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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is admitted for an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) due to biliary colic. She has an uneventful procedure but is re-admitted the same night with severe abdominal pain.
On examination, she is tachycardic, short of breath, and has a pleural effusion on her chest X-ray (CXR).
Investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Result Normal value
C-reactive protein (CRP) 180 mg/l < 10 mg/l
White cell count (WCC) 15.0 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Creatine (Cr) 140 µmol/l 50–120µmol/l
Urea 7.5mmol/l 2.5–6.5mmol/l
Phosphate (PO4-) 1.0mmol/l 0.8–1.5 mmol/l
Corrected Calcium (Ca2+) 0.8 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
What is her most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Reaction to contrast
Correct Answer: Pancreatitis
Explanation:Understanding Complications of ERCP: Pancreatitis, Cholangitis, and More
ERCP (endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography) is a common procedure used to diagnose and treat conditions of the bile ducts and pancreas. However, like any medical procedure, it carries risks and potential complications. One such complication is pancreatitis, which can present with non-specific symptoms but may be accompanied by hypocalcaemia. Immediate management includes confirming the diagnosis and severity of pancreatitis, intravenous fluid resuscitation, oxygen, and adequate analgesia. Another potential complication is ascending cholangitis, which can present with fever, jaundice, and abdominal pain. Biliary perforation is a serious but infrequent complication that is usually recognized during the procedure, while intestinal perforation is not an expected complication. A reaction to contrast would have occurred during the procedure. It is important to understand these potential complications and their symptoms in order to provide prompt and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 2
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to see her GP by her mother. She is noted to be on the 4th centile for weight. Her mother notes that for the past few months her daughter has been tired and passes greasy foul-smelling stools three times a day. Blood tests reveal mild anaemia, positive serum IgA anti-endomysial antibody (EMA-IgA) and very elevated tissue transglutaminase (tTG) levels.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Select the SINGLE most likely cause from the list below. Select ONE option only.Your Answer: Coeliac disease
Explanation:Understanding Coeliac Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Coeliac disease (CD) is a common autoimmune disorder that affects almost 1% of individuals in developed countries. It is triggered by gluten and related prolamins present in wheat, rye, and barley, and primarily affects the small intestine, leading to flattening of the small intestinal mucosa. CD can present in various ways, including typical GI symptoms, atypical symptoms, or no symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made through serology tests for specific autoimmune markers, and treatment involves a lifelong avoidance of gluten ingestion.
Other potential diagnoses, such as travellers’ diarrhoea, growth hormone deficiency, hypothyroidism, and severe combined immunodeficiency, have different clinical presentations and are not consistent with this patient’s symptoms. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of CD is crucial for proper management and improved quality of life for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 3
Correct
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A 62-year-old male presents to the liver clinic with persistently abnormal liver function tests over the past 2 months. He recently completed a course of co-amoxiclav for a respiratory tract infection. The patient has a history of intravenous drug use, hypertension, and type two diabetes mellitus. His BMI is 31 kg/m², and he consumes 15 units of alcohol per week. A liver ultrasound showed increased hepatic echogenicity. The following liver function tests and virology report were obtained:
- Bilirubin: 22 µmol/L (3 - 17)
- ALP: 118 u/L (30 - 100)
- ALT: 170 u/L (5 - 30)
- AST: 63 u/L (10 - 40)
- γGT: 52 u/L (8 - 60)
- Albumin: 32 g/L (35 - 50)
- HBsAg: Negative
- Anti-HBs: Positive
- Anti-HBc: Negative
- Anti-HCV: Negative
- HCV PCR: Negative
What is the most likely cause of this patient's abnormal liver function tests?Your Answer: Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease
Explanation:Abnormal liver function tests in the context of obesity may suggest the presence of non-alcoholic fatty liver disease.
Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It encompasses a range of conditions, from simple steatosis (fat accumulation in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. Insulin resistance is believed to be the primary mechanism leading to steatosis, making NAFLD a hepatic manifestation of metabolic syndrome. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a type of liver damage similar to alcoholic hepatitis but occurs in the absence of alcohol abuse. It affects around 3-4% of the general population and may be responsible for some cases of cryptogenic cirrhosis.
NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels are common features. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score, in combination with a FibroScan, may be used to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.
The mainstay of NAFLD treatment is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. Research is ongoing into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, NICE guidelines recommend the management of incidental NAFLD findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 4
Correct
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A 45-year-old man visits his GP with a 7-month history of abdominal bloating, pain and urgency to defecate in the morning. He has no history of nausea/vomiting, per rectum bleeding, mucus on stools or weight loss. He says that his symptoms become much worse, with worsening constipation, when he is stressed. Physical examination is unremarkable.
Which of the following is the best initial treatment for his symptoms?
Your Answer: Mebeverine
Explanation:Understanding and Managing Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common functional gastrointestinal disorder that affects 10-20% of the population, with women being more likely to develop it than men. It is characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and altered bowel habits without any specific organic pathology.
Diagnosis of IBS is based on the presence of symptoms such as abdominal pain or discomfort, bloating, and change in bowel habit for at least 6 months. Physical examination and further investigations are necessary to exclude other differential diagnoses.
Management of IBS primarily involves psychological support and dietary measures such as fiber supplementation, low FODMAP diets, increased water intake, and avoiding trigger foods. Pharmacological treatment is adjunctive and should be directed at symptoms. Anti-spasmodics, anti-diarrheals, and antidepressants may have a positive effect on symptoms.
