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Question 1
Correct
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A 47-year-old patient is experiencing uncontrolled pain despite taking paracetamol and ibuprofen.
What would be the most suitable analgesic to consider as the next option?Your Answer: Codeine
Explanation:To effectively manage pain, it is recommended to follow the analgesia ladder, starting with mild pain medications and gradually increasing to stronger opioids for more severe pain. In this case, since the patient’s pain is not adequately managed with non-opioid medications, the next step would be to try a weak opioid such as codeine. Strong opioids would not be appropriate at this stage, and continuing with non-opioid medications is unlikely to provide sufficient pain relief.
The WHO’s Analgesia Ladder for Pain Management
The World Health Organisation (WHO) has created a guide for doctors to follow when treating patients who are experiencing pain. This guide is known as the ‘analgesia ladder’ and it consists of three steps. The first step involves the use of non-opioid analgesics such as paracetamol and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like aspirin. If the pain persists, the second step involves the use of mild opioid analgesics like codeine and dihydrocodeine. Finally, if the pain is still not managed, the third step involves the use of strong opioid analgesics like morphine.
The purpose of the analgesia ladder is to provide doctors with a structured approach to pain management. By starting with non-opioid analgesics and gradually moving up the ladder, doctors can ensure that patients receive the appropriate level of pain relief without exposing them to unnecessary risks associated with opioid use. This approach also helps to minimise the potential for opioid dependence and addiction.
Overall, the WHO’s analgesia ladder is an important tool for doctors to use when treating patients who are experiencing pain. By following this guide, doctors can provide effective pain relief while minimising the risks associated with opioid use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 2
Correct
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A 58-year-old male presents to the urgent care centre with complaints of back pain after spending the day replanting hedges. During the examination, he exhibits weakness in hip abduction and great toe dorsiflexion, foot drop, and some sensory loss on the dorsum of his foot. There is no apparent change in his reflexes.
What could be the probable reason behind these symptoms?Your Answer: L5 radiculopathy
Explanation:Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features
A prolapsed disc in the lumbar region can cause leg pain and neurological deficits. The pain is usually more severe in the leg than in the back and worsens when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, compression of the L3 nerve root can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, compression of the L4 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.
Similarly, compression of the L5 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the dorsum of the foot, weakness in foot and big toe dorsiflexion, intact reflexes, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test. Lastly, compression of the S1 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the posterolateral aspect of the leg and lateral aspect of the foot, weakness in plantar flexion of the foot, reduced ankle reflex, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test.
The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain, which includes analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. However, if the symptoms persist even after 4-6 weeks, referral for an MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in early diagnosis and prompt management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements about the effectiveness of a study is accurate?
Your Answer: Decreases with increasing sample size
Correct Answer: Is the probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false
Explanation:Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A couple in their mid-40s with no known genetic disorders in their family have a baby boy who exhibits asymmetrical growth. The child's head and torso are proportionate, but his arms and legs are significantly shorter than average, and his fingers are all the same length. What is the mode of inheritance for this condition?
Your Answer: Mitochondrial
Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant
Explanation:Achondroplasia: A Congenital Condition Causing Impaired Bone Growth
Achondroplasia is a congenital condition that affects bone growth, resulting in short arms and legs, fingers and toes of equal length, increased lumbar lordosis, and normal intellect and life expectancy. Although it is an autosomal dominant condition, most cases occur without a family history. The underlying defect is a mutation in fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3), which is responsible for membranous bone growth. However, 80% of all cases are sporadic mutations, with the most common cause being a de novo mutation. The risk of a de novo mutation is increased due to the age of the father.
Increased paternal age promotes single gene mutations, while increased maternal age promotes non-dysjunction and chromosomal abnormalities. Despite the impaired bone growth, affected patients have normal-sized heads and trunks due to normal membranous bone growth. Achondroplasia is a congenital condition that can be diagnosed through genetic testing and managed through various treatments, including limb-lengthening surgeries and physical therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which of the following nerves is responsible for innervating the posterior belly of the digastric muscle?
Your Answer: Hypoglossal nerve
Correct Answer: Facial nerve
Explanation:The facial nerve innervates the posterior belly of digastric, while the mylohoid nerve innervates the anterior belly.
The Anterior Triangle of the Neck: Boundaries and Contents
The anterior triangle of the neck is a region that is bounded by the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, the lower border of the mandible, and the anterior midline. It is further divided into three sub-triangles by the digastric muscle and the omohyoid muscle. The muscular triangle contains the neck strap muscles, while the carotid triangle contains the carotid sheath, which houses the common carotid artery, the vagus nerve, and the internal jugular vein. The submandibular triangle, located below the digastric muscle, contains the submandibular gland, submandibular nodes, facial vessels, hypoglossal nerve, and other structures.
The digastric muscle, which separates the submandibular triangle from the muscular triangle, is innervated by two different nerves. The anterior belly of the digastric muscle is supplied by the mylohyoid nerve, while the posterior belly is supplied by the facial nerve.
Overall, the anterior triangle of the neck is an important anatomical region that contains many vital structures, including blood vessels, nerves, and glands. Understanding the boundaries and contents of this region is essential for medical professionals who work in this area.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man is scheduled for an open appendicectomy via a lanz incision. The surgeon plans to place the incision at the level of the anterior superior iliac spine to improve cosmesis. However, during the procedure, the appendix is found to be retrocaecal, and the incision is extended laterally. What is the nerve that is at the highest risk of injury during this surgery?
Your Answer: Femoral
Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal
Explanation:The Ilioinguinal Nerve: Anatomy and Function
The ilioinguinal nerve is a nerve that arises from the first lumbar ventral ramus along with the iliohypogastric nerve. It passes through the psoas major and quadratus lumborum muscles before piercing the internal oblique muscle and passing deep to the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle. The nerve then enters the inguinal canal and passes through the superficial inguinal ring to reach the skin.
The ilioinguinal nerve supplies the muscles of the abdominal wall through which it passes. It also provides sensory innervation to the skin and fascia over the pubic symphysis, the superomedial part of the femoral triangle, the surface of the scrotum, and the root and dorsum of the penis or labia majora in females.
Understanding the anatomy and function of the ilioinguinal nerve is important for medical professionals, as damage to this nerve can result in pain and sensory deficits in the areas it innervates. Additionally, knowledge of the ilioinguinal nerve is relevant in surgical procedures involving the inguinal region.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old patient with paranoid schizophrenia has discontinued their medication and is experiencing distress. As they walk home, they observe a traffic light turn red and immediately interpret it as a sign of the impending apocalypse. How would you classify this delusion?
Your Answer: Autochthonous delusion
Correct Answer: Delusional perception
Explanation:Types of Delusional Symptoms in Psychotic Disorders
Delusional perception is a symptom commonly seen in schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders. It occurs when a normal perception takes on a unique and delusional significance for the patient. For example, a red traffic light may be perceived as a sign of the end of the world. This symptom is considered a first rank symptom by psychiatrist Kurt Schneider.
Autochthonous delusions, also known as delusional intuitions, are sudden and unexplained delusions that arise in the patient’s mind. These delusions are not based on any external stimuli or perceptions, but rather grow from within the patient’s mind.
Delusional memories are memories that are partially based on true events from the past, but with delusional beliefs attached to them. For example, a patient may believe that a chip has been inserted in their head following a surgery to remove a cyst, even though this is not true.
Delusional atmosphere is a poorly understood phenomenon where the patient experiences an overwhelming feeling that something important is happening or that the world has changed, but they are unable to understand what or how. This feeling may be associated with anxiety, depression, or excitement, and can lead to the development of delusions.
In summary, delusional symptoms can take on various forms in psychotic disorders, including delusional perception, autochthonous delusions, delusional memories, and delusional atmosphere. These symptoms can greatly impact the patient’s perception of reality and require careful management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with chronic kidney disease presents with pain in his right leg.
During physical examination, a clearly demarcated fiery-red lesion is observed on the anterior aspect of the right leg. The lesion is raised above the level of the surrounding skin. Laboratory testing results are as follows:
- WBC: 15 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0 - 11.0)
- CRP: 36 mg/L (normal range: < 5)
Based on the clinical picture and laboratory findings, erysipelas is suspected. What is the most likely causative organism in this scenario?Your Answer: Neisseria meningitidis
Correct Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes
Explanation:Erysipelas is a skin infection that is localized and caused by Streptococcus pyogenes, a Group A streptococcus (GAS) bacterium. This infection affects the upper dermis and can spread to the superficial cutaneous lymphatics. Streptococcus pyogenes is a Gram-positive coccus that grows in chains.
Escherichia coli is a bacterium that normally resides in the intestines of healthy individuals and animals. However, some strains of Escherichia coli produce toxins that can cause gastrointestinal illness or urinary tract infections.
Neisseria meningitidis is a Gram-negative bacterium that can cause meningitis and other forms of meningococcal disease, such as meningococcemia, which is a life-threatening sepsis.
Staphylococcus aureus is a bacterium that colonizes the skin and mucous membranes of humans and animals. It can cause cellulitis, which is an infection of the deeper skin tissues. Cellulitis typically presents as an ill-defined rash, in contrast to erysipelas, which has a sharper edge and is raised.
Understanding Erysipelas: A Superficial Skin Infection
Erysipelas is a skin infection that is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. It is a less severe form of cellulitis, which is a more widespread skin infection. Erysipelas is a localized infection that affects the skin’s upper layers, causing redness, swelling, and warmth. The infection can occur anywhere on the body, but it is most commonly found on the face, arms, and legs.
