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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old woman presents to your GP clinic with a complaint of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to your GP clinic with a complaint of a malodorous discharge from her left ear for the last 2 weeks. She also reports experiencing some hearing loss in her left ear and suspects it may be due to earwax. However, upon examination, there is no earwax present but instead a crust on the lower portion of the tympanic membrane. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Otitis externa

      Correct Answer: Cholesteatoma

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with unilateral foul smelling discharge and deafness, it is important to consider the possibility of a cholesteatoma. If this is suspected during examination, it is necessary to refer the patient to an ENT specialist.

      Pain is a common symptom of otitis media, while otitis externa typically causes inflammation and swelling of the ear canal. Impacted wax can lead to deafness, but it is unlikely to cause a discharge with a foul odor. It is also improbable for a woman of 45 years to have a foreign object in her ear for three weeks.

      Understanding Cholesteatoma

      Cholesteatoma is a benign growth of squamous epithelium that can cause damage to the skull base. It is most commonly found in individuals between the ages of 10 and 20 years old. Those born with a cleft palate are at a higher risk of developing cholesteatoma, with a 100-fold increase in risk.

      The main symptoms of cholesteatoma include a persistent discharge with a foul odor and hearing loss. Other symptoms may occur depending on the extent of the growth, such as vertigo, facial nerve palsy, and cerebellopontine angle syndrome.

      During otoscopy, a characteristic attic crust may be seen in the uppermost part of the eardrum.

      Management of cholesteatoma involves referral to an ear, nose, and throat specialist for surgical removal. Early detection and treatment are important to prevent further damage to the skull base and surrounding structures.

      In summary, cholesteatoma is a non-cancerous growth that can cause significant damage if left untreated. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention promptly if they occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      14.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 49-year-old man experiences blunt force trauma to the head and subsequently experiences...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man experiences blunt force trauma to the head and subsequently experiences respiratory distress, leading to hypercapnia. What is the most probable consequence of this condition?

      Your Answer: Shunting of blood to peripheral tissues will occur in preference to CNS perfusion

      Correct Answer: Cerebral vasodilation

      Explanation:

      Cerebral vasodilation is a common result of hypercapnia, which can be problematic for patients with cranial trauma due to the potential increase in intracranial pressure.

      Understanding the Monro-Kelly Doctrine and Autoregulation in the CNS

      The Monro-Kelly doctrine governs the pressure within the cranium by considering the skull as a closed box. The loss of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) can accommodate increases in mass until a critical point is reached, usually at 100-120ml of CSF lost. Beyond this point, intracranial pressure (ICP) rises sharply, and pressure will eventually equate with mean arterial pressure (MAP), leading to neuronal death and herniation.

      The central nervous system (CNS) has the ability to autoregulate its own blood supply through vasoconstriction and dilation of cerebral blood vessels. However, extreme blood pressure levels can exceed this capacity, increasing the risk of stroke. Additionally, metabolic factors such as hypercapnia can cause vasodilation, which is crucial in ventilating head-injured patients.

      It is important to note that the brain can only metabolize glucose, and a decrease in glucose levels can lead to impaired consciousness. Understanding the Monro-Kelly doctrine and autoregulation in the CNS is crucial in managing intracranial pressure and preventing neurological damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 27-year-old woman, who has had eczema and asthma since childhood, comes for...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman, who has had eczema and asthma since childhood, comes for her yearly asthma check-up. She has been using her salbutamol inhaler more frequently over the last 3 months and is concerned that it may be due to getting a new kitten. In allergic asthma, which cell is present in excessive amounts?

      Your Answer: Eosinophils

      Explanation:

      The patient’s medical background indicates that she may have atopic asthma. It is probable that her symptoms have worsened and she has had to use more salbutamol reliever due to an allergy to her new kitten’s animal dander.

      Individuals with allergic asthma have been found to have increased levels of eosinophils in their airways. The severity of asthma is linked to the number of eosinophils present, as they contribute to long-term airway inflammation by causing damage, blockages, and hyperresponsiveness.

      The immediate symptoms of asthma after exposure are caused by mast cell degranulation.