It is important to note that symptoms not consistent with IBS, such as rectal bleeding, anorexia/weight loss, nocturnal symptoms, or fecal incontinence, should alert the clinician to the possibility of an organic pathology. Referral for psychological therapies should be considered for patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments after 12 months and who develop a continuing symptom profile.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man who was recently diagnosed with chronic pancreatitis presents to his General Practitioner due to persistent central abdominal pain. This has been present ever since he was admitted to the hospital and diagnosed with chronic pancreatitis; however, he feels that the medication he was prescribed is losing its effects.
The patient is currently on amlodipine, amitriptyline, perindopril and pancreatic enzyme replacement.
Which of the following management options is the best next step to control the patient’s pain?
Select the SINGLE best management plan from the list below.
Select ONE option only.Your Answer: Continue same medication and add duloxetine
Correct Answer: Stop amitriptyline, start duloxetine
Explanation:Managing Neuropathic Pain: Choosing the Right Medication
Neuropathic pain can be a challenging condition to manage, especially when standard analgesia such as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and paracetamol prove ineffective. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, the first-line management of neuropathic pain involves starting the patient on amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin or pregabalin. However, if the first-line drug treatment does not work, one of the other drugs can be tried.
It is important to note that drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used as monotherapy rather than in combinations. Therefore, if a drug does not achieve the desired clinical effect, it should be replaced by another drug rather than adding a new drug to it. Duloxetine is a good next option, but it should replace the amitriptyline rather than be added to it.
Further management of neuropathic pain includes pain management clinics and tramadol as rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain. By choosing the right medication and following appropriate management strategies, patients with neuropathic pain can achieve better pain control and improved quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 6
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman with chronic upper gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms has recently been diagnosed as having a gastric ulcer at endoscopy. No evidence of oesophageal or duodenal pathology was found. Helicobacter pylori testing was positive. She is not allergic to penicillin.
Which of the following treatment regimens would be best suited to her case?Your Answer: A proton pump inhibitor (PPI), amoxicillin and either clarithromycin or metronidazole, followed by a PPI for 4-8 weeks
Explanation:Treatment Options for Helicobacter pylori Infection
Helicobacter pylori is a common bacterial infection that can cause dyspepsia and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD). There are several treatment options available for patients who test positive for H. pylori.
One option is a 7-day course of a proton pump inhibitor (PPI), amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole. This should be followed by a PPI for 4-8 weeks. Patients who are allergic to penicillin and have had previous exposure to clarithromycin should be offered a 7-day course of a PPI, bismuth, metronidazole, and tetracycline.
Long-term PPI and dietary advice alone will not eradicate H. pylori. If symptoms return after initial care strategies for dyspepsia, step down PPI therapy to the lowest dose needed to control symptoms. Patients with GORD should be offered full-dose PPI.
It is important to consult the British National Formulary (BNF) for appropriate doses of each drug, as they may vary. Sucralfate has no role in the eradication of H. pylori.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old obese man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents at the clinic for a review. He is currently asymptomatic but his recent annual blood tests have shown slightly abnormal liver function tests. The results are as follows:
- Bilirubin: 20 µmol/L (3 - 17)
- ALP: 104 u/L (30 - 100)
- ALT: 53 u/L (3 - 40)
- γGT: 58 u/L (8 - 60)
- Albumin: 38 g/L (35 - 50)
A liver ultrasound was conducted and reported fatty changes. All other standard liver screen bloods, including viral serology, are normal. The patient's alcoholic intake is within recommended limits. What is the most appropriate next test to perform?Your Answer: Repeat liver ultrasound after calorific restricted diet for 1 month
Correct Answer: Enhanced liver fibrosis blood test
Explanation:For patients with non-alcoholic fatty liver disease who exhibit characteristics such as obesity and type 2 diabetes mellitus, it is recommended to conduct an enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) test to aid in the diagnosis of liver fibrosis. According to NICE guidelines, if NAFLD is discovered incidentally, an ELF blood test should be conducted to evaluate for the presence of more advanced liver disease.
Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It encompasses a range of conditions, from simple steatosis (fat accumulation in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. Insulin resistance is believed to be the primary mechanism leading to steatosis, making NAFLD a hepatic manifestation of metabolic syndrome. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a type of liver damage similar to alcoholic hepatitis but occurs in the absence of alcohol abuse. It affects around 3-4% of the general population and may be responsible for some cases of cryptogenic cirrhosis.
NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels are common features. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score, in combination with a FibroScan, may be used to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.
The mainstay of NAFLD treatment is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. Research is ongoing into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, NICE guidelines recommend the management of incidental NAFLD findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 8
Correct
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A 20-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of bloating, intermittent abdominal pain, weight loss, and diarrhoea. The serology test shows positive results for IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase (anti-TTG) antibodies. What test is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Jejunal biopsy
Explanation:If coeliac disease is suspected based on serology results, endoscopic intestinal biopsy should be performed in all patients as it is considered the most reliable method for diagnosis, even if the patient exhibits typical symptoms and has tested positive for anti-TTG antibodies which are highly specific and sensitive.
Investigating Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is a condition caused by sensitivity to gluten, which can lead to villous atrophy and malabsorption. It is often associated with other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis of coeliac disease is made through a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy. The gold standard for diagnosis is the biopsy, which should be performed in all patients with suspected coeliac disease to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. The biopsy traditionally takes place in the duodenum, but jejunal biopsies are also sometimes performed. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, an increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes. Serology tests for coeliac disease include tissue transglutaminase antibodies and endomyseal antibodies, while anti-gliadin antibodies are not recommended. Patients who are already on a gluten-free diet should reintroduce gluten for at least six weeks prior to testing. Rectal gluten challenge is not widely used. A gluten-free diet can reverse villous atrophy and immunology in patients with coeliac disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 9
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman comes back from a trip. During her final day overseas, she had lunch from an unlicensed street food vendor. After eight days of returning home, she encounters bloating, abdominal discomfort, and non-bloody diarrhea, and she observes that her stools are floating in the toilet bowl. The patient's symptoms persist for nine weeks. What is the probable pathogen responsible for the patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Giardia
Explanation:Chronic Giardia infection can lead to malabsorption.