The treatment of choice for erysipelas is flucloxacillin, an antibiotic that is effective against Streptococcus pyogenes. Other antibiotics may also be used, depending on the severity of the infection and the patient’s medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 9
Incorrect
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As a medical student in general practice, a 37-year-old male with chronic back pain comes in for a refill of his amitriptyline prescription. Can you explain the mechanism of action of this medication?
Your Answer: Inhibits monoamine reuptake on postsynaptic membrane
Correct Answer: Inhibits monoamine reuptake on the presynaptic membrane
Explanation:Amitriptyline belongs to the class of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs).
TCAs primarily act on the presynaptic neuron rather than the postsynaptic neuron. Their main mode of action involves inhibiting the reuptake of monoamines at the presynaptic membrane. This is achieved by binding to the ATPase monoamine pump located within the presynaptic membrane.
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are not commonly used for depression anymore due to their side-effects and potential for toxicity in overdose. However, they are still widely used for the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required. The common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and lengthening of QT interval. When choosing a TCA, low-dose amitriptyline is commonly used for the management of neuropathic pain and the prevention of headaches. Lofepramine is preferred due to its lower incidence of toxicity in overdose, while amitriptyline and dosulepin are considered the most dangerous in overdose. The sedative effects of TCAs vary, with amitriptyline, clomipramine, dosulepin, and trazodone being more sedative, while imipramine and nortriptyline are less sedative. Trazodone is technically a ‘tricyclic-related antidepressant’.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl experiences vomiting, hypotension, and severe urticaria after consuming a peanut. Which cell line is primarily involved in the development of this condition?
Your Answer: Reticulocytes
Correct Answer: Common myeloid progenitor
Explanation:Mast cells originate from common myeloid progenitor cells.
Haematopoiesis: The Generation of Immune Cells
Haematopoiesis is the process by which immune cells are produced from haematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow. These stem cells give rise to two main types of progenitor cells: myeloid and lymphoid progenitor cells. All immune cells are derived from these progenitor cells.
The myeloid progenitor cells generate cells such as macrophages/monocytes, dendritic cells, neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and mast cells. On the other hand, lymphoid progenitor cells give rise to T cells, NK cells, B cells, and dendritic cells.
This process is essential for the proper functioning of the immune system. Without haematopoiesis, the body would not be able to produce the necessary immune cells to fight off infections and diseases. Understanding haematopoiesis is crucial in developing treatments for diseases that affect the immune system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman receives a screening mammogram and the results suggest the presence of ductal carcinoma in situ. To confirm the diagnosis, a stereotactic core biopsy is conducted. What pathological characteristics should be absent for a diagnosis of ductal carcinoma in situ?
Your Answer: Angiogenesis
Correct Answer: Dysplastic cells infiltrating the suspensory ligaments of the breast
Explanation:Invasion is a characteristic of invasive disease and is not typically seen in cases of DCIS. However, angiogenesis may be present in cases of high grade DCIS.
Characteristics of Malignancy in Histopathology
Histopathology is the study of tissue architecture and cellular changes in disease. In malignancy, there are several distinct characteristics that differentiate it from normal tissue or benign tumors. These features include abnormal tissue architecture, coarse chromatin, invasion of the basement membrane, abnormal mitoses, angiogenesis, de-differentiation, areas of necrosis, and nuclear pleomorphism.
Abnormal tissue architecture refers to the disorganized and irregular arrangement of cells within the tissue. Coarse chromatin refers to the appearance of the genetic material within the nucleus, which appears clumped and irregular. Invasion of the basement membrane is a hallmark of invasive malignancy, as it indicates that the cancer cells have broken through the protective layer that separates the tissue from surrounding structures. Abnormal mitoses refer to the process of cell division, which is often disrupted in cancer cells. Angiogenesis is the process by which new blood vessels are formed, which is necessary for the growth and spread of cancer cells. De-differentiation refers to the loss of specialized functions and characteristics of cells, which is common in cancer cells. Areas of necrosis refer to the death of tissue due to lack of blood supply or other factors. Finally, nuclear pleomorphism refers to the variability in size and shape of the nuclei within cancer cells.
Overall, these characteristics are important for the diagnosis and treatment of malignancy, as they help to distinguish cancer cells from normal tissue and benign tumors. By identifying these features in histopathology samples, doctors can make more accurate diagnoses and develop more effective treatment plans for patients with cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A patient with moderate gastro-oesophageal reflux disease undergoes upper gastrointestinal endoscopy and biopsy. Upon examination of the biopsy specimen, the pathologist observes that the original epithelium of the oesophagus (A) has been substituted by a distinct type of epithelium (B) that is typically present in the intestine.
What is the epithelium (B) that the pathologist is most likely to have identified?Your Answer: Stratified squamous epithelium
Correct Answer: Columnar epithelium
Explanation:Barrett’s oesophagus is characterized by the replacement of the original stratified squamous epithelium with columnar epithelium, which is typically found lining the intestines. Simple cuboidal epithelium is present in small gland ducts, kidney tubules, and secretory portions. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium is found in the upper respiratory tract and trachea, while stratified squamous epithelium lines areas that experience tension, such as the mouth, oesophagus, and vagina.
Barrett’s oesophagus is a condition where the lower oesophageal mucosa is replaced by columnar epithelium, which increases the risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma by 50-100 fold. It is usually identified during an endoscopy for upper gastrointestinal symptoms such as dyspepsia, as there are no screening programs for it. The length of the affected segment determines the chances of identifying metaplasia, with short (<3 cm) and long (>3 cm) subtypes. The prevalence of Barrett’s oesophagus is estimated to be around 1 in 20, and it is identified in up to 12% of those undergoing endoscopy for reflux.
The columnar epithelium in Barrett’s oesophagus may resemble that of the cardiac region of the stomach or that of the small intestine, with goblet cells and brush border. The single strongest risk factor for Barrett’s oesophagus is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), followed by male gender, smoking, and central obesity. Alcohol is not an independent risk factor for Barrett’s, but it is associated with both GORD and oesophageal cancer. Patients with Barrett’s oesophagus often have coexistent GORD symptoms.
The management of Barrett’s oesophagus involves high-dose proton pump inhibitor, although the evidence base for its effectiveness in reducing the progression to dysplasia or inducing regression of the lesion is limited. Endoscopic surveillance with biopsies is recommended every 3-5 years for patients with metaplasia but not dysplasia. If dysplasia of any grade is identified, endoscopic intervention is offered, such as radiofrequency ablation, which is the preferred first-line treatment, particularly for low-grade dysplasia, or endoscopic mucosal resection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old male comes to the emergency department after sustaining a foot injury from a sliding tackle while playing soccer. He is a healthy young man with no notable medical history and is a non-smoker.
During the examination, it is observed that he has lost sensation in the posterolateral leg and lateral foot.
Which nerve is most likely to have been damaged?Your Answer: Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
Correct Answer: Sural nerve
Explanation:The sural nerve provides sensory innervation to the posterolateral leg and lateral foot, while the saphenous nerve innervates the medial aspect of the leg and foot. The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve supplies the lateral thigh.
Cutaneous Sensation in the Foot
Cutaneous sensation in the foot is the ability to feel touch, pressure, temperature, and pain on the skin of the foot. Different regions of the foot are innervated by different nerves, which are responsible for transmitting sensory information to the brain. The lateral plantar region is innervated by the sural nerve, while the dorsum (excluding the 1st web space) is innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve. The 1st web space is innervated by the deep peroneal nerve, and the extremities of the toes are innervated by the medial and lateral plantar nerves. The proximal plantar region is innervated by the tibial nerve, while the medial plantar region is innervated by the medial plantar nerve and the lateral plantar region is innervated by the lateral plantar nerve. Understanding the innervation of the foot is important for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect cutaneous sensation in this area.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 14
Incorrect
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You are participating in a seminar about eating disorders. What renal alteration is common in individuals with extreme malnourishment?
Your Answer: Increased clearance of serum urate
Correct Answer: Reduced glomerular filtration rate
Explanation:Renal Physiology Changes in Severe Malnutrition
Patients with severe malnutrition experience changes in their renal physiology due to reduced food intake. These changes include an increased secretion of aldosterone and a reduced glomerular filtration rate (GFR), which alters the excretion patterns of many solutes, electrolytes, and drugs. As a result, there is an increased urinary excretion of potassium, calcium, magnesium, and phosphate, leading to a tendency for hypokalaemia, hypocalcaemia, hypomagnesaemia, and hypophosphataemia over time.
Furthermore, the reduced muscle bulk in individuals with severe malnutrition causes low levels of production of urea and creatinine. However, reduced excretion causes plasma levels to remain normal or only slightly reduced. As muscle is broken down to provide substrates for gluconeogenesis, a negative nitrogen balance ensues. Additionally, urate excretion is reduced, causing a relative hyperuricaemia.
In summary, severe malnutrition affects renal physiology, leading to altered excretion patterns of various solutes, electrolytes, and drugs. These changes can result in imbalances in potassium, calcium, magnesium, and phosphate levels. Furthermore, the breakdown of muscle tissue can cause a negative nitrogen balance, while reduced urate excretion can lead to hyperuricaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A teenage boy gets into a brawl at a pub and is stabbed with a shattered bottle in his back, resulting in a spinal cord injury where half of the spinal cord is severed.
