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  • Question 1 - An individual who is 70 years old has been diagnosed with prostate cancer...

    Correct

    • An individual who is 70 years old has been diagnosed with prostate cancer and is prescribed goserelin (Zoladex). During the first three weeks of treatment, what is the most crucial medication to co-prescribe?

      Your Answer: Cyproterone acetate

      Explanation:

      To prevent tumour flare, it is recommended to co-prescribe anti-androgen treatment like cyproterone acetate when initiating gonadorelin analogues. This is because the initial stimulation of luteinising hormone release by the pituitary gland can lead to an increase in testosterone levels. According to the BNF, cyproterone acetate should be started three days prior to the gonadorelin analogue.

      Prostate cancer management varies depending on the stage of the disease and the patient’s life expectancy and preferences. For localized prostate cancer (T1/T2), treatment options include active monitoring, watchful waiting, radical prostatectomy, and radiotherapy (external beam and brachytherapy). For localized advanced prostate cancer (T3/T4), options include hormonal therapy, radical prostatectomy, and radiotherapy. Patients may develop proctitis and are at increased risk of bladder, colon, and rectal cancer following radiotherapy for prostate cancer.

      In cases of metastatic prostate cancer, reducing androgen levels is a key aim of treatment. A combination of approaches is often used, including anti-androgen therapy, synthetic GnRH agonist or antagonists, bicalutamide, cyproterone acetate, abiraterone, and bilateral orchidectomy. GnRH agonists, such as Goserelin (Zoladex), initially cause a rise in testosterone levels before falling to castration levels. To prevent a rise in testosterone, anti-androgens are often used to cover the initial therapy. GnRH antagonists, such as degarelix, are being evaluated to suppress testosterone while avoiding the flare phenomenon. Chemotherapy with docetaxel is also an option for the treatment of hormone-relapsed metastatic prostate cancer in patients who have no or mild symptoms after androgen deprivation therapy has failed, and before chemotherapy is indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 2 - A 68-year-old man has a diagnosis of carcinoma of the prostate confirmed by...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man has a diagnosis of carcinoma of the prostate confirmed by biopsy. His PSA is 25 ng/ml (normal range < 5 ng/ml in over 60s). The biopsy showed a Gleason score of 6 (range 2 - 10) and confirmed that the tumour is confined to the prostate. His general health is otherwise good, and he was asymptomatic at diagnosis. His father was also diagnosed with prostate cancer at a similar age.
      Which of the following is most likely to signify a high-risk prostate cancer?

      Your Answer: Prostate specific antigen >20 ng/mL

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prostate Cancer Risk Factors

      Prostate cancer is a common cancer in men, and risk stratification is important for determining appropriate treatment. The three main factors that contribute to risk stratification are prostate-specific antigen (PSA), Gleason score, and cancer stage. A PSA level of over 20 ng/mL signifies high-risk disease. The Gleason score estimates the grade of prostate cancer based on its differentiation, with a score of 8-10 indicating high-risk disease. Cancer stage is also important, with T2c indicating high-risk disease. Lower urinary symptoms and family history of prostate cancer are not significant determinants of risk. It is important to understand these risk factors in order to make informed decisions about prostate cancer treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 3 - A 36-year-old male patient visits the surgical department complaining of scrotal swelling and...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old male patient visits the surgical department complaining of scrotal swelling and discomfort that has been ongoing for the past 4 months.

      Upon examination, the left scrotum is visibly enlarged and transilluminates. The swelling is soft to the touch and doesn't cause any pain. The testis cannot be fully palpated due to the presence of fluid.

      What would be the most suitable next step to take?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently for testicular ultrasound

      Explanation:

      An ultrasound is necessary for adult patients with a hydrocele to rule out any underlying causes, such as a tumor. Even though the most common cause of a non-acute hydrocele is unknown, it is crucial to exclude malignancy first. Therefore, providing reassurance or reevaluating the patient later would only be appropriate after a testicular ultrasound confirms the absence of malignancy. Testicular biopsy should not be used to investigate suspected testicular cancer as it may spread the malignancy through seeding along the needle’s track. Although a unilateral hydrocele can be an uncommon presentation of a renal carcinoma invading the renal vein, a CTAP would not be the first-line investigation in this scenario. If malignancy is confirmed, CT may be useful in staging the malignancy.

      A hydrocele is a condition where fluid accumulates within the tunica vaginalis. There are two types of hydroceles: communicating and non-communicating. Communicating hydroceles are caused by the patency of the processus vaginalis, which allows peritoneal fluid to drain down into the scrotum. This type of hydrocele is common in newborn males and usually resolves within the first few months of life. Non-communicating hydroceles are caused by excessive fluid production within the tunica vaginalis. Hydroceles may develop secondary to epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors.