Giardia is a type of protozoan that can be transmitted through the ingestion of contaminated fecal matter. While giardiasis typically resolves within a few weeks, if the infection persists for more than six weeks, it is considered chronic. Chronic Giardia infection can cause malabsorption of various nutrients, including vitamin A, B12, iron, zinc, and lipids. This malabsorption can result in steatorrhea, which is characterized by greasy, foul-smelling stools that float in the toilet bowl.
It is important to note that other pathogens, such as Entamoeba histolytica, Escherichia coli, and Salmonella, do not commonly cause malabsorption. While they may cause diarrhea and other gastrointestinal symptoms, they do not typically result in the malabsorption of nutrients.
Understanding Giardiasis
Giardiasis is a condition caused by a type of protozoan called Giardia lamblia. It is transmitted through the faeco-oral route and can be contracted through various means such as foreign travel, drinking water from rivers or lakes, and even male-male sexual contact. While some individuals may not experience any symptoms, others may suffer from non-bloody diarrhea, bloating, abdominal pain, lethargy, flatulence, and weight loss. In severe cases, malabsorption and lactose intolerance may occur. Diagnosis can be made through stool microscopy, stool antigen detection assay, or PCR assays. Treatment typically involves the use of metronidazole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-month history of dull abdominal pain. It is central and occasionally radiates to her back. However, this is not always present and it seems to get worse half an hour after a meal. She denies any vomiting or diarrhoea but confirms that painful episodes are accompanied by nausea.
The patient does not have any past medical history but admits that she has been drinking a glass of wine every night for the past 15 years. An abdominal X-ray is done.
Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following findings are most likely to be seen on the abdominal X-ray?
Select the SINGLE most likely finding from the list below.
Your Answer: Air under the diaphragm
Correct Answer: Pancreatic calcifications
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms of dull, central abdominal pain that worsens after meals and radiates to the back, along with a history of regular alcohol consumption, suggest a diagnosis of chronic pancreatitis. Imaging studies, such as an abdominal X-ray or CT scan, may reveal pancreatic calcifications, which are a common finding in chronic pancreatitis. If imaging is inconclusive, a faecal elastase test may be used to assess pancreatic exocrine function. The presence of the football sign, air under the diaphragm, dilated loops of small bowel, or the Rigler sign on an abdominal X-ray would suggest other conditions such as gastrointestinal perforation or bowel obstruction, which do not fit the patient’s presentation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 11
Correct
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A 68-year-old man with atrial fibrillation (AF) visits the Emergency Room (ER) with complaints of intense abdominal pain that has been ongoing for the past two hours. His arterial blood gas results reveal metabolic acidosis with elevated lactate levels.
What is the most probable diagnosis from the options below?Your Answer: Ischaemic colitis
Explanation:Ischaemic colitis is a condition where a segment of the colon does not receive enough blood supply, resulting in varying degrees of tissue death. It is typically seen in older individuals with atherosclerosis of the mesenteric vessels, but can also be caused by other factors such as embolic disease, vasculitis, and trauma. The main symptom is severe pain that is not proportional to physical exam findings. Serum lactate levels may be elevated, but this does not necessarily indicate GI ischemia. Diagnosis can be confirmed with contrast-enhanced CT or early endoscopy. Prognosis is poor, especially in cases of occlusive mesenteric infarction. Colorectal cancer typically presents with bleeding, change in bowel habits, and abdominal pain, but the patient’s hyperacute onset of symptoms makes this diagnosis unlikely. Diverticulitis is inflammation of a diverticulum in the colon and presents with left lower quadrant pain, but the patient’s other symptoms are not consistent with this diagnosis. Community-acquired pneumonia and pyelonephritis also have different clinical presentations and are not likely in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 12
Correct
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What is the most frequent non-intestinal symptom of Crohn's disease?
Your Answer: Arthritis
Explanation:Both Crohn’s and UC have arthritis as their most common extra-intestinal feature.
Understanding Crohn’s Disease
Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that affects various parts of the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus. Although the exact cause of Crohn’s disease is unknown, there is a strong genetic susceptibility. The disease is characterized by inflammation in all layers of the digestive tract, which can lead to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions. Symptoms of Crohn’s disease typically appear in late adolescence or early adulthood and may include non-specific symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy, diarrhea, abdominal pain, and perianal disease. Extra-intestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and osteoporosis, are also common in patients with Crohn’s disease.
To diagnose Crohn’s disease, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers, increased faecal calprotectin, anemia, and low levels of vitamin B12 and vitamin D. It is important to note that Crohn’s disease shares some extra-intestinal features with ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease. Arthritis is the most common extra-intestinal feature in both Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis, while primary sclerosing cholangitis is much more common in ulcerative colitis. Understanding the symptoms and features of Crohn’s disease can help with early diagnosis and management of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male presents with vomiting and central abdominal pain that radiates to the back. The following laboratory result is obtained:
Amylase 1,245 u/dl. Which medication is the most probable cause of these symptoms?Your Answer: Phenytoin
Correct Answer: Sodium valproate
Explanation:Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is mainly caused by gallstones and alcohol in the UK. A popular mnemonic to remember the causes is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. CT scans of patients with acute pancreatitis show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 14
Correct
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A 25-year-old student presents to his General Practitioner with symptoms of a flu-like illness. He reports not having eaten for the past 48 hours. During examination, mild jaundice is observed, but no other significant physical findings are noted. The patient's total serum bilirubin level is elevated at 60 μmol/l (reference range < 20 μmol/l), while the other liver function tests (LFTs) are normal. Full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes, and haptoglobins are within normal limits. What is the most likely diagnosis for this clinical presentation?