What will be the impact on pain perception after this injury?Your Answer: Loss on the same side above the injury
Correct Answer: Loss on the opposite side below the injury
Explanation:When the spinothalamic tract is damaged on one side of the spinal cord, the pain sensation is lost on the opposite side of the body below the injury. This is because the spinothalamic tract crosses over (decusates) in the spinal cord one level above where the stimulus enters. The spinothalamic tract is responsible for transmitting pain signals from the dorsal horns on the opposite side of the spinal cord where the primary sensory neuron enters. However, sensation above the injury remains unaffected. This can be a confusing concept, but in practice, it means that pain sensation is lost on one side of the body below the injury.
The Spinothalamic Tract and its Function in Sensory Transmission
The spinothalamic tract is responsible for transmitting impulses from receptors that measure crude touch, pain, and temperature. It is composed of two tracts, the lateral and anterior spinothalamic tracts, with the former transmitting pain and temperature and the latter crude touch and pressure.
Before decussating in the spinal cord, neurons transmitting these signals ascend by one or two vertebral levels in Lissaurs tract. Once they have crossed over, they pass rostrally in the cord to connect at the thalamus. This pathway is crucial in the transmission of sensory information from the body to the brain, allowing us to perceive and respond to various stimuli.
Overall, the spinothalamic tract plays a vital role in our ability to sense and respond to our environment. Its function in transmitting sensory information is essential for our survival and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with mouth pain and bruising on her chest and left arm. According to her father, she fell off the monkey bars while playing at the park. During the examination, a torn maxillary frenum is discovered.
Which healthcare professional should be prioritized for involvement in the child's care?Your Answer: Orthopaedic Surgeon
Correct Answer: Safeguarding Officer
Explanation:When a child experiences a torn maxillary frenum, it is a rare injury that should be taken seriously. If other bruises are present, it may indicate non-accidental injury, which requires immediate attention. In such cases, the designated safeguarding officer of the hospital trust should be involved to determine the appropriate course of action in consultation with the local safeguarding children board.
To assess suspected non-accidental injury, a thorough medical examination and history should be conducted, and all injuries should be documented and photographed with consent. The child’s interaction with their parent should also be noted. A full skeletal survey, including oblique views of the ribs, should be ordered to identify any fractures that may not be visible during a physical examination.
If abuse is suspected or confirmed, the safeguarding officer will help determine whether the child needs further protection from harm. This may involve admitting the child to the hospital or involving the police.
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2009 to help healthcare professionals identify when a child may be experiencing maltreatment. Child abuse can take many forms, including physical, emotional, and sexual abuse, neglect, and fabricated or induced illness. The guidelines provide a comprehensive list of features that may indicate abuse, but only selected features are highlighted here. Neglect may be suspected if a child has severe and persistent infestations, is not receiving essential prescribed treatment, has poor hygiene, or is not being dressed appropriately. Sexual abuse may be suspected if a child has persistent dysuria or anogenital discomfort, a gaping anus during examination, or is exhibiting sexualized behavior. Physical abuse may be suspected if a child has unexplained serious or unusual injuries, cold injuries, hypothermia, oral injuries, bruises, lacerations, burns, human bite marks, or fractures with unsuitable explanations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 73-year-old female is seen by an ophthalmologist for a follow-up after being diagnosed with primary open-angle glaucoma. The patient is asymptomatic and has 20/20 vision with glasses. During the examination, it is noted that the patient's intraocular pressure remains significantly elevated despite consistent use of a prostaglandin analogue. The decision is made to initiate treatment with timolol eye drops.
What is the main mode of action of timolol eye drops?Your Answer: Increases trabecular meshwork drainage
Correct Answer: Reduces aqueous production
Explanation:Timolol, a beta-blocker, is commonly used as a second-line treatment for primary open-angle glaucoma. It works by reducing the production of aqueous humor, which in turn lowers intraocular pressure. Mitotic agents like pilocarpine can cause pupil constriction and may be used in acute closed-angle glaucoma to increase space for aqueous drainage. However, this mechanism is not routinely used in open-angle glaucoma. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors like acetazolamide can also reduce aqueous production but are taken orally and can cause systemic side effects. Increasing trabecular meshwork drainage is a mechanism used by drugs like pilocarpine, while increasing uveoscleral drainage is achieved by drugs like latanoprost, a prostaglandin analogue.
Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type of optic neuropathy that is associated with increased intraocular pressure (IOP). It is classified based on whether the peripheral iris is covering the trabecular meshwork, which is important in the drainage of aqueous humour from the anterior chamber of the eye. In open-angle glaucoma, the iris is clear of the meshwork, but the trabecular network offers increased resistance to aqueous outflow, causing increased IOP. This condition affects 0.5% of people over the age of 40 and its prevalence increases with age up to 10% over the age of 80 years. Both males and females are equally affected. The main causes of primary open-angle glaucoma are increasing age and genetics, with first-degree relatives of an open-angle glaucoma patient having a 16% chance of developing the disease.
Primary open-angle glaucoma is characterised by a slow rise in intraocular pressure, which is symptomless for a long period. It is typically detected following an ocular pressure measurement during a routine examination by an optometrist. Signs of the condition include increased intraocular pressure, visual field defect, and pathological cupping of the optic disc. Case finding and provisional diagnosis are done by an optometrist, and referral to an ophthalmologist is done via the GP. Final diagnosis is made through investigations such as automated perimetry to assess visual field, slit lamp examination with pupil dilatation to assess optic nerve and fundus for a baseline, applanation tonometry to measure IOP, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy to assess peripheral anterior chamber configuration and depth. The risk of future visual impairment is assessed using risk factors such as IOP, central corneal thickness (CCT), family history, and life expectancy.
The majority of patients with primary open-angle glaucoma are managed with eye drops that aim to lower intraocular pressure and prevent progressive loss of visual field. According to NICE guidelines, the first line of treatment is a prostaglandin analogue (PGA) eyedrop, followed by a beta-blocker, carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, or sympathomimetic eyedrop as a second line of treatment. Surgery or laser treatment can be tried in more advanced cases. Reassessment is important to exclude progression and visual field loss and needs to be done more frequently if IOP is uncontrolled, the patient is high risk, or there
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old boy with no significant medical history is brought to the ER by his mother due to a week-long crying spell and passing bright red stools. The patient cries loudly upon palpation of the right lower quadrant. Meckel's diverticulum is confirmed through a positive technetium-99m scan. What is the embryological source of this abnormality?
Your Answer: Pleuroperitoneal membrane
Correct Answer: Omphalomesenteric duct
Explanation:The correct answer is omphalomesenteric duct, which is the precursor to Meckel’s diverticulum. Meckel’s diverticulum is a true diverticulum that forms due to the persistence of this duct and may contain gastric or pancreatic tissue. It is the most common congenital anomaly of the GI tract and can present with various symptoms.
Auerbach plexus is an incorrect answer. Its absence is associated with Hirschsprung disease or achalasia.
Fetal umbilical vein is also incorrect. It becomes the ligamentum teres hepatis within the falciform ligament of the liver.
Pleuroperitoneal membrane is another incorrect answer. A congenital defect in this structure can lead to a left-sided diaphragmatic hernia in infants.
Meckel’s diverticulum is a congenital diverticulum of the small intestine that is a remnant of the omphalomesenteric duct. It occurs in 2% of the population, is 2 feet from the ileocaecal valve, and is 2 inches long. It is usually asymptomatic but can present with abdominal pain, rectal bleeding, or intestinal obstruction. Investigation includes a Meckel’s scan or mesenteric arteriography. Management involves removal if narrow neck or symptomatic, with options between wedge excision or formal small bowel resection and anastomosis. Meckel’s diverticulum is typically lined by ileal mucosa but ectopic gastric, pancreatic, and jejunal mucosa can also occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with a recent diagnosis of COPD is admitted to the hospital for treatment of an exacerbation caused by infection. She reports smoking 10 cigarettes per day and has a family history of lung cancer. Her chest x-ray shows signs of emphysema, and she mentions that her parents and siblings also have the disease. She asks for advice on the best course of action to improve her prognosis.
Your Answer: Inhaler technique and compliance
Correct Answer: Stop smoking
Explanation:The most crucial step to enhance the patient’s prognosis is to assist them in quitting smoking. While lung reduction surgery and long-term oxygen therapy may benefit certain patient groups, smoking cessation remains the top priority. Proper inhaler technique and adherence, as well as the use of home nebulizers, can provide symptomatic relief for the patient.
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenzae vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.
Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.
If the patient does not have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.
NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.
Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE does not recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 20
Correct
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You begin a 54-year-old male on tacrolimus after a successful liver transplant surgery. He is unsure about the need for the medication and requests an explanation of its mechanism of action.
What is the mechanism of action of tacrolimus?Your Answer: Calcineurin inhibitor
Explanation:Tacrolimus belongs to the class of calcineurin inhibitors, which work by reducing the production of interleukin-2. This cytokine plays a crucial role in the immune response after transplantation, and by decreasing its production, tacrolimus lowers the risk of acute rejection of the transplanted kidney.
Low-dose methotrexate is a type of dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthase inhibitor that blocks DNA synthesis, inflammation, and cell division. It is used as an immunosuppressant and a cancer treatment.
Azathioprine is an antiproliferative drug that inhibits the proliferation of T and B cells, thereby suppressing the immune system. It is often prescribed in combination with tacrolimus after transplantation.