      The features of a hydrocele include a soft, non-tender swelling of the hemi-scrotum that is usually anterior to and below the testicle. The swelling is confined to the scrotum, and it can be transilluminated with a pen torch. The testis may be difficult to palpate if the hydrocele is large. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated.

      Management of hydroceles depends on the severity of the presentation. Infantile hydroceles are generally repaired if they do not resolve spontaneously by the age of 1-2 years. In adults, a conservative approach may be taken, but further investigation (e.g. ultrasound) is usually warranted to exclude any underlying cause such as a tumor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 4 - A 48-year-old man presents to you with elevated blood pressure. He has a...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old man presents to you with elevated blood pressure. He has a history of chronic kidney disease and his estimated glomerular filtration rate was 53 ml/min six weeks ago. His albumin:creatinine ratio was 35 mg/mmol. He denies experiencing any chest pain or shortness of breath. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 172/94 mmHg and fundoscopy is unremarkable. What is the optimal course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Patients who have chronic kidney disease, hypertension, and an albumin:creatinine ratio exceeding 30 mg/mmol should be initiated on a renin-angiotensin antagonist. These medications have been proven to have positive impacts on both cardiovascular outcomes and renal function. While the other drugs are also utilized for hypertension, they do not offer the same advantages and are not the primary choice for individuals with chronic kidney disease.

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are especially effective in proteinuric renal disease like diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs can reduce filtration pressure, leading to a slight decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and an increase in creatinine. NICE guidelines state that a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes. If the rise is greater than this, it may indicate underlying renovascular disease.

      Furosemide is a useful Antihypertensive drug for CKD patients, particularly when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min*. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient is at risk of dehydration (e.g. due to gastroenteritis), the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 5 - A 70-year-old man has had a low-grade non-invasive papillary carcinoma completely removed from...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man has had a low-grade non-invasive papillary carcinoma completely removed from his bladder by cystoscopy.
      What is the most probable long-term result for this man?

      Your Answer: Tumour recurrence

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Complications and Prognosis of Bladder Cancer

      Bladder cancer is a common malignancy with a high recurrence rate. While superficial tumors have a good prognosis, they are likely to recur even after complete resection. Patients with low-risk cancers can be managed through transurethral resection, while high-risk tumors may require intravesical immunotherapy with Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) to prevent progression to invasive disease. Metastases is less likely in patients with superficial tumors, but recurrent urinary infections may occur in the postoperative period. Urinary retention is not a common long-term complication. Overall, understanding the complications and prognosis of bladder cancer is crucial for effective management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 6 - A 68-year-old woman is undergoing haemodialysis for chronic kidney disease.
    Which complication is most...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman is undergoing haemodialysis for chronic kidney disease.
      Which complication is most likely to occur?

      Your Answer: Nausea and headache

      Explanation:

      Complications of Dialysis: Understanding the Risks and Symptoms

      Dialysis is a life-saving treatment for patients with end-stage renal disease, but it is not without its risks and complications. One of the most common side effects of removing too much fluid or removing it too rapidly is hypotension, fatigue, chest pains, leg cramps, nausea, and headaches. These symptoms can persist after treatment and are sometimes referred to as the dialysis hangover or dialysis washout.

      Another rare but serious neurological complication is dialysis disequilibrium syndrome, which is characterized by weakness, dizziness, headache, and mental status changes. Hypertension, hyperkalemia, infection, amyloidosis, and malnutrition are other potential complications.

      Contrary to popular belief, hyperkalemia is more commonly seen in dialysis patients than hypokalemia. Patients who undergo hemodialysis are also at an increased risk of contracting hepatitis B, but vaccination has significantly reduced the incidence of this complication.

      Secondary hyperparathyroidism and associated osteodystrophy have been major causes of morbidity in long-term dialysis patients, but better management of calcium and phosphorus metabolism and the availability of new drugs have improved outcomes. Malnutrition and weight loss are more commonly seen than weight gain, which may be due to loss of amino acids and peptides in the dialysate, sodium restriction, and dialysis-induced hypercatabolism.

      In conclusion, understanding the risks and symptoms of dialysis complications is crucial for patients and healthcare providers to ensure the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old man is to have a prostate specific antigen (PSA) test performed.
    Select...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man is to have a prostate specific antigen (PSA) test performed.
      Select from the list the option that would allow you to do the test immediately rather than defer it to a later date.