      Asthma is a common respiratory disorder that affects both children and adults. It is characterized by chronic inflammation of the airways, resulting in reversible bronchospasm and airway obstruction. While asthma can develop at any age, it typically presents in childhood and may improve or resolve with age. However, it can also persist into adulthood and cause significant morbidity, with around 1,000 deaths per year in the UK.

      Several risk factors can increase the likelihood of developing asthma, including a personal or family history of atopy, antenatal factors such as maternal smoking or viral infections, low birth weight, not being breastfed, exposure to allergens and air pollution, and the hygiene hypothesis. Patients with asthma may also suffer from other atopic conditions such as eczema and hay fever, and some may be sensitive to aspirin. Occupational asthma is also a concern for those exposed to allergens in the workplace.

      Symptoms of asthma include coughing, dyspnea, wheezing, and chest tightness, with coughing often worse at night. Signs may include expiratory wheezing on auscultation and reduced peak expiratory flow rate. Diagnosis is typically made through spirometry, which measures the volume and speed of air during exhalation and inhalation.

      Management of asthma typically involves the use of inhalers to deliver drug therapy directly to the airways. Short-acting beta-agonists such as salbutamol are the first-line treatment for relieving symptoms, while inhaled corticosteroids like beclometasone dipropionate and fluticasone propionate are used for daily maintenance therapy. Long-acting beta-agonists like salmeterol and leukotriene receptor antagonists like montelukast may also be used in combination with other medications. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is a newer approach that combines ICS and a fast-acting LABA in a single inhaler for both daily maintenance and symptom relief. Recent guidelines recommend offering a leukotriene receptor antagonist instead of a LABA for patients on SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled, and considering MART for those with poorly controlled asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which one of the following statements relating to the root of the spine...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements relating to the root of the spine is false?

      Your Answer: The roots and trunks of the Brachial plexus lie posterior to the subclavian artery on the first rib

      Correct Answer: The subclavian artery arches over the first rib anterior to scalenus anterior

      Explanation:

      The suprapleural membrane, also known as Sibson’s fascia, is located above the pleural cavity. The scalenus anterior muscle is positioned in front of the subclavian vein, while the subclavian artery is situated behind it.

      Thoracic Outlet: Where the Subclavian Artery and Vein and Brachial Plexus Exit the Thorax

      The thoracic outlet is the area where the subclavian artery and vein and the brachial plexus exit the thorax and enter the arm. This passage occurs over the first rib and under the clavicle. The subclavian vein is the most anterior structure and is located immediately in front of scalenus anterior and its attachment to the first rib. Scalenus anterior has two parts, and the subclavian artery leaves the thorax by passing over the first rib and between these two portions of the muscle. At the level of the first rib, the lower cervical nerve roots combine to form the three trunks of the brachial plexus. The lowest trunk is formed by the union of C8 and T1, and this trunk lies directly posterior to the artery and is in contact with the superior surface of the first rib.

      Thoracic outlet obstruction can cause neurovascular compromise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 20-year-old man presents to the emergency department with diabetic ketoacidosis. After early...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old man presents to the emergency department with diabetic ketoacidosis. After early treatment, an arterial blood gas is taken, which shows the following results.

      ABG result - temperature 35.0 ºC:

      pH 7.30 (7.35 - 7.45)
      PaCO2 3.5 kPa (4.7 - 6.0)
      PaO2 10 kPa (11 - 13)
      HCO3- 16 mEq/L (22 - 26)
      Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 3.3 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)

      What physiological change is occurring in this patient?

      Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis is causing a decreased affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen

      Explanation:

      In acidosis, the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to the right, indicating a decrease in affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen. This is due to an increase in the number of [H+] ions, reflecting greater metabolic activity. Low [H+] levels cause a shift to the left. The low HCO3- in this patient can be explained by metabolic acidosis, but it does not cause a shift in the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve. Hypokalaemia may be a result of treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis, but it does not cause a shift in the oxygen dissociation curve. When temperature increases, the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve also shifts to the right, causing a decrease in haemoglobin affinity for oxygen. Hypothermia causes a shift to the left, indicating an increased affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen.

      Understanding the Oxygen Dissociation Curve

      The oxygen dissociation curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. It is not influenced by the concentration of haemoglobin. The curve can shift to the left or right, indicating changes in oxygen delivery to tissues. When the curve shifts to the left, there is increased saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, resulting in decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Conversely, when the curve shifts to the right, there is reduced saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, leading to enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues.