Daclizumab is an interleukin inhibitor that reduces the activity of interleukins, rather than their production. It is also used as an immunosuppressant after transplantation.
Tacrolimus: An Immunosuppressant for Transplant Rejection Prevention
Tacrolimus is an immunosuppressant drug that is commonly used to prevent transplant rejection. It belongs to the calcineurin inhibitor class of drugs and has a similar action to ciclosporin. The drug works by reducing the clonal proliferation of T cells by decreasing the release of IL-2. It binds to FKBP, forming a complex that inhibits calcineurin, a phosphatase that activates various transcription factors in T cells. This is different from ciclosporin, which binds to cyclophilin instead of FKBP.
Compared to ciclosporin, tacrolimus is more potent, resulting in a lower incidence of organ rejection. However, it is also associated with a higher risk of nephrotoxicity and impaired glucose tolerance. Despite these potential side effects, tacrolimus remains an important drug in preventing transplant rejection and improving the success of organ transplantation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Tina, who is in her mid-30s, is currently facing a challenging situation at work that is causing her to feel increasingly frustrated and angry. To cope with these emotions, she has decided to take up kickboxing as a form of release. By channeling her energy into physical activity, Tinais able to manage her anger in a healthy way. This is an example of which defense mechanism?
Your Answer: Displacement
Correct Answer: Sublimation
Explanation:Defense Mechanisms: Coping Strategies for Unacceptable Emotions
Defense mechanisms are psychological strategies that individuals use to cope with unacceptable emotions and thoughts. These mechanisms are often unconscious and can be helpful in managing difficult situations. One such mechanism is sublimation, which involves channeling negative emotions into more acceptable outlets. For example, a person who is angry may choose to engage in physical exercise as a way to release their emotions.
Another defense mechanism is displacement, which involves transferring emotions from one person or situation to another. This can be seen when a person who is angry with their boss comes home and takes out their frustration on their family members. Intellectualization is another mechanism that allows individuals to focus on the facts of a situation rather than the emotions they are feeling. This can be helpful in situations where emotions may be overwhelming, such as when dealing with a serious illness.
Rationalization is a defense mechanism that allows individuals to justify their behavior in a logical manner when their ego is threatened. For example, a student who fails an exam may blame the teacher rather than accepting responsibility for their own actions. Finally, denial is a mechanism that involves consciously avoiding painful topics. This can be seen when a patient denies being told that they have a serious illness.
Overall, defense mechanisms can be helpful in managing difficult emotions and situations. However, it is important to recognize when these mechanisms are being used and to seek help if they are interfering with daily life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 22
Correct
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A 10-year-old boy has been diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy due to a significantly elevated level of creatine kinase in his blood. What is the role of creatine kinase in the body?
Your Answer: To regenerate ATP for muscle contraction
Explanation:Creatine Kinase: An Enzyme for Muscle Contraction
Creatine kinase (CK), also known as creatine phosphokinase (CPK), is an enzyme that plays a crucial role in muscle tissue. Its main function is to catalyze the regeneration of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) from adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and creatine phosphate after muscle contraction. This process allows for further muscle contraction and supports sustained exertion. CK is present in many tissues, but it is most active in striated and cardiac muscle. Other tissues with CK activity include the brain, gastrointestinal tract, and bladder.
The body’s tissues contain a dimeric form of CK, which is made up of two subunits. Each subunit of CK can be made from a genetic area on chromosome 14 (CK-B) or chromosome 19 (CK-M). There are three dimeric forms (isoforms) of CK: CK-MM, CK-MB, and CK-BB. CK-MM is abundant in striated muscle tissue, while CK-MB is abundant in cardiac muscle tissue. CK-BB is abundant in the brain, gastrointestinal tract, and bladder.
In patients with muscle diseases such as Duchenne muscular dystrophy, CK-MM is released and will be the main form of CK measured. CK-MB has been widely used in the past as an aid in the diagnosis of myocardial infarction and other diseases affecting the heart muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 23
Correct
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A 72-year-old man with confirmed heart failure visits the community cardiology clinic and complains of ankle swelling as his most bothersome symptom. He expresses reluctance to begin another diuretic due to a previous hospitalization for weakness, nausea, and abdominal cramps after starting one. The cardiologist proposes initiating an aldosterone receptor antagonist. What medication is the cardiologist recommending?
Your Answer: Spironolactone (potassium-sparing diuretic)
Explanation:Spironolactone is a medication that works as an aldosterone antagonist in the cortical collecting duct. It is used to treat various conditions such as ascites, hypertension, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, and Conn’s syndrome. In patients with cirrhosis, spironolactone is often prescribed in relatively large doses of 100 or 200 mg to counteract secondary hyperaldosteronism. It is also used as a NICE ‘step 4’ treatment for hypertension. In addition, spironolactone has been shown to reduce all-cause mortality in patients with NYHA III + IV heart failure who are already taking an ACE inhibitor, according to the RALES study.
However, spironolactone can cause adverse effects such as hyperkalaemia and gynaecomastia, although the latter is less common with eplerenone. It is important to monitor potassium levels in patients taking spironolactone to prevent hyperkalaemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Overall, spironolactone is a useful medication for treating various conditions, but its potential adverse effects should be carefully considered and monitored.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What is the full form of ATP and how is it used during exercise?
Your Answer: Ammonium triphosphate
Correct Answer: Adenosine triphosphate
Explanation:ATP Generation During Exercise
During exercise, the process of muscle contraction requires the generation of ATP, which stands for adenosine triphosphate. ATP is a small molecule composed of adenine and a sugar group attached to three phosphate groups. When ATP loses a phosphate group, it becomes ADP and releases energy.
To sustain prolonged exercise, ATP must be regenerated quickly. This is achieved through the creatine phosphate – ATP system. Creatine phosphate releases a phosphate group, which allows for the rapid regeneration of ATP from ADP. This system ensures that the muscles have a constant supply of ATP to support muscle contraction during exercise. Proper ATP generation is crucial for athletes and individuals engaging in physical activity to perform at their best.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 25
Incorrect
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At a routine check-up, a teenage girl is being educated by her physician about the ovarian cycle. The physician informs her that the primordial follicles undergo modifications until they develop into mature follicles. What specific alteration indicates the conversion of the primordial follicle into a primary follicle?
Your Answer: Development of the antrum
Correct Answer: Development of the zona pellucida
Explanation:The formation of the zona pellucida is a significant milestone in the growth of the ovarian follicle, indicating the transition from a primordial follicle to a primary follicle. As the follicle continues to develop, it undergoes several changes, each marking a different stage of growth.
The stages of ovarian follicle development are as follows:
1. Primordial follicles: These contain an oocyte and granulosa cells.
2. Primary follicles: At this stage, the zona pellucida begins to form, and the granulosa cells start to proliferate.
3. Pre-antral follicles: The theca develops during this stage.
4. Mature/Graafian follicles: The antrum forms, marking the final stage of follicular growth.
5. Corpus luteum: The oocyte is released due to the enzymatic breakdown of the follicular wall, and the corpus luteum forms.
Anatomy of the Ovarian Follicle
The ovarian follicle is a complex structure that plays a crucial role in female reproductive function. It consists of several components, including granulosa cells, the zona pellucida, the theca, the antrum, and the cumulus oophorus.
Granulosa cells are responsible for producing oestradiol, which is essential for follicular development. Once the follicle becomes the corpus luteum, granulosa lutein cells produce progesterone, which is necessary for embryo implantation. The zona pellucida is a membrane that surrounds the oocyte and contains the protein ZP3, which is responsible for sperm binding.
The theca produces androstenedione, which is converted into oestradiol by granulosa cells. The antrum is a fluid-filled portion of the follicle that marks the transition of a primary oocyte into a secondary oocyte. Finally, the cumulus oophorus is a cluster of cells surrounding the oocyte that must be penetrated by spermatozoa for fertilisation to occur.
Understanding the anatomy of the ovarian follicle is essential for understanding female reproductive function and fertility. Each component plays a unique role in the development and maturation of the oocyte, as well as in the processes of fertilisation and implantation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 4-month-old boy is being evaluated for possible hypospadias. In boys with this condition, where is the urethral opening most commonly found?
Your Answer: On the proximal dorsal surface of the penis
Correct Answer: On the distal ventral surface of the penis
Explanation:The anomaly is typically situated on the underside and frequently towards the end. Urethral openings found closer to the body are a known occurrence. Surgical removal of the foreskin may hinder the process of repairing the defect.
Understanding Hypospadias: A Congenital Abnormality of the Penis
Hypospadias is a congenital abnormality of the penis that affects approximately 3 out of 1,000 male infants. It is usually identified during the newborn baby check, but if missed, parents may notice an abnormal urine stream. This condition is characterized by a ventral urethral meatus, a hooded prepuce, and chordee in more severe forms. In some cases, the urethral meatus may open more proximally in the more severe variants, but 75% of the openings are distally located.
There appears to be a significant genetic element to hypospadias, with further male children having a risk of around 5-15%. While it most commonly occurs as an isolated disorder, associated conditions include cryptorchidism (present in 10%) and inguinal hernia.
Once hypospadias has been identified, infants should be referred to specialist services. Corrective surgery is typically performed when the child is around 12 months of age. It is essential that the child is not circumcised prior to the surgery as the foreskin may be used in the corrective procedure. In boys with very distal disease, no treatment may be needed.