      Your Answer: He says his last ejaculation was 4 days ago

      Explanation:

      PSA levels can be affected by various factors such as digital rectal examination, urinary or prostatic infections, prostate biopsies, urinary catheterization, prostate or bladder surgery, prolonged exercise, and ejaculation. It is advisable to defer DRE for a week, but if necessary, a gentle examination is unlikely to significantly increase PSA levels. PSA levels may remain elevated for several months after infections, and testing should be delayed for at least three months after biopsies or surgeries. Prolonged exercise and ejaculation may raise PSA levels for up to 48 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old male is presented with a painful right breast that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male is presented with a painful right breast that has been bothering him for two months. He has been in good health but noticed tenderness and swelling in the right breast during a basketball game. Upon examination, breast tissue is palpable in both breasts, and the right breast is tender. Additionally, a non-tender lump of 3 cm in diameter is found in the right testicle, which does not transilluminate. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Testicular lymphoma

      Correct Answer: Teratoma

      Explanation:

      Testicular Lesions and Gynaecomastia in Young Males

      This young male is presenting with tender gynaecomastia and a suspicious testicular lesion. The most likely diagnosis in this age group is a teratoma, as seminoma tends to be more common in older individuals. Gynaecomastia can be a presenting feature of testicular tumours, as the tumour may secrete betaHCG. Other tumour markers of teratoma include alphafetoprotein (AFP). It is important to note that testicular lymphoma typically presents in individuals over the age of 40 and is not associated with gynaecomastia. Early detection and treatment of testicular lesions is crucial for optimal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 9 - A 70-year-old man with prostatism has a serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) concentration of...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man with prostatism has a serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) concentration of 7.5 ng/ml (normal range 0 - 4 ng/ml).
      What is the most appropriate conclusion to make from this information?

      Your Answer: It could be explained by prostatitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding PSA Levels in Prostate Health: What You Need to Know

      PSA levels can be a useful indicator of prostate health, but they are not always straightforward to interpret. Here are some key points to keep in mind:

      – PSA has a low specificity: prostatitis and acute urinary retention can both result in increased serum PSA concentrations. As the patient is known to have prostatism, this could well account for a raised PSA; however, further investigation to exclude a malignancy may be warranted.
      – It is diagnostic of malignancy: Although this level is certainly compatible with malignancy; it is not diagnostic of it. Further investigations, including magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scanning and/or prostatic biopsies, are needed to confirm a diagnosis of prostate cancer.
      – It is invalidated if he underwent a digital rectal examination 8 days before the blood sample was taken: Although DRE is known to increase PSA levels, it is a minor and only transient effect. The NHS Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme says that the test should be postponed for a week following DRE.
      – It is prognostically highly significant: In general, the higher the PSA, the greater the likelihood of malignancy, but some patients with malignancy have normal levels (often taken as = 4 ng/ml but are actually age dependent). The absolute PSA concentration correlates poorly with prognosis in prostatic cancer. Other factors such as the tumour staging and Gleason score need to be considered.
      – It is unremarkable in a man of this age: Although PSA does increase with age, the British Association of Urological Surgeons gives a maximum level of 7.2 ng/ml in those aged 70–75 years (although it acknowledges that there is no ‘safe “maximum” level’). Therefore, this level can still indicate malignancy, regardless of symptoms.

      In summary, PSA levels can provide important information about prostate health, but they should always be interpreted in the context of other factors and confirmed with further testing if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 10 - An 80-year-old man visits his general practice clinic with painless, frank haematuria. He...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man visits his general practice clinic with painless, frank haematuria. He reports no dysuria, fever, or other symptoms and feels generally well. He is currently taking apixaban, atenolol, simvastatin, and ramipril due to a history of myocardial infarction and atrial fibrillation. A urine dipstick test shows positive for blood but negative for leukocytes and nitrites. What is the best course of action for management? Choose only ONE option.

      Your Answer: Refer him under the 2-week wait pathway to urology for suspected cancer

      Explanation:

      Management of Painless Haematuria: Choosing the Right Pathway

      When a patient presents with painless haematuria, it is important to choose the right management pathway. In this case, a 2-week wait referral to urology for suspected cancer is the appropriate course of action for a patient over 45 years old with unexplained haematuria. Routine referral to urology is not sufficient in this case.

      Sending a mid-stream urine sample for culture and sensitivity and starting antibiotics is not recommended unless there are accompanying symptoms such as dysuria or fever. Referring for an abdominal X-ray and ultrasound is also not the best option as a CT scan is more appropriate for ruling out bladder or renal carcinoma.

      It is also important to note that while anticoagulants like apixaban can increase the risk of bleeding, they do not explain the underlying cause of haematuria. Therefore, reviewing the use of apixaban alone is not sufficient in managing painless haematuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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Kidney And Urology (9/10) 90%
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