Your Answer: Gilbert syndrome
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis: Jaundice and Abdominal Symptoms
Gilbert Syndrome:
Gilbert syndrome is an inherited condition that can manifest as jaundice on clinical examination. Patients may also experience non-specific symptoms such as abdominal cramps, fatigue, and malaise. Fasting, febrile illness, alcohol, or exercise can exacerbate jaundice in patients with Gilbert syndrome. Diagnosis is based on a thorough history and physical examination, as well as blood tests that show unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia.Haemolytic Anaemia:
Haemolysis is the premature destruction of erythrocytes, which can lead to anaemia if bone marrow activity cannot compensate for erythrocyte loss. Mild haemolysis can be asymptomatic, while severe haemolysis can cause life-threatening symptoms such as angina and cardiopulmonary decompensation. Changes in lactate dehydrogenase and serum haptoglobin levels are the most sensitive general tests for haemolytic anaemia.Hepatitis A:
Hepatitis A is a viral infection that results almost exclusively from ingestion, typically through faecal-oral transmission. Symptoms include fatigue, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. LFT abnormalities are common, and diagnosis is based on serologic testing for immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibody to HAV.Hepatitis B:
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that is transmitted haematogenously and sexually. Symptoms include fatigue, anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. LFT abnormalities are common, and diagnosis is based on serologic testing for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg).Cholecystitis:
Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gall bladder that occurs most commonly because of an obstruction of the cystic duct by gallstones arising from the gall bladder. Symptoms include upper abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Signs of peritoneal irritation may also be present.Conclusion:
In summary, the differential diagnosis of jaundice and abdominal symptoms includes Gilbert syndrome, haemolytic anaemia, hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and cholecystitis. Diagnosis is based on a thorough history and physical examination, as well as blood tests and serologic testing as appropriate. Treatment -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 15
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a patient with Crohn's disease. Which of the following non-intestinal symptoms of Crohn's disease is associated with disease activity?
Your Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum
Correct Answer: Erythema nodosum
Explanation:Understanding Crohn’s Disease
Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that affects various parts of the digestive tract, from the mouth to the anus. Although the exact cause of Crohn’s disease is unknown, there is a strong genetic susceptibility. The disease is characterized by inflammation in all layers of the digestive tract, which can lead to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions. Symptoms of Crohn’s disease typically appear in late adolescence or early adulthood and may include non-specific symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy, diarrhea, abdominal pain, and perianal disease. Extra-intestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and osteoporosis, are also common in patients with Crohn’s disease.
To diagnose Crohn’s disease, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers, increased faecal calprotectin, anemia, and low levels of vitamin B12 and vitamin D. It is important to note that Crohn’s disease shares some extra-intestinal features with ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease. Arthritis is the most common extra-intestinal feature in both Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis, while primary sclerosing cholangitis is much more common in ulcerative colitis. Understanding the symptoms and features of Crohn’s disease can help with early diagnosis and management of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man has been experiencing recurrent epigastric pain for several years. His symptoms improved with a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) but returned after discontinuing the medication. He tested positive for Helicobacter pylori, but his symptoms returned after receiving eradication therapy. He now has unexplained iron deficiency anemia. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer: Prescribe a PPI again
Correct Answer: Refer for endoscopy under the 2-week wait pathway
Explanation:Management of a Patient with ‘Red Flag’ Symptoms: Urgent Referral for Endoscopy
When managing a patient aged over 55 years with ‘red flag’ symptoms such as gastrointestinal bleeding, anorexia, weight loss, dysphagia, or the presence of an epigastric mass, it is crucial to refer them for an urgent endoscopy to exclude serious pathology such as malignancy. In such cases, it would be inappropriate to manage the patient with medication alone, even if a previous trial of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) provided effective symptom relief. While dietary and lifestyle advice could be provided, it would not be an appropriate management strategy as a single intervention. Additionally, retesting for H. pylori would not be necessary as adequate triple therapy for H. pylori eradication has reported high cure rates. The priority in managing such patients is to refer them for urgent endoscopy to ensure timely diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is in a meeting with her clinical team to discuss her ongoing care. The team notes that she has been experiencing weight loss and increased fatigue. The patient reports struggling with chewing and swallowing food, even when it has been mashed or pureed. What is the most suitable long-term management plan for this patient?
Your Answer: Continue with her current dietary regimen
Correct Answer: Insert a percutaneous gastrostomy tube
Explanation:The most appropriate way to provide nutritional support for patients with motor neuron disease is through the insertion of a percutaneous gastrostomy (PEG) tube. If a patient is struggling to feed themselves, they may initially benefit from smaller, more liquid-like meals, but if this is not sufficient, a PEG tube is a definitive long-term management option. Continuing with their current diet regimen is not recommended as it may lead to poor nutrition and a risk of aspiration. Total parenteral nutrition is only used as a last resort when there is impaired nutrient absorption. Inserting a nasogastric tube is not a suitable option as it must be removed after a few weeks to avoid adverse effects. A percutaneous jejunostomy tube is also not recommended as it is less commonly used and harder to maintain than a PEG tube.
Managing Motor Neuron Disease
Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that affects both upper and lower motor neurons. It typically presents after the age of 40 and can manifest in different patterns, such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and bulbar palsy. The cause of the disease is unknown.
One medication used in the management of motor neuron disease is riluzole, which works by preventing the stimulation of glutamate receptors. It is mainly used in cases of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and has been shown to prolong life by approximately three months.