      The L rule is a helpful mnemonic to remember the factors that cause a shift to the left, resulting in lower oxygen delivery. These factors include low levels of hydrogen ions (alkali), low partial pressure of carbon dioxide, low levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, and low temperature. On the other hand, the mnemonic ‘CADET, face Right!’ can be used to remember the factors that cause a shift to the right, leading to raised oxygen delivery. These factors include carbon dioxide, acid, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, exercise, and temperature.

      Understanding the oxygen dissociation curve is crucial in assessing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and the delivery of oxygen to tissues. By knowing the factors that can shift the curve to the left or right, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions in managing patients with respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      57
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 49-year-old woman of African descent visits her primary care physician with concerns...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman of African descent visits her primary care physician with concerns about a lump in her neck that has been present for a week. She reports no significant increase in size and denies any pain or difficulty swallowing. The patient has no notable medical history, except for a visit to the eye doctor last year for a red-eye that required treatment with topical steroid drops. During the examination, the doctor observes some red, tender nodules on the patient's shin, which the patient says come and go and do not cause much discomfort. A chest x-ray reveals bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy with no other significant findings. What is typically linked to this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Elevated angiotensin-converting enzyme levels

      Explanation:

      Sarcoidosis is likely in this patient based on their symptoms and examination findings, including a neck lump, tender nodules on the shin, and a history of red-eye. Bilateral lymphadenopathy on chest X-ray further supports the diagnosis, as does the presence of elevated angiotensin-converting enzyme levels, which are commonly seen in sarcoidosis. Hypercalcemia, fatigue, and uveitis are also associated with sarcoidosis, while exposure to silica is not supported by this patient’s presentation.

      Investigating Sarcoidosis

      Sarcoidosis is a disease that does not have a single diagnostic test, and therefore, diagnosis is mainly based on clinical observations. Although ACE levels may be used to monitor disease activity, they are not reliable in diagnosing sarcoidosis due to their low sensitivity and specificity. Routine blood tests may show hypercalcemia and a raised ESR.

      A chest x-ray is a common investigation for sarcoidosis and may reveal different stages of the disease. Stage 0 is normal, stage 1 shows bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (BHL), stage 2 shows BHL and interstitial infiltrates, stage 3 shows diffuse interstitial infiltrates only, and stage 4 shows diffuse fibrosis. Other investigations, such as spirometry, may show a restrictive defect, while a tissue biopsy may reveal non-caseating granulomas. However, the Kveim test, which involves injecting part of the spleen from a patient with known sarcoidosis under the skin, is no longer performed due to concerns about cross-infection.

      In addition, a gallium-67 scan is not routinely used to investigate sarcoidosis. CT scans may also be used to investigate sarcoidosis, and they may show diffuse areas of nodularity predominantly in a peribronchial distribution with patchy areas of consolidation, particularly in the upper lobes. Ground glass opacities may also be present, but there are no gross reticular changes to suggest fibrosis.

      Overall, investigating sarcoidosis involves a combination of clinical observations, blood tests, chest x-rays, and other investigations such as spirometry and tissue biopsy. CT scans may also be used to provide more detailed information about the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 33-year-old male presents to the ED with coughing and wheezing following an...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old male presents to the ED with coughing and wheezing following an episode of alcohol intoxication. Upon examination, decreased breath sounds are noted on one side. Imaging reveals a foreign body obstructing an airway structure. What is the most probable location for this foreign body to be lodged?

      Your Answer: Right superior lobar bronchus

      Correct Answer: Right mainstem bronchus

      Explanation:

      It is rare for a foreign object to become lodged in the left mainstem bronchus due to its greater angle compared to the right mainstem bronchus. A tracheal obstruction would cause reduced breath sounds bilaterally, not just on one side. The right superior lobar bronchus is also unlikely to be affected due to its angle and direction. Therefore, foreign bodies typically get stuck in the right mainstem bronchus in adults because of its wider diameter and lesser angle.