Overall, understanding hypospadias is important for parents and healthcare providers to ensure proper management and treatment for affected infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of fatigue. Upon further inquiry, the doctor learns that she has been experiencing heavy menstrual bleeding for the past 8 months. To investigate further, the doctor orders a complete blood count and iron level test. What is the typical lifespan of a red blood cell?
Your Answer: 100 days
Correct Answer: 120 days
Explanation:The bone marrow in large bones is responsible for the production of human red blood cells through erythropoiesis. Stem cells undergo a 7-day development process to become red blood cells, which then circulate for around 120 days before being eliminated by the spleen. Eryptosis, or programmed red cell death, occurs at the same rate as production.
However, certain diseases can increase the rate of eryptosis, resulting in a shorter lifespan for red blood cells. These diseases include haemolytic uraemic syndrome, sepsis, malaria, sickle cell disease, thalassaemia, iron deficiency, and Wilson’s disease.
Iron deficiency anaemia is a prevalent condition worldwide, with preschool-age children being the most affected. The lack of iron in the body leads to a decrease in red blood cells and haemoglobin, resulting in anaemia. The primary causes of iron deficiency anaemia are excessive blood loss, inadequate dietary intake, poor intestinal absorption, and increased iron requirements. Menorrhagia is the most common cause of blood loss in pre-menopausal women, while gastrointestinal bleeding is the most common cause in men and postmenopausal women. Vegans and vegetarians are more likely to develop iron deficiency anaemia due to the lack of meat in their diet. Coeliac disease and other conditions affecting the small intestine can prevent sufficient iron absorption. Children and pregnant women have increased iron demands, and the latter may experience dilution due to an increase in plasma volume.
The symptoms of iron deficiency anaemia include fatigue, shortness of breath on exertion, palpitations, pallor, nail changes, hair loss, atrophic glossitis, post-cricoid webs, and angular stomatitis. To diagnose iron deficiency anaemia, a full blood count, serum ferritin, total iron-binding capacity, transferrin, and blood film tests are performed. Endoscopy may be necessary to rule out malignancy, especially in males and postmenopausal females with unexplained iron-deficiency anaemia.
The management of iron deficiency anaemia involves identifying and treating the underlying cause. Oral ferrous sulfate is commonly prescribed, and patients should continue taking iron supplements for three months after the iron deficiency has been corrected to replenish iron stores. Iron-rich foods such as dark-green leafy vegetables, meat, and iron-fortified bread can also help. It is crucial to exclude malignancy by taking an adequate history and appropriate investigations if warranted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 14-month-old infant is undergoing investigation by community paediatrics for developmental delay. The mother has observed that the child has poor balance, cannot take steps alone, and walks on tiptoes with support. The infant was delivered via c-section at 28 weeks gestation and weighed 1400 grams at birth.
During the assessment, the infant exhibits hyperreflexia, increased tone in the lower limbs, and sustained clonus in both ankles. The suspected diagnosis is cerebral palsy.
What type of cerebral palsy is likely to be present in this infant based on the observed symptoms?Your Answer: Dyskinetic cerebral palsy
Correct Answer: Spastic cerebral palsy
Explanation:Understanding Cerebral Palsy
Cerebral palsy is a condition that affects movement and posture due to damage to the motor pathways in the developing brain. It is the most common cause of major motor impairment and affects 2 in 1,000 live births. The causes of cerebral palsy can be antenatal, intrapartum, or postnatal. Antenatal causes include cerebral malformation and congenital infections such as rubella, toxoplasmosis, and CMV. Intrapartum causes include birth asphyxia or trauma, while postnatal causes include intraventricular hemorrhage, meningitis, and head trauma.
Children with cerebral palsy may exhibit abnormal tone in early infancy, delayed motor milestones, abnormal gait, and feeding difficulties. They may also have associated non-motor problems such as learning difficulties, epilepsy, squints, and hearing impairment. Cerebral palsy can be classified into spastic, dyskinetic, ataxic, or mixed types.
Managing cerebral palsy requires a multidisciplinary approach. Treatments for spasticity include oral diazepam, oral and intrathecal baclofen, botulinum toxin type A, orthopedic surgery, and selective dorsal rhizotomy. Anticonvulsants and analgesia may also be required. Understanding cerebral palsy and its management is crucial in providing appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 29
Incorrect
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An 73-year-old man with chronic obstructive airway disease (COPD) is admitted to your ward. He presents with dyspnea and inability to lie flat. What physical examination findings would indicate a possible diagnosis of cor pulmonale, or right-sided heart failure secondary to COPD?
Your Answer: Upper limb oedema
Correct Answer: Smooth hepatomegaly
Explanation:Understanding Hepatomegaly and Its Common Causes
Hepatomegaly refers to an enlarged liver, which can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is cirrhosis, which can lead to a decrease in liver size in later stages. In this case, the liver is non-tender and firm. Malignancy, such as metastatic spread or primary hepatoma, can also cause hepatomegaly. In this case, the liver edge is hard and irregular. Right heart failure can also lead to an enlarged liver, which is firm, smooth, and tender. It may even be pulsatile.
Aside from these common causes, hepatomegaly can also be caused by viral hepatitis, glandular fever, malaria, abscess (pyogenic or amoebic), hydatid disease, haematological malignancies, haemochromatosis, primary biliary cirrhosis, sarcoidosis, and amyloidosis.
Understanding the causes of hepatomegaly is important in diagnosing and treating the underlying condition. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent further complications and improve overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What is the most frequent type of tumor found in the colon?
Your Answer: Anaplastic carcinoma
Correct Answer: Adenocarcinoma
Explanation:Adenocarcinomas are frequently occurring and usually develop due to the sequence of adenoma leading to carcinoma.
Colorectal cancer is a prevalent type of cancer in the UK, ranking third in terms of frequency and second in terms of cancer-related deaths. Every year, approximately 150,000 new cases are diagnosed, and 50,000 people die from the disease. The cancer can occur in different parts of the colon, with the rectum being the most common location, accounting for 40% of cases. The sigmoid colon follows closely, with 30% of cases, while the descending colon has only 5%. The transverse colon has 10% of cases, and the ascending colon and caecum have 15%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old female has a history of B12 deficiency and is now presenting symptoms of subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord that affects her dorsal columns. Which types of sensation will be impacted by this condition?
Your Answer: Temperature, fast pain, and proprioception
Correct Answer: Light touch, vibration and proprioception
Explanation:The spinal cord’s classic metabolic disorder is subacute combined degeneration, which results from a deficiency in vitamin B12. Folate deficiency can also cause this disorder. The damage specifically affects the posterior columns and corticospinal tracts, but peripheral nerve damage often develops early on, making the clinical picture complex. The dorsal columns are responsible for transmitting sensations of light touch, vibration, and proprioception.
Spinal cord lesions can affect different tracts and result in various clinical symptoms. Motor lesions, such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and poliomyelitis, affect either upper or lower motor neurons, resulting in spastic paresis or lower motor neuron signs. Combined motor and sensory lesions, such as Brown-Sequard syndrome, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, Friedrich’s ataxia, anterior spinal artery occlusion, and syringomyelia, affect multiple tracts and result in a combination of spastic paresis, loss of proprioception and vibration sensation, limb ataxia, and loss of pain and temperature sensation. Multiple sclerosis can involve asymmetrical and varying spinal tracts and result in a combination of motor, sensory, and ataxia symptoms. Sensory lesions, such as neurosyphilis, affect the dorsal columns and result in loss of proprioception and vibration sensation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman is referred to the clinic with symptoms of fatigue, constipation, weight gain, and cold intolerance. Thyroid function testing reveals overt hypothyroidism, and the recommended treatment is levothyroxine. What receptors does this medication act on?
Your Answer: G-protein coupled receptors
Correct Answer: Nuclear receptors
Explanation:Levothyroxine exerts its therapeutic effect by interacting with nuclear receptors found within cells. Unlike G protein-coupled receptors, which are activated by a variety of extracellular signals, levothyroxine does not bind to these receptors. Ligand-gated ion channel receptors, which allow ions to pass through in response to ligand binding, are also not affected by levothyroxine. Similarly, levothyroxine does not interact with serine/threonine kinase receptors, which are bound by the ligand transforming growth factor beta. Instead, levothyroxine controls DNA transcription and protein synthesis, resulting in the regulation of metabolic processes.
Pharmacodynamics refers to the effects of drugs on the body, as opposed to pharmacokinetics which is concerned with how the body processes drugs. Drugs typically interact with a target, which can be a protein located either inside or outside of cells. There are four main types of cellular targets: ion channels, G-protein coupled receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, and nuclear receptors. The type of target determines the mechanism of action of the drug. For example, drugs that work on ion channels cause the channel to open or close, while drugs that activate tyrosine kinase receptors lead to cell growth and differentiation.
It is also important to consider whether a drug has a positive or negative impact on the receptor. Agonists activate the receptor, while antagonists block the receptor preventing activation. Antagonists can be competitive or non-competitive, depending on whether they bind at the same site as the agonist or at a different site. The binding affinity of a drug refers to how readily it binds to a specific receptor, while efficacy measures how well an agonist produces a response once it has bound to the receptor. Potency is related to the concentration at which a drug is effective, while the therapeutic index is the ratio of the dose of a drug resulting in an undesired effect compared to that at which it produces the desired effect.