Respiratory care is also an important aspect of managing motor neuron disease. Non-invasive ventilation, usually in the form of BIPAP, is used at night and has been associated with a survival benefit of around seven months.
Nutrition support is also crucial in managing motor neuron disease. The preferred method is percutaneous gastrostomy tube (PEG), which has been linked to prolonged survival.
Unfortunately, the prognosis for motor neuron disease is poor, with 50% of patients dying within three years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman visits your clinic to ask about the national screening programme for colorectal cancer. What is the correct statement regarding this?
Your Answer: Patients after the age of 50 are offered a surveillance colonoscopy every 10 years until 80
Correct Answer: Faecal immunochemical test (FIT) test kits are sent every 2 years to all patients aged 60-74 years in England, 50-74 years in Scotland
Explanation:To screen for colorectal cancer, faecal immunochemical tests (FIT) are utilized. Patients aged 60-74 years in England and 50-74 years in Scotland receive screening kits every 2 years. If the test results are abnormal, the patient is provided with the option of undergoing a colonoscopy.
Colorectal Cancer Screening: Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT)
Colorectal cancer is often developed from adenomatous polyps. Screening for this type of cancer has been proven to reduce mortality by 16%. The NHS offers a home-based screening programme called Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) to older adults. A one-off flexible sigmoidoscopy was trialled in England for people aged 55 years, but it was abandoned in 2021 due to the inability to recruit enough clinical endoscopists, which was exacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic. The trial, partly funded by Cancer Research UK, showed promising early results, and it remains to be seen whether flexible sigmoidoscopy will be used as part of a future bowel screening programme.
Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) Screening:
The NHS now has a national screening programme that offers screening every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood (FOB) test that uses antibodies that specifically recognise human haemoglobin (Hb). It is used to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. FIT has advantages over conventional FOB tests because it only detects human haemoglobin, as opposed to animal haemoglobin ingested through diet. Only one faecal sample is needed compared to the 2-3 for conventional FOB tests. While a numerical value is generated, this is not reported to the patient or GP. Instead, they will be informed if the test is normal or abnormal. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy. At colonoscopy, approximately 5 out of 10 patients will have a normal exam, 4 out of 10 patients will be found to have polyps that may be removed due to their premalignant potential, and 1 out of 10 patients will be found to have cancer. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 19
Correct
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A woman presents with severe vomiting. She reports not being able to keep fluids down for the past 12 hours. You suspect a diagnosis of gastroenteritis and on discussing possible causes she mentions reheating curry with rice the night before. What is the most likely causative organism?
Your Answer: Bacillus cereus
Explanation:Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling, known as travelers’ diarrhea. This condition is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, accompanied by abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of travelers’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Acute food poisoning is another pattern of illness that results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea after ingesting a toxin. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, or Clostridium perfringens are typically responsible for acute food poisoning.
There are several types of infections that can cause gastroenteritis, each with its own typical presentation. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea, while cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration leading to weight loss. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, while Staphylococcus aureus results in severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter typically starts with a flu-like prodrome and progresses to crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus can cause two types of illness, vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, or diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.
The incubation period for gastroenteritis varies depending on the type of infection. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A General Practice is conducting an audit on the number of elderly patients with gastrointestinal symptoms who were referred for endoscopy without a clear clinical indication.
Which of the following intestinal diseases necessitates blood tests and small intestinal biopsy for a precise diagnosis?Your Answer: Whipple’s disease
Correct Answer: Coeliac disease
Explanation:Diagnosing Gastrointestinal Conditions through Biopsy Findings
Biopsy findings play a crucial role in diagnosing various gastrointestinal conditions. However, some conditions require additional proof to confirm the diagnosis. Here are some examples:
Coeliac disease: Biopsy findings may show changes in the small intestine, but they are non-specific. Positive serology for anti-endomysial or anti-gliadin antibodies is needed for confirmation.
Abetalipoproteinemia: This condition can be diagnosed on biopsy findings alone. Clear enterocytes due to lipid accumulation are characteristic.
Intestinal lymphangiectasia: Biopsy findings alone can diagnose primary intestinal lymphangiectasia, which is evidenced by the dilatation of lymphatics of the intestinal mucosa without any evidence of inflammation.
Mycobacterium avium (M avium) infection: Foamy macrophages containing numerous acid-fast bacilli are characteristic of M avium infection and can be diagnosed through biopsy findings alone.
Whipple’s disease: Biopsy findings alone can diagnose Whipple’s disease, which is characterised by swollen macrophages containing numerous periodic acid Schiff (PAS) positive granules due to the glycogen content of bacterial cell walls.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents to the colorectal surgeons with recurrent episodes of bright red rectal bleeding over the past 5 months. During examination, a muco-epithelial defect is observed in the posterior midline of the anus. However, a complete digital rectal exam (DRE) could not be performed due to severe pain. Despite trying bulk-forming laxatives, lubricants, and topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN), the patient has experienced little relief. What is the recommended next step in managing this likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Rubber band ligation
Correct Answer: Sphincterotomy
Explanation:For cases of anal fissures that do not respond to conservative management, sphincterotomy may be considered as the next step. This is likely the case for the patient in question, who has not seen improvement with laxatives, lubricants, and topical GTN. While a high-fibre diet is important in managing anal fissures, it should be initiated alongside other conservative measures. If the patient had a perianal abscess, incision and drainage would be the appropriate treatment. For haemorrhoids, rubber band ligation would be the management, while anal fistulae would require seton insertion.
Understanding Anal Fissures: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Anal fissures are tears in the lining of the distal anal canal that can be either acute or chronic. Acute fissures last for less than six weeks, while chronic fissures persist for more than six weeks. The most common risk factors for anal fissures include constipation, inflammatory bowel disease, and sexually transmitted infections such as HIV, syphilis, and herpes.