      Anatomy of the Lungs

      The lungs are a pair of organs located in the chest cavity that play a vital role in respiration. The right lung is composed of three lobes, while the left lung has two lobes. The apex of both lungs is approximately 4 cm superior to the sternocostal joint of the first rib. The base of the lungs is in contact with the diaphragm, while the costal surface corresponds to the cavity of the chest. The mediastinal surface contacts the mediastinal pleura and has the cardiac impression. The hilum is a triangular depression above and behind the concavity, where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the viscus. The right main bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left main bronchus. The inferior borders of both lungs are at the 6th rib in the mid clavicular line, 8th rib in the mid axillary line, and 10th rib posteriorly. The pleura runs two ribs lower than the corresponding lung level. The bronchopulmonary segments of the lungs are divided into ten segments, each with a specific function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A man in his early fifties comes in with a painful rash caused...

    Incorrect

    • A man in his early fifties comes in with a painful rash caused by herpes on the external auditory meatus. He also has facial palsy on the same side, along with deafness, tinnitus, and vertigo. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bell's palsy

      Correct Answer: Ramsay Hunt syndrome

      Explanation:

      Ramsay Hunt syndrome is characterized by a combination of Bell’s palsy facial paralysis, along with symptoms such as a herpetic rash, deafness, tinnitus, and vertigo. It is important to note that the rash may not always be visible, despite being present.

      While Bell’s palsy may present with facial paralysis, it does not typically involve the presence of herpetic rashes.

      Understanding Ramsay Hunt Syndrome

      Ramsay Hunt syndrome, also known as herpes zoster oticus, is a condition that occurs when the varicella zoster virus reactivates in the geniculate ganglion of the seventh cranial nerve. The first symptom of this syndrome is often auricular pain, followed by facial nerve palsy and a vesicular rash around the ear. Other symptoms may include vertigo and tinnitus.

      To manage Ramsay Hunt syndrome, doctors typically prescribe oral acyclovir and corticosteroids. These medications can help reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old woman with a recent diagnosis of COPD is admitted to the...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman with a recent diagnosis of COPD is admitted to the hospital for treatment of an exacerbation caused by infection. She reports smoking 10 cigarettes per day and has a family history of lung cancer. Her chest x-ray shows signs of emphysema, and she mentions that her parents and siblings also have the disease. She asks for advice on the best course of action to improve her prognosis.

      Your Answer: Stop smoking

      Explanation:

      The most crucial step to enhance the patient’s prognosis is to assist them in quitting smoking. While lung reduction surgery and long-term oxygen therapy may benefit certain patient groups, smoking cessation remains the top priority. Proper inhaler technique and adherence, as well as the use of home nebulizers, can provide symptomatic relief for the patient.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenzae vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.

      Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.

      If the patient does not have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.

      NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.

      Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE does not recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old female smoker presents with acute severe asthma.

    The patient's SaO2 levels...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female smoker presents with acute severe asthma.

      The patient's SaO2 levels are at 91% even with 15 L of oxygen, and her pO2 is at 8.2 kPa (10.5-13). There is widespread expiratory wheezing throughout her chest.

      The medical team administers IV hydrocortisone, 100% oxygen, and 5 mg of nebulised salbutamol and 500 micrograms of nebulised ipratropium, but there is little response. Nebulisers are repeated 'back-to-back,' but the patient remains tachypnoeic with wheezing, although there is good air entry.

      What should be the next step in the patient's management?

      Your Answer: Oral prednisolone

      Correct Answer: IV Magnesium

      Explanation:

      Acute Treatment of Asthma

      When dealing with acute asthma, the initial approach should be SOS, which stands for Salbutamol, Oxygen, and Steroids (IV). It is also important to organize a CXR to rule out pneumothorax. If the patient is experiencing bronchoconstriction, further efforts to treat it should be considered. If the patient is tiring or has a silent chest, ITU review may be necessary. Magnesium is recommended at a dose of 2 g over 30 minutes to promote bronchodilation, as low magnesium levels in bronchial smooth muscle can favor bronchoconstriction. IV theophylline may also be considered, but magnesium is typically preferred. While IV antibiotics may be necessary, promoting bronchodilation should be the initial focus. IV potassium may also be required as beta agonists can push down potassium levels. Oral prednisolone can wait, as IV hydrocortisone is already part of the SOS approach. Non-invasive ventilation is not recommended for the acute management of asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      25.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory System (4/10) 40%
Passmed