The relationship between the dose of a drug and the response it produces is rarely linear. Many drugs saturate the available receptors, meaning that further increased doses will not cause any more response. Some drugs do not have a significant impact below a certain dose and are considered sub-therapeutic. Dose-response graphs can be used to illustrate the relationship between dose and response, allowing for easy comparison of different drugs. However, it is important to remember that dose-response varies between individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a sudden onset of numbness on the lateral aspect of his calf and an inability to dorsiflex his foot. Which nerve is most likely affected in this presentation?
Your Answer: Sciatic nerve
Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve
Explanation:The most frequent reason for foot drop is a lesion in the common peroneal nerve.
The common peroneal nerve is responsible for providing sensation to the posterolateral part of the leg and controlling the anterior and lateral compartments of the lower leg. If it is compressed or damaged, it can result in foot drop.
While the sciatic nerve divides into the common peroneal nerve, it would cause additional symptoms.
The femoral nerve only innervates the upper thigh and inner leg, so it would not cause foot drop.
The tibial nerve is the other branch of the sciatic nerve and controls the muscles in the posterior compartment of the leg.
The posterior femoral cutaneous nerve is responsible for providing sensation to the skin of the posterior aspect of the thigh.
Understanding Foot Drop: Causes and Examination
Foot drop is a condition that occurs when the foot dorsiflexors become weak. This can be caused by various factors, including a common peroneal nerve lesion, L5 radiculopathy, sciatic nerve lesion, superficial or deep peroneal nerve lesion, or central nerve lesions. However, the most common cause is a common peroneal nerve lesion, which is often due to compression at the neck of the fibula. This can be triggered by certain positions, prolonged confinement, recent weight loss, Baker’s cysts, or plaster casts to the lower leg.
To diagnose foot drop, a thorough examination is necessary. If the patient has an isolated peroneal neuropathy, there will be weakness of foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and reflexes will be normal. Weakness of hip abduction is suggestive of an L5 radiculopathy. Bilateral symptoms, fasciculations, or other abnormal neurological findings are indications for specialist referral.
If foot drop is diagnosed, conservative management is appropriate. Patients should avoid leg crossing, squatting, and kneeling. Symptoms typically improve over 2-3 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male is admitted to the renal ward after presenting with lethargy, swelling and two episodes of haematuria. Bloods revealed the following:
Hb 150 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 200 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 11.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Neuts 4.5 * 109/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Lymphs 3.0 * 109/L (1.0 - 3.5)
Mono 0.8 * 109/L (0.2 - 0.8)
Eosin 4.0 * 109/L (0.0 - 0.4)
ESR 130 mm/hr Men: < (age / 2)
Women: < ((age + 10) / 2)
He was found to have high circulating levels for perinuclear antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (pANCA).
What is the main target of this antibody within the cell?Your Answer: Lysozyme
Correct Answer: Myeloperoxidase (MPO)
Explanation:The primary focus of pANCA is on myeloperoxidase (MPO), although it also targets lysosome, cathepsin G, and elastase to a lesser extent. Meanwhile, cANCA primarily targets PR3. All of these targets are located within the azurophilic granules of neutrophils.
ANCA testing can be done through ELISA or immunofluorescence, which can detect anti-MPO or anti-PR3 antibodies in the blood. The pattern of immunostaining would vary depending on the specific condition.
ANCA testing is useful in diagnosing and monitoring the disease activity of certain conditions, such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegner’s granulomatosis), eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA), and microscopic polyangiitis. MPO antibodies are more sensitive in detecting microscopic polyangiitis compared to EGPA.
ANCA Associated Vasculitis: Types, Symptoms, and Management
ANCA associated vasculitis is a group of small-vessel vasculitides that are associated with anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA). These include granulomatosis with polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss syndrome), and microscopic polyangiitis. ANCA associated vasculitis is more common in older individuals and presents with symptoms such as renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, systemic symptoms, vasculitic rash, and ear, nose, and throat symptoms.
To diagnose ANCA associated vasculitis, first-line investigations include urinalysis for haematuria and proteinuria, blood tests for renal impairment, full blood count, CRP, and ANCA testing. There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic (cANCA) and perinuclear (pANCA) – with cANCA being associated with granulomatosis with polyangiitis and pANCA being associated with eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis and other conditions.
Once suspected, ANCA associated vasculitis should be managed by specialist teams to allow an exact diagnosis to be made. The mainstay of management is immunosuppressive therapy. Kidney or lung biopsies may be taken to aid the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman is suspected of having a femoral hernia. Where is it most likely to be clinically identifiable?
Your Answer: Above and medial to the pubic tubercle
Correct Answer: Below and lateral to the pubic tubercle
Explanation:Femoral hernias emerge from the femoral canal situated below and to the side of the pubic tubercle. These hernias are more common in women due to their unique pelvic anatomy. Repairing femoral hernias is crucial as they pose a significant risk of strangulation.
Understanding the Femoral Canal
The femoral canal is a fascial tunnel located at the medial aspect of the femoral sheath. It contains both the femoral artery and femoral vein, with the canal lying medial to the vein. The borders of the femoral canal include the femoral vein laterally, the lacunar ligament medially, the inguinal ligament anteriorly, and the pectineal ligament posteriorly.
The femoral canal plays a significant role in allowing the femoral vein to expand, which facilitates increased venous return to the lower limbs. However, it can also be a site of femoral hernias, which occur when abdominal contents protrude through the femoral canal. The relatively tight neck of the femoral canal places these hernias at high risk of strangulation, making it important to understand the anatomy and function of this structure. Overall, understanding the femoral canal is crucial for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating potential issues related to this area.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 36
Incorrect
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Which vessel contributes the most to the arterial supply of the breast?
Your Answer: Lateral thoracic artery
Correct Answer: Internal mammary artery
Explanation:The internal mammary artery is the primary source of arterial supply to the breast, with the external mammary and lateral thoracic arteries playing a smaller role. This information is relevant for surgeons performing reduction mammoplasty surgeries.
The breast is situated on a layer of pectoral fascia and is surrounded by the pectoralis major, serratus anterior, and external oblique muscles. The nerve supply to the breast comes from branches of intercostal nerves from T4-T6, while the arterial supply comes from the internal mammary (thoracic) artery, external mammary artery (laterally), anterior intercostal arteries, and thoraco-acromial artery. The breast’s venous drainage is through a superficial venous plexus to subclavian, axillary, and intercostal veins. Lymphatic drainage occurs through the axillary nodes, internal mammary chain, and other lymphatic sites such as deep cervical and supraclavicular fossa (later in disease).
The preparation for lactation involves the hormones oestrogen, progesterone, and human placental lactogen. Oestrogen promotes duct development in high concentrations, while high levels of progesterone stimulate the formation of lobules. Human placental lactogen prepares the mammary glands for lactation. The two hormones involved in stimulating lactation are prolactin and oxytocin. Prolactin causes milk secretion, while oxytocin causes contraction of the myoepithelial cells surrounding the mammary alveoli to result in milk ejection from the breast. Suckling of the baby stimulates the mechanoreceptors in the nipple, resulting in the release of both prolactin and oxytocin from the pituitary gland (anterior and posterior parts respectively).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 37
Incorrect
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Which type of lipoprotein is involved in the development of atherosclerosis observed in coronary artery disease?
Your Answer: Chylomicron
Correct Answer: Low density lipoprotein (LDL)
Explanation:Atherosclerosis: The Gradual Narrowing of Arteries
Atherosclerosis is a gradual process that involves the narrowing of arteries due to the accumulation of lipid-rich deposits within artery walls. This condition can take many years to develop and is the primary cause of coronary heart disease, peripheral vascular disease, and ischemic stroke. When a clot forms over an atherosclerotic plaque, it can lead to a heart attack by blocking blood flow to the cardiac muscle.
Monocytes from the blood absorb oxidized LDL particles to form lipid-laden foam cells, which accumulate in the vessel walls and eventually form fatty streaks and atherosclerotic plaques. These foam cells secrete cytokines and chemokines that promote smooth muscle cell proliferation, contributing to the development of the atherosclerotic plaque. Any damage to the plaque can result in the release of tissue factor, which promotes clot formation.
LDL can easily form oxidized LDL, especially in the presence of haem, which is released from damaged red blood cells in areas of turbulent blood flow. Inflammation, obesity, diabetes, and impaired glucose tolerance can also contribute to the formation of oxidized LDL. the causes and mechanisms of atherosclerosis is crucial in preventing and treating this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A young adult comes to your clinic to inquire about their tuberculosis vaccination history. You administer a Mantoux test and after three days, you observe a positive reaction. What category of hypersensitivity reaction has occurred?
Your Answer: Type II
Correct Answer: Type IV
Explanation:The tuberculin skin reaction, also known as the Mantoux test, is an instance of a type IV hypersensitivity reaction, which is characterized by delayed onset. The clinician must wait for 2-3 days before examining the skin for any reaction. Various types of hypersensitivity reactions are outlined below.
Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions
Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is commonly seen in atopic conditions such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II hypersensitivity occurs when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface, leading to autoimmune conditions such as autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, and Goodpasture’s syndrome. Type III hypersensitivity occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes, leading to conditions such as serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Type IV hypersensitivity is T-cell mediated and includes conditions such as tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, and allergic contact dermatitis.