Symptoms of anal fissures include painful, bright red rectal bleeding, with around 90% of fissures occurring on the posterior midline. If fissures are found in other locations, underlying causes such as Crohn’s disease should be considered.
Management of acute anal fissures involves softening stool, dietary advice, bulk-forming laxatives, lubricants, topical anaesthetics, and analgesia. For chronic anal fissures, the same techniques should be continued, and topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) is the first-line treatment. If GTN is not effective after eight weeks, surgery (sphincterotomy) or botulinum toxin may be considered, and referral to secondary care is recommended.
In summary, anal fissures can be a painful and uncomfortable condition, but with proper management, they can be effectively treated. It is important to identify and address underlying risk factors to prevent the development of chronic fissures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with right upper quadrant pain, fatigue, and anorexia that has been going on for a few weeks and is getting gradually worse. His past medical history includes heavy alcohol intake, gastroesophageal reflux disease (GORD) and a hiatus hernia. He only takes omeprazole and has no known allergies.
On examination, he looks jaundiced.
A liver function test is done which shows:
Bilirubin 50 µmol/L (3 - 17)
ALT 150 u/L (3 - 40)
AST 300 u/L (8 - 33)
Albumin 35 g/L (35 - 50)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute pancreatitis
Correct Answer: Alcoholic hepatitis
Explanation:Understanding Alcoholic Liver Disease and its Management
Alcoholic liver disease is a range of conditions that includes alcoholic fatty liver disease, alcoholic hepatitis, and cirrhosis. One of the characteristic findings in this disease is an elevated gamma-GT level. Additionally, a ratio of AST:ALT greater than 2, and especially greater than 3, strongly suggests acute alcoholic hepatitis.
When it comes to managing alcoholic hepatitis, glucocorticoids such as prednisolone are often used during acute episodes. The Maddrey’s discriminant function (DF) is used to determine who would benefit from glucocorticoid therapy. This function is calculated using prothrombin time and bilirubin concentration. Pentoxyphylline is also sometimes used as a treatment option.
A study called STOPAH compared the two common treatments for alcoholic hepatitis, pentoxyphylline and prednisolone. The study showed that prednisolone improved survival at 28 days, while pentoxyphylline did not improve outcomes. Understanding the different types of alcoholic liver disease and their management options is crucial for healthcare professionals in providing effective care for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 23
Incorrect
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You assess a 19-year-old female patient in the outpatient medical assessment unit. Over the course of the last four months, she has been experiencing repeated episodes of severe vomiting lasting a few hours, preceded by intense sweating and nausea. She has also noticed a decrease in appetite and a slight loosening of her clothes. She was hospitalized once in the past four months due to dehydration. Her medical history includes migraines, but no psychiatric history. Routine blood tests with her GP and during her previous admission were unremarkable. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease
Correct Answer: Cyclical vomiting syndrome
Explanation:Cyclical Vomiting Syndrome is characterized by severe nausea and vomiting that occurs in distinct episodes lasting from a few hours to a few days. This condition is often associated with migraine and may also result in reduced appetite and weight loss. Unlike Crohn’s disease, which typically presents with diarrhea, abdominal pain, and weight loss, Cyclical Vomiting Syndrome does not involve these symptoms. While nausea and weight loss may be present in Pheochromocytoma, this condition does not typically involve discrete episodes of vomiting. Symptoms such as headaches, tremors, palpitations, and anxiety may also be present in Pheochromocytoma. The episodes of vomiting in Cyclical Vomiting Syndrome are not related to food consumption, making bulimia an unlikely diagnosis.
Understanding Cyclical Vomiting Syndrome
Cyclical vomiting syndrome is a rare condition that is more commonly seen in children than adults. It affects females slightly more than males, and its cause is unknown. However, 80% of children and 25% of adults who develop CVS also have migraines. The condition is characterized by severe nausea and sudden vomiting that can last for hours to days. Patients may experience intense sweating and nausea before an episode, but they are typically well in between episodes. Other symptoms that may be present include weight loss, reduced appetite, abdominal pain, diarrhea, dizziness, photophobia, and headache.
To diagnose CVS, doctors typically perform routine blood tests to exclude any underlying conditions. A pregnancy test may also be considered in women. Treatment for CVS involves avoiding triggers and using prophylactic medications such as amitriptyline, propranolol, and topiramate. During acute episodes, ondansetron, prochlorperazine, and triptans may be used.
Overall, understanding cyclical vomiting syndrome is important for patients and healthcare providers alike. By recognizing the symptoms and seeking appropriate treatment, patients can manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 24
Correct
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A 28-year-old female patient complains of symptoms that suggest coeliac disease. What is the primary test that should be employed for screening individuals with coeliac disease?
Your Answer: Tissue transglutaminase antibodies
Explanation:According to NICE, the initial serological test for coeliac disease should be tissue transglutaminase antibodies.
