uterine perforation is quoted as 1 in 1000 insertions, making it a rare but important consideration for those considering copper-bearing IUDs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 8
Correct
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A 30-year-old man visits the Urology Clinic after being referred by his GP due to a painful genital ulcer. The patient reports that the skin lesion has evolved over time, initially presenting as pustular after he returned from South America. During the examination, you observe that the ulcer base is filled with a foul-smelling yellow discharge, and there is tender lymphadenopathy on one side upon palpation. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Chancroid
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Genital Ulcer Disease: A Case of Chancroid
A patient presents with a genital ulcer, which has developed from a papule to a painful ulcer. The lesion is diagnosed as chancroid, a sexually transmitted disease caused by Haemophilus ducreyi. Chancroid is endemic in Asia, South America, and Africa, and typically presents as a single lesion in men and multiple lesions in women. Painful unilateral lymphadenopathy may be present, which can progress to suppurative buboes.
Other possible differential diagnoses include genital herpes, which produces multiple painful and itchy ulcers, and syphilis, which produces a single painless ulcer (chancre) at an early stage. However, due to the patient’s recent travel and the presence of pain, these are less likely diagnoses.
Donovanosis, or granuloma inguinale, is caused by Klebsiella granulomatis and produces multiple nodules that burst into painless ulcers. Inguinal lymphadenopathy is minimal, making this an unlikely differential. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, produces a painless ulcer at the contact site, but the patient’s ulcer is painful. In the second stage of LGV infection, painful lymphadenopathy and bubo development occur.
In conclusion, chancroid is the most likely diagnosis for this patient’s genital ulcer, and other differential diagnoses should be considered based on clinical presentation and travel history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents to the Genitourinary Medicine (GUM) Clinic with a rash. Upon examination, the doctor observes numerous flesh-colored, hemispherical papules with a central indentation, measuring around 4 mm in diameter, covering the upper thighs and shaft of the penis. The diagnosis is molluscum contagiosum. What would be a suitable treatment plan for this patient?
Your Answer: Saline bath
Correct Answer: No treatment is advised
Explanation:Molluscum Contagiosum: Diagnosis and Treatment Options
Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin disease that can be transmitted through sexual and non-sexual means. It results in flesh-colored, hemispherical papules with a central indentation, typically found on the genitalia, lower abdomen, and upper thighs. The incubation period is 3-12 weeks, and lesions can persist for up to two years before resolving on their own.
Diagnosis is made through clinical examination and electron microscopy of lesion particles. Treatment is not routinely recommended due to the self-resolving nature of the disease. However, cosmetic treatments such as benzoyl peroxide and podophyllotoxin may be used in adults with unsightly lesions on exposed areas or affecting quality of life.
Saline baths, acyclovir, corticosteroids, and metronidazole are not appropriate treatments for molluscum contagiosum. Saline baths are used for itch relief in conditions like eczema, acyclovir is for herpes zoster infection, corticosteroids are not recommended for viral skin diseases, and metronidazole is used for rosacea.
In conclusion, molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin disease that can be diagnosed through clinical examination and electron microscopy. Treatment is not routinely recommended, but cosmetic options may be used in certain cases. Other treatments, such as saline baths, acyclovir, corticosteroids, and metronidazole, are not appropriate for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You review a 35-year-old woman with a history of menorrhagia and dysmenorrhoea. She has started a new relationship and wants some advice on the best method of contraception.
An ultrasound scan from six months ago showed three subserosal fibroids ranging in size from 1 to 2 cm in maximal dimension, without uterine distortion.
Her medical history includes migraines with aura, which are well controlled at present.
Which of the following is the best suited method of contraception for this patient?Your Answer: Intrauterine copper device
Correct Answer: Levonorgestrel intrauterine system
Explanation:Contraceptive Options for Women with Menorrhagia and Fibroids
Women with menorrhagia and small fibroids may benefit from the levonorgestrel intrauterine system as a first-line contraceptive option. This device reduces bleeding by 90% and offers a convenient, long-acting method of contraception with a low failure rate. However, if the intrauterine system is not acceptable, the progesterone-only pill is a reasonable alternative.
For women with larger fibroids or uterine distortion, alternative forms of contraception should be offered, such as the COCP, progesterone implant, injections, or barrier methods. It is important to inform patients that any form of contraception they choose does not protect against sexually transmitted infections.
The intrauterine copper device is another long-acting reversible contraceptive option, but it is not recommended for women with pre-existing menorrhagia due to the risk of heavier bleeding. While this device is non-hormonal and over 99% effective in preventing pregnancy, it is an invasive procedure and carries a risk of expulsion and uterine perforation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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