In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is seen in conditions such as Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the classification of hypersensitivity reactions is important in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 39
Correct
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You encounter a young patient on the haematology ward who has just received their first round of chemotherapy for high-grade non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Upon reviewing their medical records, you discover that they have been prescribed allopurinol as a precaution against tumour lysis syndrome due to the size of the tumour. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
Your Answer: Inhibition of xanthine oxidase
Explanation:Allopurinol works by inhibiting xanthine oxidase, an enzyme that plays a role in the formation of uric acid. This medication is crucial for patients undergoing chemotherapy, as the breakdown of cells during treatment can lead to high levels of uric acid, which can cause kidney damage. By acting as a prophylactic measure, allopurinol helps prevent this from happening.
The other options provided are incorrect. HMG-CoA reductase inhibition is the mechanism of action for statins, while colchicine acts as a mitotic spindle poison, and azathioprine works by inhibiting purine synthesis. It is important to note that allopurinol should never be combined with azathioprine, as this can increase the risk of toxicity.
Allopurinol can interact with other medications such as azathioprine, cyclophosphamide, and theophylline. It can lead to high levels of 6-mercaptopurine when used with azathioprine, reduced renal clearance when used with cyclophosphamide, and an increase in plasma concentration of theophylline. Patients at a high risk of severe cutaneous adverse reaction should be screened for the HLA-B *5801 allele.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A patient with a straightforward pregnancy is presented with the option of inducing labour to prevent the potential risks of an extended pregnancy. After an unsuccessful membrane sweep, an alternative method is selected to enhance uterine contractions and facilitate labour.
What are the substances derived from arachidonic acid that are utilized to induce labour?Your Answer: Nifedipine
Correct Answer: Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2)
Explanation:The correct answer for increasing uterine tone is Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2). After a failed membrane sweep, NICE recommends using vaginal PGE2 to stimulate uterine contractions and promote cervical ripening by activating collagenases within the cervix.
Nifedipine is an incorrect answer as it delays labor by binding to calcium receptors in the myometrium, reducing uterine tone.
Oxytocin is also an incorrect answer as it is a peptide hormone stored and released from the posterior pituitary, used to induce labor by increasing uterine tone, but not derived from arachidonic acid.
COX-1 is an incorrect answer as it is an enzyme involved in the arachidonic acid/prostaglandin pathway, not a product.
Arachidonic Acid Metabolism: The Role of Leukotrienes and Endoperoxides
Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid that plays a crucial role in the body’s inflammatory response. The metabolism of arachidonic acid involves the production of various compounds, including leukotrienes and endoperoxides. Leukotrienes are produced by leukocytes and can cause constriction of the lungs. LTB4 is produced before leukocytes arrive, while the rest of the leukotrienes (A, C, D, and E) cause lung constriction.
Endoperoxides, on the other hand, are produced by the cyclooxygenase enzyme and can lead to the formation of thromboxane and prostacyclin. Thromboxane is associated with platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction, which can lead to thrombosis. Prostacyclin, on the other hand, has the opposite effect and can cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet aggregation.
Understanding the metabolism of arachidonic acid and the role of these compounds can help in the development of treatments for inflammatory conditions and cardiovascular diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man with confirmed heart failure visits the GP clinic for wound dressing on his left leg. During the visit, the nurse informs the GP that she suspects the patient's legs are swollen. Upon examination, the GP observes bilateral pitting edema that extends up to the knee and decides to prescribe a diuretic. Which diuretic inhibits the sodium-potassium-chloride cotransporter?
Your Answer: Acetazolamide (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor)
Correct Answer: Furosemide (loop diuretic)
Explanation:Loop Diuretics: Mechanism of Action and Clinical Applications
Loop diuretics, such as furosemide and bumetanide, are medications that inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. By doing so, they reduce the absorption of NaCl, resulting in increased urine output. Loop diuretics act on NKCC2, which is more prevalent in the kidneys. These medications work on the apical membrane and must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. Patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to ensure sufficient concentration in the tubules.
Loop diuretics are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure, both acutely (usually intravenously) and chronically (usually orally). They are also indicated for resistant hypertension, particularly in patients with renal impairment. However, loop diuretics can cause adverse effects such as hypotension, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypochloremic alkalosis, ototoxicity, hypocalcemia, renal impairment, hyperglycemia (less common than with thiazides), and gout. Therefore, careful monitoring of electrolyte levels and renal function is necessary when using loop diuretics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A six-year-old girl presents to the GP with a rash on her face that appeared earlier in the day. Her parents report that she has been experiencing flu-like symptoms for the past five days, including a runny nose, cough, and fever. The girl has no significant medical history or family history of autoimmune diseases, and she has received all of her age-appropriate vaccinations.
During the examination, an erythematous malar rash with circumferential pallor is observed on the girl's face. No other rashes are noted.
The girl's temperature is measured to be 38.5ÂșC, and her blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate are all within normal limits.
What is the most likely organism responsible for her condition?Your Answer: Coxsackievirus A16
Correct Answer: Parvovirus B19
Explanation:The likely cause of the boy’s symptoms is erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease, which is caused by parvovirus B19. The malar rash, or slapped-cheek rash, is a classic symptom of this childhood exanthem. Hand, foot and mouth disease caused by Coxsackievirus A16 is unlikely as the patient does not have the characteristic oral exanthem or rashes on the hands and feet. Measles, roseola infantum, and rubella are also unlikely as the patient has received his MMR vaccine and his symptoms do not match the typical progression of these diseases.
Erythema Infectiosum: Symptoms, Transmission, and Treatment
Erythema infectiosum, commonly known as fifth disease or slapped-cheek syndrome, is caused by parvovirus B19. The illness may present as a mild feverish illness that goes unnoticed, but in some cases, a noticeable rash appears after a few days. The rash is characterized by rose-red cheeks, hence the name slapped-cheek syndrome, and may spread to the rest of the body, but rarely involves the palms and soles. The child usually begins to feel better as the rash appears, and it usually peaks after a week before fading.
The rash is unusual in that it may recur for some months after exposure to warm baths, sunlight, heat, or fever. While most children recover without specific treatment, the virus may cause acute arthritis in adults. It is important to note that the virus can affect an unborn baby in the first 20 weeks of pregnancy. If a woman is exposed early in pregnancy, she should seek prompt advice from her antenatal care provider.
Erythema infectiosum is spread by the respiratory route, and a person is infectious 3 to 5 days before the appearance of the rash. However, children are no longer infectious once the rash appears, and there is no specific treatment. Therefore, the child need not be excluded from school as they are no longer infectious by the time the rash occurs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 43
Correct
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A patient in his late 50s presents with megaloblastic, macrocytic anaemia due to folate deficiency. Prior to treatment, he undergoes testing for Vitamin B12 deficiency. What is the relationship between these two vitamins?
Your Answer: Vitamin B12 regenerates folic acid in the body
Explanation:Vitamin B12 and folate have a close relationship in terms of their function in the body. Vitamin B12 plays a crucial role in regenerating folic acid, which is the active form of folate. Folic acid is then used in a metabolic process that eventually produces heme.
It is important to test for vitamin B12 deficiency as treating a folate deficiency with folic acid may mask potential symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency. If left untreated, vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to peripheral neuropathy.
While folic acid can be found in green, leafy vegetables, vitamin B12 is primarily found in animal products.
Crohn’s disease is a common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, but it does not typically cause folate deficiency.
During the first trimester of pregnancy, only folic acid is supplemented to prevent neural tube defects.
Vitamin B12 is a type of water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. Unlike other vitamins, it can only be found in animal-based foods. The human body typically stores enough vitamin B12 to last for up to 5 years. This vitamin plays a crucial role in various bodily functions, including acting as a co-factor for the conversion of homocysteine into methionine through the enzyme homocysteine methyltransferase, as well as for the isomerization of methylmalonyl CoA to Succinyl Co A via the enzyme methylmalonyl mutase. Additionally, it is used to regenerate folic acid in the body.
However, there are several causes of vitamin B12 deficiency, including pernicious anaemia, Diphyllobothrium latum infection, and Crohn’s disease. When the body lacks vitamin B12, it can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anaemia and peripheral neuropathy. To prevent these consequences, it is important to ensure that the body has enough vitamin B12 through a balanced diet or supplements.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 44
Correct
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A 55-year-old male comes to see you with worries about his weight. He has a BMI of 32 and you suspect he may have metabolic syndrome. What is one of the diagnostic criteria for this condition?
Your Answer: Dyslipidaemia
Explanation:Metabolic syndrome is a group of risk factors for cardiovascular disease that are closely related to insulin resistance and central obesity.
The diagnostic criteria for metabolic syndrome vary widely, but the International Diabetes Federation (IDF) and American Heart Association (AHA) have established their own criteria, which are commonly used. A diagnosis is made if three or more of the following criteria are present: increased waist circumference (depending on ethnicity) or a BMI greater than 30, dyslipidemia with elevated triglycerides greater than 150 mg/dL or reduced HDL-cholesterol, hypertension, and impaired glucose tolerance.
The Physiology of Obesity: Leptin and Ghrelin
Leptin is a hormone produced by adipose tissue that plays a crucial role in regulating body weight. It acts on the hypothalamus, specifically on the satiety centers, to decrease appetite and induce feelings of fullness. In cases of obesity, where there is an excess of adipose tissue, leptin levels are high. Leptin also stimulates the release of melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) and corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH), which further contribute to the regulation of appetite. On the other hand, low levels of leptin stimulate the release of neuropeptide Y (NPY), which increases appetite.