Investigating Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is a condition caused by sensitivity to gluten, which can lead to villous atrophy and malabsorption. It is often associated with other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis of coeliac disease is made through a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy. The gold standard for diagnosis is the biopsy, which should be performed in all patients with suspected coeliac disease to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. The biopsy traditionally takes place in the duodenum, but jejunal biopsies are also sometimes performed. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, an increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes. Serology tests for coeliac disease include tissue transglutaminase antibodies and endomyseal antibodies, while anti-gliadin antibodies are not recommended. Patients who are already on a gluten-free diet should reintroduce gluten for at least six weeks prior to testing. Rectal gluten challenge is not widely used. A gluten-free diet can reverse villous atrophy and immunology in patients with coeliac disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to the hospital with a flare-up of his condition. He has been experiencing up to five bloody stools per day for the past three days, and has developed abdominal pain and a low-grade fever in the last 24 hours. His blood work shows the following results:
- Hemoglobin: 13.9 g/dL
- Platelets: 422 * 10^9/L
- White blood cells: 10.1 * 10^9/L
- Erythrocyte sedimentation rate: 88 mm/hr
- C-reactive protein: 198 mg/L
What is the most crucial investigation to conduct next?Your Answer: CT abdomen
Correct Answer: Abdominal x-ray
Explanation:It is possible that this individual has developed toxic megacolon, which is characterized by a transverse colon diameter exceeding 6 cm and accompanying symptoms of systemic distress. Treatment for toxic megacolon typically involves intensive medical intervention for a period of 24-72 hours. If there is no improvement in the patient’s condition during this time, a colectomy may be necessary.
Understanding Ulcerative Colitis Flares
Ulcerative colitis is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that can cause flares or periods of worsening symptoms. While most flares occur without a clear trigger, there are several factors that are often associated with them. These include stress, certain medications such as NSAIDs and antibiotics, and even quitting smoking.
Flares of ulcerative colitis can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the frequency and severity of symptoms. Mild flares may involve fewer than four stools a day with or without blood, while moderate flares may include four to six stools a day with minimal systemic disturbance. Severe flares, on the other hand, may involve more than six stools a day containing blood, as well as evidence of systemic disturbance such as fever, tachycardia, abdominal tenderness, distension, reduced bowel sounds, anemia, and hypoalbuminemia.
Patients with evidence of severe disease should be admitted to the hospital for close monitoring and treatment. Understanding the triggers and symptoms of ulcerative colitis flares can help patients manage their condition and seek appropriate medical care when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 26
Correct
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A 50-year-old man visits his doctor with concerns about his recent private medical screening test results. His liver function tests have shown abnormalities, but he has no symptoms and is generally healthy. He admits to consuming approximately 40 units of alcohol per week. The following are his blood test results:
- Bilirubin: 21 µmol/l
- ALP: 100 u/l
- ALT: 67 u/l
- γGT: 110 u/l
- Albumin: 40 g/l
Other blood tests, including FBC, U&Es, and fasting glucose, were normal. An ultrasound of his liver revealed fatty changes. His liver screen showed:
- Hepatitis B: Negative
- Hepatitis C: Negative
- Serum ferritin: 550 microg/L (normal range: 25-300 microg/L)
- Immunoglobulins: Normal
- Transferrin saturation: 41% (normal range: <50%)
What is the most likely underlying cause of the elevated ferritin levels?Your Answer: Alcohol excess
Explanation:The elevated ferritin level can be attributed to the patient’s excessive alcohol consumption, as the typical transferrin saturation rules out iron overload as a potential cause.
Understanding Ferritin Levels in the Body
Ferritin is a protein found inside cells that binds to iron and stores it until it is needed in other parts of the body. When ferritin levels are increased, it is usually defined as being above 300 µg/L in men and postmenopausal women, and above 200 µg/L in premenopausal women. However, it is important to note that ferritin is an acute phase protein, meaning that it can be produced in higher quantities during times of inflammation. This can lead to falsely elevated results, which must be interpreted in the context of the patient’s clinical picture and other blood test results.
There are two main categories of causes for increased ferritin levels: those without iron overload (which account for around 90% of cases) and those with iron overload (which account for around 10% of cases). Causes of increased ferritin levels without iron overload include inflammation, alcohol excess, liver disease, chronic kidney disease, and malignancy. Causes of increased ferritin levels with iron overload include primary iron overload (hereditary hemochromatosis) and secondary iron overload (such as from repeated transfusions). To determine whether iron overload is present, the best test is transferrin saturation, with normal values being less than 45% in females and less than 50% in males.
On the other hand, reduced ferritin levels can indicate a deficiency in iron, which can lead to anemia. When iron and ferritin are bound together, a decrease in ferritin levels can suggest a decrease in iron levels as well. Measuring serum ferritin levels can be helpful in determining whether a low hemoglobin level and microcytosis are truly caused by an iron deficiency state.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old male patient complains of severe pain during defecation for the last two weeks. He has also noticed occasional blood on the toilet paper while wiping. During the examination, a tear is observed on the posterior midline of the anal verge. Which of the following treatment options should not be suggested?
Your Answer: Bulk-forming laxatives
Correct Answer: Topical steroids
Explanation:Studies have demonstrated that topical steroids are not very effective in the treatment of anal fissures.
Understanding Anal Fissures: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Anal fissures are tears in the lining of the distal anal canal that can be either acute or chronic. Acute fissures last for less than six weeks, while chronic fissures persist for more than six weeks. The most common risk factors for anal fissures include constipation, inflammatory bowel disease, and sexually transmitted infections such as HIV, syphilis, and herpes.
Symptoms of anal fissures include painful, bright red rectal bleeding, with around 90% of fissures occurring on the posterior midline. If fissures are found in other locations, underlying causes such as Crohn’s disease should be considered.
Management of acute anal fissures involves softening stool, dietary advice, bulk-forming laxatives, lubricants, topical anaesthetics, and analgesia. For chronic anal fissures, the same techniques should be continued, and topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) is the first-line treatment. If GTN is not effective after eight weeks, surgery (sphincterotomy) or botulinum toxin may be considered, and referral to secondary care is recommended.
In summary, anal fissures can be a painful and uncomfortable condition, but with proper management, they can be effectively treated. It is important to identify and address underlying risk factors to prevent the development of chronic fissures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman complains of dysphagia for the past 3 months, affecting both solids and liquids, accompanied by heartburn symptoms. What could be the probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gastric adenocarcinoma
Correct Answer: Achalasia
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest achalasia, as they have experienced difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids from the beginning.