Ghrelin, on the other hand, is a hormone that stimulates hunger. It is mainly produced by the P/D1 cells lining the fundus of the stomach and epsilon cells of the pancreas. Ghrelin levels increase before meals, signaling the body to prepare for food intake, and decrease after meals, indicating that the body has received enough nutrients.
In summary, the balance between leptin and ghrelin plays a crucial role in regulating appetite and body weight. In cases of obesity, there is an imbalance in this system, with high levels of leptin and potentially disrupted ghrelin signaling, leading to increased appetite and weight gain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man with a history of alcohol excess and type 2 diabetes presents to the emergency department in an intoxicated state. He takes metformin and his recent HbA1c was 44 mmol/mol. On arrival, his blood sugar is 5.1 mmol/L and he frequently needs to urinate. The examination is unremarkable except for his intoxicated state. His blood test shows a creatinine level of 66 ”mol/L (55 - 120). What is causing the patient's polyuria?
Your Answer: Osmotic diuresis
Correct Answer: ADH suppression in the posterior pituitary gland
Explanation:Alcohol bingeing can result in the suppression of ADH in the posterior pituitary gland, leading to polyuria.
Polyuria, or excessive urination, can be caused by a variety of factors. A recent review in the BMJ categorizes these causes by their frequency of occurrence. The most common causes of polyuria include the use of diuretics, caffeine, and alcohol, as well as diabetes mellitus, lithium, and heart failure. Less common causes include hypercalcaemia and hyperthyroidism, while rare causes include chronic renal failure, primary polydipsia, and hypokalaemia. The least common cause of polyuria is diabetes insipidus, which occurs in less than 1 in 10,000 cases. It is important to note that while these frequencies may not align with exam questions, understanding the potential causes of polyuria can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 46
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman has been in a car accident at high speed, and there is a suspicion of diaphragmatic injury. Can you indicate at which level the aorta would be expected to traverse the diaphragm?
Your Answer: T12
Explanation:The Diaphragm’s Openings and What Passes Through Them
The diaphragm, a dome-shaped muscle that separates the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity, has several openings that allow for the passage of important structures. At the T12 level, there is the aortic opening, which transmits the aorta, thoracic duct, and azygous vein. This opening is located towards the back of the diaphragm.
Moving up towards the front of the diaphragm, we find the oesophageal opening at the T10 level. This opening allows for the passage of the oesophagus and vagus nerves, which are important for digestion and communication between the brain and various organs. Finally, at the T8 level, there is the caval opening, which transmits the vena cava and phrenic nerve branches.
the location and function of these openings is important for medical professionals, as they allow for the proper functioning of the organs and systems that pass through them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old patient presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of reduced night vision. Upon further examination, it is discovered that the patient has a medical history of pancreatic insufficiency, chronic diarrhea, and malabsorption. Can you identify which vitamin deficiency is commonly linked to issues with night vision?
Your Answer: Vitamin E
Correct Answer: Vitamin A
Explanation:The Role of Vitamin A in Night Vision
Vitamin A is essential for the production of rhodopsin, a protein found in the retina that is responsible for converting light into energy. This process involves the conversion of vitamin A into 11-cis retinal or all-trans retinol, which is stored in the pigment layer of the retina. Isomerase is an enzyme that plays a crucial role in the production of 11-cis retinal, which is then used to produce rhodopsin.
A deficiency in vitamin A can lead to a problem with night vision, as the body is unable to produce enough rhodopsin to respond to changes in light. This can result in difficulty seeing in low light conditions, such as when driving at night or in dimly lit environments. It is important to ensure that the body receives an adequate amount of vitamin A through a balanced diet or supplements to maintain healthy vision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 48
Correct
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A 56-year-old male patient comes to the clinic with a history of dyspepsia that he has ignored for a long time. He reports no symptoms of dysphagia or haematemesis. During an oesophagoduodenoscopy (OGD), mucosal changes are observed in the lower part of the oesophagus near the sphincter, and a biopsy is taken from this area. What is the probable result of the biopsy?
Your Answer: Columnar epithelial cells
Explanation:The patient has Barrett’s oesophagus, which is a metaplastic condition where the normal oesophageal epithelium is replaced by columnar cells. This increases the risk of adenocarcinoma.
Barrett’s oesophagus is a condition where the lower oesophageal mucosa is replaced by columnar epithelium, which increases the risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma by 50-100 fold. It is usually identified during an endoscopy for upper gastrointestinal symptoms such as dyspepsia, as there are no screening programs for it. The length of the affected segment determines the chances of identifying metaplasia, with short (<3 cm) and long (>3 cm) subtypes. The prevalence of Barrett’s oesophagus is estimated to be around 1 in 20, and it is identified in up to 12% of those undergoing endoscopy for reflux.
The columnar epithelium in Barrett’s oesophagus may resemble that of the cardiac region of the stomach or that of the small intestine, with goblet cells and brush border. The single strongest risk factor for Barrett’s oesophagus is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), followed by male gender, smoking, and central obesity. Alcohol is not an independent risk factor for Barrett’s, but it is associated with both GORD and oesophageal cancer. Patients with Barrett’s oesophagus often have coexistent GORD symptoms.
The management of Barrett’s oesophagus involves high-dose proton pump inhibitor, although the evidence base for its effectiveness in reducing the progression to dysplasia or inducing regression of the lesion is limited. Endoscopic surveillance with biopsies is recommended every 3-5 years for patients with metaplasia but not dysplasia. If dysplasia of any grade is identified, endoscopic intervention is offered, such as radiofrequency ablation, which is the preferred first-line treatment, particularly for low-grade dysplasia, or endoscopic mucosal resection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 49
Correct
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A 2-year-old toddler presents to the emergency department with a low-grade fever and difficulty breathing. The mother reports that the toddler has had some nasal discharge for the past two days and started coughing a few hours ago. The toddler has no significant medical history, being born full term at 39 weeks via normal vaginal delivery. The toddler is developmentally normal and received all vaccinations according to the immunisation schedule. During examination, the toddler appears lethargic and has a barking cough. Auscultation reveals an inspiratory stridor bilaterally, with no crepitations or wheezes heard. Air entry is equal bilaterally. The toddler's temperature is 38.3ÂșC, oxygen saturation is 93% based on pulse oximetry, blood pressure is 98/55 mmHg (normal range: SBP 72-140 mmHg; DBP 37-56 mmHg), and the heart rate is 120 beats per minute (normal range: 100-190 beats per minute).
What is the most likely association with this toddler's condition?Your Answer: Steeple sign
Explanation:The infant is displaying symptoms of croup, including a barking cough and inspiratory stridor, which is typical for their age. While chest radiographs are not typically used to diagnose croup, if a neck radiograph is taken, the steeple sign may be present, indicating subglottic narrowing due to inflammation of the larynx and trachea.
The thumb sign, which is indicative of an oedematous epiglottis, is not present in this case, and the infant does not display symptoms of epiglottitis, such as drooling or dysphagia. Additionally, the infant is not in the typical age range for epiglottitis.
The sail sign, which suggests left lower lobe collapse, is not present as the infant has equal bilateral air entry. The coffee bean sign, which is suggestive of sigmoid volvulus, is also not relevant as it typically presents with abdominal pain and distension, rather than respiratory symptoms, and is uncommon in children.
Croup is a respiratory infection that affects young children, typically those between 6 months and 3 years old. It is most common in the autumn and is caused by parainfluenza viruses. The main symptom is stridor, which is caused by swelling and secretions in the larynx. Other symptoms include a barking cough, fever, and cold-like symptoms. The severity of croup can be graded based on the child’s symptoms, with mild cases having occasional coughing and no audible stridor at rest, and severe cases having frequent coughing, prominent stridor, and significant distress or lethargy. Children with moderate or severe croup should be admitted to the hospital, especially if they are under 6 months old or have other airway abnormalities. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical symptoms, but a chest x-ray can show subglottic narrowing. Treatment typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, and emergency treatment may include high-flow oxygen or nebulized adrenaline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 50
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements relating to abnormal coagulation is not true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The prothrombin time is prolonged in Haemophilia A
Explanation:Haemophilia A is characterized by prolonged APTT and reduced levels of factor 8:C, while bleeding time and PT remain normal. Cholestatic jaundice hinders the absorption of vitamin K, which is fat-soluble. Patients who undergo massive transfusions, equivalent to more than 10 units of blood or their entire blood volume, are at risk of thrombocytopenia, as well as deficiencies in factor 5 and 8.
Abnormal coagulation can be caused by various factors such as heparin, warfarin, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and liver disease. Heparin prevents the activation of factors 2, 9, 10, and 11, while warfarin affects the synthesis of factors 2, 7, 9, and 10. DIC affects factors 1, 2, 5, 8, and 11, and liver disease affects factors 1, 2, 5, 7, 9, 10, and 11.
When interpreting blood clotting test results, different disorders can be identified based on the levels of activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), prothrombin time (PT), and bleeding time. Haemophilia is characterized by increased APTT levels, normal PT levels, and normal bleeding time. On the other hand, von Willebrand’s disease is characterized by increased APTT levels, normal PT levels, and increased bleeding time. Lastly, vitamin K deficiency is characterized by increased APTT and PT levels, and normal bleeding time. Proper interpretation of these results is crucial in diagnosing and treating coagulation disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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