Understanding Achalasia: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Achalasia is a medical condition characterized by the failure of oesophageal peristalsis and relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter (LOS) due to the degenerative loss of ganglia from Auerbach’s plexus. This results in a contracted LOS and a dilated oesophagus above it. It is a condition that typically presents in middle-age and is equally common in men and women.
The clinical features of achalasia include dysphagia of both liquids and solids, heartburn, regurgitation of food, and variation in the severity of symptoms. If left untreated, it may lead to cough, aspiration pneumonia, and even malignant change in a small number of patients. To diagnose achalasia, oesophageal manometry is considered the most important diagnostic test. It shows excessive LOS tone that doesn’t relax on swallowing. A barium swallow may also be used to show a grossly expanded oesophagus with a fluid level and a ‘bird’s beak’ appearance. A chest x-ray may reveal a wide mediastinum and fluid level.
The treatment of achalasia involves pneumatic (balloon) dilation, which is increasingly becoming the preferred first-line option. It is less invasive and has a quicker recovery time than surgery. However, patients should be a low surgical risk as surgery may be required if complications occur. Surgical intervention with a Heller cardiomyotomy should be considered if recurrent or persistent symptoms occur. In some cases, an intra-sphincteric injection of botulinum toxin may be used in patients who are a high surgical risk. Drug therapy, such as nitrates and calcium channel blockers, may also have a role but is limited by side-effects. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of achalasia is crucial in managing this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 29
Correct
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A 50-year-old female with a history of Sjogren's syndrome presents to the gastroenterology clinic with elevated liver function tests. She reports experiencing fatigue and itching that has worsened over the past 3 months. On physical examination, her abdomen is soft, nontender, and without any organ enlargement. Laboratory results show a low hemoglobin level, normal platelet count and white blood cell count, elevated bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase, and gamma-glutamyl transferase levels, and positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies. What is the initial treatment recommended to halt the progression of her liver disease?
Your Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid
Explanation:Primary biliary cholangitis is a chronic liver disease that primarily affects middle-aged women. It is characterized by the destruction of small bile ducts in the liver, leading to cholestasis and liver damage. The disease is diagnosed through blood tests that measure levels of specific antibodies and liver enzymes, which are highly specific to the condition. Ursodeoxycholic acid is the preferred treatment for slowing disease progression and improving symptoms, while cholestyramine can be used to alleviate itching but does not affect disease progression. In cases of decompensated liver disease, such as when bilirubin levels exceed 100, liver transplantation may be an option. Although recurrence in the graft can occur, it is typically not a significant issue. While fat-soluble vitamins can be supplemented, they are not a primary treatment option.
Primary Biliary Cholangitis: A Chronic Liver Disorder
Primary biliary cholangitis, previously known as primary biliary cirrhosis, is a chronic liver disorder that is commonly observed in middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not yet fully understood, but it is believed to be an autoimmune disease. The disease is characterized by the progressive damage of interlobular bile ducts due to chronic inflammation, leading to cholestasis and eventually cirrhosis. The most common symptom of primary biliary cholangitis is itching in middle-aged women.
This condition is often associated with other autoimmune diseases such as Sjogren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and thyroid disease. Early symptoms of primary biliary cholangitis may be asymptomatic or may include fatigue, pruritus, and cholestatic jaundice. Late symptoms may progress to liver failure. Diagnosis of primary biliary cholangitis involves immunology tests such as anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA) M2 subtype and smooth muscle antibodies, as well as imaging tests to exclude an extrahepatic biliary obstruction.
The first-line treatment for primary biliary cholangitis is ursodeoxycholic acid, which slows down the progression of the disease and improves symptoms. Cholestyramine is used to alleviate pruritus, and fat-soluble vitamin supplementation is recommended. In severe cases, liver transplantation may be necessary, especially if bilirubin levels exceed 100. However, recurrence in the graft can occur, but it is not usually a problem. Complications of primary biliary cholangitis include cirrhosis, portal hypertension, ascites, variceal hemorrhage, osteomalacia, osteoporosis, and an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which one of the following can be utilized for monitoring patients with colorectal cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carcinoembryonic antigen
Explanation:Carcinoembryonic antigen can be utilized for post-operative recurrence monitoring in patients or evaluating the effectiveness of treatment in those with metastatic disease.
Colorectal Cancer Screening: Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT)
Colorectal cancer is often developed from adenomatous polyps. Screening for this type of cancer has been proven to reduce mortality by 16%. The NHS offers a home-based screening programme called Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) to older adults. A one-off flexible sigmoidoscopy was trialled in England for people aged 55 years, but it was abandoned in 2021 due to the inability to recruit enough clinical endoscopists, which was exacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic. The trial, partly funded by Cancer Research UK, showed promising early results, and it remains to be seen whether flexible sigmoidoscopy will be used as part of a future bowel screening programme.
Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) Screening:
The NHS now has a national screening programme that offers screening every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood (FOB) test that uses antibodies that specifically recognise human haemoglobin (Hb). It is used to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. FIT has advantages over conventional FOB tests because it only detects human haemoglobin, as opposed to animal haemoglobin ingested through diet. Only one faecal sample is needed compared to the 2-3 for conventional FOB tests. While a numerical value is generated, this is not reported to the patient or GP. Instead, they will be informed if the test is normal or abnormal. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy. At colonoscopy, approximately 5 out of 10 patients will have a normal exam, 4 out of 10 patients will be found to have polyps that may be removed due to their premalignant potential, and 1 out of 10 patients will be found to have cancer. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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